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EMT STUDY

EMT COURSE

Question/AnswerTerm/Defintion
Which of the following are found in the retroperitoneal space? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Kidneys D. Stomach The kidneys lie in the retroperitoneal space—the space behind the abdominal cavity. The spleen, liver, and stomach are all located within the anterior (true) abdomen
Stomach The stomach lies in the left upper quadrant of the abdominal cavity.
The cartilaginous tip of the sternum is called the: A. Costal arch B. Manubrium C. Angle of Louis D. Xiphoid process The xiphoid process projects from the lower part of the sternum. It is made of cartilage and, relative to other parts of the sternum (eg, manubrium, angle of Louis), is soft to palpation
Costal Arch This is the bridge of cartilage that connects the ends of the 6th through 10th ribs to the lower sternum
Manubrium This is the upper section of the sternum, one of three parts.
Angle of Louis This is found at the level where the second rib is attached to the sternum
Fractured the lateral aspect of the femur This means that the outside portion of the femur is broken
Mastoid process This is the prominent bony mass at the base of the skull.
Cricoid cartilage This is the firm ridge of cartilage inferior to (below) the thyroid cartilage
Cricothyroid membrane This is the thin sheet of connective tissue that joins the thyroid cartilage and the cricoid cartilage.
Liver The liver lies immediately beneath the diaphragm in the anterior abdomen. The poisonous by-products of digestion are rendered harmless in the liver.
Thyroid gland The thyroid, which is found in the neck over the larynx, regulates the body’s metabolism
Adrenal glands These glands, which are located in the kidneys, regulate salt levels, sugar levels, and sexual function.
The normal resting adult heart rate is: A. 50 to 70 beats/min. B. 60 to 100 beats/min. C. 80 to 110 beats/min. D. 110 to 120 beats/min The normal resting heart rate for an adult is 60 to 100 beats/min. Bradycardia exists when the adult heart rate is less than 60 beats/min, and tachycardia exists when it is greater than 100 beats/min.
Deoxygenated; body The right atrium of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the body
Deoxygenated; lungs The right atrium and right ventricle are the only parts of the heart that receive deoxygenated blood from the body.
Brain stem The bottom portion of the brain is responsible for vital functions, heart rate, breathing, and blood pressure.
Cerebellum The cerebellum is the smallest part of brain. It is sometimes called the athlete’s brain
Foramen magnum The spinal cord passes through this large opening at the base of the skull.
They contain iron True; hemoglobin found in red blood cells carries iron
Spleen The spleen lies under the rib cage in the left upper quadrant of the abdominal cavity.
Stomach The stomach lies in the left upper quadrant of the abdominal cavity
A person with bilateral femur fractures has: A. Fractured one of his or her femurs. B. Fractured both of his or her femurs. C. One femur fractured in two places. D. Fractured the lateral aspect of the femur. The term bilateral refers to both sides of the body with reference to the midline. Therefore, bilateral femur fractures would indicate that both femurs are fractured.
The MOST prominent landmark on the anterior surface of the neck is the: A. Mastoid process. B. Cricoid cartilage. C. Thyroid cartilage. D. Cricothyroid membrane. The thyroid cartilage, AKA “Adam’s apple,” is the most prominent landmark on the anterior (front) surface of the neck. The cricoid cartilage is located directly inferior to (below) the thyroid cartilage; it is a less prominent landmark
Insulin is produced in the: A. Liver. B. Pancreas. C. Thyroid gland. D .Adrenal glands. The pancreas is a solid organ that produces both insulin and digestive juices. Insulin is produced in the islets of Langerhans, which are a part of the pancreas.
_____ connect(s) muscles to bones. A. Ligaments B. Cartilage C. Tendons D. Joints Tendons connect muscle to bone. Ligaments connect bone to bone. Cartilage is smooth connective tissue covering the ends of bones at mobile joints. Joints consist of the ends of the bones and the surrounding connecting and supporting tissues.
Ligaments Connect bone to bone.
Cartilage Covers the ends of bones at joints
Joints Occur where two long bones come in contact
50 to 70 beats/min Less than 60 beats/min is bradycardia.
80 to 110 beats/min Normal is more than 100 beats/min
110 to 120 beats/min More than 100 beats/min is tachycardia.
The left atrium of the heart receives ___________ blood from the ___________. A. Oxygenated; lungs B. Deoxygenated; body C. Oxygenated; body D. Deoxygenated; lungs The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs via the pulmonary veins. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body via the vena cavae.
The largest part of the brain is the: cerebrum. brain stem. cerebellum. foramen magnum The largest part of the brain is the cerebrum, AKA “gray matter.” The cerebellum AKA “athlete’s brain” is the smallest. The brain stem is responsible for vital functions such as heart rate, breathing, and blood pressure. The foramen magnum is the large op
Which of the following statements about red blood cells is FALSE? A. They contain iron. B. They carry oxygen. C. They help to fight infection. D. They give color to the blood. The hemoglobin molecules in red blood cells contain iron, give color to the blood, and carry oxygen. White blood cells play a role in helping the body to fight infection.
They carry oxygen. True; hemoglobin found in red blood cells carries oxygen.
They give color to the blood True; hemoglobin found in red blood cells gives blood color.
All of the following are examples of standard patient transfer equipment, EXCEPT: A. Stokes baskets. B. Long backboards. C. Wheeled stair chairs. D. Wheeled ambulance stretchers. Ambulances carry wheeled ambulance stretcher, a wheeled stair chair for narrow spaces, a long backboard, and a short backboard or short imm. device.Stokes basket AKA basket stretchers is used for moving patients thru terrain.
The primary purpose of a “jump kit” is to: A. Have available all of the equipment that you will use in the entire call. B. Have available all of the equipment that will be used in the first 5 minutes. Think of a jump kit as the “5-minute kit,” containing anything you might need in the first 5 minutes with the patient. It is during this 5-minute period that you will find and manage immediate life threats
Ensure that you have immediate access to the AED. A jump kit should have the basic equipment to treat immediate life threats. BLS care can be initiated until an AED arrives.
have available all of the equipment that you will use in the entire call. You need only the equipment to manage immediate life threats during the first 5 minutes. Afterward, additional equipment can be brought to the scene.
Have easy access to manage patients with severe uncontrolled bleeding A jump kit should have the basic equipment to manage all immediate life threats—including airway and breathing.
Dispatched to a call for an unresponsive patient. What is the MOST important information to obtain from the dispatcher initially? A. The callback number of the caller B. The severity of the patients problem D. The exact physical location of the patient However, you must first determine the exact location of the patient. You cannot help the patient if you cannot find him or her. While en route, you should try to ascertain more specific patient information (eg, whether the patient is breathing).
Call for a major MVC, the important safety precaution(s) that you and your partner can take is/are: A. Adhering to standard precautions. B. Using lights and siren and being aware of other drivers. C. Wearing seat belts and shoulder harnesses at all times Regardless of the nature of the call to which you are responding, wearing seat belts and shoulder harnesses is the most important safety precaution that you and your partner must take.
Adhering to standard precautions This takes place once the providers arrive at the scene.
Ensuring that the fire department arrives before you. It is important to know if the fire department is responding, but this is not the most important safety precaution.
Using lights and siren and being aware of other drivers The use of lights and sirens adds to the risk potential, but the use of safety devices is the most important precaution that you can take.
Which of the following is NOT a guideline for safe ambulance driving? A. Always use your siren if you have the emergency lights on. B. Always exercise due regard for person and property. C. Use one-way streets whenever possible. Avoid one-way streets; they may become clogged. Do not go against the flow of traffic on a one-way street, unless absolutely necessary.
At what speed will the ambulance begin to hydroplane when there is water present on the roadway? A. 25 mph B. 30 mph C. 40 mph D. 50 mph At speeds of 30 mph or greater, the tires can lift off the pavement as water “piles up” under the tires. This takes the control out of the driver's hands. If hydroplaning occurs, you should gradually slow down instead of jamming on the brakes.
The most common and often most serious ambulance crashes occur at/on: A. Stop lights. B. Intersections. C. Highways. D. Stop signs. Serious crashes occur at intersections. Always be alert and careful when approaching an intersection. Whether at an intersection with stop lights or stop signs, you should come to a stop, look for other motorists or pedestrians, and then proceed.
Stop lights Stop lights are associated with an intersection. The ambulance must come to a complete stop, since most accidents occur at intersections.
Highways Highways are not the most common site of ambulance crashes
Stop signs Stop signs are associated with an intersection. The ambulance must come to a complete stop, since most accidents occur at intersections.
The recommended dimensions for a helicopter landing zone are: A. 50 × 50 feet. B. 75 × 75 feet. C. 100 × 100 feet. D. 150 × 150 feet. The recommended dimensions for a helicopter landing zone are 100 × 100 feet on a hard or grassy surface that is level. The landing zone should be clear of loose debris and power lines.
Which of the following statements about helicopters is true? A. It is possible that the main rotor blade will dip to within 4 feet of the ground. B. If the helicopter must land on a grade, you should approach it from the uphill side. Because the main rotor blade of a helicopter is flexible, it can dip as low as 4 feet from the ground. If the helicopter must land on a grade, approach it from the downhill side. When moving from one side of the helicopter around the front of the aircraft
Upon arrival at a scene where hazardous materials are involved, you should park the ambulance: A. Upwind from the scene. B. With the warning lights off. C. Downhill from the scene. D. At least 50 feet from the scene. The ambulance should be parked uphill and upwind from the scene. Other locations may expose the ambulance to any escaping hazardous material. Be prepared to quickly move the ambulance if the wind shifts in your direction.
