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midterm

Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in each of the black spaces below before clicking on it to display the answer.
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Question
Answer
etomidate is particularly well suited for induction of dogs with which type of systemic disease   show
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injectable drugs that are highly fat soluble are likely to be taken up by the brain more quickly than drugs that are not fat soluble (true/false)   show
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show dissociative  
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metabolism and elimination of ketamine HCl is the same in the dog as it is in the cat (true/false)   show
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halothane may sensitize the heart to catecholamines (true/false)   show
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halothane is moderately soluble in rubber which may result in release of gas from the equipment (true/false)   show
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show fast  
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show sevoflurane  
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show 1.5  
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show false  
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propofol sometimes causes transient apnea, to avoid this the aneshetist should   show
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show true  
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show stage III plane 2  
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show stage II  
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an increase in respiratory rate   show
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a decrease in respiratory rate   show
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collapsed alveoli   show
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show when the animal begins to swallow  
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pale mucous membranes may be an indication of what   show
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show informed consent  
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why would we want to ask an owner about exercise tolerance during a history   show
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show class II  
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pre-anesthetic agents are routinely administered how long before induction of general anesthesia   show
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show 10ml/kg/hr  
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the color utilized for isoflurane recognition is   show
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show yellow  
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easier induction of the patient is a reason for the use of a preanesthetic agent (true/false)   show
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show false  
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show true  
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show true  
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show mininum alveolar concentration  
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why should you include an anticholinergic in a preanesthetic medication   show
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what is the normal condition where the heart rate increases slightly apon inhalation called   show
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show jaundice  
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if pre anesthetic blood work shows a low pcv this would indicate what   show
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show dehydration  
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show GI irritation or ulcerations  
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clinical pain effects in the patient can alter what   show
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show true  
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you should avoid drugs that can reduce pre existing health problems (true/false)   show
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show false  
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the resivor bag deflats every time a patient inhales (true/false)   show
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show middle  
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what on the anesthetic machine is used to allow you to breath for your patient   show
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what on the anesthetic machine contains carbon that absorbs excess anesthetic gas and CO2   show
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a non rebreathing system is used for patients weighing how much   show
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show vaporizer  
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show CO2  
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show purple  
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show 20cm of H2O  
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what does CRI stand for   show
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show green  
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show opiods, anticholinergics, alpha 2 agonisist, sedatives, tranqulizers  
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show a significant rise of pressure in the circuit  
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show 75%  
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show 4 mins  
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when a technician is performing CPR alone the ration of cardiac compression to ventilation should be what   show
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show 30 seconds  
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respiratory arrest is always fatal (true/false)   show
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show anticholinergic  
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acepromazine is what type of drug   show
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show alpha-2 agonist  
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diazepam, midazolam, and zolazepam are what type of drugs   show
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show opioid  
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show dissociative  
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how should an inhalant anesthetic be given   show
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what does MAC measure   show
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show pain  
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show peripheral  
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show neuropathic  
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pain that is ongoing   show
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pain of unknown cause   show
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show clinical pain effects on the patient  
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reduction or absence of pain sensation with out loss of other sensations   show
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show anesthesia  
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show local anesthesia  
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show regional/sedmental anesthesia  
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show spinal/epidural anesthesia  
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the purposeful derangement of a patients normal physiologic processes to produce a state of unconsciousness, relaxation,m analgesia, and/or amnesia   show
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mild to profound degree of CNS depression in which patient is drowsy but may be aroused by painful stimuli   show
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show tranqulization  
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acupuncture, electrical nerve stimulation, magnetic field induction and neurolysis are all what   show
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show mild  
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show moderate  
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10-15% loss of body water; eyelid pinch= severe tint, pinch persists; cornea dry, no tearing; space >4mm between canthus and globe; skin tented and persists >5 sec; dry, cold, pale MM; poor CRT are signs of what hydration status   show
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show 5  
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this ASA classification is a normal healthy animal with minimal risk   show
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this ASA classification is an animal with mild systemic disturbances but is able to compensation, slight risk with minor disease   show
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show class III  
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this ASA classification is animals with severe systemic diseae, high risk, significantly compromised by disease   show
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this ASA classification is an extreme risk animal, surgery is often performed in desperate attempt to save animals life   show
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show 8-12 hours, water ad lib  
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show 36-48 hours, with hold water 12-24 hours  
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how long should a small ruminant be fasted before an anesthetic procedure   show
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show 2-4 hours if at all  
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show never with hold water  
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show overhydration  
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the tendency of a molecule to escape from a liquid phase to the vapor/gas phase   show
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what determines how readily the anesthetic liquid evaporate in the anesthetic machine vaporizer   show
