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vet 2105
midterm
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| etomidate is particularly well suited for induction of dogs with which type of systemic disease | severe cardiac disease |
| injectable drugs that are highly fat soluble are likely to be taken up by the brain more quickly than drugs that are not fat soluble (true/false) | true |
| Ketamine HCL is what type of anesthetic drug | dissociative |
| metabolism and elimination of ketamine HCl is the same in the dog as it is in the cat (true/false) | false |
| halothane may sensitize the heart to catecholamines (true/false) | true |
| halothane is moderately soluble in rubber which may result in release of gas from the equipment (true/false) | true |
| an anesthetic agent with a low solubility coefficient will result in ___ induction and recovery time | fast |
| what gas anesthetic has the lowest solubility coefficient out of halothane, isoflurane, methoxyflurane, sevoflurane | sevoflurane |
| as a rough guideline to safely maintain a surgical plane of anesthesia, the vaporizer should be set at ___x MAC | 1.5 |
| isoflurane is a more potent cardiac depressant than halothane (true/false) | false |
| propofol sometimes causes transient apnea, to avoid this the aneshetist should | titrate the drug in several boluses |
| as the depth of anesthesia increases, there will be continued depression of cardiovascular and respiratory function (true/false) | true |
| the surgical plane of anesthesia is generally considered to be | stage III plane 2 |
| breath holding, vocalization, and involuntary movement of the limbs are most likely an indication that the animal is in what stage/plane of anesthesia | stage II |
| an increase in respiratory rate | tachypnea |
| a decrease in respiratory rate | bradypnea |
| collapsed alveoli | atelectasis |
| after an anesthetic procedure when is it best to extubate the patient | when the animal begins to swallow |
| pale mucous membranes may be an indication of what | anemia |
| it is illegal in the U.S. to put an animal under anesthesia with out what | informed consent |
| why would we want to ask an owner about exercise tolerance during a history | exercise intolerance can indicate heart or lung disease |
| an obese animal that is otherwise healthy is considered what class of anesthetic risk | class II |
| pre-anesthetic agents are routinely administered how long before induction of general anesthesia | 10-15 mins |
| the standard surgical anesthetic fluid rate is what | 10ml/kg/hr |
| the color utilized for isoflurane recognition is | purple |
| the color utilized for sevoflurane recognition is | yellow |
| easier induction of the patient is a reason for the use of a preanesthetic agent (true/false) | true |
| deeper plane of anesthetis is a reason for use of a preanesthetic agent (true/false) | false |
| pain management is a reason for use of a preanesthetic agent (true/false) | true |
| smoother recovery is a reason for use of a preanesthetic agent (true/false) | true |
| what does MAC stand for | mininum alveolar concentration |
| why should you include an anticholinergic in a preanesthetic medication | to prevent bradycardia |
| what is the normal condition where the heart rate increases slightly apon inhalation called | sinus arrhythmia |
| mucous membranes that are yellow in color are otherwise known as | jaundice |
| if pre anesthetic blood work shows a low pcv this would indicate what | anemia |
| if pre anesthetic blood work shows an increased pcv and tp this would likely indicate what | dehydration |
| analgesics that are use post operatively can often cause what | GI irritation or ulcerations |
| clinical pain effects in the patient can alter what | healing times, tissue catabolism, emotions |
| you can minimize anesthesia time by planning ahead (true/false) | true |
| you should avoid drugs that can reduce pre existing health problems (true/false) | false |
| it is advisable to routinely bag a patient every 7 mins during anesthesia (true/false) | false |
| the resivor bag deflats every time a patient inhales (true/false) | true |
| when reading the ball indicator on the flowmeter you should read what part of the ball | middle |
| what on the anesthetic machine is used to allow you to breath for your patient | pop-off valve |
| what on the anesthetic machine contains carbon that absorbs excess anesthetic gas and CO2 | scavenger canister |
| a non rebreathing system is used for patients weighing how much | less than 7kg |
| what is the item on the anesthetic machine called that contains the anesthetic gas | vaporizer |
| what does soda lime absorb | CO2 |
| what color does soda lime turn when it is fully absorbed/used up | purple |
| when giving a breath to a patient you should never go above what on the pressure manometer | 20cm of H2O |
| what does CRI stand for | constant rate infusion |
