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Health IT Final
Final Quizzes
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The use of outdated systems has been cited as a cause of financial waste in the American health care system. T or F | True |
| The users of electronic health records are health care professionals. T or F | True |
| A personal health record (PHR) contains admission and discharge summaries. T or F | False |
| A physician office and an outpatient clinic are examples of ambulatory care facilities. T or F | True |
| Electronic health record systems are inexpensive and easy to learn. T or F | False |
| Electronic health records are less prone to privacy and security issues than are paper-based records. T or F | False |
| The most important feature of CPOE systems is the reduced turnaround time for medication orders. T or F | True |
| Electronic health records in a hospital setting are one of several clinical information systems. T or F | True |
| Electronic health records that incorporate CPOE and decision-support reduce errors by providing built-in error checking of orders. T or F | True |
| A picture archiving and communication system (PACS) is a computerized system for reporting the results of laboratory tests. T or F | False |
| Medication errors occur primarily during the prescribing and administering stages of medication management. T or F | True |
| Clinical documentation is an important component of a hospital’s efforts to meet quality standards set by payers. T or F | True |
| A hospital can incorporate evidence-based guidelines into clinical practice through the use of order sets. T or F | True |
| Even in a hospital that uses CPOE, physicians are still required to handwrite prescriptions for medications. T or F | False |
| Decision-support tools can be used for diagnosis as well as for selecting the best medication for a patient. T or F | True |
| All adverse events are errors. T or F | False |
| Medical error refers to an adverse event that could have been prevented with the current state of medical knowledge and is also known as a preventable adverse event. T or F | True |
| The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1990 (HIPAA) was designed to protect patients’ private health information, ensure care coverage when workers change or lose jobs, and uncover fraud and abuse in the health care system. T or F | False |
| Health information technology refers to the use of technology to manage information about the health care of patients. T or F | True |
| Standards are commonly agreed-on specifications. T or F | True |
| not part of the 8 core functions of an electronic health record | Pharmaceutical support |
| advantages of electronic health records when compared with paper records, EXCEPT; | Limitless access for non-health care personnel |
| Electronic health records are NOT in widespread use today due to the following reasons, EXCEPT; | Too many standards |
| Two-thirds of all errors in treatment and diagnosis occur due to the following communication problems, EXCEPT; | Pertinent information in medical records |
| Ambulatory care refers to treatment that is provided in which of the following locations? | Clinic |
| Continuity of care | The delivery of appropriate and consistent care to an individual over the course of time |
| Electronic prescribing | A computer-based communication system that allows prescriptions to be transmitted electronically from physician to pharmacist |
| Standards | A set of commonly agreed-on specifications |
| Electronic health records | A computerized lifelong health care record for an individual that incorporates data from all sources |
| Pay for performance | The use of financial incentives to improve the quality and efficiency of health care services |
| Evidence-based medicine | Medical care that is based on the latest and most accurate clinical research in making decisions about the care of patients |
| Nationwide Health Information Network | A nationwide interconnected computer network that facilitates the secure exchange of health care information |
| Electronic medical record | A computerized record of the physician’s encounters with a patient over time, including medical history, diagnosis, treatment, and prognosis |
| Personal health records | A comprehensive record of health information that is created and maintained by an individual over time |
| Acute care | Treatment provided in an inpatient setting, such as a hospital, for urgent problems that cannot be handled in another setting |
| To qualify for the Medicare EHR Incentive Program, eligible professionals only need to demonstrate meaningful use of certified electronic health record technology during the first year of participation. T or F | False |
| The following are true concerning clinical quality measures, EXCEPT; | Is not a requirement for meaningful use |
| In order for eligible professionals to meet the requirements for Stage 1 of Meaningful Use, 15 of 25 objectives must be met. T or F | False 20 of 25 |
| Meeting Meaningful Use is ONLY required for eligible hospitals and critical access hospitals (CAHs). T or F | False |
| Maintaining privacy and security is NOT a feature of Meaningful Use. T or F | False |
| In order for an electronic health record to meet Meaningful Use, it needs to be certified by CMS. T or F | False |
