ISSA-Certified-Personal-Trainer-Program
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| What is the definition of behavior? • An experience that a client will have with a trainer. • An event that has a beginning, middle, and end. • An action that can be observed, measured, and modified. • An action that builds rapport and community. | show 🗑
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| What stage of change is someone in if they are in denial or ignorant to the fact that a change may be necessary? • Action • Pre-contemplation • Preparation • Maintenance | show 🗑
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| show | Intrinsic motivation
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| show | Autonomy
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| Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question? • Have you ever seen a doctor for a heart condition? • Do you want to begin your fitness program today? • How did you first notice that you were gaining weight? • Is your favorite color blue?" | show 🗑
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| What type of goal is focused on the necessary steps to achieve it? • Personal goal • Process goal • Private goal • Outcome goal | show 🗑
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| What does the "A" in SMART goals stand for? • Achievable • Absurd • Associated • Addressing | show 🗑
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| What type of goal is open to interpretation by the client as opposed to being supported by measurable data? • A SMART goal • A subjective goal • An objective goal • A motivational goal | show 🗑
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| show | Feedback
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| show | Action
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| show | The Nervous System, Muscular System, and Skeletal System
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| show | Motor neurons
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| What is the peripheral nervous system (PNS) responsible for? • Receiving sensory input and organizing, analyzing, and processing neural information. • Conveying motor commands, carrying sensory information to the CNS, and regulating involuntary functions. • Sending motor commands to muscle tissue, regulating voluntary functions, and creating reflexes. • Regulating involuntary functions, Sending motor signals to the muscles, and visual sensory interpretation. | show 🗑
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| Where in the brain does most information processing occur? • Cerebrum • Cerebellum • Cerebral Cortex • Medulla oblongata | show 🗑
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| Which type of muscle is the most common in the human body? • Skeletal muscle • Cardiac muscle • Smooth muscle • Autonomic muscle | show 🗑
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| Which type of muscle fiber derives its energy primarily from aerobic energy pathways? • Type IIx muscle fibers • Type II b muscle fibers • Type IIa muscle fibers • Type I muscle fibers | show 🗑
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| show | Shoulder girdle
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| show | Long bones
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| What does the Golgi tendon organ detect and respond to in the muscle? • The electrical activity of a muscle. • Changes in muscle tension. • Muscular time under tension. • The rate and force of muscle stretch. | show 🗑
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| The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) are examples of what type of ligament? • Intrinsic ligaments • Extrinsic ligaments • Capsular ligaments • Elastic ligaments | show 🗑
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| show | The Circulatory System
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| Blood vessels are comprised of which type of muscle tissue? • Type II muscle fibers • Cardiac muscle • Skeletal muscle • Smooth muscle | show 🗑
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| show | Arteries
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| show | Right atrium
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| During the cardiac cycle, what is the name of the contraction phase of the heartbeat? • Systole • Fibrillation • Diastole • Arrythmia | show 🗑
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| During exercise, which organ system regulates fluid volume and pressure in body tissues? • The Circulatory System • The Lymphatic System • The Endocrine System • The Integumentary System | show 🗑
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| What is the process of external respiration? • The exchange of gases from the blood to the interstitial fluid and body tissues. • The exchange of gases in the chambers of the heart. • The exchange of gases from the arteries to the capillaries. The exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood in the lungs. | show 🗑
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| Which endocrine hormone promotes the breakdown of protein in muscle cells? • Cortisol • Aldosterone • Glucagon • Insulin | show 🗑
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| Which of the following is an effect of long-term cortisol elevation in the body? • Increases appetite • Enhances the brain's use of glucose • Reduces inflammation • Reduces unnecessary bodily functions during stress | show 🗑
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| Which component of the digestive system performs both mechanical digestion and chemical digestion? • The liver • The small intestine • The mouth • The esophagus | show 🗑
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| show | Proximal
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| Which anatomical term refers to a movement that increases the angle between two body parts? • Extension • Depression • Flexion • Circumduction | show 🗑
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| Which anatomical plane divides the body into left and right halves? • Sagittal plane • Transverse plane • Rotational plane • Frontal plane | show 🗑
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| Which of the following joints should have more mobility? • Lumbar spine • Knee • Cervical spine • Shoulder | show 🗑
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| show | Rolling friction
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| show | Subscapularis