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show solubility coefficient  
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how soluble the anesthetic is in the blood; how much/how quickly the agent will diffuse from alveoli into blood   show
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what is the most nephrotoxic inhalation anesthetic agent   show
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which inhalation anesthetic agent is the only one that does not decrease blood flow through the hepatic artery and portal vein   show
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to calm the patient, provide analgesia, reduce/eliminate the adverse effects associated with use of general anesthetics, help maintain anesthesia, smooth inductin, improve recovery are all what   show
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all preanesthetics except which one cross the placental barrier   show
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show anticholinergics  
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what premed increases heart rate, decreases gut motility, decreases salivation   show
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show phenothiazines  
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sedation, antiemetic, antiarrhythemic effect, antihistamine effect, peripheral vasodilation, personality effects, penile prolapse, lack of analgesia   show
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phenothiazine metabolized by liver; lasts up to 8hrs; can cause low BP; antiemetic, antiarrhythmic, antihistamine, anti-anxiety, causes platelet dysfunction, no reversal agent   show
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this type of tranqulizers effects are caused by release fo amma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)- an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain   show
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show benzodiazepines  
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what is the reversal agent for benzodiazipines   show
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premeds that bind to receptors with in the body that are the most effective analgesics   show
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show 3  
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this type of opiod stimulates all types of receptors; includes morphine, oxymorphone, fentanyl   show
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show mixed agonists/antagonists  
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this type of opiod blocks all types of receptors; includes naloxone   show
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morphine, merepidine, fentanyl, hydromorphone, oxymorphone, and methodone are what type of opiod   show
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buprenorphine is what type of opiod   show
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show agonist-antagonist  
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show potency  
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anticipated clinical effect and how well it works   show
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compressed gas supply, anesthetic machine, and breathing circuit are all what   show
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these type of cylinders are small cylinders that are usually attaches to the anesthetic machine   show
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show large cylinders  
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show anesthetic machine  
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this part of the anesthetic machine consists of a dial attached to a graduate glass cylinder and allows the anesthetists to see the amount of oxygen to be delivered to the patient   show
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this part of the anesthetc machine converts liquid anesthetic to a vapor state and adds a controlled amount of anesthetic vapor to carrier gas flowing through the machine   show
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show breathing circuit  
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show 60/ml/kg  
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show pop-off valve  
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show oxygen flush valve  
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show pressure manometer  
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this type of vaporizer is designed to deliver an exact concentration of anesthetic, are labeled for use with one anesthetic only   show
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show nonprecision vaporizer  
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show total rebreathing system  
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show partial rebreathing system  
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show assisted ventilation  
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this is necessary when neuromuscular blocking agents are used (paralytics) and is assisted or controlled breathing by the anesthetists   show
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show murphy; magil  
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show magil  
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which type of ET tube has a beveled patient end and an eye near the beveld end   show
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this is an ultra short acting thibarbiturate; highly fat soluble; short onset of duration and action (5-15 mins) only IV; arrhytomogenicity; protein binding; no analgesia; cheap; schedule III controlled substance; decreases intracranial pressure   show
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phenolic compound; non barbiturate; non steroid; IV only; similiar to thiopental but doesnt cause as much excitement; milk of anesthesia; limited shelf life; can be used as a CRI; rapid onset & short duration; may cause injury to feline RBC; no analgesia   show
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nonbarbiturate; imidazole hypnotic agent; rapid induction and recovery; only IV(painful); excellent for <3 patients, mild respiratory depressant; crosses placental barrier but is rapidly cleared w/little effects; can be $; wide safety margin;   show
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muscle relaxant commonly given 2 large animals as part of a combo; common decongestant and antitussive; only IV; crosses placental barrier w/ minimal effects   show
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mostly commonly used agent in N. american sm practices; controlled substance; rapid onset; IV/IM or PO off label; potent cerebral vasodilator; cardiovascularly supportive drug; some analgesia; better recovery when premeds are used; avoid use in renal cats   show
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1:1 ratio of dissociative; benzodiazepine; popular in private practice; cheap; effective in many species; IV/IM/SC; stable 4 days at room temp/ 14 days in fridge; similar to ketamine; avoid use in patients w/ CNS signs, hyperthyroidism, cardiac dz, etc   show
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show vital signs  
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show reflexes  
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presence of a heart beat means that circulation in the body is adequate (true/false)   show
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the force exerted by flowing blood on arterial walls   show
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show 5-6  
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how often should you routinely bag the patient while under inhalation anesthesia   show
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inspiration followed by prolonged pause before expiration   show
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show systolic blood pressure  
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lowest pressure throughout cardiac cycle; pressure that remins when the heart is in its resting phase   show
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average pressure throughout cardiac cycle; best indicator of blood perfusion to internal organs   show
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show pulse pressure  
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show direct monitoring  
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this type of blood pressure is obtained through a probe place on the outside surface of an animal and the cuff is used to compress an artery   show
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show PaO2  
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the amount of o2 bound to hemoglobin   show
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show heart block  
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show first degree  
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the degree of heartblock with some P waves that are not followed by QRS complexes   show
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show third degree  
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show fibrillation  
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show premature ventricular contrations  
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in healthy animals 1 dog will die in every how many procedures   show
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in healthy animals 1 cat will die in every how many procedures   show
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show 30  
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show ET tube  
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show younger than 3 months  
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show 1/2- 2/3 of normal dose  
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show brachycephalic  
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show 60 mmHg  
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absence of palpable pulse at the femoral artery suggests a systolic blood pressure of < what   show
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what does the A in the steps of CPR stand for   show
