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2nd half for final

what is the recommended time for urine to be evaluated 30 mins or 3-4 hours
what can you do to differentiate between bile pigments and just oddly colored urine shake urine and see if yellow foam forms
if you have a urine sample that smells sweet or slightly fruity what does this mean and indicate glucosuria; ketoneurina;
what is the value for isothenuria 1.008-1.012
what is the most common instrument used to measure specific gravity called refractometer
if you have a urine sample with a pH greater than 7 it is considered what basic/alkaline
glucose is commonly detected in urine of healthy patients (true/false) false
to detect bacteria what two diagnostics must be performed bacterial culture; microscopic evaluation
when evaluating a urine sediment 10x is used to evaluate what crystals and casts
when evaluating a urine sediment 40x is used to evaluate what RBC's, WBC's, epithelial cells, sperm, and bacteria
what is the most common type of cast present in urine granular
urinary stones are typically composed of what two crystals calcium oxalate; struvite
the physical appearance of a concentrated urine sample will appear dark yellow
the physical appearance of a dilute urine sample will appear pale or colorless
the physical appearance of a urine sample with bilirubin will appear amber
the physical appearance of a urine sample with blood will appear red-clear
the physical appearance of a urine sample with myoglobin will appear coffee colored
how many transparency choices are available when evaluating a urine sample 4
what are the four transparency choices clear, hazy, cloudy, turbid
this transparency choice when evaluating the physical appearance of urine usually does not have much sediment clear
this transparency choice when evaluating the physical appearance of urine will have some sediment present hazy
this transparency choice when evaluating the physical appearance of urine will have significant sediment (if urine is held up to a lined paper the lines are visible) cloudy
this transparency choice when evaluating the physical appearance of urine will have significant sediment (if urine is held up to a lined paper the lines are not visible) turbid
this is the measure of density of a liquid compared with distilled water specific gravity
what is the value for hyposthenuria < 1.008
what is the value for hypersthenuria >1.012
how do you approximate a specific gravity if the reading is off the scale dilute the urine 1:2 with distilled water and adjust the results accordingly by multiplying the last two digits of the reading by two (ex diluted sample 1.030; adjusted sample is 1.060)
an increased __ occurs with dehydration, decreased water intake, acute renal disease, and shock SG
this test assess body's acid-base balance; expresses the hydrogen ion concentration or the acidity of urine urine pH
an abnormal level of proteins or protein metabolites in the urine proteinuria
small amount of protein pass through the ___; but should be reabsorbed by the __ ___ glomerulus; renal tubules
detectable levels of this in the urine depend on the glucose levels in the blood glucosuria
false positives of glucosuria can be created by these drugs sailcylates, ascorbic acid, penicillin
normal animals have a very small amount and are found in the blood; these are produced during metabolism and are important sources of energy; however excessive amounts are toxic to the body ketones
excessive ketones in the body are toxic and can cause central nervous system depression; acidosis
these are bilirubin and urobilinogen, rough determination can be to shake urine and see if yellow foam forms bile pigments
these will be seen in urine with biliary obstruction, hepatic infections, toxicity, hemolytic anemia bile pigments
this is associated with disease of the urogenital tract, can be detected by color, reagent strips, tablets, and microscopic evaluation hematuria
sediment stain may give a false positive for this in urine bacteria
false positives for this are common in urine of cats; false negatives for this in urine are common in dogs leukocytes
microscopic evaluation of fresh urine is best evaluation method for this urine component leukocytes
this urine component is formed in the GI tract by anaerobic bacteria breaking down conjugated bilirubin, small amounts can be seen in urine, but mostly seen in feces urobilinogen
elevation of this urine component is usually due to liver or GI tract dysfunction or intravascular hemolysis uribilinogen
evaluation of urine sediment should be done how first on 10x then 40x; lower the condenser on the microscope
any amount more than 5-8 per field of this is considered abnormal when evaluating a urine sediment WBC