At least 50 feet from the scene Parking upwind is your first priority. The distance from the hot zone should be at least 100 feet
When the chest impacts the steering wheel during a motor vehicle crash with rapid deceleration, the resulting injury that kills almost, usually within seconds, is: A. A hemothorax. B. Aortic shearing. C. A pneumothorax. D. A ruptured myocardium Following rapid forward deceleration, aortic injuries are the cause of death in nearly two thirds of patients. The aorta is the largest artery in the body; when it is sheared from its supporting structures or ruptures, bleeding to death occurs
Signs and symptoms of a chest injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Hemoptysis. B. Hematemesis. C. Asymmetrical chest movement. D. Increased pain with breathing. Hematemesis (vomiting blood) indicates bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract—usually the esophagus or stomach—not the chest cavity.
Hemoptysis. Hemoptysis is coughing up blood or blood-tinged sputum.
Asymmetrical chest movement This may indicate a flail chest or pneumothorax
Increased pain with breathing A chest injury will cause the presence of pain during inspiratory or expiratory chest wall movement
During your assessment of a patient who was stabbed, you see an open wound to the left anterior chest. A. Position the patient on the affected side. B. Assess the patient for a tension pneumothorax. C. Cover the wound with an occlusive dressing If you encounter an open chest wound, you must cover it with an occlusive dressing. This will prevent air from moving in and out of the wound. After the dressing is applied, you must monitor the patient for signs of a developing tension pneumothorax
Transport immediately Transport should take place once life threats have been managed
Assess the patient for a tension pneumothorax. You must monitor for signs of a developing pneumothorax
When caring for a patient with signs of a pneumothorax, your MOST immediate concern should be A. hypovolemia. B. Intrathoracic bleeding. C. Ventilatory inadequacy. D. Associated myocardial injury A pneumothorax is when air enters the pleural space and collapses the lung. Impairs the ability of the lung to move air (ventilate). As the lung collapses, ventilatory efficiency decreases, resulting in hypoxemia.
Hypovolemia This may be indicated by the signs and symptoms of shock
What purpose does a one-way “flutter valve” serve when used on an open pneumothorax? A. It allows the release of air trapped in the pleural space. B. It only prevents air from entering an open chest wound. A one-way flutter valve is used to treat patients with an open pneumothorax, it allows air trapped in the pleural space to escape, and it prevents air from entering the pleural space. alleviate pressure which allows it to reexpand.
Signs of a cardiac tamponade include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Muffled heart tones. B. A weak, rapid pulse. C. Collapsed jugular veins. D. Narrowing pulse pressure Cardiac tamponade, occurs when blood accumulates in the pericardial sac. Hindering heart’s ability to contract and relax; narrowing pulse pressure. Because the heart cannot eject blood,backs up in right atrium, resulting in jugular venous distention.
A patient experienced a severe compression to the chest when trapped between a vehicle and a brick wall. You suspect traumatic asphyxia due to the hemorrhage into the sclera of his eyes and which other sign? The sudden increase in intrathoracic pressure results in a characteristic appearance, including distended neck veins, and hemorrhage into the sclera of the eyes, signaling the bursting of small blood vessels.
A 14-year-old baseball player was hit in the chest with a line drive. He is in cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? A. Myocardial contusion B. Traumatic asphyxia C. Commotio cordis D. Hemothorax Commotio cordis is a blunt chest injury, direct blow to the chest only during the critical portion of a person’s heartbeat. The result may be immediate cardiac arrest. The blunt force causes ventricular fibrillation that responds to defibrillation
Myocardial contusion This may cause an irregular heartbeat, but rarely causes cardiac arrest.
Traumatic asphyxia This is the result of a crushing injury, not a direct hit.
Hemothorax This comes from bleeding around the rib cage or from a lung or great vessel, rather than from a direct hit
Paradoxical chest movement is typically seen in patients with: A. A flail chest. B. A pneumothorax. C. Isolated rib fractures. D. A ruptured diaphragm. Paradoxical chest movement occurs when an area of the chest wall bulges out during exhalation and collapses during inhalation. Patients with a flail chest a condition in which several adjacent ribs are fractured in more than one place.
A pneumothorax. This will produce unilateral chest wall movement
Isolated rib fractures This will produce pain, but not irregular chest wall movement
A ruptured diaphragm This typically occurs on the left side. You may hear bowel sounds over the lower chest area
A man, who was the unrestrained driver of a car that hit a tree at a high rate of speed, struck the steering wheel with his chest. He has a large bruise over the sternum and an irregular pulse rate of 120 beats/min. You should be MOST concerned that he: A myocardial contusion, or bruising of the heart muscle, blunt trauma center of the chest. In some cases, the injury may render the heart unable to maintain cardiac output;blood pressure falls. The pulse rate is often irregular.
A collapsed lung and severe hypoxia This will produce an absence or decrease of breath sounds and unilateral chest wall expansion.
Extensive bleeding into the pericardial sac This will produce muffled heart sounds and decreased cardiac output.
The brain, a part of the central nervous system (CNS), is divided into the: A. Cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem. B. Cerebrum, brain stem, and spinal cord. C. Cerebellum, cerebrum, and spinal cord. D. Spinal cord, cerebrum, and cerebral cortex. The brain and spinal cord comprise the central nervous system (CNS). The brain is divided into three major regions: the cerebrum (the largest portion), the cerebellum, and the brain stem. Each region of the brain carries out specific functions
Man with a large laceration to the top of his head, you should recall that: A. Blood loss from a scalp laceration may contribute to hypovolemic shock in adults. B. Any avulsed portions of the scalp should be carefully cut away to facilitate bandaging. Scalp is highly vascular and tends to bleeds. Scalp lacerations, deep or superficial, you to look for more serious injuries, such as a skull fracture. If the injury involves an avulsion, the flap of skin should be replaced to its original position.
Most scalp injuries are superficial and are rarely associated with more serious injuries. Deep or superficial scalp lacerations should prompt EMS providers to assess for more serious underlying injuries.
Any avulsed portions of the scalp should be carefully cut away to facilitate bandaging The avulsed flap should be carefully replaced to its original position
A patient who experiences an immediate loss of consciousness followed by a lucid interval has a(n): A. Epidural hematoma. B. Subdural hematoma. C. Concussion. D. Contusion. Epidural hematomas are caused by injury artery, the middle meningeal artery between the skull and brain. Patients immediate loss of consciousness followed by a brief period of consciousness (lucid interval) as intracranial pressure increases.
Subdural hematoma Subdural hematomas tend to bleed slowly and usually cause a progressive decline in the level of consciousness. This is an accumulation of blood beneath the dura mater.
Concussion Concussions may cause a loss of consciousness, but is typically brief. This occurs when the brain is jarred inside the skull.
Contusion Contusions may cause a loss of consciousness, but is typically brief. This is when brain tissue is damaged and the patient presents with prolonged confusion and loss of consciousness
Struck in the head and unconscious for 30 seconds. He complains of a headache and “seeing stars,” and he regained his memory shortly before arrival. MOST consistent with: A. Contusion. B. Concussion. C. Subdural hematoma. D. Intracerebral hemorrhage A concussion when the brain is jarred around inside the skull. It may result in brief loss of consciousness and, amnesia. Seeing stars is a common following trauma to the back of the head (occiput), as this region is primarily responsible for vision.
Intracerebral hemorrhage This is bleeding within the brain itself
Male was in a MVA and experienced a closed head injury. He has no memory of the events leading up to the accident. The correct term to use when documenting his memory loss? A. Concussion B. Cerebral contusion C. Retrograde amnesia D. Anterograde amnesia The term amnesia means loss of memory; it is common in patients who have experienced a cerebral concussion.
Cerebral contusion This is when tissue is bruised and damaged in a local area. It may result in prolonged confusion.
Anterograde amnesia This is the loss of memory relating to events that occurred after the injury
A distraction injury to the cervical spine would MOST likely occur following: A. A diving accident. B. Blunt neck trauma. C. Hyperextension of the neck. D. Hanging-type mechanisms Excessive traction on the neck, such as what occurs during hanging-type mechanisms, can cause a distraction injury of the cervical spine. Distraction injuries can cause separation of the vertebrae and stretching or tearing of the spinal cord.
A diving accident This would possibly cause a compression injury
Blunt neck trauma This can result in a fracture or neurologic deficit
Hyperextension of the neck This can result in a fracture or neurologic deficit.
During immobilization of a patient with a possible spinal injury, manual stabilization of the head must be maintained until: A. An appropriate-size extrication collar has been placed. B. The patient is fully immobilized on a long backboard. Manual stabilization of the patient’s head must be maintained until he or she is fully secured to the long backboard. This includes the application of an extrication collar, straps, and lateral immobilization (head blocks).
Pulse, motor, and sensory functions are found to be intact. This is done before and after complete immobilization
Male who has massive face and head trauma after being assaulted. He is lying supine, is semiconscious, and has blood in his mouth. You should: Manually stabilize his head, log roll him onto his side, and suction his mouth.
A man is found slumped over the steering wheel, unconscious and making snoring sounds, after an automobile accident. His head is turned to the side and his neck is flexed. You should: The patient’s snoring sounds indicate an airway problem, which must be corrected or he may die. Manually stabilize his head; carefully move it to a neutral, in-line position; and reassess his breathing.
You should NOT remove an injured football player’s helmet if: You should leave a helmet it does not allow movement of the head within the helmet, the patient’s airway is patent. If you can remove the face guard, do so but leave helmet. If the helmet is loose, the airway is compromised, or cardiac arrest, removed.