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show breathing  
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what does the C in the steps of CPR stand for   show
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what does the D in the steps of CPR stand for   show
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what does the E in the steps of CPR stand for   show
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show fluids  
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show every 3-5 seconds  
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show 1-2 times/second  
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the method to determine the amount of co2 in the air that is breathed in and out by the patient   show
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what is the normal systolic pressure   show
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show 80 mmHg  
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what is the normal MAP in an awake patient   show
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show 70-90 mmHg  
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show <60 mmHg  
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what reading of SaO2 is considered hypoxic   show
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show 35-47 mmHg  
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show 32-35 mmHg  
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show 40-60ml/kg/day  
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what is the surgical rate of fluids   show
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how many mls of fluid should be given for every ml of blood lost   show
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what is the shock fluid rate for the first hour in a dog   show
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what is the shock fluid rate for the first hour in a cat   show
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what can overhydration cause especially in very small animals or patients with heart or kidneys disease   show
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this is the upper jaw   show
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show mandible  
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this is the portion of the roof of the mouth that consists of hard bone   show
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show rugae palatinae  
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posterior portion of the roof of the mouth which does not have underlying bone   show
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show temporomandibular joint  
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show sublingual  
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tissue that forms the lining of most of the oral cavity outside the mucogingival line   show
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show cusp  
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show apex  
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small channels where blood vessels and nerves enter the tooth   show
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large canals in the apex of the root through which nerves and vessels pass into the root canal   show
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show sulcus  
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when there is a space between the free gingiva and tooth, considered disease tissue when periodontal disease is present   show
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treatment of disease related to the way the teeth fit together   show
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show orthodontic disease  
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show class I  
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mandible is shorter than normal can cause adult canines and incisors to penetrate the hard palate and irritate/ulcerate the hard palate   show
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several forms, can be mandible being to long or bowed, maxilla being to short   show
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show anterior cross bite  
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maxillary premolars are lingual to the mandibular premolars or molars   show
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structural narrowing of the mandible or by the eruption of the canines in an overly upright position   show
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show spearing  
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show endodontics  
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show oronasal fistulas  
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show uremic ulceration  
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these are benign and are common and usually result from periodontal disease or irritation   show
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proliferation of gingival cells and is common among collies, boxers, and cocker spaniels   show
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tumors in the tissue of the gingiva that contain fibrous tissue   show
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contain a large amount of bone material and can be difficult to remove   show
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primarilarly composed of epithelial cells associate with the tissue, tend to invade bone   show
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locally invasive and highly metastatic to the lungs, more common in dogs than cats   show
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show fibrosarcoma  
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show squamous cell carcinoma  
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four main types of hand instruments   show
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portion that comes in contact with the patients tooth   show
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part of the shank that is closest to the working end   show
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show shank  
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show handle  
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this is the most common type of explorer   show
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this explorer allows operator to use the tip of the instrument and avoid touching with the side of the instruments those parts of the tooth that are not being explored   show
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this dental instrument is used to detect plaque and calculus primarily   show
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show periodontal probe  
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this dental instrument is used for quick removal of large pieces of calcuulus   show
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have 3 sharp sides and a sharp tip, used for scaling calculus from the crown surface   show
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show morris  
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show sickle scaler  
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show currettes  
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show currettes  
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this type of currette can adapt to almost all dental surfaces   show
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show area specific  
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inflammation and infection of the tissues surrounding the tooth   show
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a glycoprotein component of saliva that attaches to the tooth surface   show
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as periodontal disease progresses this type of bacteria begin to colonize   show
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show pocket, sulcus, tooth, gingiva  
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this stage of periodontal disease can appear 2 to 4 days after plaque accumulation in previously healthy gingival   show
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show stage 2  
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show stage 4  
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show prophys  
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this is performed for patients with stage 3 or 4 periodontal disease   show
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show piezoelectric, magnetostrictive  
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show chemical, physical, ergonomic, biologic  
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show melanoma  
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show gingivitis  
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mandibular prognathis is an example of a class II malocclusion   show
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show true  
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show gingivitis  
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step one of a dental prophy   show
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step two of a dental prophy   show
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show periodontal probing  
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step four of a dental prophy   show
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step five of a dental prophy   show
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step six of a dental prophy   show
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show sulcus irrigation  
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show periodontal diagnostics  
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show final charting  
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show home care by the owner  
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show caries  
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show true  
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maxillary brachygnathis is when the maxilla is too short, class III   show
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