excessive numbers of WBC's in the urine are referred to as pyuria or leukocyturia
increased numbers of WBC's in the urine indicate active inflammatory disease
these cells have a similar appearance to fat droplets; however fat droplets will float in and out of planes of focus while these do not RBC's
this urine description is associated with trauma, calculi, infection, and benign or malignant neoplasia hematuria
more than 5 of these cells per field is abnormal when reading a urine sediment RBC's
what are the three types of epithelial cells usually found in urine sediment squamous, transitional, renal
these are the largest cells found in urine sediment, typically not in catheter/cysto samples, presence is not significant, more common in cats squamous epithelial cells
these vary in size/shape, increased number in urine sediment is associated with inflammation or cystitis transitional epithelial cells
these are slightly larger than WBCs, round with large nucleus, increased number in urine sediment can indicate renal tubular disease renal epithelial cells
these urine sediment finding dissolve in alkaline urine, and are indicative or renal tubular disease, inflammation, and degeneration casts
it is normal to see a few of these type of casts in a urine sediment, they are clear, colorless, cylindrical, and indicate the mildest form of renal irritation hyaline
these are epithelial casts, RBC casts, WBC casts, seen in acute nephritis and renal tubule degeneration cellular
these are the most common type of casts found in urine sediment, seen in larger numbers with acute nephritis and kidney disease granular casts
these type of casts will be seen in cats with renal disease and dogs with diabetes mellitus fatty casts
these type of casts have a "brittle" appearance, indicate chronic to severe tubular degeneration, with conditions of extremely low passage rates waxy casts
finding these in a urine sediment can be normal or abnormal, and influenced by pH, temperature, concentration, diet, and medication crystals
this type of crystal is also known as triple phosphate, "coffin lid" colorless, can be associated with urase producing bacteria, uroliths struvites
this type of crystal are seen in alkaline urine or acidic urine, they have a "thorn apple" appearance, commonly seen with liver disease or potal caval shunts amorphous phosphates/urates
these type of crystals are found in horses, are shaped like dumbells, oval or wheel-like calcium carbonate
these type of crystals come in two forms, dihydrate and monohydrate, they appear as a colorless envelope with an "x" form in the center calcium oxalate
these type of crystals can indicate a metabolic defect leucine/cystine/tyrosine
these are urinary stones that are typically composed of calcium oxalate and struvite crystals, most times they are sent out for laboratory analysis for better accuracy uroliths
what is the normal life span of platelets 10 days
these are the largest cell in the bone marrow, they release platelets in 5 days megakaryocyte
this is blood factor I fibrinogen
this is blood factor II prothrombin
this is blood factor III tissue thromboplastin
this is blood factor IV calcium
this is blood factor VI proconvertin
this is blood factor VII hemophilla A, or classic hemophilla
this is blood factor IX chirstmas factor or hemophilla B
this is blood factor X stewart prower
this is blood factor XI PTA- plasma thromboplastin antecedent
this disease is seen in swine and dogs(mostly g-sheps, golder retrievers, miniature schnauzers) factor VII deficiency causing abnormal platelet adhesiveness leading to abnormal bleeding von willebrands disease
these specialized test are utilitzed for hypercalcemia !Ca+, PTH
these specialized test are3 utilized for thyroid t3/t4, tsh
these specialized tests are utilized for GI function cobalamine, folate, TLI, PLI
these specialized test are utilized for coagulation panels buccal mucosa bleeding time, PT/PTT, fibrinogen
this evaluates glomerular filtration and function, primary indicator of kidney function, end product of protein metabolism BUN
the amount of protein ingested/absorbed, fever, corticosteroids, shock, dehydration, heart failure, renal insufficiency, urinary obstruction, will all create increase levels of what BUN
liver disease, and the amount of protein ingested absorbed will cause decrease levels of what BUN
this is the byproduct of muscle metabolism produced at a constant rate and filtered out almost entirely by the glomeruli, used to measure filtration rate of kidneys, primary indicator of kidney function creatinine
increased levels of this are seen with lack of functional glomeruli, fluid and hydration levels (postrenal), urinary obstructions (postrenal) muscle degeneration, kidney disease, meds that impair kidney function creatinine
