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CPT Quizzes
ISSA-Certified-Personal-Trainer-Program
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is the definition of behavior? • An experience that a client will have with a trainer. • An event that has a beginning, middle, and end. • An action that can be observed, measured, and modified. • An action that builds rapport and community. | An action that can be observed, measured, and modified. |
| What stage of change is someone in if they are in denial or ignorant to the fact that a change may be necessary? • Action • Pre-contemplation • Preparation • Maintenance | Pre-contemplation |
| What type of motivation is driven by personal enjoyment and satisfaction? • Extrinsic motivation • Intrinsic motivation • External motivation • Independent motivation | Intrinsic motivation |
| Which psychological need in the Self-Determination Theory (SDT) is described as the basic need to feel in control of one's own behavior and goals? • Relatedness • Motivation • Autonomy • Competence | Autonomy |
| Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question? • Have you ever seen a doctor for a heart condition? • Do you want to begin your fitness program today? • How did you first notice that you were gaining weight? • Is your favorite color blue?" | How did you first notice that you were gaining weight? |
| What type of goal is focused on the necessary steps to achieve it? • Personal goal • Process goal • Private goal • Outcome goal | Process goal |
| What does the "A" in SMART goals stand for? • Achievable • Absurd • Associated • Addressing | Achievable |
| What type of goal is open to interpretation by the client as opposed to being supported by measurable data? • A SMART goal • A subjective goal • An objective goal • A motivational goal | A subjective goal |
| When communicating with clients, what type of communication must be constructive and effective to improve competence? • Introductions • Feedback • General conversation • Praise | Feedback |
| What stage of change is someone in if they are engaging in a new behavior and have been doing so for less than six months? • Action (the correct answer) • Pre-contemplation • Preparation • Maintenance | Action |
| Which human organ systems are responsible for human movement? • The Muscular System, Circulatory System, and Skeletal System • The Nervous System, Muscular System, and Endocrine System • The Muscular System, Digestive System, and Nervous System • The Nervous System, Muscular System, and Skeletal System | The Nervous System, Muscular System, and Skeletal System |
| Which classification of neurons initiate muscle contraction and activate glands? • Interneurons • Motor neurons • Sensory neurons • Dendrites | Motor neurons |
| What is the peripheral nervous system (PNS) responsible for? • Receiving sensory input and organizing, analyzing, and processing neural information. • Conveying motor commands, carrying sensory information to the CNS, and regulating involuntary functions. • Sending motor commands to muscle tissue, regulating voluntary functions, and creating reflexes. • Regulating involuntary functions, Sending motor signals to the muscles, and visual sensory interpretation. | Conveying motor commands, carrying sensory information to the CNS, and regulating involuntary functions. |
| Where in the brain does most information processing occur? • Cerebrum • Cerebellum • Cerebral Cortex • Medulla oblongata | Cerebral Cortex |
| Which type of muscle is the most common in the human body? • Skeletal muscle • Cardiac muscle • Smooth muscle • Autonomic muscle | Skeletal muscle |
| Which type of muscle fiber derives its energy primarily from aerobic energy pathways? • Type IIx muscle fibers • Type II b muscle fibers • Type IIa muscle fibers • Type I muscle fibers | Type I muscle fibers |
| Which of the following is included in the appendicular skeleton? • Skull • Ribs • Shoulder girdle • Spine | Shoulder girdle |
| Which type of bone supports the weight of the body and facilitates movement? • Irregular bones • Sesamoid bones • Short bones • Long bones | Long bones |
| What does the Golgi tendon organ detect and respond to in the muscle? • The electrical activity of a muscle. • Changes in muscle tension. • Muscular time under tension. • The rate and force of muscle stretch. | Changes in muscle tension. |
| The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) are examples of what type of ligament? • Intrinsic ligaments • Extrinsic ligaments • Capsular ligaments • Elastic ligaments | Intrinsic ligaments |
| The heart and blood vessels are the components of which human organ system? • The Circulatory System • The Muscular System • The Endocrine System • The Respiratory System | The Circulatory System |
| Blood vessels are comprised of which type of muscle tissue? • Type II muscle fibers • Cardiac muscle • Skeletal muscle • Smooth muscle | Smooth muscle |
| Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart? • Venules • Arteries • Veins • Capillaries | Arteries |
| Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood from the body? • Right atrium • Left atrium • Right ventricle • Left ventricle | Right atrium |
| During the cardiac cycle, what is the name of the contraction phase of the heartbeat? • Systole • Fibrillation • Diastole • Arrythmia | Systole |
| During exercise, which organ system regulates fluid volume and pressure in body tissues? • The Circulatory System • The Lymphatic System • The Endocrine System • The Integumentary System | The Lymphatic System |
| What is the process of external respiration? • The exchange of gases from the blood to the interstitial fluid and body tissues. • The exchange of gases in the chambers of the heart. • The exchange of gases from the arteries to the capillaries. The exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood in the lungs. | The exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood in the lungs. |
| Which endocrine hormone promotes the breakdown of protein in muscle cells? • Cortisol • Aldosterone • Glucagon • Insulin | Cortisol |
| Which of the following is an effect of long-term cortisol elevation in the body? • Increases appetite • Enhances the brain's use of glucose • Reduces inflammation • Reduces unnecessary bodily functions during stress | Increases appetite |
| Which component of the digestive system performs both mechanical digestion and chemical digestion? • The liver • The small intestine • The mouth • The esophagus | The mouth |
| What anatomical term is described as a position closer to the center of the body relative to a reference point? • Distal • Proximal • Supine • Inferior | Proximal |
| Which anatomical term refers to a movement that increases the angle between two body parts? • Extension • Depression • Flexion • Circumduction | Extension |
| Which anatomical plane divides the body into left and right halves? • Sagittal plane • Transverse plane • Rotational plane • Frontal plane | Sagittal plane |
| Which of the following joints should have more mobility? • Lumbar spine • Knee • Cervical spine • Shoulder | Shoulder |
| A medicine ball rolling across the floor is an example of what type of friction? • Gravitational friction • Rolling friction • Sliding friction • Static friction | Rolling friction |
| Which of the following is a muscle of the shoulder? • Subscapularis • Biceps femoris • Brachioradialis • External oblique | Subscapularis |
| Which three muscles make up the erector spinae group? • Longissimus, Spinalis, and Rhomboids • Spinalis, Longissimus, and Iliocostalis • Quadratus lumborum, Spinalis, and Multifidus • External obliques, Iliocostalis, and Spinalis | Spinalis, Longissimus, and Iliocostalis |
| What is the muscle action of the rectus femoris? • Internal rotation of the hip and flexion of the knee. • External rotation of the hip and adduction of the upper leg. • Extension of the hip and flexion of the knee. • Flexion of the hip and extension of the knee. | Flexion of the hip and extension of the knee. |
| What is the most superficial muscle of the posterior calf? • Gastrocnemius • Soleus • Tibialis anterior • Tibialis posterior | Gastrocnemius |
| What is the largest muscle of the chest? • Serratus anterior • Pectoralis major • Pectoralis minor • Subclavius | Pectoralis major |
| Where in the cell do the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain occur? • Mitochondria • Nucleus • Cytoplasm • Lysosome | Mitochondria |
| What two values are required to calculate the respiratory quotient (RQ)? • Volume of carbon dioxide the lungs can hold, and volume of oxygen exhaled. • Volume of carbon dioxide inhaled, and volume of oxygen exhaled. • Volume of carbon dioxide exhaled, and volume of oxygen inhaled. • Volume of oxygen exhaled, and ATP created. | Volume of carbon dioxide exhaled, and volume of oxygen inhaled. |
| What is the respiratory quotient (RQ) for carbohydrates? • 1.0 • 0.8 • 0.7 • 0.9 | 1.0 |
| Which energy pathway is dominant for activity generally lasting 10 seconds to 2 minutes? • Anaerobic glycolysis • ATP/CP • Oxidative energy pathway • Lactate | Anaerobic glycolysis |
| What is the primary by-product of anaerobic glycolysis? • Water • Heat • Lactic acid • Hydrogen | Lactic acid |
| What is the point at which the body switches from metabolism requiring oxygen to primarily anaerobic metabolism called? • ATP threshold • Lactate threshold • Anaerobic threshold • Aerobic threshold | Anaerobic threshold |
| The Krebs cycle and electron transport chain are steps in which energy pathway? • Anaerobic glycolysis • Oxidative energy pathway • ATP/CP • Gluconeogenesis | Oxidative energy pathway |
| How many Calories (Cal) per gram are in fat? • 3 Cal • 9 Cal • 4 Cal • 7 Cal | 9 Cal |