| The American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2006 specify 3 main components of Meaningful Use. T or F | False ARRA 2009 |
| The criteria for Meaningful Use will be staged in 5 steps over the course of the next 5 years/. T or F | False 3 steps |
| Simply put, "Meaningful Use" means providers need to show they are using certified EHR technology in ways that can be measured significantly and in quantity. T or F | True |
| Meaningful Use is the use of any EHR technology in order to improve quality, safety, and efficiency of patient care while reducing health disparities. T or F | False |
| Eligible hospitals and critical access hospitals (CAHs) must report on all 15 of their Clinical Quality Measures. T or F | True |
| There are 10 required core objective under Stage 1 of Meaningful Use. T or F | False 15 required core objectives |
| In order to meet the "Adopted" criteria of Meaningful Use, eligible professionals must be able to show evidence of installation. T or F | True |
| The American Recovery and Reinvestment Act is an economic stimulus package which was signed into law by President George W. Bush. T or F | False |
| One of the following is NOT an example of the 15 Core Objectives | Drug formulary checks |
| Eligible professionals must report on 5 total Clinical Quality Measures. T or F | False 6 total Clinical Quality Measures (3 required core measures; 3 out of 38 from additional set) |
| Which of the following is NOT part of the 3 main components of Meaningful Use? | The use of certified EHR technology to maintain technological advancement |
| Can be measure of processes, experiences and/or outcomes of patient care? | Clinical Quality Measures |
| Stage 1 of Meaningful Use will continue to expand on the baseline and be developed through future rule making. T or F | False Stage 3 |
| All of the following are examples of the 10 Set Objectives, EXCEPT; | E-Prescribing |
| One of the many goals of CDSS is to promote advancement in technology. T or F | False |
| Early CDS systems were derived from machines running artificial intelligence with the developers striving to program the computer with rules that allow it to "think" like an expert clinician when confronted with a patient. T or F | True |
| Unstructured decisions are often called "programmed decisions". T or F | False |
| ALL decisions require implementation. T or F | True |
| Most knowledge-based CDS can perform the following, EXCEPT; | DRG discrepancies |
| Administration is a function of CDSS. T or F | True |
| The key issue in reminding the user about things they choose to be reminded about is the completeness of the reminder. T or F | False |
| CDS can potentially lower costs, improve efficiency, and reduce patient inconvenience. T or F | True |
| A LIS detects the occurrence of drug interactions, drug allergies and other possible medication-related complications. T or F | False |
| Pharmacy information systems are sometimes referred to as Laboratory Information Systems (LIS). T or F | False |
| For CDS to be effective, clinicians must be motivated to use these systems, and many features of the health care environment may decrease, rather than increase, this motivation. T or F | True |
| Pharmacy information systems are complex computer systems that have been designed to meet the needs of a pharmacy department. T or F | True |
| Unstructured decision scenarios have some structured and some unstructured components. T or F | False |
| Belief that diagnosis is the dominant decision making issue is one of the main reasons why CDSS fails. T or F | True |
| Laboratory information management systems (LIMS) tend to have a base set of functionality. T or F | True |
| Key issues for consultation that the user seeks out (on-demand CDS) are speed and ease of access. T or F | True |
| A knowledge-based system is a computer-based information system that supports business or organizational decision-making activities. T or F | False |
| The following are examples of the impact and effectiveness of CDS, EXCEPT; | Alter clinician decision making and actions |
| Computer-based decision support is less effective than manual processes for decision support. T or F | False |
| A knowledge-based system isn't required for a decision support system to function. T or F | False |
| CDS can be designed to do the following, EXCEPT? | Over-ride and correct errors clinicians have made |
| The most common use of CDS is for addressing coding issues, such as ensuring accurate diagnoses, screening in a timely manner for preventable disease, or averting adverse drug events. T or F | True |
| A decision maker needs knowledge to make decisions. T or F | True |
| Inventory management is a key feature of a pharmacy information system. T or F | True |
| Decisions can only be classified as structured and unstructured. T or F | False |
| Veterans Health is charged with administering the principal healthcare program for American Indians/Alaskan Natives and provides comprehensive health services through a system of federal IHS, tribal, urban-operated facilities programs. T or F | False |
| The following are characteristics of active tags, EXCEPT: | Tag cost below $0.20 |
| The following are advantages of RFIDs, EXCEPT: | Interference with other devices |
| The following are true about passive tags, EXCEPT: | Tag size prohibitive |