bilirubinemia will cause a false increase in this creatinine
decreased levels of this will be seen with liver disease, pregnancy, and protein starvation creatinine
this is a cation that is 90% intracellular, normally filtered by the kidneys and then reabsorbed potassium
low levels of this can indicate alkalosis, insulin therapy, excessive fluid loss, kidney failure potassium
high levels of this can indicate hypoadrenocorticism, acidosis, late stage renal failure potassium
80% of this electrolyte is found in bone, remaining 20% functions to metabolize carbohydrates and are incorporated into nucleic acids phosphorous
this electrolyte is used as a secondary indicator for kidney function, considered to be a mineral phosphorous
excessive amount of this in the blood can indicate kidney failure, excessive vitamin D, hypoparathyroidism phosphorous
low levels of this in blood are uncommon but can indicate hyperparathyroidism, malabsorption, diabetes mellitus phosphorous
this is found in large amount in hepatocytes of dog/cat/primate, alt
elevation of this can indicate liver cell damage, hyperthyroidism, drug side effects, chemical pollutants alt
decrease levels of this in combination of cholesterol may indicate congested liver alt
this is used in large animals to replace alt, it is unstable in blood samples and must be evaluated within 8 hours of obtaining the sample to be accurate sdh
this is present in all tissues of the body, especially cardiac & skeletal muscle, and the liver ast
horses have a high normal value of this than any other species ast
this test evaluates liver damage, is a hepatic enzyme, and is large animal specific sdh
this is an enzyme that assists with various chemical reactions, is present in almost all tissues, especially bone and liver alk phos
this is the most common biochemical abnormality seen in clinically- normal animals, normal levels vary among different species alk phos
elevations of this will be seen with liver disease, in young growing animals, with bone injury, with use of glucocorticoids and anticonvulsants (up to 2 weeks) and in dogs with certain forms of cancers alk phos
this is a blood protein that is found in the liver, pancreas, and kidneys ggt
elevations of this blood protein are usually due to liver disease, and sometimes medications ggt
this is a blood protein produced by the liver that maintains hydrostatic pressure in blood albumin
increased levels of this blood protein will indicate dehydration albumin
decreased levels of this blood protein will indicate chronic liver dz, malnutrition, malabsorption, pregnancy, lactation, uncontrolled diabetes, trauma, nephritis, ascites, blood loss albumin
these blood proteins are immunoglobulins and other serum proteins that can be individually assessed by electrophoresis globulins
an increase in these blood proteins are seen with inflammation, infections, antigenic stimulation, neoplasia globulins
a decrease in these blood proteins is seen with liver disease globuins
these are formed in the liver, secreted into the bile duct, stored by the gallbladder between meals, secreted into the SI, resorbed in the ileum, filtered from the blood by the liver, recycled bile acids
an increase in these are seen with decreased liver function bc the liver is not able to clear them from the blood bile acids
a decrease in these will be seen with delayed gastric emptying, or ileal disease bile acids
testing these is not part of a normal chem panel, requires a resting and a 2 hour post-prandial serum sample bile acids
this is the end product of breakdown of hemoglobin, which is excreted by the liver, 2 forms conjugate/unconjugate- no longer important to differentiate bilirubin
elevations of this will be seen with increased intravasular destruction of RBC's, liver disease, obstruction within the liver or bile duct, cholestasis bilirubin
this measures the time it takes for blood to clot in vivo, it is non-specific for cause of coagulopathy buccal mucosal bleeding time
this evaluates the extrinsic and common pathways, it is not affected by platelet numbers, requires a blue top tube PT- prothrombine time
this measures the intrinsic and common pathways, not affected by platelet numbers, requires a blue top tube, aPTT-activated partial thromboplastin time
this test the common pathway, is required for clot formation, not found in all serum but is found in all plasma fibrinogen
this is rarely important in animals, rare cases of fat storage diseases will cause elevations, cholesterol & triglycerides
this is produced in the pancreas, breaks down starches and glycogen, not valid in cats amylase
this is produced in the pancreas, breaks down fats, not valid in cats lipase
