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CPT Quizzes

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Question	Answer
What is the definition of behavior? • An experience that a client will have with a trainer. • An event that has a beginning, middle, and end. • An action that can be observed, measured, and modified. • An action that builds rapport and community.	An action that can be observed, measured, and modified.
What stage of change is someone in if they are in denial or ignorant to the fact that a change may be necessary? • Action • Pre-contemplation • Preparation • Maintenance	Pre-contemplation
What type of motivation is driven by personal enjoyment and satisfaction? • Extrinsic motivation • Intrinsic motivation • External motivation • Independent motivation	Intrinsic motivation
Which psychological need in the Self-Determination Theory (SDT) is described as the basic need to feel in control of one's own behavior and goals? • Relatedness • Motivation • Autonomy • Competence	Autonomy
Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question? • Have you ever seen a doctor for a heart condition? • Do you want to begin your fitness program today? • How did you first notice that you were gaining weight? • Is your favorite color blue?"	How did you first notice that you were gaining weight?
What type of goal is focused on the necessary steps to achieve it? • Personal goal • Process goal • Private goal • Outcome goal	Process goal
What does the "A" in SMART goals stand for? • Achievable • Absurd • Associated • Addressing	Achievable
What type of goal is open to interpretation by the client as opposed to being supported by measurable data? • A SMART goal • A subjective goal • An objective goal • A motivational goal	A subjective goal
When communicating with clients, what type of communication must be constructive and effective to improve competence? • Introductions • Feedback • General conversation • Praise	Feedback
What stage of change is someone in if they are engaging in a new behavior and have been doing so for less than six months? • Action (the correct answer) • Pre-contemplation • Preparation • Maintenance	Action
Which human organ systems are responsible for human movement? • The Muscular System, Circulatory System, and Skeletal System • The Nervous System, Muscular System, and Endocrine System • The Muscular System, Digestive System, and Nervous System • The Nervous System, Muscular System, and Skeletal System	The Nervous System, Muscular System, and Skeletal System
Which classification of neurons initiate muscle contraction and activate glands? • Interneurons • Motor neurons • Sensory neurons • Dendrites	Motor neurons
What is the peripheral nervous system (PNS) responsible for? • Receiving sensory input and organizing, analyzing, and processing neural information. • Conveying motor commands, carrying sensory information to the CNS, and regulating involuntary functions. • Sending motor commands to muscle tissue, regulating voluntary functions, and creating reflexes. • Regulating involuntary functions, Sending motor signals to the muscles, and visual sensory interpretation.	Conveying motor commands, carrying sensory information to the CNS, and regulating involuntary functions.
Where in the brain does most information processing occur? • Cerebrum • Cerebellum • Cerebral Cortex • Medulla oblongata	Cerebral Cortex
Which type of muscle is the most common in the human body? • Skeletal muscle • Cardiac muscle • Smooth muscle • Autonomic muscle	Skeletal muscle
Which type of muscle fiber derives its energy primarily from aerobic energy pathways? • Type IIx muscle fibers • Type II b muscle fibers • Type IIa muscle fibers • Type I muscle fibers	Type I muscle fibers
Which of the following is included in the appendicular skeleton? • Skull • Ribs • Shoulder girdle • Spine	Shoulder girdle
Which type of bone supports the weight of the body and facilitates movement? • Irregular bones • Sesamoid bones • Short bones • Long bones	Long bones
What does the Golgi tendon organ detect and respond to in the muscle? • The electrical activity of a muscle. • Changes in muscle tension. • Muscular time under tension. • The rate and force of muscle stretch.	Changes in muscle tension.
