midterm
Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in
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what aspect of the physical exam can help assess GI motility | abdominal auscultation
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interic mucous membranes suggest | liver disease
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key aspects in determining hydration status includ | CRT & skin turgor
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How can you measure objective data | laboratory results
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lymph node enlargement might indicate what | neoplasia
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assessment of a patients perfusion may best be achieved by | pulse strength & CRT
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when does the clients experience start | when the receptionist answers the phone
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severe dehydration can kill a patient in a short time (true/false) | true
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failure to produce adequate urine has no effects on a block patient (true/false) | false
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you do not need to record date that is with in normal limits in the patient medical record (true/false) | false
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oxygenation is the first priority of care for a critical patient (true/false) | true
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one should schedule an appointment for the same amount of time for new puppy visits (true/false) | false
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absence of palpable pulse with heart rate | plulse deficit
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decreased body temperature | hypothermia
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pupil asymmetry | anisocoria
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normal variation in heart rhythm | sinus arrhythemia
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itching | puritis
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fainting | syncope
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pus in the uterus | pyometra
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hair loss | alopecia
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limb weakness | ataxia
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high pitched inspiratory wheeze | stridor
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you should always pick up a ringing phone by what ring | 3rd
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when getting information from an owner what should you always do to show your active listening skills and confirm what the owner has said | repeate the info
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the forceful ejection of the stomach contents up the esophagus and through the mouth | vomiting
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the backflow of undigested food (which has never reached the stomach) up the esophagus and through the mouth | regurgitation
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what does OSHA stand for | occupational safety and health administration
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what is step one of the needs ladder | oxygenation
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what is step two of the needs ladder | critical safety/ acute pain
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what is step three of the needs ladder | hydration
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what is step four of the needs ladder | elimination
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what is step five of the needs ladder | nutrition
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what is step six of the needs ladder | noncritical safety
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what is step seven of the needs ladder | chronic pain/acute pain
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what is step eight of the needs ladder | activity
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what is step nine of the needs ladder | utility
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written document describing routine procedures carried out in veterinary practice that is provided for all staff members, reviewed regularly, designed according to practice policy | SOP; standard operating procedure
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how many hours of continuing education are RVT's required to have | 16 hours
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how long do RVT's have to obtain the required amount of continuing education | every other year
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how often does an RVT have to renew their liscense | every other year on even numbered years
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this is written to persuade potential employer that you are the one for the job; it is a self-advertisement to showcase your skills | resume
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this part of a resume should summarize your career aspirations, what you expect from a job, what you have to offer the employer | objective statement
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this is written to explain the reasons for your interests in the specific organization and identify your4 most relevant skills or experiences | cover letter
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what does PPE stand for | personal protection equipment
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when making solutions from a concentrate you should always start with the correct quanity of ___ and add ____ | water; concentrate
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this is a serious, almost always fatal, viral disease that can affect any warm-blooded animal, spread by contact with an infected animals saliva | rabies
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what are the purpose of OSHA regulations | to ensure a safe work place for employees
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OSHA can give a practice very little time to correct any violations found on a visitation (true/false) | true
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OSHA regulations have how many specific standards | 5
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this is used for gas sterilization and is thought to be a human carcinogen | ethylene oxide
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what is the safe exposure limit for all halogenated gases | 2ppm
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these types of gases should be stored in a cool, dry place away from heat or direct sun light | compressed gases
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this is a disease that can be passed from animal to human under normal conditions; can be spread via inhalation, contact with broken skin, ingestion, contact with eyes and mucous membranes, accidental inoculation | zoonotic disease
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any solid, liquid, or gas that can harm people other than living organisms, property, or the environment | hazardous material
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any substance that produces a lethal dose or a lethal concentration | toxic material
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communicable by infection, as from one person to another or from on part of the body to another | infectious material
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this type of material tends to react with other material | reactive material
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material that is to be set on fire or heated | ignitable material
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after how many days will an animal that is placed in the custody of a veterinarian considered abandoned after the veterinarian has given written notice to the individual that delivered the animal | 5 days
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this type of supervision is when the DVM is within ear shot of the RVT | direct
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this type of supervision is when the DVM is not on the premises and the RVT is working from written oral directives of the DVM | indirect
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patient medical records are considered to be what | confidential
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patient medical records, including radiographs must be kept how long after the last encounter with the patient | 3 years
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what are the four items allowed only to DVM's | prescribe, diagnose, prognose, perform surgery
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aside from the actual laws, there are how many types of ethical issues that are a major issue in veterinary medicine | 3
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what are the 3 types of ethics | societal, personal, professional
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these are principles that give him/her a sense of right/wrong, fair/unfair | personal ethics
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this is established by your profession that defines and encourages specific conduct | profesional ethics
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who developed a code of ethics for the profession of veterinary technology | NAVTA
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this is established by society and generally written into law | societal ethics
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this is the standard of moral behavior | ethics
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as a staff member of the veterinary hospital, technicians are exposed to hazards (true/false) | true
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the purpose of safety programs is to | reduce or eliminate injury
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OSHA enforces laws that ensure | compliance
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who is responsible for learning the rules of safety | the employee
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the practice owner has a right to be present during an OSHA inspection (true/false) | true