| The Harris-Benedict equation incorporates the resting metabolic rate and an activity level factor to determine what metabolic information? • Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) • Thermic effect of food (TEF) • Daily calorie expenditure (DCE) • Total exercise expenditure (TEE) | Daily calorie expenditure (DCE) |
| What is the general recommendation for a daily calorie deficit for someone working to lose bodyfat? • 100 to 300 Calories • 200 to 500 Calories • 500 to 700 Calories • 600 to 800 Calories | 200 to 500 Calories |
| What type of client assessments are based on observations and opinions? • Subjective assessments • Body composition assessments • Objective assessments • Cognitive assessments | Subjective assessments |
| What document should a personal trainer collect from a client to show they are ready to begin an exercise program and explain any restrictions or limitations they have? • Physician's letter of clearance • PAR-Q • Health history questionnaire • Liability waiver | Physician's letter of clearance |
| What does body composition measure? • Fat mass and lean body mass • Fat mass and total body water • Lean body mass and total body water • Lean body mass and bone mass | Fat mass and lean body mass |
| What is the average bodyfat percentage for males? • 10 to 15 percent • 25 to 31 percent • 17 to 25 percent • 12 to 20 percent | 17 to 25 percent |
| What type of muscular assessment is the push-up test? • Muscular strength assessment • Muscular size assessment • Muscular endurance assessment • Muscular metabolic assessment | Muscular endurance assessment |
| From bottom to top, what are the six kinetic chain checkpoints? • Foot and ankle, knee, hips, pelvis, head, neck • Foot and ankle, knee, hips, spine, shoulders, neck and head • Foot and ankle, knee, pelvis, shoulders, cervical spine, head • Foot and ankle, hips, lumbar spine, shoulders, cervical spine, nec | Foot and ankle, knee, hips, spine, shoulders, neck and head |
| Which spinal deviation is characterized by the excessive curvature of the thoracic spine? • Kyphosis • Lordosis • Sway back • Scoliosis | Kyphosis |
| What postural and movement deviation occurs when the knees excessively bow outward away from the midline? • Knee hyperextension • Knee flexion • Knee varus • Knee valgus | Knee varus |
| During the overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscle is likely underactive (weak) if the heels elevate? • Gastrocnemius • Gluteus maximus • Soleus • Tibialis anterior | Tibialis anterior |
| During the squat or overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles are likely overactive (tight) if knee valgus occurs? • Vastus medialis • Adductors • Gluteus maximus • Gastrocnemius | Adductors |
| Which of the five components of fitness is described as the physical makeup of the body considering fat mass and lean mass? • Cardiovascular endurance • Muscular strength • Flexibility • Body composition | Body composition |
| Which of the following is a known benefit of improving muscular strength? • Improves stamina • Helps regulate blood sugar • Increases bone density • Promotes brain health | Increases bone density |
| What type of warm-up is simple and aims to increase blood flow, respiration, body temperature, and neural activation of major muscle groups? • Dynamic warm-up • General warm-up • Static warm-up • No warm-up | General warm-up |
| Which element of a fitness program trains the body to be explosive, fast, and agile? • Reactive training • Balance training • Cardiorespiratory training • Flexibility training | Reactive training |
| What is the definition of agility as it relates to the element of reactive training? • The ability to react and change body position with maximum rate of force production • The ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction with proper posture • The ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible • The ability to move a joint in a full range of motion without pain or impingement | The ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction with proper posture |
| What type of cardiorespiratory training is performed at a fixed level of exertion? • Circuit training • High-intensity interval training • Interval training • Steady-state exercise | Steady-state exercise |
| Which of the following is a known benefit of interval training? • Strengthening of the left ventricle of the heart • Improvement in muscular coordination • Decreased oxidative capacity of skeletal muscles • Decreased average stroke volume of the heart | Strengthening of the left ventricle of the heart |
| Which of the five components of fitness is described as the measure of force produced by a muscle or group of muscles? • Muscular endurance • Muscular strength • Flexibility • Cardiovascular endurance | Muscular strength |
| Which of the following is a measure commonly used to determine the intensity of cardiorespiratory exercise? • Minimum heart rate • Rate of perceived exertion (RPE) • Respiration rate • Resting heart rate | Rate of perceived exertion (RPE) |
