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vet 2105

midterm

QuestionAnswer
etomidate is particularly well suited for induction of dogs with which type of systemic disease severe cardiac disease
injectable drugs that are highly fat soluble are likely to be taken up by the brain more quickly than drugs that are not fat soluble (true/false) true
Ketamine HCL is what type of anesthetic drug dissociative
metabolism and elimination of ketamine HCl is the same in the dog as it is in the cat (true/false) false
halothane may sensitize the heart to catecholamines (true/false) true
halothane is moderately soluble in rubber which may result in release of gas from the equipment (true/false) true
an anesthetic agent with a low solubility coefficient will result in ___ induction and recovery time fast
what gas anesthetic has the lowest solubility coefficient out of halothane, isoflurane, methoxyflurane, sevoflurane sevoflurane
as a rough guideline to safely maintain a surgical plane of anesthesia, the vaporizer should be set at ___x MAC 1.5
isoflurane is a more potent cardiac depressant than halothane (true/false) false
propofol sometimes causes transient apnea, to avoid this the aneshetist should titrate the drug in several boluses
as the depth of anesthesia increases, there will be continued depression of cardiovascular and respiratory function (true/false) true
the surgical plane of anesthesia is generally considered to be stage III plane 2
breath holding, vocalization, and involuntary movement of the limbs are most likely an indication that the animal is in what stage/plane of anesthesia stage II
an increase in respiratory rate tachypnea
a decrease in respiratory rate bradypnea
collapsed alveoli atelectasis
after an anesthetic procedure when is it best to extubate the patient when the animal begins to swallow
pale mucous membranes may be an indication of what anemia
it is illegal in the U.S. to put an animal under anesthesia with out what informed consent
why would we want to ask an owner about exercise tolerance during a history exercise intolerance can indicate heart or lung disease
an obese animal that is otherwise healthy is considered what class of anesthetic risk class II
pre-anesthetic agents are routinely administered how long before induction of general anesthesia 10-15 mins
the standard surgical anesthetic fluid rate is what 10ml/kg/hr
the color utilized for isoflurane recognition is purple
the color utilized for sevoflurane recognition is yellow
easier induction of the patient is a reason for the use of a preanesthetic agent (true/false) true
deeper plane of anesthetis is a reason for use of a preanesthetic agent (true/false) false
pain management is a reason for use of a preanesthetic agent (true/false) true
smoother recovery is a reason for use of a preanesthetic agent (true/false) true
what does MAC stand for mininum alveolar concentration
why should you include an anticholinergic in a preanesthetic medication to prevent bradycardia
what is the normal condition where the heart rate increases slightly apon inhalation called sinus arrhythmia
mucous membranes that are yellow in color are otherwise known as jaundice
if pre anesthetic blood work shows a low pcv this would indicate what anemia
if pre anesthetic blood work shows an increased pcv and tp this would likely indicate what dehydration
analgesics that are use post operatively can often cause what GI irritation or ulcerations
clinical pain effects in the patient can alter what healing times, tissue catabolism, emotions
you can minimize anesthesia time by planning ahead (true/false) true
you should avoid drugs that can reduce pre existing health problems (true/false) false
it is advisable to routinely bag a patient every 7 mins during anesthesia (true/false) false
the resivor bag deflats every time a patient inhales (true/false) true
when reading the ball indicator on the flowmeter you should read what part of the ball middle
what on the anesthetic machine is used to allow you to breath for your patient pop-off valve
what on the anesthetic machine contains carbon that absorbs excess anesthetic gas and CO2 scavenger canister
a non rebreathing system is used for patients weighing how much less than 7kg
what is the item on the anesthetic machine called that contains the anesthetic gas vaporizer
what does soda lime absorb CO2
what color does soda lime turn when it is fully absorbed/used up purple
when giving a breath to a patient you should never go above what on the pressure manometer 20cm of H2O
what does CRI stand for constant rate infusion
oxygen tanks can be identified simply because they are always what color green
