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vet 2005

midterm review

What does AALAS stand for american association for laboratory animal science
Who established a certification program that certifies 3 levels of animal technicians AALAS
all research facilities and teaching institutions are registered by what the USDA
a technician does not need to graduate from an AVMA accredited program to be eligible for certification to be a lab animal technician (true/false) true
what is the most common health condition that affects people working in a research animal facility laboratory animal allergy
what percentage of people working in animal research will develop allergy symptoms 10-30%
a hypersensitivity to certain substances, such as the proteins found in dander, urine, serum, and saliva is what laboratory animal allergy
rhinitis, conjunctivitis, contact urticaria, asthma, and anaphylaxis are signs of what laboratory animal allergy
this is mandated by the animal welfare act, it provides info for improved animal care in research ,teaching, testing, and exhibition animal welfare information center
this is regulated by federal law, oversees all research facilities, enforces protocols- research facilities must prove that animals are absolutely needed for the studies institute of animal care and use committee
how many categories of animal use are there 5
what is the first category of animal use animal holding
what is the second category of animal use husbandy/observe behavior
what is the third category of animal use may cause momentary pain to animals(sq/iv catheters) must use pain control if more than momentary pain
what category(s) of animal use are heavily regulated and have to have 100% justification on their research techniques D & E
this committee reviews all animal use protocols institutional animal care and use committee
must be a DVM certifies or trained in lab animal medicine, must be an individual who is not otherwise affiliate with the institution, or required by institutional needs, laws and regulations are qualifications for what type of membership IACUC membership
this act was established in 1966 and protects warmblooded vertebrates, excludes mice, rats, birds, and farm animals; is regulated by APHIS animal welfare act
what organization regulates the animal welfare act APHIS
who is regulated by the animal welfare act research, testing, and education
safety of personnel, conservation of species, and humane care and use of animals are all what in reference to animal research ethical considerations
relevancy, reliability, simplicity, and accessibility are all what in reference to animal research scientific considerations
models must have one or more features that resemble the original system is what type of scientific consideration relevancy
model must allow investigators to obtain consistent, reproducible results is what type of scientific consideration reliability
simpler models usually provide fewer variables than whole animal system is what type of scientific consideration simplicity
models must be readily available to research community and permit manipulation using contemporary technology is what type of scientific consideration accessibility
what is the primary concern of good laboratory practice standards reliability of research results
the results acquired from testing and effects on animals are what type of consideration ethical
these are used for appropriate identification, to document environment of animal rooms, housing, feeding, handling, and care written SOP's
the purchase of animals; food, caging, and labor; cost of supplies, equipment, facilities, and labor are all what type of considerations economic
rearrangements of social groupings, change of environment, temp, bedding, etc; gentle handling, decreased noise, and adaptation to experimental situation to decrease stress are all examples of what non-pharmacologic interventions
these can be tougher than public law, but not less institutional policies
these are the minimum accepted standards laws
this strain of lab animal is randomly bred and used to represent diversity of human populations outbred
this strain of lab animal is brother-sister inbreeding for at least 20 generations and is used in transplant research inbred
this strain of lab animal is genetically different at one specific locus congenic
this strain of lab animal is genetically engineered for the production of specific disease models and is used to study some forms of cancer transgenic
mice shouldn't have what type of bedding cedar
how long is the estrus cycle of a mouse 4-5 days
mice reach puberty at what age 4-6 weeks
the gestational period of a mouse is 3 weeks
postpartum estrus occurs for how long in mice 24 hours
this is when a group of female mice will go into estrus by the third night following exposure to a male whitten effect
this is when a pregnant female mouse will not conceive if exposed to a strange male within 48 hours of copulation bruce effect
this husbandry strain of mouse is born by ovh and maintained in strict isolation axenic
this husbandry strain of mice are axenic mice that have been introduce to known nonpathogenic microorganism(s)and housed in isolation or barrier units gnotobiotic
this husbandry strain of mice is free from specific pathogens specific pathogen free/ viral antibody free
this husbandry strain of mice requires personnel to shower in/shower out barrier-sustained