The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) are examples of what type of ligament? • Intrinsic ligaments • Extrinsic ligaments • Capsular ligaments • Elastic ligaments	Intrinsic ligaments
The heart and blood vessels are the components of which human organ system? • The Circulatory System • The Muscular System • The Endocrine System • The Respiratory System	The Circulatory System
Blood vessels are comprised of which type of muscle tissue? • Type II muscle fibers • Cardiac muscle • Skeletal muscle • Smooth muscle	Smooth muscle
Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart? • Venules • Arteries • Veins • Capillaries	Arteries
Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood from the body? • Right atrium • Left atrium • Right ventricle • Left ventricle	Right atrium
During the cardiac cycle, what is the name of the contraction phase of the heartbeat? • Systole • Fibrillation • Diastole • Arrythmia	Systole
During exercise, which organ system regulates fluid volume and pressure in body tissues? • The Circulatory System • The Lymphatic System • The Endocrine System • The Integumentary System	The Lymphatic System
What is the process of external respiration? • The exchange of gases from the blood to the interstitial fluid and body tissues. • The exchange of gases in the chambers of the heart. • The exchange of gases from the arteries to the capillaries. The exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood in the lungs.	The exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood in the lungs.
Which endocrine hormone promotes the breakdown of protein in muscle cells? • Cortisol • Aldosterone • Glucagon • Insulin	Cortisol
Which of the following is an effect of long-term cortisol elevation in the body? • Increases appetite • Enhances the brain's use of glucose • Reduces inflammation • Reduces unnecessary bodily functions during stress	Increases appetite
Which component of the digestive system performs both mechanical digestion and chemical digestion? • The liver • The small intestine • The mouth • The esophagus	The mouth
What anatomical term is described as a position closer to the center of the body relative to a reference point? • Distal • Proximal • Supine • Inferior	Proximal
Which anatomical term refers to a movement that increases the angle between two body parts? • Extension • Depression • Flexion • Circumduction	Extension
Which anatomical plane divides the body into left and right halves? • Sagittal plane • Transverse plane • Rotational plane • Frontal plane	Sagittal plane
Which of the following joints should have more mobility? • Lumbar spine • Knee • Cervical spine • Shoulder	Shoulder
A medicine ball rolling across the floor is an example of what type of friction? • Gravitational friction • Rolling friction • Sliding friction • Static friction	Rolling friction
Which of the following is a muscle of the shoulder? • Subscapularis • Biceps femoris • Brachioradialis • External oblique	Subscapularis
Which three muscles make up the erector spinae group? • Longissimus, Spinalis, and Rhomboids • Spinalis, Longissimus, and Iliocostalis • Quadratus lumborum, Spinalis, and Multifidus • External obliques, Iliocostalis, and Spinalis	Spinalis, Longissimus, and Iliocostalis
What is the muscle action of the rectus femoris? • Internal rotation of the hip and flexion of the knee. • External rotation of the hip and adduction of the upper leg. • Extension of the hip and flexion of the knee. • Flexion of the hip and extension of the knee.	Flexion of the hip and extension of the knee.
What is the most superficial muscle of the posterior calf? • Gastrocnemius • Soleus • Tibialis anterior • Tibialis posterior	Gastrocnemius
What is the largest muscle of the chest? • Serratus anterior • Pectoralis major • Pectoralis minor • Subclavius	Pectoralis major
Where in the cell do the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain occur? • Mitochondria • Nucleus • Cytoplasm • Lysosome	Mitochondria
What two values are required to calculate the respiratory quotient (RQ)? • Volume of carbon dioxide the lungs can hold, and volume of oxygen exhaled. • Volume of carbon dioxide inhaled, and volume of oxygen exhaled. • Volume of carbon dioxide exhaled, and volume of oxygen inhaled. • Volume of oxygen exhaled, and ATP created.	Volume of carbon dioxide exhaled, and volume of oxygen inhaled.