| oxygen tanks can be identified simply because they are always what color | green |
| what types of drugs might be used for premeds | opiods, anticholinergics, alpha 2 agonisist, sedatives, tranqulizers |
| if the pop off valve is inadvertently left shut what will happen | a significant rise of pressure in the circuit |
| a geriatric patient is considered to be a patient that has reached how much of its life expectancy | 75% |
| brain damage may occur when there is inadequate oxygenation of the tissues for how long | 4 mins |
| when a technician is performing CPR alone the ration of cardiac compression to ventilation should be what | 5:1 or 10:2 |
| to ensure that the benefit an animal obtains from CPR is not lost, one should not discontinue the CPR for how long | 30 seconds |
| respiratory arrest is always fatal (true/false) | false |
| atropine and glycopyrrolate are what type of drugs | anticholinergic |
| acepromazine is what type of drug | phenothiazine |
| dexmedetomidine, medetomidine, and xylazine are what types of drugs | alpha-2 agonist |
| diazepam, midazolam, and zolazepam are what type of drugs | benzodiazepines |
| buprenorphine, butorphanol, fentanyl, hydromorphone, meperidine, morphine, and oxymorphone are what type of drugs | opioid |
| ketamine and tiletamine are what kind of drugs | dissociative |
| how should an inhalant anesthetic be given | to effect |
| what does MAC measure | anesthetic potency |
| an unpleasant sensory or emotional experience associated with acute or potential tissue damage | pain |
| visceral or somatic pain | peripheral |
| pain originating from damaged nerves | neuropathic |
| pain that is ongoing | clinical |
| pain of unknown cause | idiopathic |
| immunosuppression, increased tissue catabolism, reduced healing, increased autonomic activity (primarily sympathetic) emotional stress/distress are all what | clinical pain effects on the patient |
| reduction or absence of pain sensation with out loss of other sensations | analgesia |
| "controlled death" loss of sensation to part or all of the body | anesthesia |
| anesthesia induced by infiltrating immediate arear with an agent that interferes with nerve-impulse transmission | local anesthesia |
| anesthesia achieved by blocking nerve or nerve endings that supply a region or segment of the body | regional/sedmental anesthesia |
| anesthesia induced by injecting local anesthetic or analgesic agent into the subarachnoid or epidural space of spianl cord | spinal/epidural anesthesia |
| the purposeful derangement of a patients normal physiologic processes to produce a state of unconsciousness, relaxation,m analgesia, and/or amnesia | general anesthesia |
| mild to profound degree of CNS depression in which patient is drowsy but may be aroused by painful stimuli | sedation |
| state of relaxation and calmness characterized by lack of anxiety or concern without significant drowsiness | tranqulization |
| acupuncture, electrical nerve stimulation, magnetic field induction and neurolysis are all what | alternative pain relief modalities |
| 5% loss of body water, eyelid pinch= mild tenting, pinch slowly relaxes; cornea is moist; minimal space between canthus and globe; decreased pliability of neck skin; moist, warm, pink MM; are indications of what hydration status | mild |
| 6-9% loss of body water, eyelid pinch= moderate tenting, pinch persists; cornea drier, tearing infequent; pronounced space between canthus and globe; skin tint persists 3-5 sec; sticky MM, are signs of what hydration status | moderate |
| 10-15% loss of body water; eyelid pinch= severe tint, pinch persists; cornea dry, no tearing; space >4mm between canthus and globe; skin tented and persists >5 sec; dry, cold, pale MM; poor CRT are signs of what hydration status | severe |
| how many ASA classification are there | 5 |
| this ASA classification is a normal healthy animal with minimal risk | class I |
| this ASA classification is an animal with mild systemic disturbances but is able to compensation, slight risk with minor disease | class II |
| this ASA classification is an animal with moderate systemic disease, mild CS, moderate risk, obvious disease present | class III |
| this ASA classification is animals with severe systemic diseae, high risk, significantly compromised by disease | class IV |
| this ASA classification is an extreme risk animal, surgery is often performed in desperate attempt to save animals life | class V |
| how long should a canine, feline, equine, swine be fasted before an anesthetic procedure | 8-12 hours, water ad lib |
| how long should a large ruminant be fasted before an anesthetic procedure | 36-48 hours, with hold water 12-24 hours |
| how long should a small ruminant be fasted before an anesthetic procedure | 24 hours, with hold water 6-8 hours |
| how long should a neonate be fasted before an anesthetic procedure | 2-4 hours if at all |