Which of the following statements regarding the “Adam’s apple” is FALSE? A. It is inferior to the cricoid cartilage. B. It is formed by the thyroid cartilage. C. It is the uppermost part of the larynx. D. It is more prominent in men than in women. The center of the anterior neck is the Adam’s apple. This prominence is the upper part of the larynx, formed by the thyroid cartilage. The other portion of the larynx is the cricoid cartilage, a firm ridge that is inferior to the thyroid cartilage.
The globe of the eye is also called the: A. Lens. B. Orbit. C. Retina. D. Eyeball. The globe of the eye is also called the eyeball. The lens, which sits behind the iris, focuses images on the retina—the light-sensitive area at the back of the globe. The globe is located within a bony socket in the skull called the orbit.
Lens. The lens sits behind the iris and focuses images on the light-sensitive area at the back of the globe.
Orbit The orbit forms the base of the floor of the cranial cavity and contains the eye
Retina The retina is the light-sensitive area at the back of the globe
When a person is looking at an object up close, the pupils should: A. Dilate. B. Constrict. C. Remain the same size. D. Dilate, and then constrict. The pupils should also constrict when looking at an object up close and dilate when looking at an object farther away; this is called pupillary accommodation. These pupillary adjustments occur almost instantaneously.
Dilate. The pupils will dilate when looking at objects far away. The pupils, which allow light to move to the back of the eye, constrict in bright light and dilate in dim light.
When caring for a chemical burn to the eye, the EMT should: It is important to direct the stream away from the uninjured eye. If you do not, you will likely flush the chemical into the unaffected eye. After irrigating the eye for the appropriate amount of time, cover both eyes with a sterile dressing.
Which of the following signs is LEAST indicative of a head injury? A. Asymmetrical pupils B. Pupillary constriction to bright light C. Both eyes moving in opposite directions D. Inability to look upward when instructed to The pupils normally constrict in bright light and dilate in dim light. Suspect a head injury if the pupils do not react appropriately, are asymmetrical (unequal), do not move together, or if the patient is unable to look upward.
Asymmetrical pupils This may be an indication of a head injury.
Both eyes moving in opposite directions This may be an indication of a head injury.
Inability to look upward when instructed to This may be an indication of a head injury.
The purpose of the eustachian tube is to: The middle ear is connected to the nasal cavity by the eustachian tube, which permits equalization of pressure in the middle ear when external atmospheric pressure changes.
When caring for a patient with facial trauma, the EMT should be MOST concerned with: A. Spinal trauma. B. Airway compromise. C. Associated eye injuries. D. Severe external bleeding. Injuries to the face often cause obstruction of the upper airway, either by clotted blood or associated swelling. Large amounts of blood can be swallowed, which increases the risks of vomiting and aspiration. The airway comes first
The presence of subcutaneous emphysema following trauma to the face and throat is MOST suggestive of: A.Esophageal injury. B. Cervical spine fracture. C. Crushing tracheal injury. D. Carotid artery laceration Crushing injuries or fractures of the larynx or trachea can result in a leakage of air into the soft tissues of the neck. The presence of air in the soft tissues produces a characteristic crackling sensation called subcutaneous emphysema.
Esophageal injury This will produce bleeding, which may be observed in the patient’s mouth or through difficulty swallowing.
Cervical spine fracture. This may be indicated by pain and/or paralysis.
Carotid artery laceration This could be assessed by excessive swelling or the presence of a large hematoma in the neck area.
A large laceration to his neck. Note that bright red blood is spurting from the left side of his neck. You should immediately: Laceration of the carotid artery as evidenced by bright red blood spurting from the wound can cause profuse bleeding, profound shock, and death very quickly. You must immediately control the bleeding with the use of direct pressure.
Which of the following mechanisms of injury would MOST likely cause a crushing injury of the larynx and/or trachea? Any crushing injury of the upper part of the neck is likely to involve the larynx or trachea. Examples include the anterior neck impacting a steering wheel, hanging (distraction) mechanisms, and clothesline injuries.
A young male was struck in the forearm with a baseball and complains of pain to the area. Slight swelling and ecchymosis are present, but no external bleeding. Which type of injury does this describe? A. Abrasion B. Contusion C. Hematoma D. Avulsion A contusion (bruise) is caused by direct blunt force trauma. The epidermis remains intact but small blood vessels in the dermis are injured. Pain and swelling occur as blood leak into the area. The buildup of blood Blk,Bl discoloration called ecchymosis.
Abrasion An abrasion is a wound of the superficial layer of skin, caused by friction.
Hematoma A hematoma is blood that has collected within damaged tissue or in a body cavity, associated with large blood vessel damage. This is blood that has collected within damaged tissue. A hematoma occurs when a large blood vessel is injured.
Avulsion An avulsion is an injury that separates various layers of tissue
A compression injury that is severe enough to cut off blood flow below the injury is called: A. A contusion. B. A hematoma. C. A local thrombus. D. Compartment syndrome. Compartment syndrome can occur when a part of the body has been compressed for a prolonged period of time. The tissue swell, stops arterial blood flow and venous return. The body distal to the compression site becomes hypoxic and metabolic waste products
A local thrombus. This is a blood clot
Clerk was shot in the right anterior chest. The wound has blood bubbling from it every time the patient breathes. Immediate action should be to: Immediate treatment for open pneumothorax involves covering the wound with an occlusive dressing. Prevent air from being drawn into the chest cavity. After covering the wound, check exit wound, apply high-flow oxygen, and transport promptly.
What effects will the application of an ice have on a hematoma? A. Vasodilation and increased pain B. Vasodilation and decreased bleeding C. Vasoconstriction and increased swelling D. Vasoconstriction and decreased bleeding Applying an ice pack to a closed wound, such as a hematoma, will decrease bleeding, pain, and swelling by causing constriction of the blood vessels
The primary reason for applying a sterile dressing to an open injury is to: A. Prevent contamination. B. Control external bleeding. C. Reduce the risk of infection. D. Minimize any internal bleeding. Although prevention of contamination is an important reason for applying a sterile dressing to an open injury, the primary reason is to control the external bleeding associated with it.
Minimize any internal bleeding Internal bleeding is minimized by the application of a pressure bandage to an open wound.
The MOST appropriate way to dress and bandage an open abdominal wound with a loop of bowel protruding from it is to: Treatment for an abdominal evisceration includes applying a moist, sterile dressing to the wound and covering the moist dressing with an occlusive dressing. Do not replace a protruding bowel back these actions increase the risk of infection.
A 22-year-old male was attacked by a rival gang and has a large knife impaled in the center of his chest. Your assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. You should As a rule, impaled objects should be stabilized in place. However, if they interfere with the patient’s breathing or your ability to perform CPR, they should be removed.
Which of the following is considered a severe burn? A. Any full-thickness burn B. 20% partial-thickness burn C. 10% full-thickness burn with abrasions D. 5% full-thickness burn with a fracture Full-thickness burns involving the hands, feet, face, airway, or genitalia; covering more than 10% of the (BSA); partial-thickness burns covering more than 30% of the BSA; involving the respiratory tract burns complicated by fractures
Any full-thickness burn A full-thickness burn is severe if it covers more than 10% of the body or involves the hands, face, feet, and genitalia
A 5-year-old boy was burned when he pulled a barbecue grill over on himself. He has partial- and full-thickness burns to his anterior chest and circumferentially on both arms. What percentage of his body surface area has been burned? 18%, 27%, 36%, 45% Using the pediatric rules of nines, the anterior chest accounts for 9% of the BSA (the entire anterior trunk, the chest and abdomen, accounts for 18%), and each arm accounts for 9% of the BSA. Therefore, this child has experienced 27% BSA burns.
Which of the following statements regarding chemical burns is FALSE? A. Fumes of strong chemicals can cause burns to the respiratory tract. B. Prior to removing a dry chemical, you should flush the area with sterile water. Dry chemicals should be brushed off the patient before irrigating the wound with sterile water or saline. Failure to do so may increase the burning process and cause further tissue damage.
Most chemical burns ? Chemical burns are caused by acids and alkalis
Fumes of strong chemicals can Chemicals are in the fumes and will cause respiratory tract burns.
Which of the following is NOT a component of the cardiovascular system? A. Heart B. Lungs C. Venules D. Plasma Components of the cardiovascular system include the heart, blood vessels (arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins), and blood (plasma and blood cells). The lungs are a component of the respiratory system.
Perfusion is MOST accurately defined as: Perfusion is the circulation of blood within an organ and tissues with sufficient amounts of oxygen and other nutrients. Carbon dioxide is the by-product of normal cellular metabolism; it should be returned to the lungs for removal from the body.
Exhalation Removal of carbon dioxide is a part of exhalation
This is a function of ventilation the intake of adequate amounts of oxygen during the inhalation phase
Crash, multiple abrasions and lacerations. Which is the HIGHEST treatment priority? 3" laceration to the forehead with dark red, flowing blood 1" laceration to the thigh with spurting, bright red blood Bleeding from an artery produces bright red bleeding that spurts with the pulse. Blood loss from an arterial wound is more severe—and thus, more life threatening—than from a venous wound
What is vital sign that indicates of internal bleeding? Internal hemorrhage typically reveals vital signs that are consistent with shock: hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea. Hypertension, bradycardia, and bradypnea (choice “A”) is consistent with a closed head injury, not internal bleeding.
BP, 100/50 mm Hg; pulse rate, 120 beats/min; respirations, 24 breaths/min This is indicative of a progression to decompensated shock
When caring for a patient with internal bleeding, the EMT must first: A. Ensure a patent airway. B. Obtain baseline vital signs. C. Control any external bleeding. D. Take appropriate standard precautions. All of the interventions in this question must be performed. However, before providing patient care—whether the patient is bleeding or not—the EMT must first ensure that he or she has taken the appropriate standard precautions.