What is the respiratory quotient (RQ) for carbohydrates? • 1.0 • 0.8 • 0.7 • 0.9	1.0
Which energy pathway is dominant for activity generally lasting 10 seconds to 2 minutes? • Anaerobic glycolysis • ATP/CP • Oxidative energy pathway • Lactate	Anaerobic glycolysis
What is the primary by-product of anaerobic glycolysis? • Water • Heat • Lactic acid • Hydrogen	Lactic acid
What is the point at which the body switches from metabolism requiring oxygen to primarily anaerobic metabolism called? • ATP threshold • Lactate threshold • Anaerobic threshold • Aerobic threshold	Anaerobic threshold
The Krebs cycle and electron transport chain are steps in which energy pathway? • Anaerobic glycolysis • Oxidative energy pathway • ATP/CP • Gluconeogenesis	Oxidative energy pathway
How many Calories (Cal) per gram are in fat? • 3 Cal • 9 Cal • 4 Cal • 7 Cal	9 Cal
The Harris-Benedict equation incorporates the resting metabolic rate and an activity level factor to determine what metabolic information? • Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) • Thermic effect of food (TEF) • Daily calorie expenditure (DCE) • Total exercise expenditure (TEE)	Daily calorie expenditure (DCE)
What is the general recommendation for a daily calorie deficit for someone working to lose bodyfat? • 100 to 300 Calories • 200 to 500 Calories • 500 to 700 Calories • 600 to 800 Calories	200 to 500 Calories
What type of client assessments are based on observations and opinions? • Subjective assessments • Body composition assessments • Objective assessments • Cognitive assessments	Subjective assessments
What document should a personal trainer collect from a client to show they are ready to begin an exercise program and explain any restrictions or limitations they have? • Physician's letter of clearance • PAR-Q • Health history questionnaire • Liability waiver	Physician's letter of clearance
What does body composition measure? • Fat mass and lean body mass • Fat mass and total body water • Lean body mass and total body water • Lean body mass and bone mass	Fat mass and lean body mass
What is the average bodyfat percentage for males? • 10 to 15 percent • 25 to 31 percent • 17 to 25 percent • 12 to 20 percent	17 to 25 percent
What type of muscular assessment is the push-up test? • Muscular strength assessment • Muscular size assessment • Muscular endurance assessment • Muscular metabolic assessment	Muscular endurance assessment
From bottom to top, what are the six kinetic chain checkpoints? • Foot and ankle, knee, hips, pelvis, head, neck • Foot and ankle, knee, hips, spine, shoulders, neck and head • Foot and ankle, knee, pelvis, shoulders, cervical spine, head • Foot and ankle, hips, lumbar spine, shoulders, cervical spine, nec	Foot and ankle, knee, hips, spine, shoulders, neck and head
Which spinal deviation is characterized by the excessive curvature of the thoracic spine? • Kyphosis • Lordosis • Sway back • Scoliosis	Kyphosis
What postural and movement deviation occurs when the knees excessively bow outward away from the midline? • Knee hyperextension • Knee flexion • Knee varus • Knee valgus	Knee varus
During the overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscle is likely underactive (weak) if the heels elevate? • Gastrocnemius • Gluteus maximus • Soleus • Tibialis anterior	Tibialis anterior
During the squat or overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles are likely overactive (tight) if knee valgus occurs? • Vastus medialis • Adductors • Gluteus maximus • Gastrocnemius	Adductors
Which of the five components of fitness is described as the physical makeup of the body considering fat mass and lean mass? • Cardiovascular endurance • Muscular strength • Flexibility • Body composition	Body composition
Which of the following is a known benefit of improving muscular strength? • Improves stamina • Helps regulate blood sugar • Increases bone density • Promotes brain health	Increases bone density
What type of warm-up is simple and aims to increase blood flow, respiration, body temperature, and neural activation of major muscle groups? • Dynamic warm-up • General warm-up • Static warm-up • No warm-up	General warm-up
Which element of a fitness program trains the body to be explosive, fast, and agile? • Reactive training • Balance training • Cardiorespiratory training • Flexibility training	Reactive training
What is the definition of agility as it relates to the element of reactive training? • The ability to react and change body position with maximum rate of force production • The ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction with proper posture • The ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible • The ability to move a joint in a full range of motion without pain or impingement	The ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction with proper posture
What type of cardiorespiratory training is performed at a fixed level of exertion? • Circuit training • High-intensity interval training • Interval training • Steady-state exercise	Steady-state exercise
Which of the following is a known benefit of interval training? • Strengthening of the left ventricle of the heart • Improvement in muscular coordination • Decreased oxidative capacity of skeletal muscles • Decreased average stroke volume of the heart	Strengthening of the left ventricle of the heart
Which of the five components of fitness is described as the measure of force produced by a muscle or group of muscles? • Muscular endurance • Muscular strength • Flexibility • Cardiovascular endurance	Muscular strength
Which of the following is a measure commonly used to determine the intensity of cardiorespiratory exercise? • Minimum heart rate • Rate of perceived exertion (RPE) • Respiration rate • Resting heart rate	Rate of perceived exertion (RPE)
Which of the following is an adaptation from plyometric exercise? • Increased muscle size • Decreased muscle size • Decreased involuntary nervous reflexes • Decreased intermuscular coordination	Increased muscle size
In fitness, what do acute training variables determine? • How an exercise or training program is performed. • When an exercise or training program is performed. • Why an exercise or training program is performed. • Where an exercise or training program is performed.	How an exercise or training program is performed.
