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VET 1250 Final Review - A&P II Harrison College

What are the three functions of blood? Transport-CO2,O2,hormones,nutrients,waste products Regulate-Homeostasis,pH(7.4),buffer system,body temp Defense-WBCs,phagocytosis
What two components make up the liquid portion of blood? What percentage? Plasma and serum, 55%
What components make up the cellular portion of blood? What percentage? Erythrocyts, leukocytes, thrombocytes (platelets) 45%
From top to bottom, what are the layers of a centrifuged (spun-down) sample of blood from a purple top tube? Top-Plasma Middle-Buffy coat (leukocytes) Bottom-cellular components (erythrocytes)
What is in a a purple top tube? Heparin and EDTA (anticoagulants) This creates an absence of fibrogen in the cellular portion ((I.E. PLASMA on top))
What gives plasma its yellow color? Bilirubin
What are the three plasma proteins found in plasma? Albumin, globulin, fibrogen
How is plasma different than serum? Pasma - whole blood MINUS cells Serum - whole blood MINUS cells and clotting elements (prepared first by allowing blood to clot)
How would hydration status affect plasma color? Dehydration = elevated bilirubin concentration = deeper yellow color of plasma
What are three gases found in plasma? O2, CO2, Nitrogen
What are 6 plasma lipids, amino acids, metabolic wastes, and electrolytes? Sodium, potassium, calcium, magnesium, chloride, bicarbonate ions
What is the protein that gives RBCs their red color, and enables them to carry O2 Hemoglobin
This is a product of heme breakdown Bilirubin
Three characteristics of a mature RBC biconcave, round, anuclear
This is the pigment portion of RBCs, and contains iron atoms, produced in the mitochondria Heme
This is the protein portion of RBCs, produced by ribosomes Globin
__ heme groups attach to __ globin molecule(s) 4 heme groups attach to 1 globin molecule
This is the formation of RBCs erythropoisis
In young animals, erythropoisis occurs mainly in the _______ and ________, while in adults it occurs in the ___________. Young animals - spleen and liver adult animals - bone marrow
______________ is a hormone that is produced and secreted by/from the _________, usually when hypoxia is detected. Erythrpoietin is produced/released from the KIDNEYS
This is the term for when RBCs lose their deformability (becomes rounder, and are no longer maximally functional Senescence
Thrombocytes are also known as platelets
The parent cell of platelets are Megakaryocytes
Term for platelet production Thrombopoisis
How does a megakaryocyte become a platelet? As megakaryocyte develops, it undergoes incomplete mitosis--nucleus divides but not cytoplasm--ends with increased nuclei but one cytoplasm--megakaryocyte doesnt leave bone marrow, but rather breaks off into small chunks as platelets into circulation
These cells are round, contain many purple granules in the cytoplasm, and contain clotting factors platelets
what is clotting factor 1? Fibrogen
what is clotting factor IV? Calcium
What are the three functions of platelets? 1. Maintain vascular integrity 2. stabilization of the hemostatic plug 3. platelet plug formation
Fibrogen converts to __________ with the help of thrombin fibrin
Term for leukocyte production granulopoisis - occurs in the bone marrow
3 granulocytes neutorphil, basophil, eosinophil
what do all three granulocytes have in common? (2) segmented nuclei and cytoplasmic granules
2 Agranulocytes Lymphocytes, monocytes
Another name for the heart muscle myocardium
at what level is the heart in horses? between the 2nd and 6th ribs
where does blood that has just been oxygenated in the lungs flow next? Left atrium
what is the name for the connection between the right and left atrium in the fetus? foramen ovale
What part of the heart forms the tip of the apex? left ventricle
Which heart valve has two flaps? three? where in the heart are they located? Two flaps - Mitral or bicuspid valve - seperates the left atrium and left ventricle Three flaps - tricuspid valve - separates the right atrium and right ventricle
what is the path of electrical conduction in the heart? SA Node --> AV Node --> Bundle of His ((right and left branches of AV bundle)) --> Purkinje fibers
How do you determine the total blood volume of an animal? Animals weight in lbs X 7% (or .o7) Ex) 675lb X 7% = 47.25 lbs of blood
Which valves close during systole? left AV and right AV ((systole=contraction=blood get out...left and right AV must close to prevent backflow during contraction))
Which WBCs help protect the body from parasites? Eosinophils
Closing of the semilunar valve corresponds to which of the following? S1, S4, S4, S2? S2
Globulins assist in fighting infection
What immunoglobulin is made during the first exposure to an antigen? IgG
To what does oxygen attach in RBCs? Iron that is part of heme group
Which WBC directly attacks microbes? T lymphocytes
What does the T wave in an ECG represent? repolarization of the ventricles
__________ immunity is the production of antibodies (or immunoglobulins) by plasma cells Humoral immunity
The first blood vessel in systemic circulation is the aorta
__________ are the largest WBCs in an animals circulation monocytes
The QRS complex represents the depolarization of the ventricles
The most abundant type of solute in the blood plasma is plasma proteins (albumin, globulin, fibrogen)
After antigenic stimulation, ________ transform into plasma cells B Cells