this husbandry strain of mice requires no special housing etc conventional
holding the base of the tail and scruff, using a wire cage lid, or devices are restrain and handling protocols of what lab animal mouse
where is the SQ injection route of a mouse scruff
where is the IM injection route of a mouse quadriceps
where is the IV injection route of a mouse lateral tail vein or saphenous vein
where is the IP injection route of a mouse right caudal abdomen
what should be used to collect blood from a mouse hematocrit tube
how do you calculate the maximum safe volume of blood to be drawn from a mouse wt(kg)x 1%= L blood or wt(g)x 1%= mL blood
the retro-oribital, lateral tail vein, tail/toenail clip, saphenous vein, facial/submandibular are all what in reference to mice blood drawl routes
this blood collection method requires the mouse to be anesthetized orbital sinus
this mouse medical condition is self-limiting; pneumonia like; may be a latent infection; has a vaccine available sendai virus
this mouse medical condition is a latent infection; clinical signs: dehydration, wt loss, diarrhea, sudden death; tx/prevention: cage filter, replacement stock, cesarian rederivation mouse hepatitis virus (MHV)
this mouse medical conditin is caused by clostridium piliformis; risk factors: poor husbandry, immunosuppression; clinical signs: dehydration, wt loss, diarrhea, sudden death; tx/prevention: isolation, restocking, cesarian rederivation tyzzer's disease
this mouse medical condition is caused by mycoplasma pulmonis; transmission: aerosol, respiratory secretions, transplacental; clinical signs: URI, torticollis, rough hair coat, wt loss, breeding ineffciencies, infertility; tx: tetracycline in drink water murine mycoplasmosis
this mouse medical condition is viral diarrhea in mice < 2 weeks old; tx: culling; prevention: cage filters epizootic diarrhea of infant mice (EDIM)
these are the external parasites of mice pin worms; mites
treatment for mice external parasites are with these medications ivermectin; dichlorvos strips
this lab animal lacks a gallbladder; the albino species has poor vision; have a harderian gland rats
this lab animal has reproduction characteristics similar to mice but the whitten effect is less prominent and the bruce effect is non existant rats
this lab animal has husbandry similar to mice but rears their young communally rats
base of the tail or thumb across the thorax are handling and restrain of which lab animal rats
IP injections of this lab animal are given on the left side of the abdomen rats
this rat medical condition- in young rats clinical signs: jaundice, ataxia, tremors, stunted growth; mature rats: asymptomatic; immunocompromised rats: paralysis, scrotal cyanosis rat parvovirus
this lab animal are generally docile, alert burrowers; social but for ease of housing kept singly; crepuscular; herbivores; have a high fiber requirement rabbits
animals that are primarily active during twilight crepuscular
this helps to prevent trichobezors in rabbits high fiber diet
medical term for hairballs trichobezors
stomping of feet and spraying urine are behaviors of ___ or ___ rabbits aggressive; nervous
what is the average life expectancy of a rabbit 5-6 years
rabbits have two distinct types of feces (true/false) true
this type of rabbit feces is hard and round and formed in the first four hours of eating day
this type of rabbit feces is moist, has a strong odor, bright green, mucus covered night
rabbits eatting the night feces directly from the anus is normal & helps increase digestibility of proteins and maintains adequate nutrition and intestinal flora (true/false) true
large rabbits weigh how much 14-16 pounds
medium rabbits weigh how much 4-14 pounds
small rabbits weigh how much 2-4 pounds
the holland lop, and mini lop are considered what type of rabbit lop eared
the dutch, new zeland white, california checkered, giant, himalayan, and rex are considered what type of rabbit non lop eared
this involves the care, housing, feeding, and breeding of lab animals husbandry
rabbits are induced ovulators that do not have an estrous as in mice (true/false0 true
the uterus of this lab animal is a duplex with 2 cervix's and 2 cervical orifices that open directly into the vagina with no uterine body rabbits
rabbits have a seasonal period of receptivity that last for how many days 7-10
in a rabbit how long does ovulation occur after coitus 10 hours
how long is a rabbits gestational period 29-35 days
nesting hours to days prior to paturition a doe will pluck her hair to line the nest (true/false) true
what is the litter size of a rabbit 4-12 kits
what are baby rabbits called kits
when are kits weaned 5-8 weeks
when do male rabbits reach puberty 6-7 months
when do female rabbits reach puberty 5 months
how soon after paturition can a doe be rebred 24 hours
in bucks, the inguinal canals in males open and the scrotum is anterior to the penis(beans over the frank) (true/false) true
how long does rabbit breeding last 2 seconds
about how many ejaculations are achieved by a rabbit per mating 1-3
this rabbit husbandry term is used more specifically than outbred or random and specifically not inbred stock
this rabbit husbandry term refers to inbred animals; not as common as in mice due to longer gestational periods; 20 generations b4 considered taking 1o yrs; ex: wantanabe hyperlipidemic strain
this type of rabbit is commonly employed in research; born via OVH specific pathogen free (SPF)