what types of drugs might be used for premeds opiods, anticholinergics, alpha 2 agonisist, sedatives, tranqulizers
if the pop off valve is inadvertently left shut what will happen a significant rise of pressure in the circuit
a geriatric patient is considered to be a patient that has reached how much of its life expectancy 75%
brain damage may occur when there is inadequate oxygenation of the tissues for how long 4 mins
when a technician is performing CPR alone the ration of cardiac compression to ventilation should be what 5:1 or 10:2
to ensure that the benefit an animal obtains from CPR is not lost, one should not discontinue the CPR for how long 30 seconds
respiratory arrest is always fatal (true/false) false
atropine and glycopyrrolate are what type of drugs anticholinergic
acepromazine is what type of drug phenothiazine
dexmedetomidine, medetomidine, and xylazine are what types of drugs alpha-2 agonist
diazepam, midazolam, and zolazepam are what type of drugs benzodiazepines
buprenorphine, butorphanol, fentanyl, hydromorphone, meperidine, morphine, and oxymorphone are what type of drugs opioid
ketamine and tiletamine are what kind of drugs dissociative
how should an inhalant anesthetic be given to effect
what does MAC measure anesthetic potency
an unpleasant sensory or emotional experience associated with acute or potential tissue damage pain
visceral or somatic pain peripheral
pain originating from damaged nerves neuropathic
pain that is ongoing clinical
pain of unknown cause idiopathic
immunosuppression, increased tissue catabolism, reduced healing, increased autonomic activity (primarily sympathetic) emotional stress/distress are all what clinical pain effects on the patient
reduction or absence of pain sensation with out loss of other sensations analgesia
"controlled death" loss of sensation to part or all of the body anesthesia
anesthesia induced by infiltrating immediate arear with an agent that interferes with nerve-impulse transmission local anesthesia
anesthesia achieved by blocking nerve or nerve endings that supply a region or segment of the body regional/sedmental anesthesia
anesthesia induced by injecting local anesthetic or analgesic agent into the subarachnoid or epidural space of spianl cord spinal/epidural anesthesia
the purposeful derangement of a patients normal physiologic processes to produce a state of unconsciousness, relaxation,m analgesia, and/or amnesia general anesthesia
mild to profound degree of CNS depression in which patient is drowsy but may be aroused by painful stimuli sedation
state of relaxation and calmness characterized by lack of anxiety or concern without significant drowsiness tranqulization
acupuncture, electrical nerve stimulation, magnetic field induction and neurolysis are all what alternative pain relief modalities
5% loss of body water, eyelid pinch= mild tenting, pinch slowly relaxes; cornea is moist; minimal space between canthus and globe; decreased pliability of neck skin; moist, warm, pink MM; are indications of what hydration status mild
6-9% loss of body water, eyelid pinch= moderate tenting, pinch persists; cornea drier, tearing infequent; pronounced space between canthus and globe; skin tint persists 3-5 sec; sticky MM, are signs of what hydration status moderate
10-15% loss of body water; eyelid pinch= severe tint, pinch persists; cornea dry, no tearing; space >4mm between canthus and globe; skin tented and persists >5 sec; dry, cold, pale MM; poor CRT are signs of what hydration status severe
how many ASA classification are there 5
this ASA classification is a normal healthy animal with minimal risk class I
this ASA classification is an animal with mild systemic disturbances but is able to compensation, slight risk with minor disease class II
this ASA classification is an animal with moderate systemic disease, mild CS, moderate risk, obvious disease present class III
this ASA classification is animals with severe systemic diseae, high risk, significantly compromised by disease class IV
this ASA classification is an extreme risk animal, surgery is often performed in desperate attempt to save animals life class V
how long should a canine, feline, equine, swine be fasted before an anesthetic procedure 8-12 hours, water ad lib
how long should a large ruminant be fasted before an anesthetic procedure 36-48 hours, with hold water 12-24 hours
how long should a small ruminant be fasted before an anesthetic procedure 24 hours, with hold water 6-8 hours
how long should a neonate be fasted before an anesthetic procedure 2-4 hours if at all