this is the most abundant extracellular cation, plays major role in distribution of water and maintaining osmotic pressure sodium
this is interpreted with sodium, important for normal muscular function, respiration, cardiac function, nerve impulse transmission, and carbohydrate metabolism potassium
high levels of this will be seen in acidotic animals, or with cellular danage or necrosis potassium
low levels of this will be seen in animals that have inadequate intake, alkalosis, or fluid loss due to vomiting or diarrhea potassium
this is the most abundant extracellular anion, plays important role in water/osmotic pressure and electrolyte balance, concentration is regulated by kidneys, have a close relationship with sodium chloride
high levels of this will be seen with metabolic acidosis or renal tubular acidosis chloride
low levels of this will be seen with excessive vomiting, anorexia, malnutrition, diabetes insipidus, or may accompany hypokalemia chloride
this is considered a mineral, functions in teeth & bone, muscle function, heart beat, nerve transmission, blood clot formation calcium
has an inverse relationship with phorphorous and is closely related to it, regulated by parathyroid hormone, calcitonin, and vitamin D, affected by serum albumin calcium ++
this is a cation found in all body tissue, closely related to calcium and phorphorous levels, inbalances in this and calcium can lead to muscle tetany in cattle and sheep, low levels affect potassium levels magnesium
this is the initial test for assessment of thyroid function, can be low do to disease of the thyroid, a single low test does not rule out hypothyroidism, a high normal doesnt rule out hyperthyroidism, this is part of many senior wellness panels t4
non-protein bound t4, active form that can enter cells, useful to diagnose hypterthyroidism when t4 levels are high normal, variable usefullness in diagnosing hypothyroidism free t4/ ft4
thyroid stimulating hormone, low t4 with a high value of this is a highly specific diagnosis of hypothyroidism, not as accurate if t4 is normal tsh
tests thyroids response to high levels of t3, useful when t4 or ft4 r borderline high, t3 suppression test
vitamin b-12, can be low with small intestinal disease, can be supplemented if low but must be given parenterally cobalamine
another b vitamin, decreased levels are consistent with small intestinal disease, elevations are consistent with bacterial overgrowth in canines only folate
this is the test of choice to determine exocrine pancreatic insufficiency TLI- serum trypsin like immunoreactivity
this is the common cause of malabsorption in dogs but is rare in cats exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
this may result from chronic pancretitis, juvenile atrophy of pancreas, pancreatic hypoplasia exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
this is the most sensitive and specific diagnostic test for pancreatitis currently available, only through texas A&M GI laboratory PLI- serum pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity
this is the study of microbes, specifically bacteria; samples are collected by various methods; methods depend on type of lesion and location on animals body; aseptic technique is critical to achieving diagnostic quality results microbiology
this type of media grows all types of bacteria and some fungi nutritive
this type of media grows only certain types of bacteria, such as gram negative or gram positive types, or fungi selective
this type of media contains elements that differentiate certain types of bacteria, such as lactose fermenters or hydrogen sulfide producers differential
this is a basic type of media that is a semisolid agar
this is a basic type of media that is a liquid broth
this is a flat round container of agar plate
this is a screw top container that contains broth or agar tube
this is a tube of agar that has been allowed to gel at an angle slant
this is a general nutritive medium for cultivation of fastidious microorganisms, used for the observation of bacterial hemolytic reactions; also referred to as blood agar plate TSA- trypticase soy agar
this medium selects for gram negative organisms using crystal violet as a gram positive bacterial inhibitor; differentiates between lactose fermenters and non lactose fermenters; designed to inhibit growth of proteus spp bacteria MAC- macconkey agar
this contains 5% sheeps blood and selects for gram positive organisms using colistin and naladixic acid CAN- columbia colistin-nalidixic acid agar
this selects for pathogenic enteria gram negative bacteria and differentiates colonies on the basis of lactose fermentation; also differentiates H2S producing bacteria SS- salmonella shigella agar