| Which of the following is an adaptation from plyometric exercise? • Increased muscle size • Decreased muscle size • Decreased involuntary nervous reflexes • Decreased intermuscular coordination | Increased muscle size |
| In fitness, what do acute training variables determine? • How an exercise or training program is performed. • When an exercise or training program is performed. • Why an exercise or training program is performed. • Where an exercise or training program is performed. | How an exercise or training program is performed. |
| Which acute training variable is the equipment, methods, or technique used to complete an activity? • Tempo • Frequency • Type • Time | Type |
| The load used for a resistance training exercise is most closely related to which actute training variable? • Intensity • Tempo • Range of motion • Type | Intensity |
| A training intensity of 67 percent or less is most closely related to which training adaptation? • Maximum strength • Hypertrophy • Muscular endurance • Power | Muscular endurance |
| For the training adaptation of muscle hypertrophy, what is the recommended number of repetitions per set? • 1 to 6 repetitions • 6 to 12 repetitions • More than 15 repetitions • 1 to 5 repetitions | 6 to 12 repetitions |
| What does the "F" in the FITT Principle stand for? • Frequency • Foundation • Flexibility • Fascial | Frequency |
| Which principle of fitness states that acute training variables must be changed periodically to prevent plateaus, injuries, and boredom? • Principle of specificity • Principle of individual differences • Principle of progressive overload • Principle of variability | Principle of variability |
| What is the final stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)? • Stimulus • Resistance • Alarm • Exhaustion | Exhaustion |
| Resistance training is included in which category of training? • Speed, agility, and quickness (SAQ) • Foundational training • Strength training • Metabolic training | Strength training |
| What condition is the result of the accumulation of stress from both training and non-training activities resulting in short-term decreases in performance? • Overreaching • Overtraining • Over-exhaustion • Overtraining syndrome (OTS) | Overreaching |
| Which of the following is a known benefit of flexibility training? • Decreased balance • Decreased postural control • Decreased joint range of motion • Decreased chronic pain | Decreased chronic pain |
| What is dynamic stretching? • Lengthening a muscle and holding the lengthened position • Movement-based active stretching where muscles engage to bring about a stretch • The activation of a muscle to actively stretch another muscle • The use of an external force to move a joint to the end of a range of motion | Movement-based active stretching where muscles engage to bring about a stretch |
| In a flexibility training protocol, which of the following should be executed after a training session? • Static or pre-contraction stretching • Dynamic stretching • General warm-up • Specific warm-up | Static or pre-contraction stretching |
| What type of inhibition do myofascial release techniques rely on to decrease the excitability of muscle tissue? • Allosteric inhibition • Automatic inhibition • Autogenic inhibition • Autonomic inhibition | Autogenic inhibition |
| Which type of stretching should mirror the movements that will be performed in an upcoming activity? • Static stretching • Passive stretching • Ballistic stretching • Dynamic stretching | Dynamic stretching |
| What term is defined as the measurement of movement around a specific joint or body part? • Range of motion • Resisted range of motion • Passive flexibility • Muscle action | Range of motion |
| Which of the following is an example of an active range of motion? • A physical therapist moving a client's shoulder through flexion and extension • A client moving their shoulder through flexion and extension • A client using a wall to stretch their pectoral muscles • A client using a stretching strap to stretch their hamstring | A client moving their shoulder through flexion and extension |
| What type of stretching uses bouncing and the momentum of the body or limb to force it beyond a normal range of motion? • Dynamic stretching • Static stretching • Ballistic stretching • Active stretching | Ballistic stretching |
| What are the two most important acute training variables related to flexibility training? • Intensity and time • Type and repetitions • Intensity and repetitions • Time and tempo | Intensity and time |
| In most cases, how long should a static stretch be held? • 90 to 120 seconds • 5 to 15 seconds • 60 to 90 seconds • 10 to 30 seconds | 10 to 30 seconds |
| Which of the following is a known benefit of cardiorespiratory training? • Improves sleep • Increases depression • Increases fatigue • Reduces mental acuity | Improves sleep |