| The initial “core” system of the DHCP consisted of the following, EXCEPT: | Cardiology Clinic |
| VistA was originally known as the Composite Health Care System. T or F | False |
| Which of the following is not part of the 4 main components of RPMS? | Infrastructure |
| 2D QR (Quick Read) Bar Codes contain a maximum alpha-numeric character capacity of 2,335. T or F | False |
| A bar coding system for blood administration cannot reduce the errors related to bedside or labeling errors. T or F | false |
| A linear barcode contains a maximum of which of the following alphanumeric character capacities? | 48 |
| All of the following are FDA Guidelines pertaining to RFIDs, EXCEPT | The RFID tag can substitute a linear bar code |
| All of the following are examples of Administrative Applications, EXCEPT: | Clinical Reporting System |
| All of the following are examples of Clinical Applications, EXCEPT | Emergency Room System |
| Applications in the clinical category generally collect all patient-related information gathered during patient contacts. T or F | True |
| Applications in this category are used to collect, store, and report patient demographic information | Administrative Applications |
| Applications in this category support the RPMS environment with management, development, and communication tools. | Infrastructure Applications |
| Bar code solutions are being deployed in a variety of healthcare applications, including hospital wristbands, labeling for pharmaceutical unit-dose medications, IV mixtures, lab and pathology specimens, blood products, asset tags, file labels. T or F | True |
| Bar codes accurately identify medications by type, recommended dosage and frequency of administration at the unit-dose level, thus providing nurses with a “second check” and decision support tool in the administration of patient meds. T or F | True |
| Bar codes can be matched with radio frequency identification (RFID) tags to create two-tiered identification, resulting in more robust point of care, patient-specific medical media. T or F | True |
| Barcodes at the point of care can be used for the following, EXCEPT: | Courier and Asset Management |
| GTIN is the global document type identifier number. T or F | False |
| In 1984, the IHS began implementation of the VA Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application (AHLTA) software, then referred to as DHCP. | False |
| National Institutes of Health operates the nation’s largest medical system. T or F | False |
| Passive tags are "difficult to fix to a package". T or F | False |
| Pharmaceutical manufacturers are required to bar code their products at the unit-dose level. T or F | True |
| RFID can be used in long-term care to track elderly and disoriented patients. T or F | True |
| RFID in health care has been limited primarily to asset management and supply chain applications. T or F | True |
| RFID provides a wireless extension of the network to physical objects. T or F | True |
| RFID tags may be passive (requiring a small batter to allow continuous monitoring) or active, in which the RFID tag is required to be in close proximity to the reader in order to be read. T or F | False |
| RPMS software applications fall into 4 Major Categories. T or F | False |
| RPMSs are integrated solutions for the management of clinical, business practice and administrative information in healthcare facilities of various sizes. T or F | True |
| Readers aggregate and assemble data received from a number of tags and readers and pass them to the local computers for further processing. | False |
| A digital signature is an electronic representation of a handwritten signature. | True |
| A laboratory may leave of voicemail containing the results of a blood chemistry report on a patient's phone. | False |
| A patient can request ammendment of his health information. T or F | True |
| All ECMs are alike therefore; One ECM system fits all. T or F | False |
| All individuals working in a health care setting can make entries into the medical record. T or F | False |
| conditions wherein the Privacy Rule does NOT preempt state law, EXCEPT: | An exception is made by the Congress |
| An EDMS can provide disaster recovery and data integrity enhancements. T or F | True |
| Content can be classified into structured such as information from scanned images and electronic documents to complex forms and even rich media. T or F | False |
| Content can be defined as corporate knowledge stored in formats such as video, web pages, multimedia, etc. T or F | True |
| Content is information that is setting up competitive differentiation, not specifically products and processes. T or F | True |
| Digital signatures are those that are stored on electronic media such as disks that can be read by a computer. T or F | True |
| Document capture can be facilitated via the following, EXCEPT: | OCR (Optical Character Recognition) |
| Document imaging refers to creating a digital representation of a paper document through the use of an input device, such as a scanner. T or F | True |
| Document management refers to the storage and retrieval of both static digital images and dynamic documents with a digital source such as Microsoft Office documents. T or F | True |
| Electronic signature (e-signature) is a generic, technology-neutral term for the various ways that an electronic record can be signed (attested). T or F | True |