This would be the first step after standard precautions Ensure a patent airway.
This would be the third step after standard precautions, airway, and bleeding control. Obtain baseline vital signs
This would be the second step after standard precautions and airway. Control any external bleeding
The quickest and MOST effective way to control external bleeding from an extremity is: A. A pressure bandage. B. Direct pressure and elevation. C. A splint. D. A tourniquet. Direct pressure is the quickest, most effective way to control external bleeding from an extremity. This will effectively control External bleeding in most cases.
This is done after direct pressure has controlled the bleeding. A pressure bandage
This is the last method of controlling external bleeding. A tourniquet
When applying a tourniquet to an amputated arm, the EMT should: A. Use the narrowest bandage possible. B. Avoid applying the tourniquet over a joint. C. Cover the tourniquet with a sterile bandage. D Use rope to ensure that the tourniquet is tight If you must apply a tourniquet, never directly over a joint. You should use the widest bandage possible and make sure it is secured tightly. The tourniquet should never be covered with a bandage. Leave it open and in full view.
Man is experiencing a severe nosebleed. Find him leaning over a basin, which contains a lot of blood. A history of coronary artery disease, diabetes, and migraine headaches. BP is 180/100 and HR is 100 bts/min. Several conditions can cause a nosebleed (epistaxis). A BP of 180/100 indicates a significant amount of pressure on the arteries, which main contributing factor to this patient’s nosebleed.
When caring for a patient with severe epistaxis, the MOST effective way to prevent aspiration of blood is to: Leaning forward, with the head tilted forward, will stop blood from trickling down the throat. This decreases the risk that the patient will swallow the blood, which may cause vomiting, or aspirating the blood into the lungs.
Controlling internal bleeding requires: A. Applying a tourniquet. B. Surgery in a hospital. C. Positioning the patient in the sitting position. D. Providing slow and considerate transport. Internal bleeding requires surgery that must be done in the hospital. In the field, administer high-flow oxygen ventilations, monitor, record vital signs every 5 min place patient in a shock position keep the patient warm and provide immediate transport.
Kinetic energy is a calculation of: A. weight and size. B. weight and speed. C. mass and weight. D. Speed and force. Kinetic energy is a calculation of mass (weight) and velocity (speed). Energy cannot be destroyed, only converted.
A 20-year-old man has major open facial injuries after his vehicle struck a tree head-on. Within the car would cause his injury pattern? A. Deployed airbag B. Bent steering wheel C. Nonintact windshield D. Crushed instrument panel The mechanism of injury and condition of the vehicle’s interior suggest likely areas of injury. Head and neck injuries are likely to result when the head and face impact the windshield.
Deployed airbag This typically results in abrasions of the face, head, and arms
Bent steering wheel This typically indicates the presence of chest injuries.
Crushed instrument panel This typically indicates the presence of leg and hip injuries.
What would likely result from the third collision in the “three-collision” effect that occurs during a high-speed, frontal impact motor vehicle crash? During collision, the body's internal organs collide with the inside of the body. These injuries are often the most life-threatening. Injuries that may result from this include internal injuries of the brain and aortic tears, massive internal bleeding
Result from “three-collision” effect that occurs during a high-speed, frontal impact motor vehicle crash are Extensive damage to the automobile.This would occur in the first collision. Flail chest and lower extremity fractures. This would occur in the second collision.Massive external trauma with severe bleeding. This would occur in the second collision.
Male with severe blunt chest trauma when his passenger car struck another vehicle head-on. The interior of his vehicle, you would find A. Deployed airbags. B. Steering wheel deformity. C. Starring of the windshield. D. A crushed instrument panel. Blunt chest injuries during a motor vehicle crash typically occur when the chest impacts the steering wheel. Therefore, your inspection of the vehicle’s interior will most likely reveal a deformed steering wheel
An unrestrained driver collided with a bridge pillar. Upon inspection of the interior of his vehicle, you note that the lower dashboard is crushed. During your assessment of the patient, you will MOST likely encounter: During a frontal collision, the unrestrained occupant’s knees often impact the lower dashboard. With this type of impact, energy is transferred from the knees to the femurs, and then to the pelvis or hip.
This is usually a result of striking the steering wheel. Blunt abdominal trauma
This is usually the result of striking the windshield. A severe closed head injury
This is usually caused by flying debris, collision with parts of the vehicle, or other movable objects. Penetrating thoracic trauma
Whiplash injuries are MOST common following _________ impacts. A. Rear-end B. Rollover C. Frontal D. Lateral Whiplash injuries of the neck are a common occurrence following rear-end collisions. As the vehicle is suddenly thrust forward, the occupant’s head is thrust backward. Properly positioned headrests can minimize the severity of whiplash injuries
This typically causes chest, head, abdominal, and extremity injuries Frontal Injuries
Death from a rollover motor vehicle crash is MOST often secondary to: A. Crushing injuries. B. Airbag-related trauma. C. Multiple collisions to the interior of the car. D. Ejection of the patient from the motor vehicle An unrestrained passenger may have struck multiple points within the vehicle. However, the most life-threatening event in a rollover is ejection or partial ejection of the patient from the vehicle.
Severe abrasion injuries can occur when motorcycle riders are slowed after a collision by road drag. Road drag is most often associated with which type of motorcycle impact? A. Head-on collision B. Angular collision C. Ejection D.Controlled crash During an ejection, the rider will travel at high speed until stopped by a stationary object, another vehicle, or road drag. Severe abrasion injuries (road rash) down to bone can occur with drag.
When assessing a stab wound, it is important for the EMT to remember that: Low-velocity penetrating, injuries caused by sharp edges of the object moving thru the body, therefore close to the object’s path. Weapons such as knives may have been moved around internally, causing internal damage than the external wound suggests.
A 40-year-old man was standing near a building when it exploded. He has multiple injuries, including a depressed skull fracture, severe burns, and an impaled object in his abdomen. His head injury was MOST likely caused by ___________ blast injuries. Primary injuries caused include ruptured eardrums hollow organ rupture. Secondary injuries include impaled objects and shrapnel injuries. Tertiary injuries thrown into a solid object, blunt trauma. Quaternary injuries miscellaneous injuries.
A seizure patient is having what kind of medical emergency? A. Respiratory B. Cardiovascular C. Neurologic D. Immunologic Neurologic emergencies involve the brain and may be caused by a seizure, stroke, or fainting (syncope).
Respiratory Emergencies Include asthma, emphysema, and chronic bronchitis
Cardiovascular Emergencies Include heart attack and congestive heart failure
Immunologic Emergency. Allergic Reactions
If an injury distracts an EMT from assessing a more serious underlying illness, the EMT has suffered from: A. Tunnel vision. B. Index of suspicion. C. Virulence. D. A trauma emergency As an EMT, you should use the dispatch information to guide your initial response,.Tunnel vision occurs when you become focused on one aspect of the patient’s condition and exclude all others, which may cause you to miss an important injury or illness.
The index of suspicion Awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness
Virulence The strength or ability of a pathogen to produce disease.
Trauma emergencies Injuries resulting from physical forces applied to the body
If a “frequent flier” calls 9-1-1 because of a suspected head injury, you should NEVER: Never assume that you know what the problem is, even when you are treating patients who frequently call for EMS. This attitude could result in missing a serious condition.
If your medical patient is not in critical condition, how long should you spend on scene? A. 10 minutes or less B. 30 minutes C. 2 hours D. However long it takes to gather as much information as possible If the patient is not in critical condition, you should gather as much information as possible from the scene so that you can transmit that information to the physician at the emergency department
Critical patients need rapid transport. The time on scene should be limited to 10 minutes or less. All high-priority patients should be rapidly transported.
Your patient is having respiratory difficulty and is not responding to your treatment. What is the best method of transport? Patients with respiratory difficulty generally require high-priority transport. Life-threatening condition exists, the transportation include lights and sirens. In this case, select the closest hospital with an emergency department as your destination.
Respiratory Difficulty A high priority and requires lights and sirens en route to the hospital. Respiratory difficulty does not require a special facility; the closest hospital with an ED should suffice.
When assessing a patient with an infectious disease, what is the first action? A. Size up the scene and take standard precautions. B. Obtain a SAMPLE history. C. Hand the patient off to a paramedic. D. Cover your mouth and nose with your hand. First, the scene must be sized up and standard precautions taken. Always show respect for the feelings of the patient, family members, and others at the scene.
Your patient believes he has hepatitis and is now exhibiting signs of cirrhosis of the liver. He most likely has: A. Hepatitis A. B. Hepatitis B. C. Hepatitis C. D. Hepatitis D. Cirrhosis of the liver develops in 50% of patients with chronic hepatitis C
Your patient is complaining of fever, headache, stiffness of the neck, and red blotches on his skin. He most likely has: A. Tuberculosis. B. Hepatitis B. C. SARS. D. Meningitis. Patients with meningitis will have fever, headache, stiff neck, and altered mental status. Patients with meningococcal meningitis red blotches on their skin; however, many patients with forms of meningitis that are not contagious also have red blotches.
What should you do if you are exposed to a patient who is found to have pulmonary tuberculosis? A. Get the BCG vaccine. B. Get a tuberculin skin test. C. Undergo serious therapy. D. No precautions need to be taken If you are exposed to a patient who is found to have pulmonary tuberculosis, you will be given a tuberculin skin test. This simple skin test determines whether a person has been infected with M. tuberculosis.
All of the following are factors that increase the risk for developing MRSA, EXCEPT: A. Antibiotic therapy. B. Prolonged hospital stays. C. Exposure to an infected patient. D. Close contact with wild birds. MRSA include antibiotic therapy, prolonged hospital stays, a stay in intensive care or a burn unit, and exposure to an infected patient. Close contact with wild birds is a factor that may increase the risk of acquiring avian flu.