| Which acute training variables are included in the FITT Principle as it relates to cardiorespiratory training? • Frequency, Intervals, Tempo, Time • Form, Intensity, Time, Type • Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type • Frequency, Intensity, Time Under Tension, Type | Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type |
| What is a metabolic equivalent (MET)? • The quantitative and subjective measure of exertion during physical activity. • The measure of the ratio of a person's energy expenditure to their mass during physical activity. • The ratio of how the body is using carbohydrates compared to fats as a fuel source during exercise. • The ability to speak during exercise as a gauge of the relative intensity. | The measure of the ratio of a person's energy expenditure to their mass during physical activity. |
| According to the modified Rate of Perceived Exertion (RPE) chart, what intensity equates to maximum exertion during cardiorespiratory exercise? • RPE 1 • RPE 10 • RPE 5 to 6 • RPE 7 to 8 | RPE 10 |
| During cardiorespiratory training, how can speed be modified to increase training intensity? • Maintain speed • Increase speed • Reduce speed • Vary speed | Increase speed |
| What vital capacity reading is considered low and a potential symptom of a respiratory problem? • Below 6,000 mL • Below 4,000 mL • Below 3,000 mL • Below 5,000 mL | Below 3,000 mL |
| Which of the following activities has a MET value between 3.0 and 6.0? • Brisk walk (3.5 to 4 mph) • Competitive soccer • Yoga • Sitting at a desk | Brisk walk (3.5 to 4 mph) |
| What does (1) MET equal to? • A person's heart rate when at rest. • A person's breathing rate when at rest. • A person's metabolic rate during exercise. • A person's metabolic rate when at rest. | A person's metabolic rate when at rest. |
| What other cardiorespiratory efficiency measure can be estimated by the ventilatory threshold? • Maximum heart rate • Lactate threshold • Anaerobic threshold • Glucose threshold | Lactate threshold |
| The formula 220 minus age is commonly used to estimate what cardiorespiratory information? • Maximum heart rate • Ventilatory threshold • Vital capacity • V02 max | Maximum heart rate |
| Which strength category is defined as a combination of strength and speed? • Power • Maximum strength • Starting strength • Relative strength | Power |
| Strength training has been found to reduce which resting biological measure? • Resting breathing rate • Resting metabolic rate • Resting heart rate • Resting blood pressure | Resting blood pressure |
| Which strength curve most accurately represents a squatting exercise? • Bell-shaped strength curve • Descending strength curve • Flat strength curve • Ascending strength curve | Ascending strength curve |
| What type of foundational exercises promote overall strength adaptations without necessarily translating to performance or skill development? • General exercises • Accessory exercises • Compound exercises • Specific exercises | General exercises |
| During a taper, how much should training volume be reduced while exercise intensity remains at or above competition (maximal) levels? • 50 to 80 percent reduction in training volume • 70 to 80 percent reduction in training volume • 10 to 20 percent reduction in training volume • 30 to 70 percent reduction in training volume | 30 to 70 percent reduction in training volume |
| For resistance training, how is intensity expressed? • Percentage of maximum breathing rate • Percentage of target heart rate • Percentage of 1RM • Percentage of maximum heart rate | Percentage of 1RM |
| What training goal is promoted when resistance training intensity is below 67 percent of 1RM? • Muscular endurance • Maximum strength • Power • Hypertrophy | Muscular endurance |
| During resistance training, what sub-variable is related to exercise type? • Tempo • Grip • Intensity • Time under tension | Grip |
| Which of the following is equipment with variable resistance? • Resistance band • Kettlebell • Barbell • Dumbbell | Resistance band |
| Which of the following is an example of a static resistance exercise? • Squat • Bench press • Plank • Biceps curl | Plank |
| What is an exercise progression? • Modifications to acute training variables that increase the challenge of a movement pattern. • Modifications to acute training variables that decrease the challenge of a movement pattern. • Modifications to acute training variables that expedite training adaptations. • Modifications to acute training variables that make an exercise impossible to execute. | Modifications to acute training variables that increase the challenge of a movement pattern. |
| Body language, spatial relations, and paralanguage are all examples of what type of communication? • Verbal communication • Visual communication • Nonverbal communication • Kinesthetic communication | Nonverbal communication |