what special consideration should be taken for patients with renal disease when fasting before an anesthetic procedure never with hold water
occular/nasal discharge, chemosis, subcutaneous edema, increased lung sounds, increased RR, dyspnea, coughing, restlessness can all be signs of what overhydration
the tendency of a molecule to escape from a liquid phase to the vapor/gas phase vapor pressure
what determines how readily the anesthetic liquid evaporate in the anesthetic machine vaporizer vapor pressure
information about anesthetics speed of inductin, recovery, and potency solubility coefficient
how soluble the anesthetic is in the blood; how much/how quickly the agent will diffuse from alveoli into blood blood gas solubility coefficient
what is the most nephrotoxic inhalation anesthetic agent methoxyflurane
which inhalation anesthetic agent is the only one that does not decrease blood flow through the hepatic artery and portal vein isoflurance
to calm the patient, provide analgesia, reduce/eliminate the adverse effects associated with use of general anesthetics, help maintain anesthesia, smooth inductin, improve recovery are all what reasons for preanesthetics
all preanesthetics except which one cross the placental barrier glycopyrrolate
this type of premed blocks acetylcholine receptors, reverse effects of parasympathetic system anticholinergics
what premed increases heart rate, decreases gut motility, decreases salivation anticholinergics
this type of tranquilizer is commonly used, does not caused significant respiratory or cardiac depression, wide margin of safety in healthy patients, effective in many species, may be given in combo with other drugs phenothiazines
sedation, antiemetic, antiarrhythemic effect, antihistamine effect, peripheral vasodilation, personality effects, penile prolapse, lack of analgesia phenothiazines
phenothiazine metabolized by liver; lasts up to 8hrs; can cause low BP; antiemetic, antiarrhythmic, antihistamine, anti-anxiety, causes platelet dysfunction, no reversal agent acepromazine
this type of tranqulizers effects are caused by release fo amma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)- an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain benzodiazepines
antianxiety and calming, skeletal muscle relaxtion, anticonvulsant activity, minimal adverse effects, appetite stimulation, behavior modification, can be reversed benzodiazepines
what is the reversal agent for benzodiazipines flumazenil
premeds that bind to receptors with in the body that are the most effective analgesics opiods
how many types of opiods are there 3
this type of opiod stimulates all types of receptors; includes morphine, oxymorphone, fentanyl pure agonists
this type of opiod blocks one type of receptor and stimulates another type; includes butorphanol mixed agonists/antagonists
this type of opiod blocks all types of receptors; includes naloxone pure antagonists
morphine, merepidine, fentanyl, hydromorphone, oxymorphone, and methodone are what type of opiod agonists (full or mu)
buprenorphine is what type of opiod partial agonists (mu)
butorphanol, pentazocine, nalbuphine are what types of opiods agonist-antagonist
affinity for the receptor; how much drug to give to bind to the receptor and activate it potency
anticipated clinical effect and how well it works efficacy
compressed gas supply, anesthetic machine, and breathing circuit are all what main part of anesthetic system
these type of cylinders are small cylinders that are usually attaches to the anesthetic machine E cylinders
these are cylinders that stand seperate from the anesthetic machine large cylinders
the function of this is to mix oxygen and the desired amount of anesthetic and deliver the mixture to the breathing circuit anesthetic machine
this part of the anesthetic machine consists of a dial attached to a graduate glass cylinder and allows the anesthetists to see the amount of oxygen to be delivered to the patient flowmeter
this part of the anesthetc machine converts liquid anesthetic to a vapor state and adds a controlled amount of anesthetic vapor to carrier gas flowing through the machine vaporizer
this part of the anesthetic machine carries anesthetic and oxygen from the vaporizer to the patient and conveys expired gases away from the patient breathing circuit
reservoir bags should have a minimum volume of what 60/ml/kg
this part of the anesthetic machine prevents build-up of excess pressure or volume of gas with in the circuit; main purpose is to allow excess gas to exit the anesthetic circuit and enter the scavenging system pop-off valve