Which acute training variable is the equipment, methods, or technique used to complete an activity? • Tempo • Frequency • Type • Time	Type
The load used for a resistance training exercise is most closely related to which actute training variable? • Intensity • Tempo • Range of motion • Type	Intensity
A training intensity of 67 percent or less is most closely related to which training adaptation? • Maximum strength • Hypertrophy • Muscular endurance • Power	Muscular endurance
For the training adaptation of muscle hypertrophy, what is the recommended number of repetitions per set? • 1 to 6 repetitions • 6 to 12 repetitions • More than 15 repetitions • 1 to 5 repetitions	6 to 12 repetitions
What does the "F" in the FITT Principle stand for? • Frequency • Foundation • Flexibility • Fascial	Frequency
Which principle of fitness states that acute training variables must be changed periodically to prevent plateaus, injuries, and boredom? • Principle of specificity • Principle of individual differences • Principle of progressive overload • Principle of variability	Principle of variability
What is the final stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)? • Stimulus • Resistance • Alarm • Exhaustion	Exhaustion
Resistance training is included in which category of training? • Speed, agility, and quickness (SAQ) • Foundational training • Strength training • Metabolic training	Strength training
What condition is the result of the accumulation of stress from both training and non-training activities resulting in short-term decreases in performance? • Overreaching • Overtraining • Over-exhaustion • Overtraining syndrome (OTS)	Overreaching
Which of the following is a known benefit of flexibility training? • Decreased balance • Decreased postural control • Decreased joint range of motion • Decreased chronic pain	Decreased chronic pain
What is dynamic stretching? • Lengthening a muscle and holding the lengthened position • Movement-based active stretching where muscles engage to bring about a stretch • The activation of a muscle to actively stretch another muscle • The use of an external force to move a joint to the end of a range of motion	Movement-based active stretching where muscles engage to bring about a stretch
In a flexibility training protocol, which of the following should be executed after a training session? • Static or pre-contraction stretching • Dynamic stretching • General warm-up • Specific warm-up	Static or pre-contraction stretching
What type of inhibition do myofascial release techniques rely on to decrease the excitability of muscle tissue? • Allosteric inhibition • Automatic inhibition • Autogenic inhibition • Autonomic inhibition	Autogenic inhibition
Which type of stretching should mirror the movements that will be performed in an upcoming activity? • Static stretching • Passive stretching • Ballistic stretching • Dynamic stretching	Dynamic stretching
What term is defined as the measurement of movement around a specific joint or body part? • Range of motion • Resisted range of motion • Passive flexibility • Muscle action	Range of motion
Which of the following is an example of an active range of motion? • A physical therapist moving a client's shoulder through flexion and extension • A client moving their shoulder through flexion and extension • A client using a wall to stretch their pectoral muscles • A client using a stretching strap to stretch their hamstring	A client moving their shoulder through flexion and extension
What type of stretching uses bouncing and the momentum of the body or limb to force it beyond a normal range of motion? • Dynamic stretching • Static stretching • Ballistic stretching • Active stretching	Ballistic stretching
What are the two most important acute training variables related to flexibility training? • Intensity and time • Type and repetitions • Intensity and repetitions • Time and tempo	Intensity and time
In most cases, how long should a static stretch be held? • 90 to 120 seconds • 5 to 15 seconds • 60 to 90 seconds • 10 to 30 seconds	10 to 30 seconds
Which of the following is a known benefit of cardiorespiratory training? • Improves sleep • Increases depression • Increases fatigue • Reduces mental acuity	Improves sleep
Which acute training variables are included in the FITT Principle as it relates to cardiorespiratory training? • Frequency, Intervals, Tempo, Time • Form, Intensity, Time, Type • Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type • Frequency, Intensity, Time Under Tension, Type	Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type
What is a metabolic equivalent (MET)? • The quantitative and subjective measure of exertion during physical activity. • The measure of the ratio of a person's energy expenditure to their mass during physical activity. • The ratio of how the body is using carbohydrates compared to fats as a fuel source during exercise. • The ability to speak during exercise as a gauge of the relative intensity.	The measure of the ratio of a person's energy expenditure to their mass during physical activity.