The _________ valve prevents backflow from the left ventricle to the left atrium Mitral, or bicuspid
Portion of gray matter of the spinal cord that conducts sensory impulses dorsal horn
Middle of the major branches of the brachial plexus median nerve
section of the brain responsible for subconscious functions cerebellum
The central nervous system is made up of the (2) Brain and spinal cord
Section of the brain responsible for learning, intelligence, and awareness cerebrum
Nerve found on the medial surface of the thigh near the femoral artery Sciatic nerve
Structure of the brain made of nerve fibers that connect the R and L hemispheres Corpus collosum
nerve cell, basic functional unit Neuron
Middle layer of the meninges arachnoid
Type of nerve that carries messages away from the brain to the rest of the body Motor Nerve
Fold in the cerebrum and cerebellum gyrus
What part of the brain is responsible for autonomic functions such as respiratory and cardiac control? Brain stem
Cranial Nerve VII Facial Nerve
Connective tissue layer the covers the brain and spinal cord Meninges
Shallow fissure that separates the the gyri sulcus
Conscious movement of the forelimbs, turning your head when your name is called, and walking across the street to jump in a puddle are all examples of (Somatic OR Autonomic)? Somatic
Decreased heart rate, constriction of blood vessels, pain, reflexes, and increased peristalsis in the GI tract are all examples of (Somatic or Autonomic)?? Autonomic
Name two common reflexes used out in practice Stretch, withdraw, and extensor reflexes
Nicotinic and muscarinic are ___________ receptors cholinergic
Alpha1, Beta1, and Beta2 are ________ receptors adrenergic
Beta1 receptors affect the heart
Beta2 receptors affect the bronchioles
Alpha1 receptors affect the blood vessels
Epinepherine and Norepinepherine affect the __________ nervous system sympathetic
Acetylecholine affects the ___________ nervous system parasympathetic
During the relative refractory period, the cell may depolarize if the stimulus is much larger than normal
Norepinepherine is broken down by catechol-O-methyl transferase in the CLEFT AND monoamine oxidase in the synaptic KNOB
neuronal supportive cells are called neuroglia
The parasympathetic nervous system releases __________ from its __________________ axons acetylecholine from its postganglionic axons
This supplies a rich network of blood vessels that supply nutrients and O2 to the superficial tissues of the brain and spinal cord meninges
This happens during repolarization Potassium ions move out of the cell
The ___________ nervous system controls involuntary nervous system function autonomic
The brainstem includes the pons, midbrain, and medulla oblongata
The electrical difference in charges across a neuron cell membrane is called resting membrane potential
Cells that produce myelin for cells OUTSIDE the brain and spinal cord are schwann cells
Increased HR and force of contraction are the result of stimulating ((receptors)) Bets2-adregenic receptors in the heart
reflex that assesses the depth of anesthesia pupillary light reflex
Which of the following neurotransmitters is a catecholamine? endorphin, dopamine, acetylecholine, or enkaphalin? Dopeamine
The gray matter of the spinal cord contains ((hint: grey matter=NOT myelinated="naked" cells)) neuron cell bodies
Cells that are important in the blood brain barrier are the astrocytes
An influx of ______________ into the synaptic knob results in the fusing of vesicles calcium
Sensations from the GI tract are provided by this nerve Cranial Nerve X; Vagus
An action potential can be described as a large change in electrical charge from - to + inside the cell
This: separated the axon end of one neuron from the next dendrite, is a gap between neurons, and is crossed by a chemical Synapse
Two types of cells found in the nervous system neurons and glia cells
Cells that produce myelin for the cells of the brain and spinal cord are ((ie. INSIDE the cns)) Oligodendrocytes
_________________ can be either inhibitory or excitatory Acetylecholine
Somatic reflexes involve _________ muscle skeletal
Spinal nerves are in the _________ nervous system peripheral
During ____________, sodium ions move into the neuron depolarization
Nicotinic and muscarinic are names for _________ receptors Cholinergic
T/F? The sodium-potassium pump moves potassium ions from inside to outside the neurons cell membrane? FALSE
MSH, TSH, ACTH, FSH, LH, Prolactin, and GH are all released by the Anterior Pituitary
Oxytocin and ADH are released by the Posterior pituitary
PTH is released by the parathyroid gland
Calcitonin, T3, Calctriol, and T4 are released from the Thyroid gland
Norepinepherine, epinepherine, aldosterone, and cortisol are released from the adrenal gland
Erythropoietin is released from the kidneys
Insulin, glucagon are released from the pancreas
Progesterone, and estrogen are released from the ovaries
testosterone is released from the testes
This hormone prevents hypercalcemia by encouraging excess calcium to be deposited in the bones. Calcitonin
This hormone prevents hypocalcemia by increasing the blood calcium levels should they fall from normal limits. PTH, or parathyroid hormone
What are the three groups of hormones produced in the adrenal cortex? Glucocorticoid, mineral cortizoid hormones, and sex hormones
What are three effects that glucocorticoids have on the body? causes blood/glucose levels to rise, maintain blood pressure levels, and resists the effects of stress.