Brain damage is very likely in a brain that does not receive oxygen for: A. 0–1 minutes. B. 0–4 minutes. C. 4–6 minutes. D. 6–10 minutes. Permanent brain damage is very likely if the brain is without oxygen for 6 minutes or longer. After 10 minutes without oxygen, irreversible brain damage is likely
The sequences of events describes the AHA’s chain of survival? Early access, early CPR, early defibrillation, early advanced care, and integrated post-arrest care. If any one of the links in the chain is absent, the patient is more likely to die.
For CPR to be effective, the patient must be on a firm surface, lying in the ______________ position. A. Fowler B. Prone C. Supine D. Recovery For CPR to be effective, the patient must be lying supine on a firm surface, with enough clear space around the patient for two rescuers to perform CPR.
The pulse check should take: A. 1 second. B. At least 1 second but no more than 5 seconds. C. At least 10 seconds. D. At least 5 seconds but no more than 10 seconds. The pulse check should take at least 5 seconds but no more than 10 seconds.
Artificial ventilation may result in the stomach becoming filled with air, a condition called: A. Gastric distention. B. Vomitus. C. Abdominal-thrust maneuver. D. Acute abdomen. Artificial ventilation may result in the stomach becoming filled with air, a condition called gastric distention.
Acute abdomen medical term referring to the sudden onset of abdominal pain, generally associated with severe, progressive problems that require medical attention
The ______ is a circumferential chest compression device composed of a constricting band and backboard. A. Mechanical piston device B. Load-distributing band C. impedance threshold device D. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation The load-distributing band is a circumferential chest compression device composed of a constricting band and backboard.
This device depresses the sternum via a compressed gas-powered plunger mounted on a backboard. Mechanical Piston Device
This valve device is placed between the endotracheal tube and a bag-valve mask. It is designed to limit the air entering the lungs during the recoil phase. Impedance threshold device
This procedure is used to establish artificial ventilation and circulation in a patient who is not breathing and has no pulse. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
Which of the following scenarios would warrant an interruption in CPR procedures? For example, if you have to move a patient up or down stairs, you should continue CPR until you arrive at the head or foot of the stairs, interrupt CPR at an agreed-on signal, and move quickly to the next level where you can resume CPR.
Once you begin CPR in the field, you must continue until one of the following events occurs: The “T” in the “STOP” mnemonic stands for patient transfer to another person who is trained in BLS, to ALS-trained personnel, or to another emergency medical responder.
Instead of the abdominal-thrust maneuver, use ___________ for women in advanced stages of pregnancy and patients who are obese. A. Chest thrusts B. Sellick maneuver C. Basic life support D. DNR orders You can perform the abdominal-thrust maneuver safely on all adults and children. However, for women in advanced stages of pregnancy and patients who are obese, you should use chest thrusts
This technique is used to prevent gastric distention in which pressure is applied to the cricoid cartilage; also referred to as cricoid pressure. Sellick maneuver
BLS is noninvasive emergency lifesaving care that is used to treat medical conditions. Chest thrusts are a BLS tactic Basic life support
: Do not resuscitate orders are specific instructions not to perform lifesaving techniques on certain patients who may be suffering from terminal illnesses. DNR orders have to be on hand and can be a complicated issue. DNR orders
In infants who have symptoms of an airway infection,dont waste time trying to dislodge a foreign body. Intervene only if signs of __ develop, such as a weak cough; cyanosis; stridor; absent air movement; or a decreasing level of consciousness. With a mild airway obstruction, the patient can cough forcefully, although there may be wheezing between coughs. As with an adult, encourage the child to continue coughing.
The term “shock” is MOST accurately defined as: Shock, or hypoperfusion, refers to a state of collapse and failure of the cardiovascular system, or any one of its components (eg, heart, vasculature, blood volume), which leads to inadequate perfusion of the body’s cells and tissues.
Anaphylactic shock is typically associated with: Urticaria (hives) is allergic reactions mild, moderate, and severe. They are caused by the release of histamines from the immune system. In anaphylactic shock, accompanied by cool, clammy skin tach. respiratory distress; and hypotension.
Signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Restlessness or anxiety. B. Pale, cool, clammy skin. C. A feeling of impending doom. D. Weak or absent peripheral pulses In compensated shock, the body is able to maintain perfusion to the vital organs of the body via the autonomic nervous system. Signs include pale, cool, clammy skin; restlessness or anxiety; a feeling of impending doom; and tachycardia.
When treating a trauma patient who is in shock, LOWEST priority should be given to: A. Spinal protection. B. Thermal management. C. Splinting fractures. D. Notifying the hospital. Critical interventions for a trauma patient in shock include spinal precautions, high-flow oxygen, thermal management, rapid transport, and early notification of a trauma center. Splinting it takes too long and only delays transport.
Potential causes of cardiogenic shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Inadequate heart function. B. Disease of muscle tissue. C. Severe bacterial infection. D. Impaired electrical system. Cardiogenic shock is caused by inadequate function of the heart, or pump failure. If too much muscular damage occurs, the heart no longer functions well. Other causes include disease, injury, and an impaired electrical system.
Woman presents with a BP of 80/60 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 110 beats/min, mottled skin, and a temperature of 103.9°F. She is MOST likely experiencing: A. Septic shock. B. Neurogenic shock. C. Profound heart failure. D. A severe viral infection. In septic shock, bacterial toxins damage the blood vessel walls, causing them to leak and rendering them unable to constrict. Widespread dilation of the vessels, in combination with plasma loss through the injured vessel walls, results in shock.
Neurogenic shock Is an injury to the nervous system and shows bradycardia and hypotension—not fever. In neurogenic shock, the nerves that control the sympathetic nervous system are compromised
Cardiogenic shock Profound heart failure associated with low blood pressure, weak pulse, and cyanotic skin
A patient with neurogenic shock would be LEAST likely to present with: A. Tachypnea. B. Hypotension. C. Tachycardia. D. Altered mentation. Nervous system is responsible for the hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine, increase heart rate, constrict the peripheral vasculature,shunt blood to the body’s vital organs. Without hormones, tachycardia and peripheral vasoconstriction are absent.
Hypotension Results from massive vasodilation.
Respirations increase to compensate for the hypoxia associated with shock. Tachypnea
A 20-year-old man was kicked numerous times in the abdomen during an assault. His abdomen is rigid and tender, his heart rate is 120 beats/min, and his respirations are 30 breaths/min. You should treat this patient for: The patient may have a liver laceration or ruptured spleen—both of which can cause internal blood loss. However, it is far more important to recognize that the patient is in hypovolemic shock and to treat him accordingly.
Woman presents with a rash, facial swelling, and hypotension approximately 10 minutes after being stung by a hornet. Her BP is 70/50 mm Hg and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. In addition to high-flow oxygen, this patient is in MOST immediate need of: .After ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation, the MOST important treatment for the patient is epinephrine, which dilates the bronchioles and constricts the vasculature, thus improving breathing and blood pressure, respectively.
All of the following are potential causes of impaired tissue perfusion, EXCEPT: A. Increased number of red blood cells. B. Pump failure. C. Low fluid volume. D. Poor vessel function. An increased number of red blood cells would allow adequate oxygen and nutrients to be delivered to the cells.
Pump failure Cause of impaired tissue perfusion.
Poor vessel function Is a cause of impaired tissue perfusion. Low fluid volume. Poor vessel function
Breathing is controlled by an area in the: The pons and the medulla are the respiratory centers in the brain stem that control breathing.
Lungs The lungs contain small pockets called alveoli where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place.
Spinal cord Impulses are sent down the spinal cord from the brain stem
Diaphragm The diaphragm receives the impulses that cause it to contract and bring air in
The EMT should assess a patient’s tidal volume by: Tidal volume—the volume of air that is moved into or out of the lungs in a single breath—is assessed by observing for adequate chest rise. If shallow chest rise is noted, the patient’s tidal volume is likely reduced.
Cyanosis Is an indication of hypoxia
Oxygen saturation Is an indication of tissue perfusion, which is the amount of oxygen attached to the hemoglobin.
In an otherwise healthy individual, the primary stimulus to breathe is a(n): Under control of the brain stem, rising levels of carbon dioxide in arterial blood normally stimulate breathing in an otherwise healthy patient.
Increased level of oxygen in the blood Increased levels of oxygen can be a result of hyperventilation syndrome
Decreased level of oxygen in the blood This is typically not normal in healthy individuals. It can be a sign of inadequate breathing and results in hypoxia
Decreased level of carbon dioxide in the blood This is usually not seen in healthy adults. It is typically a result of hyperventilation syndrome.
Signs of inadequate breathing in the adult include all of the following Signs of inadequate breathing in the adult include a respiratory rate less than 12 breaths/min or greater than 20 breaths/min, shallow chest rise (reduced tidal volume), cyanosis, and asymmetrical chest movement
During insertion of an oropharyngeal airway into an unconscious patient, she begins to vomit. The first thing you should do is Whenever an unconscious patient begins to vomit—whether you are inserting an oropharyngeal airway or not—you should immediately turn the patient onto his or her side.
The following patients would a nasopharyngeal airway be contraindicated Nasopharyngeal (nasal) airways are contraindicated in patients with severe head or facial injuries and should be used with caution in patients who have delicate nasal membranes or are prone to nosebleeds
You are delivering oxygen to a patient with a nasal cannula at 4 L/min when he begins to complain of a burning sensation in his nose. You should: Administering “dry” oxygen through a nasal cannula—especially over a prolonged period of time—can result in drying of the nasal membranes, in which case the patient might complain of a burning sensation in the nose. The oxygen should be humidified
A patient is found unconscious after falling from a third-floor window. His respirations are slow and irregular. You should . You should assist the patient’s breathing with a bag-valve mask attached to 100% oxygen. Suctioning is indicated if the patient has blood or other liquids in the airway; there is no evidence of this in the scenario.