According to the modified Rate of Perceived Exertion (RPE) chart, what intensity equates to maximum exertion during cardiorespiratory exercise? • RPE 1 • RPE 10 • RPE 5 to 6 • RPE 7 to 8	RPE 10
During cardiorespiratory training, how can speed be modified to increase training intensity? • Maintain speed • Increase speed • Reduce speed • Vary speed	Increase speed
What vital capacity reading is considered low and a potential symptom of a respiratory problem? • Below 6,000 mL • Below 4,000 mL • Below 3,000 mL • Below 5,000 mL	Below 3,000 mL
Which of the following activities has a MET value between 3.0 and 6.0? • Brisk walk (3.5 to 4 mph) • Competitive soccer • Yoga • Sitting at a desk	Brisk walk (3.5 to 4 mph)
What does (1) MET equal to? • A person's heart rate when at rest. • A person's breathing rate when at rest. • A person's metabolic rate during exercise. • A person's metabolic rate when at rest.	A person's metabolic rate when at rest.
What other cardiorespiratory efficiency measure can be estimated by the ventilatory threshold? • Maximum heart rate • Lactate threshold • Anaerobic threshold • Glucose threshold	Lactate threshold
The formula 220 minus age is commonly used to estimate what cardiorespiratory information? • Maximum heart rate • Ventilatory threshold • Vital capacity • V02 max	Maximum heart rate
Which strength category is defined as a combination of strength and speed? • Power • Maximum strength • Starting strength • Relative strength	Power
Strength training has been found to reduce which resting biological measure? • Resting breathing rate • Resting metabolic rate • Resting heart rate • Resting blood pressure	Resting blood pressure
Which strength curve most accurately represents a squatting exercise? • Bell-shaped strength curve • Descending strength curve • Flat strength curve • Ascending strength curve	Ascending strength curve
What type of foundational exercises promote overall strength adaptations without necessarily translating to performance or skill development? • General exercises • Accessory exercises • Compound exercises • Specific exercises	General exercises
During a taper, how much should training volume be reduced while exercise intensity remains at or above competition (maximal) levels? • 50 to 80 percent reduction in training volume • 70 to 80 percent reduction in training volume • 10 to 20 percent reduction in training volume • 30 to 70 percent reduction in training volume	30 to 70 percent reduction in training volume
For resistance training, how is intensity expressed? • Percentage of maximum breathing rate • Percentage of target heart rate • Percentage of 1RM • Percentage of maximum heart rate	Percentage of 1RM
What training goal is promoted when resistance training intensity is below 67 percent of 1RM? • Muscular endurance • Maximum strength • Power • Hypertrophy	Muscular endurance
During resistance training, what sub-variable is related to exercise type? • Tempo • Grip • Intensity • Time under tension	Grip
Which of the following is equipment with variable resistance? • Resistance band • Kettlebell • Barbell • Dumbbell	Resistance band
Which of the following is an example of a static resistance exercise? • Squat • Bench press • Plank • Biceps curl	Plank
What is an exercise progression? • Modifications to acute training variables that increase the challenge of a movement pattern. • Modifications to acute training variables that decrease the challenge of a movement pattern. • Modifications to acute training variables that expedite training adaptations. • Modifications to acute training variables that make an exercise impossible to execute.	Modifications to acute training variables that increase the challenge of a movement pattern.