| what special consideration should be taken for patients with renal disease when fasting before an anesthetic procedure | never with hold water |
| occular/nasal discharge, chemosis, subcutaneous edema, increased lung sounds, increased RR, dyspnea, coughing, restlessness can all be signs of what | overhydration |
| the tendency of a molecule to escape from a liquid phase to the vapor/gas phase | vapor pressure |
| what determines how readily the anesthetic liquid evaporate in the anesthetic machine vaporizer | vapor pressure |
| information about anesthetics speed of inductin, recovery, and potency | solubility coefficient |
| how soluble the anesthetic is in the blood; how much/how quickly the agent will diffuse from alveoli into blood | blood gas solubility coefficient |
| what is the most nephrotoxic inhalation anesthetic agent | methoxyflurane |
| which inhalation anesthetic agent is the only one that does not decrease blood flow through the hepatic artery and portal vein | isoflurance |
| to calm the patient, provide analgesia, reduce/eliminate the adverse effects associated with use of general anesthetics, help maintain anesthesia, smooth inductin, improve recovery are all what | reasons for preanesthetics |
| all preanesthetics except which one cross the placental barrier | glycopyrrolate |
| this type of premed blocks acetylcholine receptors, reverse effects of parasympathetic system | anticholinergics |
| what premed increases heart rate, decreases gut motility, decreases salivation | anticholinergics |
| this type of tranquilizer is commonly used, does not caused significant respiratory or cardiac depression, wide margin of safety in healthy patients, effective in many species, may be given in combo with other drugs | phenothiazines |
| sedation, antiemetic, antiarrhythemic effect, antihistamine effect, peripheral vasodilation, personality effects, penile prolapse, lack of analgesia | phenothiazines |
| phenothiazine metabolized by liver; lasts up to 8hrs; can cause low BP; antiemetic, antiarrhythmic, antihistamine, anti-anxiety, causes platelet dysfunction, no reversal agent | acepromazine |
| this type of tranqulizers effects are caused by release fo amma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)- an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain | benzodiazepines |
| antianxiety and calming, skeletal muscle relaxtion, anticonvulsant activity, minimal adverse effects, appetite stimulation, behavior modification, can be reversed | benzodiazepines |
| what is the reversal agent for benzodiazipines | flumazenil |
| premeds that bind to receptors with in the body that are the most effective analgesics | opiods |
| how many types of opiods are there | 3 |
| this type of opiod stimulates all types of receptors; includes morphine, oxymorphone, fentanyl | pure agonists |
| this type of opiod blocks one type of receptor and stimulates another type; includes butorphanol | mixed agonists/antagonists |
| this type of opiod blocks all types of receptors; includes naloxone | pure antagonists |
| morphine, merepidine, fentanyl, hydromorphone, oxymorphone, and methodone are what type of opiod | agonists (full or mu) |
| buprenorphine is what type of opiod | partial agonists (mu) |
| butorphanol, pentazocine, nalbuphine are what types of opiods | agonist-antagonist |
| affinity for the receptor; how much drug to give to bind to the receptor and activate it | potency |
| anticipated clinical effect and how well it works | efficacy |
| compressed gas supply, anesthetic machine, and breathing circuit are all what | main part of anesthetic system |
| these type of cylinders are small cylinders that are usually attaches to the anesthetic machine | E cylinders |
| these are cylinders that stand seperate from the anesthetic machine | large cylinders |
| the function of this is to mix oxygen and the desired amount of anesthetic and deliver the mixture to the breathing circuit | anesthetic machine |
| this part of the anesthetic machine consists of a dial attached to a graduate glass cylinder and allows the anesthetists to see the amount of oxygen to be delivered to the patient | flowmeter |
| this part of the anesthetc machine converts liquid anesthetic to a vapor state and adds a controlled amount of anesthetic vapor to carrier gas flowing through the machine | vaporizer |
| this part of the anesthetic machine carries anesthetic and oxygen from the vaporizer to the patient and conveys expired gases away from the patient | breathing circuit |
| reservoir bags should have a minimum volume of what | 60/ml/kg |
| this part of the anesthetic machine prevents build-up of excess pressure or volume of gas with in the circuit; main purpose is to allow excess gas to exit the anesthetic circuit and enter the scavenging system | pop-off valve |
| this part of the anesthetic machine allows oxygen to bypass the flowmeter and vaporizer and enter the machine between the unidirectional valves | oxygen flush valve |