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| show | Spinalis, Longissimus, and Iliocostalis
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| What is the muscle action of the rectus femoris? • Internal rotation of the hip and flexion of the knee. • External rotation of the hip and adduction of the upper leg. • Extension of the hip and flexion of the knee. • Flexion of the hip and extension of the knee. | show 🗑
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| What is the most superficial muscle of the posterior calf? • Gastrocnemius • Soleus • Tibialis anterior • Tibialis posterior | show 🗑
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| show | Pectoralis major
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| Where in the cell do the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain occur? • Mitochondria • Nucleus • Cytoplasm • Lysosome | show 🗑
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| What two values are required to calculate the respiratory quotient (RQ)? • Volume of carbon dioxide the lungs can hold, and volume of oxygen exhaled. • Volume of carbon dioxide inhaled, and volume of oxygen exhaled. • Volume of carbon dioxide exhaled, and volume of oxygen inhaled. • Volume of oxygen exhaled, and ATP created. | show 🗑
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| What is the respiratory quotient (RQ) for carbohydrates? • 1.0 • 0.8 • 0.7 • 0.9 | show 🗑
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| show | Anaerobic glycolysis
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| show | Lactic acid
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| What is the point at which the body switches from metabolism requiring oxygen to primarily anaerobic metabolism called? • ATP threshold • Lactate threshold • Anaerobic threshold • Aerobic threshold | show 🗑
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| show | Oxidative energy pathway
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| How many Calories (Cal) per gram are in fat? • 3 Cal • 9 Cal • 4 Cal • 7 Cal | show 🗑
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| show | Daily calorie expenditure (DCE)
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| What is the general recommendation for a daily calorie deficit for someone working to lose bodyfat? • 100 to 300 Calories • 200 to 500 Calories • 500 to 700 Calories • 600 to 800 Calories | show 🗑
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| show | Subjective assessments
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| What document should a personal trainer collect from a client to show they are ready to begin an exercise program and explain any restrictions or limitations they have? • Physician's letter of clearance • PAR-Q • Health history questionnaire • Liability waiver | show 🗑
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| What does body composition measure? • Fat mass and lean body mass • Fat mass and total body water • Lean body mass and total body water • Lean body mass and bone mass | show 🗑
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| show | 17 to 25 percent
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| What type of muscular assessment is the push-up test? • Muscular strength assessment • Muscular size assessment • Muscular endurance assessment • Muscular metabolic assessment | show 🗑
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| show | Foot and ankle, knee, hips, spine, shoulders, neck and head
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| Which spinal deviation is characterized by the excessive curvature of the thoracic spine? • Kyphosis • Lordosis • Sway back • Scoliosis | show 🗑
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| What postural and movement deviation occurs when the knees excessively bow outward away from the midline? • Knee hyperextension • Knee flexion • Knee varus • Knee valgus | show 🗑
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| During the overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscle is likely underactive (weak) if the heels elevate? • Gastrocnemius • Gluteus maximus • Soleus • Tibialis anterior | show 🗑
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| During the squat or overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles are likely overactive (tight) if knee valgus occurs? • Vastus medialis • Adductors • Gluteus maximus • Gastrocnemius | show 🗑
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| Which of the five components of fitness is described as the physical makeup of the body considering fat mass and lean mass? • Cardiovascular endurance • Muscular strength • Flexibility • Body composition | show 🗑
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| show | Increases bone density
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| show | General warm-up
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| Which element of a fitness program trains the body to be explosive, fast, and agile? • Reactive training • Balance training • Cardiorespiratory training • Flexibility training | show 🗑
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| What is the definition of agility as it relates to the element of reactive training? • The ability to react and change body position with maximum rate of force production • The ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction with proper posture • The ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible • The ability to move a joint in a full range of motion without pain or impingement | show 🗑
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| show | Steady-state exercise
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| Which of the following is a known benefit of interval training? • Strengthening of the left ventricle of the heart • Improvement in muscular coordination • Decreased oxidative capacity of skeletal muscles • Decreased average stroke volume of the heart | show 🗑
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| show | Muscular strength
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| Which of the following is a measure commonly used to determine the intensity of cardiorespiratory exercise? • Minimum heart rate • Rate of perceived exertion (RPE) • Respiration rate • Resting heart rate | show 🗑
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| show | Increased muscle size
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| show | How an exercise or training program is performed.