When ventilating an apneic adult with a bag-valve mask, you should squeeze the bag When ventilating any apneic patient with a bag-valve mask, you should squeeze the bag over a period of 1 second and observe for visible chest rise. Ventilate the apneic adult at a rate of 10 to 12 breaths/min
You and your partner are ventilating an apneic adult when you notice that his stomach is becoming distended. You should: Gastric distention occurs when air enters the stomach. Severe gastric distention can result in vomiting and aspiration if not recognized and treated. You should reposition the patient’s head.
The process in which oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs is called: The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs is called pulmonary (external) respiration. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide at the cellular level is called cellular (internal) respiration.
Ventilation Ventilation is the exchange of air between the lungs and the environment
Metabolism Metabolism is the series of processes by which food is converted into the energy and products needed to sustain life
Inhalation Inhalation is the active, muscular part of breathing
What respiratory diseases causes obstruction of the lower airway? Asthma is a lower airway disease that causes the bronchioles in the lungs to constrict (bronchospasm), resulting in various degrees of obstruction.
Croup, Laryngitis, Epiglottitis This causes an upper airway obstruction.
What diseases is potentially drug resistant and is thought to be transmitted by coughing? Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection spread by cough. It is dangerous because many strains are resistant to antibiotics.
Croup Croup is an inflammatory condition of the larynx and trachea, marked by a cough, hoarseness, and difficulty in breathing
Diphtheria Diphtheria is caused by a bacterium that attacks the membranes of the throat.
Epiglottitis Epiglottitis is an acute bacterial infection of the epiglottis
The following are causes of acute dyspnea. Asthma, pulmonary embolism, and pneumothorax are all acute conditions; therefore, they typically present with an acute onset of dyspnea.
Emphysema Emphysema a form of COPD is a chronic respiratory disease; therefore, it presents with progressively worsening dyspnea.
Bronchospasm is MOST often associated with Asthma—a reactive airway disease—is caused by bronchospasm (sustained constriction of the bronchioles). Common triggers to an acute asthma attack include environmental allergens, stress, and temperature changes.
Bronchitis Bronchitis is the inflammation of the mucous membrane in the bronchial tubes of the lungs.
Pneumonia Pneumonia is an inflammation of one or both lungs.
Pneumothorax Pneumothorax is the presence of air or gas in the pleural cavity surrounding the lungs, causing pain and difficulty in breathing
A sudden onset of difficulty breathing, sharp chest pain, and cyanosis that persists despite supplemental oxygen is MOST consistent with Signs of an acute pulmonary embolism include a sudden onset of difficulty breathing, sharp (pleuritic) chest pain, and cyanosis that persists despite the administration of high-flow oxygen
Myocardial infarction A heart attack is associated with chest pain, sudden onset of weakness, nausea, sweating, and discomfort.
A spontaneous pneumothorax This is when air escapes into the pleural cavity.
Albuterol, a beta-2 agonist, is the generic name for: : Albuterol is the generic name for Ventolin (Proventil). Albuterol is a beta-agonist, which dilates the bronchioles, and is commonly used to treat patients with asthma and other reactive airway diseases.
Alupent This is the trade name for metaproterenol, also a beta-2 agonist
Metaprel This is the trade name for metaproterenol, also a beta-2 agonist.
Brethine. This is the trade name for terbutaline, also a beta-2 agonist
An acute bacterial infection that results in swelling of the flap that covers the larynx during swallowing is called Epiglottitis—a potentially life-threatening illness—is an acute bacterial infection that causes swelling of the epiglottis. It is characterized by a sudden onset of high fever, difficulty breathing, stridor, drooling, and varying degrees of hypoxemia
Laryngitis This is an inflammation of the larynx, usually accompanied by hoarseness and coughing.
A 70-year-old man recently had a heart attack and now complains of severe difficulty breathing, especially when lying flat. He is coughing up pink, frothy secretions. This patient is MOST likely experiencing: The left side of the heart is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body. When it fails, blood backs up into the lungs, resulting pulmonary edema include dyspnea, shallow respirations, coughing up of pink, frothy sputum.
Acute right heart failure Acute heart failure causes a backup of blood into the systemic circulatory system and typically causes symptoms of peripheral edema in the hands and feet
An acute onset of bronchitis This is an acute inflammation of the lungs associated with a cough, increased sputum, fever, and tachypnea.
An acute pulmonary embolism This is a blood clot in the lungs and is seen as dyspnea, acute chest pain, cyanosis, tachypnea, and coughing up of blood.
What is breathing adequately? Adequate breathing in the adult is a respiratory rate between 12 and 20 breaths/min, good chest rise (indicates adequate tidal volume), unlabored breathing effort, nonaltered mental status, and good perfusion to the skin (ie, pink, warm, dry).
The following are common signs and symptoms of cardiac ischemia Cardiac ischemia occurs when the heart’s demand for oxygen exceeds the available supply. Common signs and symptoms of cardiac ischemia include chest pain or discomfort, shortness of breath (dyspnea), and anxiety or restlessness.
While palpating the radial pulse of a 56-year-old man with chest pain, you note that the pulse rate is 86 beats/min and irregular. This indicates An irregular pulse in a patient with a cardiac problem suggests dysrhythmia — an abnormality in the heart’s electrical conduction system
A 56-year-old man has an acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following blood vessels became blocked and led to his condition? The coronary arteries, supply the myocardium (heart muscle) with oxygen-rich blood. Occlusion of one or more of these arteries results in a cessation of oxygenated blood beyond the area of occlusion and results in acute myocardial infarction.
Pulmonary veins The primary blood supply to the lungs and not the heart
Pulmonary arteries Are the route of blood return to the left atrium from the lungs
Major controllable risk factors for an AMI (acute myocardial infarction) include: A. Older age. B. Family history. C. cigarette smoking. D. Male sex Smoking is a major controllable risk factor for any cardiovascular disease
A patient with cardiac arrest secondary to ventricular fibrillation has the greatest chance for survival if Survival from cardiac arrest secondary to ventricular fibrillation is highest if CPR is provided immediately and defibrillation is provided within 2 minutes of the patient’s cardiac arrest.
A 59-year-old woman presents with chest pressure. She is conscious and alert, but her skin is cool, pale, and clammy. Your first step in providing care (treatment) should be: Any patient with suspected cardiac compromise should be given oxygen as soon as possible
If a patient with an implanted pacemaker is in cardiac arrest, the EMT should The only modification required for cardiac arrest patients with an implanted pacemaker is to ensure that the AED pads are away from the pacemaker
The main advantage of the AED is The AED provides quick delivery of a shock, is easier to perform than CPR, and does not require ALS providers to operate it
After administering a nitroglycerin tablet to a patient, the EMT should Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator and can lower the patient’s BP; therefore, you should reassess the patient’s BP within 5 minutes after giving nitroglycerin.
Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients it is contraindicated in patients with a systolic BP of less than 100 mm Hg and in patients who have taken erectile dysfunction (ED) drugs within the past 24 to 48 hours
A 41-year-old man presents with slow, irregular breathing; hypotension; and dilated pupils. These signs MOST likely indicate dysfunction of the: The brain stem is responsible for functions such as breathing, blood pressure, and pupil constriction. Brain stem dysfunction would result in abnormal findings with these functions.
Hypothalamus The hypothalamus causes changes to occur in the heart rate, body temperature, and thirst
Cerebrum The cerebrum causes changes to occur in emotion, thought, touch, and movement.
Cerebellum The cerebellum causes changes to occur in muscle control, body coordination, standing, walking, and writing
An acute ischemic stroke is caused by An ischemic stroke is caused by a blocked cerebral artery—either from a clot that grows locally (thrombus) or that travels to the Brain from another part of the body (embolus).
A hemorrhagic stroke Is caused by a ruptured cerebral artery (aneurysm), which causes bleeding within the brain and increased intracranial pressure
A 56-year-old man experienced a sudden, severe headache and then became unresponsive. He has a history of high blood pressure. The MOST likely cause of his condition is a(n): Hemorrhagic strokes are typically preceded by a sudden, severe headache (signals the rupture of a cerebral artery), after which the patient becomes unresponsive due to bleeding within the brain
Unlike an ischemic stroke, a transient ischemic attack is characterized by all of the following, Signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack (TIA) are usually identical to those of an acute ischemic stroke (eg, hemiparesis, slurred speech, confusion, facial droop). The symptoms of a TIA usually resolve within 24 hours.
A patient with a suspected stroke presents with slurred speech that is difficult for you to understand. This is referred to as Dysarthria is defined as slurred, poorly articulated speech; it is common in stroke patients.
Dysphasia Is defined as difficulty speaking; the patient’s speech may or may not be slurred.
Aphasia Is the inability to speak
Dysphagia Is defined as difficulty swallowing.
A type of seizure that is characterized by severe twitching of all the body’s muscles and lasts for several minutes or longer is called a(n): Generalized seizures are characterized by generalized severe twitching of all of the body’s muscles; they often last for several minutes or longer.
A partial seizure Is broken down into simple (jerking of one part of the body) and complex (changes in behavior and emotion).
An absence seizure Does not involve any changes in motor activity.