| this part of the anesthetic machine measures the pressure of gases within the breathing system | pressure manometer |
| this type of vaporizer is designed to deliver an exact concentration of anesthetic, are labeled for use with one anesthetic only | precision vaporizer |
| this type of vaporizer can only be used with anesthetics that have a low vapor pressure, concentration of anesthetic delivered is unknown | nonprecision vaporizer |
| this type of rebreathing system requires a low oxygen flow rate, allows all gases exhaled by the patient to remain in the circuit | total rebreathing system |
| this type of rebreathing system requires a higher oxygen flow rate, allows some gases exhaled by the patient to remain in the circuit | partial rebreathing system |
| this is the forced delivery of oxygen to the patient that can be achieved by bagging or a ventilator | assisted ventilation |
| this is necessary when neuromuscular blocking agents are used (paralytics) and is assisted or controlled breathing by the anesthetists | intermittent positive pressure ventilation |
| what are the two different types of ET tubes used in veterinary medicine | murphy; magil |
| which type of ET tube have a beveled patient end and no eye | magil |
| which type of ET tube has a beveled patient end and an eye near the beveld end | murphy |
| this is an ultra short acting thibarbiturate; highly fat soluble; short onset of duration and action (5-15 mins) only IV; arrhytomogenicity; protein binding; no analgesia; cheap; schedule III controlled substance; decreases intracranial pressure | thiopental |
| phenolic compound; non barbiturate; non steroid; IV only; similiar to thiopental but doesnt cause as much excitement; milk of anesthesia; limited shelf life; can be used as a CRI; rapid onset & short duration; may cause injury to feline RBC; no analgesia | propofol |
| nonbarbiturate; imidazole hypnotic agent; rapid induction and recovery; only IV(painful); excellent for <3 patients, mild respiratory depressant; crosses placental barrier but is rapidly cleared w/little effects; can be $; wide safety margin; | etomidate |
| muscle relaxant commonly given 2 large animals as part of a combo; common decongestant and antitussive; only IV; crosses placental barrier w/ minimal effects | guafenesin |
| mostly commonly used agent in N. american sm practices; controlled substance; rapid onset; IV/IM or PO off label; potent cerebral vasodilator; cardiovascularly supportive drug; some analgesia; better recovery when premeds are used; avoid use in renal cats | ketamine |
| 1:1 ratio of dissociative; benzodiazepine; popular in private practice; cheap; effective in many species; IV/IM/SC; stable 4 days at room temp/ 14 days in fridge; similar to ketamine; avoid use in patients w/ CNS signs, hyperthyroidism, cardiac dz, etc | telazol |
| these are variables that indicate how the patients body is responding to anesthesia | vital signs |
| these are involuntary responses to given stimuli | reflexes |
| presence of a heart beat means that circulation in the body is adequate (true/false) | false |
| the force exerted by flowing blood on arterial walls | blood pressure |
| a 3x3 sponge that is fully soaked with blood equals how many mls of blood | 5-6 |
| how often should you routinely bag the patient while under inhalation anesthesia | every 5 mins |
| inspiration followed by prolonged pause before expiration | apneustic breathing |
| highest pressure exerted throughout cardiac cycle; produced by contraction of ventricles and propels blood through aorta and major arteries | systolic blood pressure |
| lowest pressure throughout cardiac cycle; pressure that remins when the heart is in its resting phase | diastolic blood pressure |
| average pressure throughout cardiac cycle; best indicator of blood perfusion to internal organs | mean arterial pressure |
| pressure detected by manual palpation of an artery; difference between systolic and diastolic pressure | pulse pressure |
| this type of blood pressure reading is obtained through a catheter inserted into an artery; rarely used in veterinary practice | direct monitoring |
| this type of blood pressure is obtained through a probe place on the outside surface of an animal and the cuff is used to compress an artery | indirect monitoring |
| the amount of free o2 in plasma | PaO2 |
| the amount of o2 bound to hemoglobin | Sao2 |
| when the electrical impulse that causes the heart to beat is not being transmitted efficiently through out the heart | heart block |
| the degree of heartblock with prolonged interval between p wave and QRS complex | first degree |
| the degree of heartblock with some P waves that are not followed by QRS complexes | second degree |
| the degree of heartblock with atrial and ventricular contrations occuring independently; P wave occur in one pattern and QRS complexes occur at completely different intervals | third degree |