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| Which acute training variable is the equipment, methods, or technique used to complete an activity? • Tempo • Frequency • Type • Time | show 🗑
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| show | Intensity
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| A training intensity of 67 percent or less is most closely related to which training adaptation? • Maximum strength • Hypertrophy • Muscular endurance • Power | show 🗑
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| show | 6 to 12 repetitions
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| What does the "F" in the FITT Principle stand for? • Frequency • Foundation • Flexibility • Fascial | show 🗑
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| show | Principle of variability
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| What is the final stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)? • Stimulus • Resistance • Alarm • Exhaustion | show 🗑
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| show | Strength training
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| What condition is the result of the accumulation of stress from both training and non-training activities resulting in short-term decreases in performance? • Overreaching • Overtraining • Over-exhaustion • Overtraining syndrome (OTS) | show 🗑
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| Which of the following is a known benefit of flexibility training? • Decreased balance • Decreased postural control • Decreased joint range of motion • Decreased chronic pain | show 🗑
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| What is dynamic stretching? • Lengthening a muscle and holding the lengthened position • Movement-based active stretching where muscles engage to bring about a stretch • The activation of a muscle to actively stretch another muscle • The use of an external force to move a joint to the end of a range of motion | show 🗑
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| show | Static or pre-contraction stretching
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| What type of inhibition do myofascial release techniques rely on to decrease the excitability of muscle tissue? • Allosteric inhibition • Automatic inhibition • Autogenic inhibition • Autonomic inhibition | show 🗑
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| show | Dynamic stretching
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| show | Range of motion
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| show | A client moving their shoulder through flexion and extension
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| show | Ballistic stretching
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| show | Intensity and time
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| In most cases, how long should a static stretch be held? • 90 to 120 seconds • 5 to 15 seconds • 60 to 90 seconds • 10 to 30 seconds | show 🗑
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| show | Improves sleep
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| Which acute training variables are included in the FITT Principle as it relates to cardiorespiratory training? • Frequency, Intervals, Tempo, Time • Form, Intensity, Time, Type • Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type • Frequency, Intensity, Time Under Tension, Type | show 🗑
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| show | The measure of the ratio of a person's energy expenditure to their mass during physical activity.