| What type of learner learns best when they can see the information being taught? • Visual learners • Kinesthetic learners • Auditory learners • Fast learners | Visual learners |
| Which if the following is advised when giving verbal cues to increase client understanding? • Use anatomical terminology. • Give constant feedback. • Speak quickly. • Use simplified language. | Use simplified language. |
| Which of the following exercises is categorized as a hinge movement? • Deadlift • Push up • Squat • Biceps curl | Deadlift |
| Which movement category includes upper body exercises in which the arms themselves or the arms and a tool are moved away from the body? • Squat • Hinge • Push • Pull | Push |
| What is the agonist at the shoulder during an upper body vertical pulling movement? • Posterior deltoid • Latissimus dorsi • Pectoralis major • Trapezius | Latissimus dorsi |
| What type of exercises are often single-joint movements that can promote muscular adaptations like strength and hypertrophy? • Activation exercises • Isolation exercises • Isometric exercises • Compound exercises | Isolation exercises |
| Which movement dysfunction occurs when a synergist muscle takes over a movement pattern when an agonist fails? • Synergistic dominance • Altered arthrokinematics • Altered kinetics • Muscle synergies | Synergistic dominance |
| According to the study of proxemics, what is considered a personal distance between two people? • 4 to 12 feet • 12 to 20 feet • 0 to 18 inches • 1.5 to 4 feet | 1.5 to 4 feet |
| Which category of nutrients protect the body from free radicals and the cellular damage they cause? • Macronutrients • Protein • Electrolytes • Antioxidants | Antioxidants |
| In which of the following ways can a certified personal trainer help a client with nutrition? • Offer general nutrition guidance and recommendations. • Write meal plans that support the client's fitness goals. • Diagnose a food allergy for a client. • Give nutrition advice to treat a client's chronic health condition. | Offer general nutrition guidance and recommendations |
| Which type of carbohydrate is broken down and converted to energy in the body the quickest? • Simple carbohydrates • Fiber • Complex carbohydrates • Raw carbohydrates | Simple carbohydrates |
| Which of the following is an example of a complex carbohydrate? • Fruit • White bread • Starchy vegetables • Candy | Starchy vegetables |
| Which type of fats have been found to increase an individual's risk for coronary artery disease when consumed in excess? • Polyunsaturated fat • Trans fat • Monounsaturated fat • Omega-3 fatty acid | Trans fat |
| Which of the following foods has the highest number of grams of fat per 100 grams of food? • Plain yogurt • Cashews • Cheesecake • Vegetable oil | Vegetable oil |
| Approximately what percentage of the average adult's total body weight is water? • 60 percent • 75 percent • 80 percent • 55 percent | 60 percent |
| Which of the following is the recommended portion size for a serving of protein for a male? • One fist • Two thumbs • Two palms • One palm | Two palms |
| Which of the following is the recommended portion size for a serving of fats for a female? • One palm • Two thumbs • One fist • One thumb | One thumb |
| What are nutritional limiting factors? • The limited availability of nutritious foods to some clients who live in food deserts. • The nutritional choices a client makes that keep them from making progress or seeing results. • The limited nutritional options available to a client who cannot afford fresh foods. • The nutritional choices a client makes that drives fitness success and promotes optimal health. | The nutritional choices a client makes that keep them from making progress or seeing results. |
| Which of the following is an example of a performance supplement? • Vitamin D • Biotin • Multivitamin • Creatine monohydrate | Creatine monohydrate |
| Which of the following animal-based protein sources has the highest bioavailability in the human body? • Whey protein isolate • Beef • Chicken • Casein isolate | Whey protein isolate |
| Which of the following is a good source of Vitamin C? • Brussel sprouts • Seafood • Sunlight • Nuts and seeds | Brussel sprouts |
| Which of the following is a food source of the mineral calcium? • Dairy • Rye • Olives • Turkey | Dairy |
| Which of the following is a function of sodium in the body? • Immune function • Fluid balance • Reproduction • Fat metabolism | Fluid balance |
| According to the World Health Organization, what is one of the most common nutrient deficiencies worldwide? • Iron deficiency • Calcium deficiency • Vitamin C deficiency • Vitamin A deficiency | Iron deficiency |
| Which of the following is a food source of vitamin E? • Citrus • Fish • Peanuts • Eggs | Peanuts |
| Where in the digestive tract are amino acids absorbed? • The large intestine • The ascending colon • The stomach • The small intestine | The small intestine |