| contration within small muscle bundles within the ventricles causing irregular, inefficient ventricular contractions; indicates impending cardiac arrest | fibrillation |
| ineffective and uncoordinated ventricular contrations that occur as a bizarre, wide QRS complex | premature ventricular contrations |
| in healthy animals 1 dog will die in every how many procedures | 870 |
| in healthy animals 1 cat will die in every how many procedures | 552 |
| in animals with systemic disease 1 will die in every how many procedures | 30 |
| this device should be premeasured from the incisors to the mid-neck and advanced no further than the point of the shoulder | ET tube |
| pediatric patients are those that are considered to be how old | younger than 3 months |
| drug dosages in pediatric patients should be calculated at what of normal dosages | 1/2- 2/3 of normal dose |
| these type of dogs tend to have higher parasympathetic tone causing bradycardia | brachycephalic |
| the absence of a palpable pulse at the metatarsal atery suggests a systolic blood pressure of < what | 60 mmHg |
| absence of palpable pulse at the femoral artery suggests a systolic blood pressure of < what | 40 mmHg |
| what does the A in the steps of CPR stand for | airway |
| what does the B in the steps of CPR stand for | breathing |
| what does the C in the steps of CPR stand for | circulation |
| what does the D in the steps of CPR stand for | drugs |
| what does the E in the steps of CPR stand for | ECG |
| what does the F in the steps of CPR stand for | fluids |
| when breathing for a patient during CPR how often should a breath be given | every 3-5 seconds |
| when doing chest compressions during CPR how often should the rate of compressions be | 1-2 times/second |
| the method to determine the amount of co2 in the air that is breathed in and out by the patient | capnography |
| what is the normal systolic pressure | 120 mmHg |
| what is the normal diastolic pressure | 80 mmHg |
| what is the normal MAP in an awake patient | 90-100 mmHg |
| what is the normal MAP in an anesthetizes patient | 70-90 mmHg |
| what reading of PaO2 is considered hypoxic | <60 mmHg |
| what reading of SaO2 is considered hypoxic | <90 mmHg |
| what is the normal capnography range of a dog | 35-47 mmHg |
| what is the normal capnography range of a cat | 32-35 mmHg |
| what is the maintenance rate of fluids | 40-60ml/kg/day |
| what is the surgical rate of fluids | 10ml/kg/day |
| how many mls of fluid should be given for every ml of blood lost | 3 |
| what is the shock fluid rate for the first hour in a dog | 90ml/kg |
| what is the shock fluid rate for the first hour in a cat | 50ml/kg |
| what can overhydration cause especially in very small animals or patients with heart or kidneys disease | pulmonary/cerebral edema |
| this is the upper jaw | maxilla |
| this is the lower portion of the jaw | mandible |
| this is the portion of the roof of the mouth that consists of hard bone | hard palate |
| mucous membrane that has irregular ridges, covers the hard palate | rugae palatinae |
| posterior portion of the roof of the mouth which does not have underlying bone | soft palate |
| hinge joint that connects that maxilla and mandible | temporomandibular joint |
| structures and surfaces beneath the tongue | sublingual |
| tissue that forms the lining of most of the oral cavity outside the mucogingival line | mucous membrane |
| tip of the crown | cusp |
| deepest part of the root | apex |
| small channels where blood vessels and nerves enter the tooth | apical delta |
| large canals in the apex of the root through which nerves and vessels pass into the root canal | apical foramen |
| the area between the free gingiva and the tooth when healthy and without space | sulcus |
| when there is a space between the free gingiva and tooth, considered disease tissue when periodontal disease is present | pockets |
| treatment of disease related to the way the teeth fit together | orthodontic |
| oral disease caused by the malalignment of teeth classified by three different groups of malocclusions | orthodontic disease |
| normal occlusion, except that one or two teeth are out of alingment | class I |
| mandible is shorter than normal can cause adult canines and incisors to penetrate the hard palate and irritate/ulcerate the hard palate | class II |
| several forms, can be mandible being to long or bowed, maxilla being to short | class III |
| normal occlusion except one or more of the incisors are malaligned | anterior cross bite |
| maxillary premolars are lingual to the mandibular premolars or molars | posterior cross bite |
| structural narrowing of the mandible or by the eruption of the canines in an overly upright position | base narrowed canines |
| maxillary canines are tipped in a rostral position and are trapped by the mandibular canines | spearing |