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| According to the modified Rate of Perceived Exertion (RPE) chart, what intensity equates to maximum exertion during cardiorespiratory exercise? • RPE 1 • RPE 10 • RPE 5 to 6 • RPE 7 to 8 | show 🗑
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| show | Increase speed
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| show | Below 3,000 mL
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| show | Brisk walk (3.5 to 4 mph)
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| What does (1) MET equal to? • A person's heart rate when at rest. • A person's breathing rate when at rest. • A person's metabolic rate during exercise. • A person's metabolic rate when at rest. | show 🗑
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| show | Lactate threshold
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| The formula 220 minus age is commonly used to estimate what cardiorespiratory information? • Maximum heart rate • Ventilatory threshold • Vital capacity • V02 max | show 🗑
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| Which strength category is defined as a combination of strength and speed? • Power • Maximum strength • Starting strength • Relative strength | show 🗑
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| show | Resting blood pressure
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| Which strength curve most accurately represents a squatting exercise? • Bell-shaped strength curve • Descending strength curve • Flat strength curve • Ascending strength curve | show 🗑
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| show | General exercises
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| show | 30 to 70 percent reduction in training volume
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| For resistance training, how is intensity expressed? • Percentage of maximum breathing rate • Percentage of target heart rate • Percentage of 1RM • Percentage of maximum heart rate | show 🗑
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| What training goal is promoted when resistance training intensity is below 67 percent of 1RM? • Muscular endurance • Maximum strength • Power • Hypertrophy | show 🗑
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| show | Grip
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| show | Resistance band
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| show | Plank
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| What is an exercise progression? • Modifications to acute training variables that increase the challenge of a movement pattern. • Modifications to acute training variables that decrease the challenge of a movement pattern. • Modifications to acute training variables that expedite training adaptations. • Modifications to acute training variables that make an exercise impossible to execute. | show 🗑
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| show | Nonverbal communication
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| What type of learner learns best when they can see the information being taught? • Visual learners • Kinesthetic learners • Auditory learners • Fast learners | show 🗑
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| Which if the following is advised when giving verbal cues to increase client understanding? • Use anatomical terminology. • Give constant feedback. • Speak quickly. • Use simplified language. | show 🗑
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| Which of the following exercises is categorized as a hinge movement? • Deadlift • Push up • Squat • Biceps curl | show 🗑
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| Which movement category includes upper body exercises in which the arms themselves or the arms and a tool are moved away from the body? • Squat • Hinge • Push • Pull | show 🗑
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| show | Latissimus dorsi
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| What type of exercises are often single-joint movements that can promote muscular adaptations like strength and hypertrophy? • Activation exercises • Isolation exercises • Isometric exercises • Compound exercises | show 🗑
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| Which movement dysfunction occurs when a synergist muscle takes over a movement pattern when an agonist fails? • Synergistic dominance • Altered arthrokinematics • Altered kinetics • Muscle synergies | show 🗑
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| show | 1.5 to 4 feet
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| show | Antioxidants
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| show | Offer general nutrition guidance and recommendations
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| Which type of carbohydrate is broken down and converted to energy in the body the quickest? • Simple carbohydrates • Fiber • Complex carbohydrates • Raw carbohydrates | show 🗑
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| show | Starchy vegetables
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| Which type of fats have been found to increase an individual's risk for coronary artery disease when consumed in excess? • Polyunsaturated fat • Trans fat • Monounsaturated fat • Omega-3 fatty acid | show 🗑
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| Which of the following foods has the highest number of grams of fat per 100 grams of food? • Plain yogurt • Cashews • Cheesecake • Vegetable oil | show 🗑
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| Approximately what percentage of the average adult's total body weight is water? • 60 percent • 75 percent • 80 percent • 55 percent | show 🗑
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| Which of the following is the recommended portion size for a serving of protein for a male? • One fist • Two thumbs • Two palms • One palm | show 🗑
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| show | One thumb
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| What are nutritional limiting factors? • The limited availability of nutritious foods to some clients who live in food deserts. • The nutritional choices a client makes that keep them from making progress or seeing results. • The limited nutritional options available to a client who cannot afford fresh foods. • The nutritional choices a client makes that drives fitness success and promotes optimal health. | show 🗑
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| show | Creatine monohydrate
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| Which of the following animal-based protein sources has the highest bioavailability in the human body? • Whey protein isolate • Beef • Chicken • Casein isolate | show 🗑
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| show | Brussel sprouts
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| Which of the following is a food source of the mineral calcium? • Dairy • Rye • Olives • Turkey | show 🗑
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| Which of the following is a function of sodium in the body? • Immune function • Fluid balance • Reproduction • Fat metabolism | show 🗑
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| show | Iron deficiency
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| Which of the following is a food source of vitamin E? • Citrus • Fish • Peanuts • Eggs | show 🗑
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| show | The small intestine
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| When selecting a multivitamin, what information should be considered? • Sex and height • Sex and age • Age and height • Eating pattern and age | show 🗑
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| show | 95 percent
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| show | 140/90 mm Hg
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| What chronic disease was the DASH diet created to combat? • High blood pressure • Type 2 diabetes • Heart disease • Dementia | show 🗑
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| What is the role of insulin in the human body? • Insulin binds to adipose tissue and promotes the release of glycogen from the cells. • Insulin promotes gastric emptying and the breakdown of macronutrients. • Insulin binds to cells and restricts the uptake of glucose from the blood. • Insulin binds to target cells and promotes the uptake of glucose from the blood. | show 🗑
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| What condition is characterized as a degenerative joint disease caused by wear and tear on the joints? • Osteoarthritis (OA) • Fibromyalgia (FM) • Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) • Gout | show 🗑
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| show | Cycling, swimming, group exercise class, and brisk walking.