A tonic-clonic seizure Exhibits muscle contraction and incontinence
The MOST important reason for promptly transporting a stroke patient to the hospital is: Fibrinolytic medications (clot busters) have been shown to reverse the symptoms of a stroke by dissolving the clot that is blocking the cerebral artery. For this reason, prompt transport of the stroke patient is critical
Which of the following are components of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale? The three components of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale are facial symmetry, speech, and arm drift.
Your patient opens his eyes when you say his name, is making incomprehensible sounds, and withdraws when you pinch his earlobe. What is his GCS score? The Glasgow Coma Scale gives a score of 3 to a patient who opens his or her eyes in response to speech. “Incomprehensible sounds” has a score of 2, and “withdraws to pain” has a score of 4. When added together, this patient’s GCS score is 9.
If a patient complains of a severe migraine, how should she be transported? Applying high-flow oxygen, if tolerated, may help ease the patient’s condition. When possible, provide a darkened and quiet environment because patients are sensitive to light and sound.
Peritonitis would MOST likely result following injury to the: In general, solid organs bleed when injured and hollow organs spill their contents into the abdominal cavity, resulting in peritonitis—inflammation of the intra-abdominal lining. Of the choices listed, the stomach is the only hollow organ.
Which of the following organs would be the MOST likely to bleed profusely if severely injured? The liver is a highly vascular solid organ, and contains approximately 40% of the body’s total blood volume at any given time. If severely injured, bleeding from the liver would be profuse and rapid.
Intra-abdominal bleeding is Intra-abdominal bleeding is common following blunt trauma to the abdomen. Signs include abdominal distention, rigidity, bruising (may not occur immediately), and in some cases, pain to palpation
Even when seatbelts are worn properly and the airbags deploy, injury may occur to the Even when seatbelts are properly positioned and the airbags deploy, injury to the iliac crests may occur as the locking mechanism of the seatbelt engages during a motor vehicle crash that involves rapid deceleration.
While inspecting the interior of a wrecked automobile, you should be MOST suspicious that the driver experienced an abdominal injury if you find If unrestrained, the driver’s abdomen may strike the steering wheel, resulting in significant trauma. Suspect this if you lift the airbag and note that the lower part of the steering wheel is deformed
Other than applying a moist, sterile dressing covered with a dry dressing to treat an abdominal evisceration, an alternative form of management may include: Protocols in some EMS systems call for an occlusive dressing, secured by trauma dressings. An occlusive dressing may help prevent the loss of body heat through the abdominal wound
You are transporting a patient with possible peritonitis following trauma to the abdomen. What position will he MOST likely prefer to assume? Patients with peritonitis often lie very still and tend to have their legs drawn up into the abdomen. This relieves strain on the abdominal muscles and may provide pain relief.
A 16-year-old boy was playing football and was struck in the left flank during a tackle. His vital signs are stable; however, he is in severe pain. You should be MOST concerned that he has injured his: This can result in injury to the kidney ranging from bruising to severe bleeding. Injury to the liver, spleen, and bladder would more likely occur following blunt trauma to the anterior abdomen.
The term “hematuria” is defined as Blood in the urine is called hematuria. Following trauma suggests injury to the urinary bladder or kidneys. Bright red blood in the stool is called hematochezia; dark, tarry stools are called melena. Vomiting up blood is called hematemesis.
Hematochezia Blood in the stool. This is known as hematochezia or melena (dark stools).
Urinary bladder rupture This will produce abdominal pain and eventually peritonitis due to a leaking into the abdominal cavity. It will also cause a lack of or a reduction of urinary output
Hematemesis Vomiting up blood
When caring for a female with trauma to the external genitalia, the EMT should Bleeding from the external genitalia should be controlled by applying a dry, sterile dressing and local direct pressure. Impaled objects in the genitalia should be carefully stabilized in place, not removed.
You arrive at the scene of an older woman complaining of chest pain. In assessing her, she holds her arm out for you to take her blood pressure. This is an example of: Expressed consent (also called actual consent) is when the patient authorizes you to provide treatment and transport, either verbally or nonverbally.
Implied consent Implied consent is limited to life-threatening emergencies and is appropriate when a person is unconscious and/or delusional.
Informed consent Informed consent is when the patient has been told of the specific risks, benefits, and alternative treatments.
Expressed consent. It is also known as actual consent.
What is abandonment? Abandonment occurs when patient care is terminated without the patient’s consent or when care is transferred to a provider of lesser training and level of certification
The unauthorized confinement of a person is called False imprisonment is defined as the confinement of a person without legal authority or the person’s consent.
Assault. Assault is unlawfully placing a person in fear of bodily harm
Battery. Battery is touching a person or providing care without consent
Slander Slander is false and damaging information about a person that is communicated by the spoken word
Failure of the EMT to provide the same care as another EMT with the same training is called: An EMT could be held liable for negligence if he or she fails to provide the same care as another EMT with the same training would provide in the same situation
Libel Libel is making a false statement in a written form that injures a good person’s name
An 8-year-old boy was struck by a car, is unconscious, and is bleeding from the mouth. A police officer tells you that he is unable to contact the child’s parents. You should: . If you are unable to contact a minor’s parents or legal guardian, you should proceed with care based on the law of implied consent.
An advance directive is An advance directive is a written document signed by the patient and a witness that specifies the medical care that should be provided if the patient loses decision-making capacity (ie, he or she is no longer deemed competent).
What patient is competent and can legally refuse EMS care? A patient who is of legal age (18 in most states), is conscious, and is alert to person, place, time, and event, likely has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse EMS care.
You are treating a patient with an apparent emotional crisis. After the patient refuses treatment, you tell him that you will call the police and have him restrained if he does not give you consent. Your actions in this case are an example of: Unlawfully placing a person in fear of immediate bodily harm (ie, having him restrained) without his consent constitutes assault.
The EMT has a legal duty to act if he or she is: The EMT paid or volunteer has a legal duty to act if he or she is on duty and is dispatched on a call, regardless of the nature of the call.
When providing bag-mask ventilations to an infant, what is most important to remember? It is important to remember that an infant’s lungs are fragile; ventilations that are too forceful can result in trauma from pressure, or barotrauma.
The pulse rate of a toddler is A toddler’s pulse rate is 90 to 150 beats/min.
What is the first rule of lifting? The first rule of lifting is to always keep your back in a straight, upright, position and use the powerful muscles of your thighs. Never twist while lifting.
When lifting a stretcher using the power lift, you should When lifting any heavy object, your hands should be facing palms up; this provides better lifting power and is not as stressful on the wrists.
It is impractical to apply a vest-type extrication device on a critically injured patient to remove him or her from a wrecked vehicle because it: This is too much time to waste when treating a critically injured patient. A long backboard would be more appropriate. Vest-type immobilization devices, when applied correctly, provide adequate spinal stabilization and are ideal to use in stable patients
Proper guidelines for correct reaching include all of the following, When reaching, you should keep your back in a locked-in position, and avoid twisting or hyperextending your back. Do not reach more than 15–20 inches in front of your body.
An injured hang glider is trapped at the top of a large mountain and must be evacuated to the ground. The terrain is very rough and uneven. Which of the following devices would be the safest and most appropriate to use? A basket stretcher, also called a Stokes basket, should be used to carry patients over rough or uneven terrain that is inaccessible by ambulance. Its closed-ended sides protect the patient from falling out of the device.
Stair chair This is used to transfer a patient up and down stairs.
Scoop stretcher Also called orthopaedic stretcher
When two EMTs are lifting a patient on a long backboard, they should: Patient's weight is distributed to the head end of a backboard or stretcher, you should always ensure that the strongest EMT is at that position. This will reduce the risk of injury to less strong personnel as well as the risk of dropping the patient
Which of the following techniques is considered to be an emergency move The firefighter's drag is a one-person technique that is used when a patient must be removed from a life-threatening situation immediately.
Extremity lift This is a nonurgent move, helpful in narrow spaces.
Direct ground lift This is a nonurgent move, used to carry a patient over long distances to the cot
To extract a patient from the basement of a building, you must transport the patient up a flight of stairs. In doing this, you must ensure that: When you carry a patient upstairs or up an incline, you must ensure that the elevated head of the backboard or stretcher goes first. This will help to equally distribute the weight.
If an injured patient needs to be moved but is not in immediate danger from fire or building collapse, you should first: The only time your attention should be directed away from the primary assessment of the patient is when the patient’s life or your life is in immediate danger.
The rapid extrication technique is a With the rapid extrication technique, a seriously injured patient can be moved from a sitting position in a vehicle to a supine position on a backboard while protecting the spine at the same time.
Short backboards Used to immobilize seated patients
Basket stretchers Used for patient removal in remote locations, including in water rescues and technical rope rescues
Portable/folding stretchers Strong, rectangular tubular metal frame with fabric stretched across it
Flexible stretchers Excellent for storage and carrying Conform around a patient’s sides Useful for confined spaces Uncomfortable, but provide support and immobilization
Which of the following components of a medical term conveys its essential meaning? The word root conveys the essential meaning of a medical term
The prefix Describes location or intensity.
The suffix Will indicate a procedure, condition, disease, or part of speech
Combining vowels Are used to connect a word to the suffix or word root
Prefixes can indicate Prefixes are used to indicate colors, numbers, position, or direction. Suffixes will indicate a procedure, condition, disease, or part of speech. Word roots will indicate specific body parts.
The plural form of the word bronchus is Bronchi. When a word ends in us, the plural form will end in i. For words that end in a, the plural form will end in ae. When words end in is, the plural form will end in es. Words that end in ex or ix will have a plural form that end in ices.
The statement, “the lungs are superior to the bladder” indicates that the lungs are closer to the: The term superior is used to indicate a structure is closer to the head than another structure.