| When selecting a multivitamin, what information should be considered? • Sex and height • Sex and age • Age and height • Eating pattern and age | Sex and age |
| In a normal, healthy adult, what percent of food consumed is absorbed in the GI tract? • 75 percent • 50 percent • 95 percent • 80 percent | 95 percent |
| What minimum consistent blood pressure reading is associated with the condition of hypertension? • 120/80 mm Hg • 130/80 mm Hg • 140/90 mm Hg • 120/90 mm Hg | 140/90 mm Hg |
| What chronic disease was the DASH diet created to combat? • High blood pressure • Type 2 diabetes • Heart disease • Dementia | High blood pressure |
| What is the role of insulin in the human body? • Insulin binds to adipose tissue and promotes the release of glycogen from the cells. • Insulin promotes gastric emptying and the breakdown of macronutrients. • Insulin binds to cells and restricts the uptake of glucose from the blood. • Insulin binds to target cells and promotes the uptake of glucose from the blood. | Insulin binds to target cells and promotes the uptake of glucose from the blood. |
| What condition is characterized as a degenerative joint disease caused by wear and tear on the joints? • Osteoarthritis (OA) • Fibromyalgia (FM) • Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) • Gout | Osteoarthritis (OA) |
| Which of the following exercises are recommended for a client with arthritis? • Swimming, yoga, interval training, and circuit training. • Running, stair-climbing, high-impact aerobics, and calisthenics. • Cycling, swimming, group exercise class, and brisk walking. • High-intensity interval training, cycling, jogging, and kickboxing. | Cycling, swimming, group exercise class, and brisk walking. |
| What is the definition of the heart condition of cardiomyopathy? • Narrowing of the coronary arteries. • The enlargement and stiffening of the heart. • Weakness of the heart muscle that reduces blood flow. • Narrowing or stiffness of the blood vessels in the extremities. | The enlargement and stiffening of the heart. |
| Which chronic health condition can be caused by pollen, mold, smoke, and air pollution? • Arthritis • Heart disease • Diabetes • Asthma | Asthma |
| What is the most common symptom of coronary artery disease (CAD)? • Dizziness • Angina • Skin discoloration • Shortness of breath | Angina |
| Which of the following joints in the body are commonly affected by the condition of Gout? • Lesser toe joints, ankle, and knee. • Big toe joint, knee, and elbow. • Ankle, hips, and shoulder. • Big toe joint, hips, and elbow. | Lesser toe joints, ankle, and knee. |
| Which arthritic condition is an autoimmune disorder? • Rheumatoid arthritis • Gout • Osteoarthritis • Fibromyalgia | Rheumatoid arthritis |
| At what age may youth begin implementing circuit training and strength exercises with light free weights and low intensity? • 7 to 8 years • 11 to 14 years • 15 to 18 years • 10 to 13 years | 11 to 14 years |
| Approximately what percentage of adults over the age of 65 are living with at least one chronic health condition? • 40 percent • 30 percent • 80 percent • 60 percent | 80 percent |
| Which type of exercise is recommended to prevent osteoporosis in older adults? • Resistance training • Balance training • Flexibility training • Cardiorespiratory training | Resistance training |
| For senior populations, what does the back scratch fitness assessment measure? • Muscular strength • Hand-eye coordination • Lower body flexibility • Upper body flexibility | Upper body flexibility |
| What is the general physical activity recommendation for pregnant women assuming no medical conditions are present? • 30 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise and one day of strengthening exercise weekly. • 150 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise and three days of strengthening exercise weekly. • 75 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise and three days of strengthening exercise weekly. • 100 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise and two days of strengthening exercise weekly. | 150 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise and three days of strengthening exercise weekly. |
| Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for a pregnant client? • Premature labor • Morbid obesity • Orthopedic limitations • Severe anemia | Premature labor |
| Exercise programming for a pregnant client should focus on what fitness outcome(s)? • Maintaining current health status • Fat loss • Performance improvement • Muscle gain | Maintaining current health status |
| Approximately what percentage of the world's population has a condition that disables them? • 5 percent • 25 percent • 15 percent • 30 percent | 15 percent |
| Which of the following is a physiological change that occurs in pregnant women that can affect how they exercise? • Respiratory rate decreases. • Elasticity of muscles, tendons, and ligaments decreases. • Lung capacity increases. • Resting heart rate increases. | Resting heart rate increases. |