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where should heavy equipment be stored | lower shelves
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what is the first responsibility during a fire | alert others
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working bottles of hazardous chemicals should be contained in what type of bottles | ones with screw on lids
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ethylene oxide can be used to sterilize rubber gloves (true/false) | true
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what is the most common form of injury in the veterinary hospital | animal related
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all zoonotic diseases are easily passed to humanes (true/false) | false
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scatter radiation is not harmful to humans (true/false) | false
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it is acceptable to use kitty litter to clean up spilled anesthetic agents (true/false) | true
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you should not attempt to fight a fire if | it spreads beyond the immediate area
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you should not attempt to fight a fire if | it blocks an escape route
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you should not attempt to fight a fire if | your unsure of proper extinguisher use
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you should not attempt to fight a fire if | it involves a structure
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these sheets are in a binder for all employees to use | MSDS; material safety data sheets
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lifting requires the use of what | legs
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who is required to provide safety equipment and training to the employee | employer
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written safety related policies are known as | hospital safety manual
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where should chemicals on shelves be stored at | eye level
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one of the first rules of safety is to | dress appropriately
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one in every five work place injuries is related to | back injuries
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these should never be stored near biologic materials | food and drinks
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It is important that portable dryers and electrical equipment cords are properly | grounded
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how far away from an ignition source should newspapers, boxes, and cleaning supplies be stored | 3 feet
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to prevent unauthorized entry it is important to always keep nonclient doors | locked
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this is a potent chemical used to sterilize hand instruments without the use of an autoclave | glutaraldehyde
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since injury can not be eliminiated the best thing to do is | minimize it
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if you enter an animals stall you should remain on what side | door side
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noise levels above __ dB are considered dangerous | 110
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borrelia burgdorferi is the cause of which zoonotic disease | lyme disease
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this type of mange can typically affect the bra line or waist band areas | sarcoptic
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microsporum is a fungus of the skin known as | ringworm
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high dose exposure to this can cause cell damage | radiation
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long term exposure to this can lead to liver and kidney damage | anesthetic
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the most serious hazards from needles and sharp objects is by | puncture or laceration
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this organization regulates safety in the workplace | OSHA
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this organization is the national association for vet techs | NAVTA
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this organization governs the practice act in the state | the board
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this organization is associated with specialty boards | AVMA
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this organization is associated with continuing education registry | RACE
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whose responsibility is it to know that tasks that a vet tech may legally perform | the vet tech
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a vet tech can be ___ as a result of his or her actions | sued
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who accredits programs of study for the vet tech | AVMA
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what records must be submitted for licensure of a vet tech | criminal history
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where is a civil penalty paid to | licensing board
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what is the term adopted by NAVTA to refer to a group that has recieved recognition as a specialty | academy
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what term should not be used by a tech who is a member of society | socialists
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what is a veterinary technician considered credentialed | when an application is reviewed and approved by the state board
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where are state criminal history record checks obtained from | state police
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where are federal criminal history record checks obtained from | FBI
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a vet tech in a substance abuse program will have their license | put on probation
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what are the two most important grounds for discipline in veterinary medicine | practicing beyond the scope of license; negligence
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this means an authority is considering a professional license and contacts that member | notice
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hearings are a matter of what type of records | public
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with a license what is the most severe sanction by a board | revocation
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this means the vet tech is limited in his or her practicing of nursing | probation
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a fine paid to the licensing board | civil penalty
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violations of the practice act are called | technical violations
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deviation from or failure to conform to acceptable standards | malpractice
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conduct that increases the risk that negligence will occur | incompetience
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state laws are ___ by the legislature and signed into law by the govenor | enacted
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this is the primary law that governs a profession | the practice act
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why is signalment important | predilection of specific diseases, to identify the animal, for legal purposes
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who is not authorized to admit an OSHA inspector to the practice in the absence of the employer | employee
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what should never be used as storage areas | hallways; stairways
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you should never operate machinery or equipment without all the proper ____ in place | guards
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what is the first thing that should be done before opening an autoclave | active vent device
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extension cords should only be used for temporary applications and should always be what type | three-conductor ground
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when transferring a chemical to a smaller or different container it is important to remember to always | apply a secondary container hazard warning label
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these will give additional precautions, insturctions, and advice for handling specific products in the workplace | MSDS
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this is a key component of the right to know law | hazardous material plan
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this includes instructions for organzing and filing the practice "right to know" label | hazardous material plan
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how many years must pass since the date of the expiration of a license or a registration certificate before appropriate examinations must be retaken in order to apply for a new license or registration | 5 years
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how many parts is the indiana state law divided into | two
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what are the two parts of indiana state law | code; administrative code
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this part of indiana state law is proposed by legislators in response to an issue or request from constituents | indiana code
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this part of indiana state law is written by state agencies to enforce code passed by the legislature | indiana administrative code
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who formulates administrative code with specific rules and regulation that accomplishes what has been directed in the code | ISDH (indiana state department of health)
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