this part of the anesthetic machine allows oxygen to bypass the flowmeter and vaporizer and enter the machine between the unidirectional valves oxygen flush valve
this part of the anesthetic machine measures the pressure of gases within the breathing system pressure manometer
this type of vaporizer is designed to deliver an exact concentration of anesthetic, are labeled for use with one anesthetic only precision vaporizer
this type of vaporizer can only be used with anesthetics that have a low vapor pressure, concentration of anesthetic delivered is unknown nonprecision vaporizer
this type of rebreathing system requires a low oxygen flow rate, allows all gases exhaled by the patient to remain in the circuit total rebreathing system
this type of rebreathing system requires a higher oxygen flow rate, allows some gases exhaled by the patient to remain in the circuit partial rebreathing system
this is the forced delivery of oxygen to the patient that can be achieved by bagging or a ventilator assisted ventilation
this is necessary when neuromuscular blocking agents are used (paralytics) and is assisted or controlled breathing by the anesthetists intermittent positive pressure ventilation
what are the two different types of ET tubes used in veterinary medicine murphy; magil
which type of ET tube have a beveled patient end and no eye magil
which type of ET tube has a beveled patient end and an eye near the beveld end murphy
this is an ultra short acting thibarbiturate; highly fat soluble; short onset of duration and action (5-15 mins) only IV; arrhytomogenicity; protein binding; no analgesia; cheap; schedule III controlled substance; decreases intracranial pressure thiopental
phenolic compound; non barbiturate; non steroid; IV only; similiar to thiopental but doesnt cause as much excitement; milk of anesthesia; limited shelf life; can be used as a CRI; rapid onset & short duration; may cause injury to feline RBC; no analgesia propofol
nonbarbiturate; imidazole hypnotic agent; rapid induction and recovery; only IV(painful); excellent for <3 patients, mild respiratory depressant; crosses placental barrier but is rapidly cleared w/little effects; can be $; wide safety margin; etomidate
muscle relaxant commonly given 2 large animals as part of a combo; common decongestant and antitussive; only IV; crosses placental barrier w/ minimal effects guafenesin
mostly commonly used agent in N. american sm practices; controlled substance; rapid onset; IV/IM or PO off label; potent cerebral vasodilator; cardiovascularly supportive drug; some analgesia; better recovery when premeds are used; avoid use in renal cats ketamine
1:1 ratio of dissociative; benzodiazepine; popular in private practice; cheap; effective in many species; IV/IM/SC; stable 4 days at room temp/ 14 days in fridge; similar to ketamine; avoid use in patients w/ CNS signs, hyperthyroidism, cardiac dz, etc telazol
these are variables that indicate how the patients body is responding to anesthesia vital signs
these are involuntary responses to given stimuli reflexes
presence of a heart beat means that circulation in the body is adequate (true/false) false
the force exerted by flowing blood on arterial walls blood pressure
a 3x3 sponge that is fully soaked with blood equals how many mls of blood 5-6
how often should you routinely bag the patient while under inhalation anesthesia every 5 mins
inspiration followed by prolonged pause before expiration apneustic breathing
highest pressure exerted throughout cardiac cycle; produced by contraction of ventricles and propels blood through aorta and major arteries systolic blood pressure
lowest pressure throughout cardiac cycle; pressure that remins when the heart is in its resting phase diastolic blood pressure
average pressure throughout cardiac cycle; best indicator of blood perfusion to internal organs mean arterial pressure
pressure detected by manual palpation of an artery; difference between systolic and diastolic pressure pulse pressure
this type of blood pressure reading is obtained through a catheter inserted into an artery; rarely used in veterinary practice direct monitoring
this type of blood pressure is obtained through a probe place on the outside surface of an animal and the cuff is used to compress an artery indirect monitoring
the amount of free o2 in plasma PaO2
the amount of o2 bound to hemoglobin Sao2
when the electrical impulse that causes the heart to beat is not being transmitted efficiently through out the heart heart block
the degree of heartblock with prolonged interval between p wave and QRS complex first degree
the degree of heartblock with some P waves that are not followed by QRS complexes second degree