this rabbit diet requirement is necessary for normal gut motility and fermentation; prevents trichobezors; options: alfalfa hay, cabbage family, clover, dandelions fiber
the rabbit classic cartoon diets of carrots and other vegetables have low nutritional value (true/false) true
when do rabbits routinely eat dusk
the integument of this lab animal can tear easily and has three pairs of scent glans located on the chin, anal, and inguinal area rabbits
the urine of this lab animal is thick/cloudy and contains crystals unless the animal is fasted rabbit
what is the normal body temperature of a rabbit 101-104
what is the normal HR of a rabbit 180-325
what is the normal RR of a rabbit 30-60
this lab animal cant vomit; are hindgut fermenters via cecum; are coprophagic producing cecotrophs at night; have 2 sets of upper incisors & 1 set of lower that are continuously growing rabbit
what are a rabbits 2 pair of upper incisors are called peg teeth/ wolf teeth
this type of dentition is characterized by high crowned teeth and enamel which extends past the gum line providing extra material for wear and tear hypsodontic
this lab animal has well developed ear veins and a large lingual vessel rabbit
this lab animal is prone to laryngospasms and has heterophils instead of neutrophils rabbit
this rabbit medical condition- pasteurella multocida; aka snuffles; invades nasal tissue; disseminate to other parts of the body; clinical signs: URI, skin abscesses, otitis interna, pyometra, orchitis, pneumonia, septicemia; transmission= direct contact pasteurellosis
this is the coccidia found in rabbits eimeria spp
rabbit medical condition- clostridium piliforme; intracellular pathogen; signs= acute death, lethargy, rough hair coat, diarrhea; Dx= special stains on necropsy samples; transmission= ingestion of spores tyzzers disease
what is the gestational period of a hamster 15-18 days
hamster medical condition: bacterial infection of ileum; signs= watery diarrhea, lethargy, sudden death w/in 3 days of signs; seen as young as 3 weeks of age; often confused w/ tyzzers dz wet tail(transmissable ileal hyperplasia)
hamster medical condition: zoonotic; asymptomatic; generalized wasting; ppl signs= flu like symptoms, headache, confusion, drowsiness; virus shed in urine; lymphocytic choriomenigitis virus (LCM)
which pocket pet is naturally resistant to radiation gerbil
guinea pig medical condition: vit c deficency; lameness, lethargy; anorexia, rough hair coat, diarrhea, nasal/occular discharge; scurvy
guinea pig medical condition: gut flora predominately gram +; signs= diarrhea, dehydration, hypothermia, anorexia; Tx= supportive care, lactobacillus antibiotic associate enterotoxemia
guinea pig medical condition: strep zooepideicus; streptobacillus moniliformis; opportunistic via oral mucosa abrasions; signs= cervical abscesses; prevention= decrease stress cervical lymphadenitis
how many species of ferrets are there 3
a male ferret who has been neutered and is unable to breed gib
a male ferret who is intact and able to breed hob
a female ferret who is unaltered and able to breed jill
a female ferret who has been spayed and is unable to breed sprite
a baby ferret kit
which human virus is transmissable to ferrets influenza
which order of birds contains the song birds: finches, canaries passierformes
which order of birds contains fowl, poultry, and quail galliformes
which order of birds contains doves and pigeons columbiformes
which order of birds contains waterfowl, ducks, geese anseriformes
what order of birds contains waterbirds, cranes, herons, ciconiiformes
which order of birds contains raptors, hawks, eagles falconiformes
which order of birds contain owls strigiformes
blood from the caudal portion of the body passing through the kidneys before the main vascular system renal portal system
which animal does not have lymph nodes avian species
what is the minimum amount of darkness a bird should have 14 hours
how many feathers should be trimmed on the wings of a bird firs 4-7
the differences between males and females of the same species by apperance, pulmage color sexual dimorphism
feathers that are immature feathers that still have a blood supply to the shaft, can be spotted by the dark colored shaft blood feathers
the process of shedding and regrowing of feathers that is affected by season, temperature, nutrition, species, occurs one to two times per year molting
respiratory system of this animal has no diaphragm, large trachea for size with complete rings, syrinx, lungs & air sacs (8-9) avian
this is the sound producing organ of birds syrinx
how many breaths does it take to move air through the system of a bird 2
digestive system of this animal lacks teeth, no epiglottis, esophagus on right side, crop, proventriculus, ventriculus (gizzard), small and large intestine, cloaca avian
bony termination of the vertebral column formed by fusion of the last 4-8 spinal vertebrae pygostyle,
posterior to the thoraic vertebrae, a series of 10-23 fused vertebrae to which the pelvic girdle is fused synsacrum
bony structure created by the fushion of two or more thoraic vertebrae as occurs in some birds notarium
the musculoskeletal system of this species lacks bone marrow, some bones are hallow avian
avian disease: chlamydophilia psittaci; signs= green diarrhea, anorexia, depression, dyspnea, URI, pneumonia, biliverdinuria; Dx= signs and bloodtests; ZOONOTIC chlamydiosis (psittacosis)