| Which fitness assessment for senior populations measures the amount of time needed for an individual to stand up from a seated position and walk eight feet? • Chair sit and reach • Eight foot up and go • Two-minute step test • 30-second chair stand | Eight foot up and go |
| Which style of personal training utilizes both in-person and virtual training? • Virtual training • Hybrid training • Small group training • Group exercise | Hybrid training |
| Which style of personal training utilizes videos, live streaming, websites, and chat forums to deliver training content? • Buddy training • Small group training • In-person training • Virtual training | Virtual training |
| When utilizing emails to communicate with clients, what is the ideal length of an email? • 50 to 125 words • 75 to 200 words • 300 to 500 words • 150 to 225 words | 50 to 125 words |
| In email marketing, what is a strategic email? • An email that explains the trainer's mission, philosophies, and more about themselves. • An email used to engage with clients and prospects and build rapport. • An email series that presents an offer or promotion for a limited time. • A series of emails that gather client information and assessments to begin a training program. | An email that explains the trainer's mission, philosophies, and more about themselves. |
| In email marketing, what is an onboarding email? • An email that explains the trainer's mission, philosophies, and more about themselves. • An email used to engage with clients and prospects and build rapport. • An email series that presents an offer or promotion for a limited time. • A series of emails that gather client information and assessments to begin a training program. | A series of emails that gather client information and assessments to begin a training program. |
| Under the scope of practice for a personal trainer, which of the following may a certified personal trainer assist clients with? • Treating a chronic health issue • General nutrition guidance • Meal planning • Treating injuries | General nutrition guidance |
| In marketing, what is the phrase "Sign up now!" an example of? • Call to service • Lead enticement • Call to action • Request for purchase | Call to action |
| When identifying a target market, what is the fictional person that represents a trainer's preferred clientele known as? • Client persona • Client form • Desired client • Optimal market | Client persona |
| Which style of personal training is often choreographed? • Small group training • Buddy training • Group exercise • Large group training | Group exercise |
| Which style of personal training requires a fitness professional to consider camera quality, lighting, and the available exercise equipment? • In-person training • Small group training • Large group training • Virtual training | Virtual training |
| According to the CDC, what is the definition of disinfecting? • Cleaning and killing germs on surfaces to bring the microbe level to an acceptable range. • Removing dirt and impurities from a surface with a detergent and water. • Killing germs and viruses on surfaces with the use of chemicals. • Removing stains from surfaces and clothing. | Killing germs and viruses on surfaces with the use of chemicals. |
| To receive a personal training certification, what additional certification is required? • CPR/ AED • First aid • Nutrition • Injury prevention | CPR/ AED |
| What type of injury develops slowly and is persistent? • Abrasion • Bone break • Acute injury • Chronic injury | Chronic injury |
| Which of the following is often included in a first aid kit? • Pencils • Adhesive bandages • Lip balm • Heating pad | Adhesive bandages |
| Which of the following emergency situations requires a fitness professional to call 911 immediately? • Low blood sugar • A minor cut • An unconscious person • Headache | An unconscious person |
| What type of acute injury occurs in a muscle? • Sprain • Strain • Fracture • Dislocation | Strain |
| Which of the following emergency situations requires a fitness professional to call 911 immediately? • Chest pain • A bruise • A minor cut • Elevated heart rate | Chest pain |
| What tool in a first aid kit can be used to remove debris from a wound? • Tweezers • First aid tape • Thermometer • Analgesics | Tweezers |
| What should every location where exercise is performed have posted or available for patrons and employees? • Instructions for using exercise equipment • A staff directory • An emergency exit plan • The manager on duty | An emergency exit plan |
| What serious health situation occurs when the body is unable to regulate its temperature? • Headache • Heat stroke • Heart attack • Stroke | Heat stroke |
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andrickson84
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