the degree of heartblock with atrial and ventricular contrations occuring independently; P wave occur in one pattern and QRS complexes occur at completely different intervals third degree
contration within small muscle bundles within the ventricles causing irregular, inefficient ventricular contractions; indicates impending cardiac arrest fibrillation
ineffective and uncoordinated ventricular contrations that occur as a bizarre, wide QRS complex premature ventricular contrations
in healthy animals 1 dog will die in every how many procedures 870
in healthy animals 1 cat will die in every how many procedures 552
in animals with systemic disease 1 will die in every how many procedures 30
this device should be premeasured from the incisors to the mid-neck and advanced no further than the point of the shoulder ET tube
pediatric patients are those that are considered to be how old younger than 3 months
drug dosages in pediatric patients should be calculated at what of normal dosages 1/2- 2/3 of normal dose
these type of dogs tend to have higher parasympathetic tone causing bradycardia brachycephalic
the absence of a palpable pulse at the metatarsal atery suggests a systolic blood pressure of < what 60 mmHg
absence of palpable pulse at the femoral artery suggests a systolic blood pressure of < what 40 mmHg
what does the A in the steps of CPR stand for airway
what does the B in the steps of CPR stand for breathing
what does the C in the steps of CPR stand for circulation
what does the D in the steps of CPR stand for drugs
what does the E in the steps of CPR stand for ECG
what does the F in the steps of CPR stand for fluids
when breathing for a patient during CPR how often should a breath be given every 3-5 seconds
when doing chest compressions during CPR how often should the rate of compressions be 1-2 times/second
the method to determine the amount of co2 in the air that is breathed in and out by the patient capnography
what is the normal systolic pressure 120 mmHg
what is the normal diastolic pressure 80 mmHg
what is the normal MAP in an awake patient 90-100 mmHg
what is the normal MAP in an anesthetizes patient 70-90 mmHg
what reading of PaO2 is considered hypoxic <60 mmHg
what reading of SaO2 is considered hypoxic <90 mmHg
what is the normal capnography range of a dog 35-47 mmHg
what is the normal capnography range of a cat 32-35 mmHg
what is the maintenance rate of fluids 40-60ml/kg/day
what is the surgical rate of fluids 10ml/kg/day
how many mls of fluid should be given for every ml of blood lost 3
what is the shock fluid rate for the first hour in a dog 90ml/kg
what is the shock fluid rate for the first hour in a cat 50ml/kg
what can overhydration cause especially in very small animals or patients with heart or kidneys disease pulmonary/cerebral edema
this is the upper jaw maxilla
this is the lower portion of the jaw mandible
this is the portion of the roof of the mouth that consists of hard bone hard palate
mucous membrane that has irregular ridges, covers the hard palate rugae palatinae
posterior portion of the roof of the mouth which does not have underlying bone soft palate
hinge joint that connects that maxilla and mandible temporomandibular joint
structures and surfaces beneath the tongue sublingual
tissue that forms the lining of most of the oral cavity outside the mucogingival line mucous membrane
tip of the crown cusp
deepest part of the root apex
small channels where blood vessels and nerves enter the tooth apical delta
large canals in the apex of the root through which nerves and vessels pass into the root canal apical foramen
the area between the free gingiva and the tooth when healthy and without space sulcus
when there is a space between the free gingiva and tooth, considered disease tissue when periodontal disease is present pockets
treatment of disease related to the way the teeth fit together orthodontic
oral disease caused by the malalignment of teeth classified by three different groups of malocclusions orthodontic disease
normal occlusion, except that one or two teeth are out of alingment class I
mandible is shorter than normal can cause adult canines and incisors to penetrate the hard palate and irritate/ulcerate the hard palate class II
several forms, can be mandible being to long or bowed, maxilla being to short class III
normal occlusion except one or more of the incisors are malaligned anterior cross bite
maxillary premolars are lingual to the mandibular premolars or molars posterior cross bite
structural narrowing of the mandible or by the eruption of the canines in an overly upright position base narrowed canines