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| show | The enlargement and stiffening of the heart.
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| Which chronic health condition can be caused by pollen, mold, smoke, and air pollution? • Arthritis • Heart disease • Diabetes • Asthma | show 🗑
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| What is the most common symptom of coronary artery disease (CAD)? • Dizziness • Angina • Skin discoloration • Shortness of breath | show 🗑
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| show | Lesser toe joints, ankle, and knee.
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| show | Rheumatoid arthritis
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| At what age may youth begin implementing circuit training and strength exercises with light free weights and low intensity? • 7 to 8 years • 11 to 14 years • 15 to 18 years • 10 to 13 years | show 🗑
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| Approximately what percentage of adults over the age of 65 are living with at least one chronic health condition? • 40 percent • 30 percent • 80 percent • 60 percent | show 🗑
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| show | Resistance training
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| For senior populations, what does the back scratch fitness assessment measure? • Muscular strength • Hand-eye coordination • Lower body flexibility • Upper body flexibility | show 🗑
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| show | 150 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise and three days of strengthening exercise weekly.
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| show | Premature labor
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| show | Maintaining current health status
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| Approximately what percentage of the world's population has a condition that disables them? • 5 percent • 25 percent • 15 percent • 30 percent | show 🗑
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| Which of the following is a physiological change that occurs in pregnant women that can affect how they exercise? • Respiratory rate decreases. • Elasticity of muscles, tendons, and ligaments decreases. • Lung capacity increases. • Resting heart rate increases. | show 🗑
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| Which fitness assessment for senior populations measures the amount of time needed for an individual to stand up from a seated position and walk eight feet? • Chair sit and reach • Eight foot up and go • Two-minute step test • 30-second chair stand | show 🗑
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| show | Hybrid training
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| show | Virtual training
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| When utilizing emails to communicate with clients, what is the ideal length of an email? • 50 to 125 words • 75 to 200 words • 300 to 500 words • 150 to 225 words | show 🗑
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| show | An email that explains the trainer's mission, philosophies, and more about themselves.
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| show | A series of emails that gather client information and assessments to begin a training program.
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| show | General nutrition guidance
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| In marketing, what is the phrase "Sign up now!" an example of? • Call to service • Lead enticement • Call to action • Request for purchase | show 🗑
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| show | Client persona
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| show | Group exercise
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| Which style of personal training requires a fitness professional to consider camera quality, lighting, and the available exercise equipment? • In-person training • Small group training • Large group training • Virtual training | show 🗑
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| According to the CDC, what is the definition of disinfecting? • Cleaning and killing germs on surfaces to bring the microbe level to an acceptable range. • Removing dirt and impurities from a surface with a detergent and water. • Killing germs and viruses on surfaces with the use of chemicals. • Removing stains from surfaces and clothing. | show 🗑
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| show | CPR/ AED
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| show | Chronic injury
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| Which of the following is often included in a first aid kit? • Pencils • Adhesive bandages • Lip balm • Heating pad | show 🗑
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| Which of the following emergency situations requires a fitness professional to call 911 immediately? • Low blood sugar • A minor cut • An unconscious person • Headache | show 🗑
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| What type of acute injury occurs in a muscle? • Sprain • Strain • Fracture • Dislocation | show 🗑
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| show | Chest pain
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| What tool in a first aid kit can be used to remove debris from a wound? • Tweezers • First aid tape • Thermometer • Analgesics | show 🗑
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| show | An emergency exit plan
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| show | Heat stroke
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