Body language, spatial relations, and paralanguage are all examples of what type of communication? • Verbal communication • Visual communication • Nonverbal communication • Kinesthetic communication	Nonverbal communication
What type of learner learns best when they can see the information being taught? • Visual learners • Kinesthetic learners • Auditory learners • Fast learners	Visual learners
Which if the following is advised when giving verbal cues to increase client understanding? • Use anatomical terminology. • Give constant feedback. • Speak quickly. • Use simplified language.	Use simplified language.
Which of the following exercises is categorized as a hinge movement? • Deadlift • Push up • Squat • Biceps curl	Deadlift
Which movement category includes upper body exercises in which the arms themselves or the arms and a tool are moved away from the body? • Squat • Hinge • Push • Pull	Push
What is the agonist at the shoulder during an upper body vertical pulling movement? • Posterior deltoid • Latissimus dorsi • Pectoralis major • Trapezius	Latissimus dorsi
What type of exercises are often single-joint movements that can promote muscular adaptations like strength and hypertrophy? • Activation exercises • Isolation exercises • Isometric exercises • Compound exercises	Isolation exercises
Which movement dysfunction occurs when a synergist muscle takes over a movement pattern when an agonist fails? • Synergistic dominance • Altered arthrokinematics • Altered kinetics • Muscle synergies	Synergistic dominance
According to the study of proxemics, what is considered a personal distance between two people? • 4 to 12 feet • 12 to 20 feet • 0 to 18 inches • 1.5 to 4 feet	1.5 to 4 feet
Which category of nutrients protect the body from free radicals and the cellular damage they cause? • Macronutrients • Protein • Electrolytes • Antioxidants	Antioxidants
In which of the following ways can a certified personal trainer help a client with nutrition? • Offer general nutrition guidance and recommendations. • Write meal plans that support the client's fitness goals. • Diagnose a food allergy for a client. • Give nutrition advice to treat a client's chronic health condition.	Offer general nutrition guidance and recommendations
Which type of carbohydrate is broken down and converted to energy in the body the quickest? • Simple carbohydrates • Fiber • Complex carbohydrates • Raw carbohydrates	Simple carbohydrates
Which of the following is an example of a complex carbohydrate? • Fruit • White bread • Starchy vegetables • Candy	Starchy vegetables
Which type of fats have been found to increase an individual's risk for coronary artery disease when consumed in excess? • Polyunsaturated fat • Trans fat • Monounsaturated fat • Omega-3 fatty acid	Trans fat
Which of the following foods has the highest number of grams of fat per 100 grams of food? • Plain yogurt • Cashews • Cheesecake • Vegetable oil	Vegetable oil
Approximately what percentage of the average adult's total body weight is water? • 60 percent • 75 percent • 80 percent • 55 percent	60 percent
Which of the following is the recommended portion size for a serving of protein for a male? • One fist • Two thumbs • Two palms • One palm	Two palms
Which of the following is the recommended portion size for a serving of fats for a female? • One palm • Two thumbs • One fist • One thumb	One thumb
What are nutritional limiting factors? • The limited availability of nutritious foods to some clients who live in food deserts. • The nutritional choices a client makes that keep them from making progress or seeing results. • The limited nutritional options available to a client who cannot afford fresh foods. • The nutritional choices a client makes that drives fitness success and promotes optimal health.	The nutritional choices a client makes that keep them from making progress or seeing results.