maxillary canines are tipped in a rostral position and are trapped by the mandibular canines spearing
the treatment of disease inside the tooth endodontics
result from advanced periodontal disease on the inside of the canines oronasal fistulas
these develope when patients with renal disease develop ulcerations on the tip of the tongue uremic ulceration
these are benign and are common and usually result from periodontal disease or irritation granulomas
proliferation of gingival cells and is common among collies, boxers, and cocker spaniels gingival hyperplasia
tumors in the tissue of the gingiva that contain fibrous tissue fibromatous epulides
contain a large amount of bone material and can be difficult to remove ossifying epulis
primarilarly composed of epithelial cells associate with the tissue, tend to invade bone acanthomatous epulis
locally invasive and highly metastatic to the lungs, more common in dogs than cats malignant melanoma
occur in the mandible or maxilla and create fleshy, protruding, firm masses that sometimes are friable fibrosarcoma
arise in a variety of locations and develops from epithelium cells, most common tumor in cats squamous cell carcinoma
four main types of hand instruments probe, explorer, scaler, curette
portion that comes in contact with the patients tooth working end
part of the shank that is closest to the working end terminal shank
joins the working end with the handle shank
parts that are grasped- round, tapered, and hexagonal shaped handle
this is the most common type of explorer shepherds hook
this explorer allows operator to use the tip of the instrument and avoid touching with the side of the instruments those parts of the tooth that are not being explored pigtail explorer
this dental instrument is used to detect plaque and calculus primarily explorer
this dental instrument is used to evaluate pockets or sulcus depth periodontal probe
this dental instrument is used for quick removal of large pieces of calcuulus calculus removal forceps
have 3 sharp sides and a sharp tip, used for scaling calculus from the crown surface scalers
fine scaler used for extremely small teeth morris
most commonly used type of scaler sickle scaler
used for the removal of calculus both supragingivally and subgingivally currettes
this dental instrument has two sharp sides and a round toe currettes
this type of currette can adapt to almost all dental surfaces universal
this type of currette is adaptable to different areas of the mouth area specific
inflammation and infection of the tissues surrounding the tooth periodontal disease
a glycoprotein component of saliva that attaches to the tooth surface acquire pellicle
as periodontal disease progresses this type of bacteria begin to colonize gram negative
subgingival plaque may be found in these four areas pocket, sulcus, tooth, gingiva
this stage of periodontal disease can appear 2 to 4 days after plaque accumulation in previously healthy gingival stage 1
this stage of periodontal disease is known as advance gingivitis stage 2
this stage of periodontal disease has advance breakdown, severe pocket depth, bleeding easily on probing, pus, bone loss, and mobility stage 4
these are performed for patients with healthy stage 1 or 2 periodontal disease prophys
this is performed for patients with stage 3 or 4 periodontal disease periodontal therapy
the two following types of devices in the handpiece can pick up the sound wave and turn it into vibration piezoelectric, magnetostrictive
the four types of hazards chemical, physical, ergonomic, biologic
the most common malignant oral tumor in a dog melanoma
the most common oral disease among dogs and cats gingivitis
mandibular prognathis is an example of a class II malocclusion false
felines do not have a first premolar in the maxilla so numbering starts with two in the maxilla true
inflammation of the gums caused by bacteria gingivitis
step one of a dental prophy preliminary exam and evaluation
step two of a dental prophy gross calculus removal
step three of a dental prophy periodontal probing
step four of a dental prophy subgingival calculus removal
step five of a dental prophy missed plaque/calculus detection
step six of a dental prophy polishing
step seven of a dental prophy sulcus irrigation
step eight of a dental prophy periodontal diagnostics
step nine of a dental prophy final charting
step ten of a dental prophy home care by the owner
these are cavities in cats and dogs caries
mandibular prognathis is when the mandible is too long, class III true
maxillary brachygnathis is when the maxilla is too short, class III true
Created by: chop