| the treatment of disease inside the tooth | endodontics |
| result from advanced periodontal disease on the inside of the canines | oronasal fistulas |
| these develope when patients with renal disease develop ulcerations on the tip of the tongue | uremic ulceration |
| these are benign and are common and usually result from periodontal disease or irritation | granulomas |
| proliferation of gingival cells and is common among collies, boxers, and cocker spaniels | gingival hyperplasia |
| tumors in the tissue of the gingiva that contain fibrous tissue | fibromatous epulides |
| contain a large amount of bone material and can be difficult to remove | ossifying epulis |
| primarilarly composed of epithelial cells associate with the tissue, tend to invade bone | acanthomatous epulis |
| locally invasive and highly metastatic to the lungs, more common in dogs than cats | malignant melanoma |
| occur in the mandible or maxilla and create fleshy, protruding, firm masses that sometimes are friable | fibrosarcoma |
| arise in a variety of locations and develops from epithelium cells, most common tumor in cats | squamous cell carcinoma |
| four main types of hand instruments | probe, explorer, scaler, curette |
| portion that comes in contact with the patients tooth | working end |
| part of the shank that is closest to the working end | terminal shank |
| joins the working end with the handle | shank |
| parts that are grasped- round, tapered, and hexagonal shaped | handle |
| this is the most common type of explorer | shepherds hook |
| this explorer allows operator to use the tip of the instrument and avoid touching with the side of the instruments those parts of the tooth that are not being explored | pigtail explorer |
| this dental instrument is used to detect plaque and calculus primarily | explorer |
| this dental instrument is used to evaluate pockets or sulcus depth | periodontal probe |
| this dental instrument is used for quick removal of large pieces of calcuulus | calculus removal forceps |
| have 3 sharp sides and a sharp tip, used for scaling calculus from the crown surface | scalers |
| fine scaler used for extremely small teeth | morris |
| most commonly used type of scaler | sickle scaler |
| used for the removal of calculus both supragingivally and subgingivally | currettes |
| this dental instrument has two sharp sides and a round toe | currettes |
| this type of currette can adapt to almost all dental surfaces | universal |
| this type of currette is adaptable to different areas of the mouth | area specific |
| inflammation and infection of the tissues surrounding the tooth | periodontal disease |
| a glycoprotein component of saliva that attaches to the tooth surface | acquire pellicle |
| as periodontal disease progresses this type of bacteria begin to colonize | gram negative |
| subgingival plaque may be found in these four areas | pocket, sulcus, tooth, gingiva |
| this stage of periodontal disease can appear 2 to 4 days after plaque accumulation in previously healthy gingival | stage 1 |
| this stage of periodontal disease is known as advance gingivitis | stage 2 |
| this stage of periodontal disease has advance breakdown, severe pocket depth, bleeding easily on probing, pus, bone loss, and mobility | stage 4 |
| these are performed for patients with healthy stage 1 or 2 periodontal disease | prophys |
| this is performed for patients with stage 3 or 4 periodontal disease | periodontal therapy |
| the two following types of devices in the handpiece can pick up the sound wave and turn it into vibration | piezoelectric, magnetostrictive |
| the four types of hazards | chemical, physical, ergonomic, biologic |
| the most common malignant oral tumor in a dog | melanoma |
| the most common oral disease among dogs and cats | gingivitis |
| mandibular prognathis is an example of a class II malocclusion | false |
| felines do not have a first premolar in the maxilla so numbering starts with two in the maxilla | true |
| inflammation of the gums caused by bacteria | gingivitis |
| step one of a dental prophy | preliminary exam and evaluation |
| step two of a dental prophy | gross calculus removal |
| step three of a dental prophy | periodontal probing |
| step four of a dental prophy | subgingival calculus removal |
| step five of a dental prophy | missed plaque/calculus detection |
| step six of a dental prophy | polishing |
| step seven of a dental prophy | sulcus irrigation |
| step eight of a dental prophy | periodontal diagnostics |
| step nine of a dental prophy | final charting |
| step ten of a dental prophy | home care by the owner |
| these are cavities in cats and dogs | caries |
| mandibular prognathis is when the mandible is too long, class III | true |
| maxillary brachygnathis is when the maxilla is too short, class III | true |
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