Which of the following is an example of a performance supplement? • Vitamin D • Biotin • Multivitamin • Creatine monohydrate	Creatine monohydrate
Which of the following animal-based protein sources has the highest bioavailability in the human body? • Whey protein isolate • Beef • Chicken • Casein isolate	Whey protein isolate
Which of the following is a good source of Vitamin C? • Brussel sprouts • Seafood • Sunlight • Nuts and seeds	Brussel sprouts
Which of the following is a food source of the mineral calcium? • Dairy • Rye • Olives • Turkey	Dairy
Which of the following is a function of sodium in the body? • Immune function • Fluid balance • Reproduction • Fat metabolism	Fluid balance
According to the World Health Organization, what is one of the most common nutrient deficiencies worldwide? • Iron deficiency • Calcium deficiency • Vitamin C deficiency • Vitamin A deficiency	Iron deficiency
Which of the following is a food source of vitamin E? • Citrus • Fish • Peanuts • Eggs	Peanuts
Where in the digestive tract are amino acids absorbed? • The large intestine • The ascending colon • The stomach • The small intestine	The small intestine
When selecting a multivitamin, what information should be considered? • Sex and height • Sex and age • Age and height • Eating pattern and age	Sex and age
In a normal, healthy adult, what percent of food consumed is absorbed in the GI tract? • 75 percent • 50 percent • 95 percent • 80 percent	95 percent
What minimum consistent blood pressure reading is associated with the condition of hypertension? • 120/80 mm Hg • 130/80 mm Hg • 140/90 mm Hg • 120/90 mm Hg	140/90 mm Hg
What chronic disease was the DASH diet created to combat? • High blood pressure • Type 2 diabetes • Heart disease • Dementia	High blood pressure
What is the role of insulin in the human body? • Insulin binds to adipose tissue and promotes the release of glycogen from the cells. • Insulin promotes gastric emptying and the breakdown of macronutrients. • Insulin binds to cells and restricts the uptake of glucose from the blood. • Insulin binds to target cells and promotes the uptake of glucose from the blood.	Insulin binds to target cells and promotes the uptake of glucose from the blood.
What condition is characterized as a degenerative joint disease caused by wear and tear on the joints? • Osteoarthritis (OA) • Fibromyalgia (FM) • Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) • Gout	Osteoarthritis (OA)
Which of the following exercises are recommended for a client with arthritis? • Swimming, yoga, interval training, and circuit training. • Running, stair-climbing, high-impact aerobics, and calisthenics. • Cycling, swimming, group exercise class, and brisk walking. • High-intensity interval training, cycling, jogging, and kickboxing.	Cycling, swimming, group exercise class, and brisk walking.
What is the definition of the heart condition of cardiomyopathy? • Narrowing of the coronary arteries. • The enlargement and stiffening of the heart. • Weakness of the heart muscle that reduces blood flow. • Narrowing or stiffness of the blood vessels in the extremities.	The enlargement and stiffening of the heart.
Which chronic health condition can be caused by pollen, mold, smoke, and air pollution? • Arthritis • Heart disease • Diabetes • Asthma	Asthma
What is the most common symptom of coronary artery disease (CAD)? • Dizziness • Angina • Skin discoloration • Shortness of breath	Angina
Which of the following joints in the body are commonly affected by the condition of Gout? • Lesser toe joints, ankle, and knee. • Big toe joint, knee, and elbow. • Ankle, hips, and shoulder. • Big toe joint, hips, and elbow.	Lesser toe joints, ankle, and knee.
Which arthritic condition is an autoimmune disorder? • Rheumatoid arthritis • Gout • Osteoarthritis • Fibromyalgia	Rheumatoid arthritis
At what age may youth begin implementing circuit training and strength exercises with light free weights and low intensity? • 7 to 8 years • 11 to 14 years • 15 to 18 years • 10 to 13 years	11 to 14 years
Approximately what percentage of adults over the age of 65 are living with at least one chronic health condition? • 40 percent • 30 percent • 80 percent • 60 percent	80 percent
Which type of exercise is recommended to prevent osteoporosis in older adults? • Resistance training • Balance training • Flexibility training • Cardiorespiratory training	Resistance training
For senior populations, what does the back scratch fitness assessment measure? • Muscular strength • Hand-eye coordination • Lower body flexibility • Upper body flexibility	Upper body flexibility
What is the general physical activity recommendation for pregnant women assuming no medical conditions are present? • 30 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise and one day of strengthening exercise weekly. • 150 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise and three days of strengthening exercise weekly. • 75 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise and three days of strengthening exercise weekly. • 100 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise and two days of strengthening exercise weekly.	150 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise and three days of strengthening exercise weekly.