Inferior Is the term used to describe a structure that is closer to the feet
Superficial To describe a structure that is closer to the skin than another.
Proximal To describe a structure that is closer to the trunk in comparison to another
Movement of the arm toward midline is referred to as The term adduction is used to describe movement of a structure towards the midline of the body
Flexion Refers to the bending of a joint
Extension Refers to the straightening of a joint.
Abduction Used to describe movement of a structure away from the midline of the body.
A body part that lies closer to the midline when compared to another is considered to be: The term medial is used to identify a body part that closer to the midline when compare to another.
Distal used to refer to a body part that is further away from the trunk in comparison to another.
Lateral refers to a describe a structure that lies away from midline or towards the side of the body.
This is used to identify a body part that is on the “belly side” or anterior surface of the body. Ventral is used to identify a body part that is located on the “belly side” or anterior surface of the body
Deep used to describe a structure that is further away from the skins surface.
You place a patient in the semi-Fowler’s position for transport. This means the patient is: A patient that is sitting at a 45-degree angle is said to be in a semi-Fowler’s position
Supine A patient is said to be supine when positioned on his or her back
Prone When a patient is lying on his or her stomach, they are said to be in a prone position.
High-Fowler’s position If you have a patient sitting at a 90-degree angle, you have placed them in a high-Fowler’s position
A laceration located on the plantar surface is on the: Plantar refers to the soles of the feet while palmar refers to the palms of the hands
Dorsal or posterior Used when referring to the back of the body.
Ventral or anterior Used to when referring to the front of the body.
When using abbreviations, acronyms, or symbols, an EMT should: Before using abbreviations, acronyms, or symbols in your documentation, it is important to know which ones are accepted for use by your agency.
Which of the following are found in the retroperitoneal space? The kidneys lie in the retroperitoneal space—the space behind the abdominal cavity. The spleen, liver, and stomach are all located within the anterior (true) abdomen.
Liver The liver lies immediately beneath the diaphragm in the anterior abdomen
Spleen The spleen lies under the rib cage in the left upper quadrant of the abdominal cavity.
Stomach The stomach lies in the left upper quadrant of the abdominal cavity
You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the hand-held inhaler, you should instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can
Male with emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. He has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the cause of this patient's condition? Spontaneous pneumothorax
At the onset of an acute asthma attack, patients commonly experience difficulty breathing and expiratory wheezing
Which of the following conditions would MOST likely prevent effective exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs? c) Rigid upper airway walls d) Pulmonary arterial occlusion Pulmonary arterial occlusion
A 22-year-old female patient is complaining of dyspnea, numbness, and tingling in her hands and feet after an argument with her fiancé. Her respirations are 40 breaths/min. You should? provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed
When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has abnormal breath sounds
Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as shortness of breath or difficulty breathing
After delivering a patient to the emergency department you discuss with the hospital staff the details of your care and ask for suggestions to improve your care. This is an ex of?
Ultimate responsibility for patient care rendered by EMT? Medical Director
what level of the EMT provides the most advanced pre– hospital care paramedic
the group is credited with developing the earliest documented emergency medical services french
component of patient advocacy providing oxygen to the patient that is short of breath
why do some drugs required on–line medical control? the physician wants to make sure it is appropriate for the patient
to be compassionate and empathetic accurate with interviews and inspire confidence are what personal trait of a EMT?
why is looking for loose rugs important? It is part of injury prevention in the community and important component of EMS
What is not one common setting that an EMT may work in? hospitals
why is it importing for EMTs to participate in quality improvement programs? to identify problems and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence
In a patient violently threatens you what the correct action?
which of the following pathogens can live in dried blood and major concern of ems while cleaning up equipment? Hepatitis B
when the elevations of the heart rate and blood pressure occurs of what stage of the body response to stress? alarm reaction stress
which of the following is the form of stress that can immediate cause long term problems with EMT health and well being? distress
what is true regarding proper hand cleaning? EMT hands are visibly dirty
healthcare providers are required by law to provide a hepatitis B _________ available to employees free of charge vaccines
What is the EMT highest priority at the scene of a hazardous materials incident? personal safety
What is the primarily reason for an EMT to change gloves between contact with different patients? prevent spreading infections to the next patient
EMS personnel are often exposed to both acute and chronic stressors_________ management may be helpful to cope with on the job experiences. critical incident stress
If you see dried blood around the patient mouth and nose also coughing..... how would you approach this?
what's the main benefit to using a stair chair with a track system? a stair chair with track like system prevents the patient from having to be lifted down stairs
when lifting a patient: basic principle know your limits!
If found patient in cardiac arrest on the bed what type of move would you perform to get the patient on the hard surface to do CPR?
description of urgent move using a sheet to move a patient from a bed to a stretcher
To prevent a patient from grabbing something that is around the patient sitting in the stair chair let the patient know what is going on and what you are trying to do.
which is the following used to immobilized a patient with a suspected spinal injury? long backboard
urgent moves are required perform for a treatment of life threats along with precaution for spinal injury
how many pounds are most battery– powered hydraulic system rated to safely life? 500
EMT is in doubt with the DRN consult with the patient physician
If the patient doesn't want to go to the hospital but in a life threaten situation you must:
EMT primary responsibility at a secured crime scene? providing patient care
when is it legal to share information about treatment that you provided to the patient? the triage nurse at the emergency department ask about the care you provided by the patient
when care is expected to be provided by an EMT with similar training when caring for a patient in a similar situation? scope of practice
If a patient refuse care and the EMT is talking them into it and not giving all the options what is that doing? negligent
A 10 yr old boy fractured his arm what's the best way to obtain consent for treatment? Act on a implied consent
A EMT that's off duty see a vehicle crash and doesn't stop for help and the victim tries to get him fired........... not a negligence because it was a EMT duty to act
AN EMT transport the patient to the ER and leaves the patient in the waiting room and not advise the ed staff.......... act of ABANDONMENT
while documenting a call you add a false statement that was made about a local doctor.... slander
a patient is taking a certain medication for some certain reason and the significant other wants to know what is happening but you can't state why because____________ by law your conversation with your patient is confidential
must know medical information that's on the patient_____________ medical identification device
If a patient refuse care and is having a heart attack what should you do next? fully inform the patient about this situation and the implications of refusing care
what type of consent should be use when seeking to treat a mentally competent adult? unconditional consent
the wrist is ________ to the elbow DISTAL
Lateral to the side
what is the best position to keep fluid and vomitus from occluding her air way? recovery position
abdominal quadrants RU
Why is it important to locate and say where the problem is coming from? (superior or inferior) the location of the wound is important in determining which types of resources to have available when the patient arrives
primary reason for EMT to use specific and proper medical terminology medical communication needs to be exact and consistent
why is it beneficial for the EMT to have the dispatcher repeat what they said about a patient having plegia? patient with plegia is potentially contagious and EMT needs to know the precautions are required
lying face down on the ground prone
why should EMT avoid using acronyms and abbreviation when communicating? there is a chance that they can lead to errors in continued care for the patient
what the vessel that carries deoxygenated blood? pulmonary artery
produces hormones that help to regulate many body activities and functions endocrine system
what following structures forms part of the thorax ribs
automaticity heart muscle's ability to generate its own electrical impulse
broken hip femur
femoral pulse palpated at t he groin
2 most easily injured portion of the spine? cervical and lumbar
which of the following best describes the medical condition of shock? a state of inadequate tissue perfusion
what is the long bone of the upper portion of the arm Humerus
a child _________ takes up proportionally more space in the pharynx than does an adult's. tongue
what are the small bones that make up the wrist called? carpals
patient is having an allergic reaction "fight– flight" response sympathetic nervous system and epinephrine
upper extremities carpals
cardiac muscle receives its supply of oxygenated blood coronary arteries that branch off the aorta
what organ is a reservoir of blood loss heart
if some one is taking pain killers and their skin looks pale and SpO2 reading is 84%. Respiratory drive is triggered by the changing levels: oxygen
FiO2 the concentration of oxygen in our inhaled air
provides reasons of disruption of the respiratory control structural reason that has caused collapse of upper and lower airway to block the flow of oxygen to the alveoli can interrupt this control
water that is found in the space between cells and blood vessel intravascular
layer of covering that protects the nervous system meninges
when a patient is trying to compensate for the blood loss in all of the following ways constricted pupils
heart dysfunction caused by the electrical source that causes the heart to beat too fast tachycardia
carbon dioxide is transported back to the lungs in two ways: via the red blood and: white bloods cell
movement of ions across the cell membrane is needed to accomplish repolarization what cell structure is used to prepare for depolarization?
_____________ the blood returns to the right side of the heart oxygenated
the human body is made up of ________ % water 60
the pressure that is created when the heart pushes the blood through out the circulatory system osmotic pressure
common digestive disorder vomiting and diarrhea
cells make up tissues tissues make up organs
a patient is breathing in room air should be receiving _____________ percent oxygen 21
if a patient is paralyzed below the waist what body system do you suspect to be impaired? nervous system
providing supplemental oxygen will increase the amount of oxygen molecules carried by the ____________ in the blood help oxygenate critical organs like the brain hemoglobin
carbon dioxide is not exchange the net result is high carbon dioxide
hyperoxic metabolism that creates large amounts of carbon dioxide and lactic acid but generate little energy
middle age adulthood is 41–60
TEMPERAMENT infants reaction to the environment
twilight years late adulthood
late adulthood deterioration of the respiratory system
which age group has less efficient cardiovascular systems and reduction of previous blood volume late adulthood
transition from childhood to adulthood early adulthood
heart rate for school age 80–130/ minute
trust a feeling a infant gets when they know all their needs will be met
this age group is very concerned with body image adolescence
Created by: 4resh