this is a general use medium specially formulated to give standardized results during antibiotic sensitivity testing; can be enriched with blood for more fastidious organisms MH- mueller hinton agar
this is highly selective for use in microaerophilic envirnoments for the growth of campylobacter spp from fecal specimens; contains 5 antimicrobics and 10% sheeps blood campy BAC- campylobacter agar
this is a general use broth that grows most bacterial organisms including anaerobes and some fungi; without indicator -135*C THIO- thioglycollate broth
general use media that grows most bacteria, particularly fastidioius organisms, used primarily in blood cultures and sterility testing TSB- trypticase soy broth
selective enrichment for salmonella and shigella used in fecal culturing GN- gram negative broth
selective broth used in a microaerophillic environment to isolate campylobacter from fecal specimens; contains 5 antimicrobics campy THIO- campylobacter thioglycollate
enriched broth used to bring bacteria to a certain turbidity level when performing diffusion antibiotic sensitivity testing BHI- brain heart infusion
slanted medium used to identify bacteria that hydrolyse esculin, especially enterococci; positive reaction is indicated by ferric citrate, which reacts by producing a dark brown color BE-bile esculin agar
sterile solution used for diluting gram-negative bacteria for API testing NaCl 0.085%
semisolid medium used to demonstrate motility of bacteria motility test medium
solid tubed medium, supplemented with gentamicin and chlortetracycline; used to isolate pathogenic fungi; differentiation is provided by phenol red DTM- dermatophyte test medium
selective fungal medium that contains cyclohexamide and chloramphenicol to inhibit bacteria growth mycosel agar
semisolid medium used to determine dextrose utilization in gram negative bacteria oxidation fermentation medium with dextrose
media used for the cultivation and transport of nonfastidious organisms NA- nutrient agar
used to determine urease production of bacteria; positive results are indicated by the presence of phenol red indicator urea agar slant
this is a group of proteins in serum whose function includes enhancement of phagocytosis and virus neutralization complement chemical barriers
this is a group of glycoproteins with antiviral properties interferon
microorganisms associated with a particular body tissue that are normally present normal flora
antibody formation is stimulated as a result of natural infection natural active immunity
formation is stimulated as a result of vaccination with an antigen artificial active immunity
antibodies are transferred to the newborn from an immune mother by placental transfer or from the mothers colostrum passive natural immunity
antibodies are transferred by injection passive artificial immunity
these bacteria are shaped like rods or cylinders bacillus
these usually occur singly and can be divided into 3 categories loose, tight, and comma shaped spiral
these bacteria are spherical shaped coccus
in this category the bacterias morphologies range from cocci to rods plemorphic
this is the outermost covering of many bacteria which consists of slimy or jelly-like material capsule
this is composed of a base layer and an outside outer layer; give rigidity to the cell and helps maintain shape cell wall
these bacteria are composed of lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins, but no teichoic acid gram negative
these bacteria are composed of teichoic acids that contribute to the thick wall and of magnesium ribonucleic acid gram positive
how many types of flagellar arrangements are there 4
this type of flagellar arrangement has a single flagellum at one pole monotrichous
this type of flagellar arrangement has a tuft of flagellum at one pole lophotrichous
this type of flagellar arrangement has a tuft of flagelllum at both poles amphitrichous
this type of flagellar arrangement has flagella distributed all around the cell peritrichous
bacteria that move toward or away from light phototaxis
bacteria that move in response to chemicals chemotaxis
the optimum pH for most pathogenic bacteria is between 6.5-7.5
bacteria that grown in the presence of free oxygen aerobic
bacteria that grow in the absence of oxygen anaerobic
bacteria that grown in the absence or the presence of free oxygen but must obtain oxygen from oxygen containing compounds such as inorganic sulfates facultative anerobic bacteria
bacteria that grow best at levels of oxygen less than that contained in air microaerophillic
bacteria that require 3-10% CO2 in the environment to initiate growth capnophilic
Created by: chop



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