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for a pregnant client? • Premature labor • Morbid obesity • Orthopedic limitations • Severe anemia	Premature labor
Exercise programming for a pregnant client should focus on what fitness outcome(s)? • Maintaining current health status • Fat loss • Performance improvement • Muscle gain	Maintaining current health status
Approximately what percentage of the world's population has a condition that disables them? • 5 percent • 25 percent • 15 percent • 30 percent	15 percent
Which of the following is a physiological change that occurs in pregnant women that can affect how they exercise? • Respiratory rate decreases. • Elasticity of muscles, tendons, and ligaments decreases. • Lung capacity increases. • Resting heart rate increases.	Resting heart rate increases.
Which fitness assessment for senior populations measures the amount of time needed for an individual to stand up from a seated position and walk eight feet? • Chair sit and reach • Eight foot up and go • Two-minute step test • 30-second chair stand	Eight foot up and go
Which style of personal training utilizes both in-person and virtual training? • Virtual training • Hybrid training • Small group training • Group exercise	Hybrid training
Which style of personal training utilizes videos, live streaming, websites, and chat forums to deliver training content? • Buddy training • Small group training • In-person training • Virtual training	Virtual training
When utilizing emails to communicate with clients, what is the ideal length of an email? • 50 to 125 words • 75 to 200 words • 300 to 500 words • 150 to 225 words	50 to 125 words
In email marketing, what is a strategic email? • An email that explains the trainer's mission, philosophies, and more about themselves. • An email used to engage with clients and prospects and build rapport. • An email series that presents an offer or promotion for a limited time. • A series of emails that gather client information and assessments to begin a training program.	An email that explains the trainer's mission, philosophies, and more about themselves.
In email marketing, what is an onboarding email? • An email that explains the trainer's mission, philosophies, and more about themselves. • An email used to engage with clients and prospects and build rapport. • An email series that presents an offer or promotion for a limited time. • A series of emails that gather client information and assessments to begin a training program.	A series of emails that gather client information and assessments to begin a training program.
Under the scope of practice for a personal trainer, which of the following may a certified personal trainer assist clients with? • Treating a chronic health issue • General nutrition guidance • Meal planning • Treating injuries	General nutrition guidance
In marketing, what is the phrase "Sign up now!" an example of? • Call to service • Lead enticement • Call to action • Request for purchase	Call to action
When identifying a target market, what is the fictional person that represents a trainer's preferred clientele known as? • Client persona • Client form • Desired client • Optimal market	Client persona
Which style of personal training is often choreographed? • Small group training • Buddy training • Group exercise • Large group training	Group exercise
Which style of personal training requires a fitness professional to consider camera quality, lighting, and the available exercise equipment? • In-person training • Small group training • Large group training • Virtual training	Virtual training
According to the CDC, what is the definition of disinfecting? • Cleaning and killing germs on surfaces to bring the microbe level to an acceptable range. • Removing dirt and impurities from a surface with a detergent and water. • Killing germs and viruses on surfaces with the use of chemicals. • Removing stains from surfaces and clothing.	Killing germs and viruses on surfaces with the use of chemicals.
To receive a personal training certification, what additional certification is required? • CPR/ AED • First aid • Nutrition • Injury prevention	CPR/ AED
What type of injury develops slowly and is persistent? • Abrasion • Bone break • Acute injury • Chronic injury	Chronic injury
Which of the following is often included in a first aid kit? • Pencils • Adhesive bandages • Lip balm • Heating pad	Adhesive bandages
Which of the following emergency situations requires a fitness professional to call 911 immediately? • Low blood sugar • A minor cut • An unconscious person • Headache	An unconscious person
What type of acute injury occurs in a muscle? • Sprain • Strain • Fracture • Dislocation	Strain
Which of the following emergency situations requires a fitness professional to call 911 immediately? • Chest pain • A bruise • A minor cut • Elevated heart rate	Chest pain
What tool in a first aid kit can be used to remove debris from a wound? • Tweezers • First aid tape • Thermometer • Analgesics	Tweezers
What should every location where exercise is performed have posted or available for patrons and employees? • Instructions for using exercise equipment • A staff directory • An emergency exit plan • The manager on duty	An emergency exit plan
What serious health situation occurs when the body is unable to regulate its temperature? • Headache • Heat stroke • Heart attack • Stroke	Heat stroke