What does aldosterone effect, and what does it target? aldosterone affects the lecels of sodium, potassium, and hydrogen ions. It targets the kidneys to reabsorb Na+ and exchanges K+ and H+ ions to be excreted in the urine.
What are the two sex hormones? Androgens-male sex hormone(testosterone) Estrogens-female sex hormone
What are the 4 hormones that have a hyperglycemic affect in the body? What is the only hormone that act to lower blood-glucose levels? Raise blood-glucose = glucagon, GH, and glucocorticoids. Lower = Insuin
Name the 4 types of sensory stimuli Mechanical, thermal, electromagnetic, and chemical
What is nociception? the process of experiencing pain
Name the parts of the external ear pinna, external auditory canal, and the tympanic membrane
Name the parts of the middle ear ossicles (incus, stapes, malleus), and the opening of canal
Name the parts of the inner ear Cochlea, organ of Corti, cochlear duct, and the techtorial membrane
A deficiency of ADH in the body causes the disease diabetes insipidus
this hormone helps trigger and maintain lacation prolactin
testosterone is a steroid with an overall ________ effect anabolic
In most animals, ovulation occurs when this hormone reaches its peak LH
This is a mineralcorticoid that causes sodium ions to be reabsorbed by the kidneys back into the bloodstream in exchange for potassium and hydrogen ions aldosterone
LH is also known as interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH)
This plays an important role in blood clotting, milk secretion, and muscle contraction calcium
Two hormones in addition to glucagon function to raise blood glucose levels are GH and glucocorticoids
Somatropic hormone works to promote the __________ effect hyperglycemic
Calcitonin functions to prevent ____________ hypercalcemia
The posterior pituitary gland receives these (2) hormones from the hypothalamus ADH and LH
Secretin and cholecystokinin are produced by the pineal body
TH affects metabolism similar to GH
The pituitary gland is also known as the hypophysis
This hormone stimulates the lining cells of follicles in the female to produce estrogen FSH
This produces progestin hormones needed to maintain pregnancy corpus luteum
In males, spermatogenesis is stimulated by FSH
What is the primary function of the resp system? to bring O2 into the body, and to express CO2 out of the body
What are the secondary functions of the resp system? ((4)) Phonation, acts as an acid/base balance/buffer system, body temp regulation, and sense of smell
What are the structures of the upper resp tract? ((4, sometimes 5)) Nares, nasal passages, pharynx, larynx, and sometimes the trachea
Structures of the lower resp tract ((3)) Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli
The nasal lining is resp for ((3)) functions humidifying, warming, and filtering inhaled air
What is a paranasal sinus? ciliated outpouchings of the nasal passages contained within paces in certain skull bones. help catch and sweep away dust and particles away from the lungs.
What are the three main functions of the larynx? Voice production (phonation), prevents inhalation of food particles, and controls airflow in and out of the resp tract
Name the 4 major cartilages found in the larynx arytenoid, cricoid, tyroid, epiglottis
What structures/organs are found in the mediastinum heart, trachea, esophagus, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic tissue
The mechanical resp system controls routine inspiration/expiration limits ((stretch receptors alert the brain when the lungs are full/empty))
The chemical resp system controls/monitors levels in the blood and directs adjustments in the breathing--CO2 levels, pH, and O2 levels.
Parietal cells produce hydrochloric acid (HCl), intrinsic factor (Ca++ absorption)
Chief cells produce pepsin(ogen), gastric lipase
Mucous cells produce mucous, bicarbonate
G Cells produce Gastrin (stimulates parietal cells to release HCl)
What are the three receptors on the parietal cells that stimulate HCl production? Gastrin, histamine, and acetylecholine
This is released in response to >amts of fats and proteins in duodenum; it decreases contraction of the antrum, body and fundus cholecystokinin (CCK)
This can cause to fundus to relax, can inhibit peristalsis of the body and antrum to slow gastric emptying Secretin
This increases the production of HCl, and inhibits muscle activity of the fundus Gastrin
______________ enhance blood flow to the stomach, stabilize lysosomes w/in gastric cells, stimulate mucus production, aid healing, regulate macrophages and mast cells Prostoglandins
These produce their antiinflammatory effect by blocking the production of inflammatory prostoglandins NSAIDs
Which compartment is the 'true' stomach of the ruminant stomach? Abomasum
What is rumination? Rumination is when a ruminant animal brings swallowed food back up the esophagus into their mouths for additional mastication.