| Managing content effective means considering its full life cycle. T or F | True |
| Metadata refers to "data about data". T or F | True |
| Records Management refers to the life-cycle management of documents with respect to policies, rules, and regulations. T or F | True |
| The Privacy Rule does NOT establish requirements for notice and acknowledgement however, it does establish the right of an individual. T or F | False |
| Privacy Rule does not require that covered entities train all members on policies/procedures with respect to PHI, but that a policy which establishes appropriate administrative, technical and physical safeguards to protect PHI should be in place. T or F | False |
| The Privacy Rule prohibits patient access to confidential Alcohol and Drug Abuse Patient Records. T or F | False |
| The state law always preempts the Privacy Rule. T or F | False |
| Which of the following resolutions is ideal for standard black and white document scanning? | 300 dpi |
| Which one of the following is not part of the content lifecycle? | Content Destruction |
| A 17 year old female can sign an authorization for release of information. | False |
| (PACS) – Patient Archival and Computerized System. | False |
| 1 terabyte (TB) is equivalent to which of the following? | 1,000,000,000,000 Bytes |
| A PACS is an information system that is used to view, store, transmit and electronically display medical images and related information such as patient demographics, diagnostic reports and clinical histories. T or F | False |
| All of the following are examples of PACS- Imaging Modalities, EXCEPT: | Indwelling catheter |
| Computed radiography (CR) does not require an intermediate step of laser scanning. T or F | False |
| Current HIPAA 4010 implementation guides are obsolete. T or F | True |
| Data elements are electronic exchanges involving the transfer of information between two parties for specific purposes. T or F | False |
| HIPAA 5010 will continue to store data content that is historical and no longer used. T or F | False |
| HIPAA 5010 will only provide full support for the reporting of National Provider Identifiers (NPI) but not the new ICD-10 codes. T or F | False |
| Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) mandates that the health care industry use standard formats for electronic claims and claims-related transactions. | True |
| ICD is used worldwide for morbidity and mortality statistics, reimbursement systems, and automated decisions support in health care. T or F | True |
| ICD-10 which the U.S. is about to adopt and implement was initially endorsed in 1990 and gained world-wide use in 1994. T or F | True |
| ICD-10-CM uses a 3 to 5 digit code. T or F | False |
| ICD-9-CM is updated every 10 years. T or F | False |
| Increased code detail in ICD-10 includes fuller definition of the following, EXCEPT: | Location |
| It is a 10-position, intelligence-free numeric identifier that does not carry any other information about healthcare providers, such as the state in which they live or their medical specialty. | NPI |
| Major hospitals implementing PACS require about 4 terabytes (TB) of data space year. T or F | False |
| More than 800 changes are needed to transition from the current version 4010 to 5010. T or F | True |
| NCHS and CMS are responsible for overseeing all the changes and modifications to the ICD-9-CM. | True |
| October 1, 2013 – The industry switched from HIPAA 4010 to 5010. T or F | False |
| On January 1, 2012, the health care industry began to execute relevant changes to ICD-9 in preparation to the upcoming ICD-10 implementation. T or F | True |
| Only certain entities covered by HIPAA must use the same standard format for electronic claims and claims-related transactions. T or F | False |
| PACS began making their appearance in major hospitals in the 1990s. T or F | True |
| PACS consist of the following major components, EXCEPT: | Mobile dictation device |
| PACS consists of 2 major components; imaging modalities and infrastructure. T or F | False |
| Radiographic images stored in PACS are classified as “static images” meaning, these are edited or altered in any shape or form. T or F | False |
| Teaching hospitals require which of the following minimum storage space size in order to implement a PACS? | 5 terabytes/year |
| The International Classification of Diseases (ICD) is used worldwide for the following, EXCEPT: | Policy development |
| The current HIPAA transactions standard is version 4010. T or F | False |
| The following are examples of the differences between HIPAA 4010 and 5010, EXCEPT: | Inconsistency across transactions |
| examples of the eight electronic transactions and code set standards adopted under HIPAA, EXCEPT: | Payment history |
| The long term goal of the Administrative Simplification provisions is to decrease the administrative costs of health care by standardizing the processes. T or F | True |
| UMLS is the universal format used for PACS imaging and image transferring. T or F | False |
| Unlike 5010, 4010 will be unable to accommodate the forthcoming and mandatory ICD-10-CM and ICD-10-PCS code sets. T or F | True |
| Which of the following is NOT required to upgrade to HIPAA 5010 standards? | Life insurance companies |
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