avian disease: mycobacterium avium-intracellulare; ZOONOTIC; signs= chronic wt loss, lethargy, Dx= fecal smears, biopsies; Tx= long term antibiotics avian mycobacteriosis
avian disease: gram negative bacteria(E. Coli, Pseudomonas spp) signs= hyperpnea, dyspnea, abdominal breathing; Dx= choanal culture and sensitivity pneumonia/air sacculitis
avian disease: carried throughout body by phagocytic cells resulting in formation of granulomas; signs= pu/pd, anorexia, dyspnea, cyanosis, change in voice, =/- GI symptoms, =/- neurosymptoms, Dx= history, signs, labs, endoscope, rads; Tx= surgery aspergillus
avian disease: candida albicans; gray> white plaque in oral cavity, espophagus, crop; candidiasis
avian disease: viral; causes sudden death, conures can be carries pachecos disease
avian disease: viral; neurological disease of poultry newcastles disease
avian disease: viral; young birds polymavirus
oil gland of birds found under the tail uropygial gland
muscular pouch in the GI tract used for food storage crop
glandular stomach in birds proventriculs
muscular stomach in birds that grinds food venttriculus
male reproductive organ in birds that is similar to mammalian penis phallus
hard brittle internal structure found in cuttlefish cuttlebone
juvenile bird that is just learning to fly fledgling
main flight feathers projecting along the outer edge of the birds wing primary feathers
infectious stage of chlamydophilia psittaci elementary body
reproductive stage of chlamydophillia psittaci reticulate body
deposition of greenish pigments in the urine of birds biliverdinuria
feather dander is also known as feather dust
what are the most common birds that are kept as pets psittacines
what type of feather should never be cut blood feather
which jugular vein is bigger in a bird? the right or left? right
what is the common outlet for intestinal, genital, and urinary tracts in birds cloaca
female birds only have one ovary that is located on what side of their body left
which bird species does not have a present phallus psittacines
what mammalian has 6000-7000 species, is ectothermic, has pulmonary respiration, amniotes, epidermal scales, 3-4 chambered hearts, are tetrapods, have internal fertilizatin, no sweat glands, live on all continents except antartica reptiles
which reptile should shed its skin in one piece, has a specially designed mandible allowing wide opening, 3 anatomic <3 chambers that functions as 5, more forward tracheal opening, small non functioning left lung, saccular lung used during feeding snake
how long does the esophagus run in the length of the body of a snake 1/4-1/2 of the body
what organ may be fused with the spleen in a snake pancreas
a snake urinary tract has __ nephrons, __ loop of henle, __ renal pelvis, excrete uric acid via ___ few; no; no; cloaca
abnormal shedding of the skin of reptiles dysecdysis
which reptile has 250-300 species, appeared 215 millions years ago, has 2 suborders turtles
this suborder of turtles has 2 families, approximately 75 species, are side necked unable to retract neck, aquatic-semi aquatic pleurodira
this suborder of turtle has 11 families, approximately 200 species, able to retract neck straight back into shell, terrestrial, aquatic, and semi-aquatic cryptodira
these turtles are part of what suborder: marine turtles, snapping turtles, pond & river turtles, mud & musk turtles, land/true tortoises, soft-shelled turtles cryptodira
how many bones are in a turtles shell 50-60
how many types of shell variations are there 4
what reptile has coelomic cavity, respiration, rhampotheca/tomium, scaled vs. scale-less, uncoordinated shedding, no external ears, oviparious chelonian
which reptile has approximately 4500 species, appeared ~200 million years ago, life span ranges from 3-15 years, have large size variations, 5 infraorders, epidermal scales, vomeronasal(jacobsons) organ, oviparous vs. viviparous lizards
this lizard infra order has 10-14 families iguania
this lizard infra order has 3 families gekkota
this lizard infra order has 11 families scinocomorpha
this lizard infra order has 3 families diploglossa
this lizard infra order has 4 families platynota
the general photoperiod rule for a lizard in the summer time is how many hours 14
the general photoperiod rule for a lizard in the winter time is how many hours 12
the photoperiod rule for temperate zone reptiles in the summer is how many hours 15
the photoperiod rule for temperate zone reptiles in the spring/fall is how many hours 12
the photoperiod rule for temperate zone reptiles in the winter is how many hours 9
the photoperiod rule for tropical reptile species is how many hours in the summer 13
the photoperiod rule for tropical reptile species is how many hours in the winter 11
what are uva lights needed for in reptiles behavior
what are uvb lights needed for in reptiles vitamin d3
what will happen to a reptile if the humidity is to low in their environment dysecdysis, dehydration
what will happen to a reptile if the humidity is to high in their environment respiratory infections, dermatitis
how often should most tortoises and lizards be fed daily
how often should aquatic/semi aquatic chelonians be fed 2-3 times a week
how often should large carnivorous lizards be fed 2-3 times a week
how often should a reptiles entire cage and furnishing be disinfected monthly
Created by: chop



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