What is eructation? Eructation is the expelling if CO2 gas from the rumen.
What organ produces bile? Where is it stored? How does it reach the intestine? What stimulates bile secretion into the small intestine? Bile production-Liver. Stored-Gall bladder. Reaches intestine-common bile duct. Stimulant for bile secretion-CCK
This organ produces bile, metabolizes drugs/toxins/fats, produces proteins, stores glucose as glycogen and vitamins. Liver
How does insulin affect the bodys blood-glucose level? Glucagon? Insulin works to lower the blood-glucose level. Glucagon raises the blood-glucose level.
The most important muscle of inspiration is the Diaphragm
What organs play a part in both lubrication and digestion (of food)? Salivary glands
Blood is pulled into the large veins in the mediastinum and returns to the heart -- this is a result of negative thoracic pressure
Baby teeth are also called deciduous teeth
The stomach, small and large intestine are all line with what type of cell? simple columnar epithelium
What layer of small intestine has villi with brush borders? mucosal
Carnivores do not produce this type of enzyme in their saliva amylase
Which is a function of the Liver? Prouction of: *ascites *aminopeptidase *RBCs *cholesterol Liver = production of cholesterol
All of the following are paranasal sinuses except: *sphenoid sinus *mandibular *frontal *maxillary The mandibular sinuses are NOT paranasal sinuses
parasympathetic stimulation affects the salivary glands how? it causes salivation
the inspiratory and expiratory centers are located in the medulla
Oxygen in the lung converts __________ to ____________ hemoglobin to oxyhemoglobin
What happens to increased amts of mucous produced in the trachea? It is coughed up
In ruminants, this compartment is a series of muscular sacs separated from each other by long, muscular folds of wall called pillars Rumen
The thyroid cartilage (adams apple) is part of the larynx
Where are trypsin, chymotrypsin, and elastase produced? Pancreas
This is a hormone produced by beta cells in the pancreas, its job is to move glucose from blood into the bodys tissues, and is antagonized by glucagon, which is produced in alpha cells in the pancreas Insulin
If the CO2 level in blood decreases, the pH usually _________ and respiration___________- CO2 level decreases = pH RISES and respiration DECREASES
What cells are located in the pylorus and body of the stomach? Parietal cells, chief cells, and mucous cells
What are the main expiratory muscles? internal intercostal, and abdominal muscles
Ruminants have _____ upper incisors 0
Carnivores and herbivores typically have flatter occlusal surfaces for grinding on which teeth? molars
_________ is a sugar that can be transported across the brush border cell membrane and absorbed into the body Glycogen
Secretions from the pancreas empty into what part of the digestive tract? Duodenum
This drug is commonly used as a preanesthetic agent to block acetylechline receptors on parietal cells Atropine
Name the 6 structures that make up the urinary system 2 kidneys, 2 ureters, a urinary bladder, and a urethra
This fluid, that once it enters the capsular space, is very similar to plasma except that it contains almost no proteins. Glomular filtrate
Once the glomular filtrate moces to the proximal convoluted tubule, it is now known as tubular filtrate, or primitive urine
Name three mechanisms by which the kidneys get rid of waste Filtration of the blood, reabsorption of useful substances back into the blood stream, and secretion of waste products from the blood into the tubules of the nephron.
The blood in these vessels contain the least amount of waste in the body renal vein
The cortex of the kidney is the (outer/inner) part outer part
__________ is the basic functional unit of the kidney nephron
Aldosterone causes the reabsorption of ____________ in the distal convoluted tubule Sodium
Micturation, voiding, and urinating all mean the same thing; emptying of the bladder. T/F? True
Where/what cavity are the kidneys located? They are located retroperitonially
The renal pelvis drains into the ureter
What percentage of all tubular reabsorption iccurs in the proximal convoluted tubules? 65%
The cup-shaped part of the nephron is also known as the Bowman's capsule
What percentage of amino acids are glucose in the tubular filtrate are reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubules? 100%
What condition occurs when urine is produced but cannot be removed from the bladder? Retention
Tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion occurs in the peritubular capillaries
Nitrogenous waste in the blood is the result of ________ catabolism Nitrogenous waste = Protein catabolism
This is the indented area on the medial side of the kidney Hilus
Insufficient production of ADH by the posterior pituitary can result in polyuria
This is the part of the nephron between the loop of Henle and the collecting tube Distal convoluted tubule
The cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus help regulate blood pressure
The movement of substances from the blood into the renal tubules is called secretion
The movement of substances out of the renal tubules into the blood capillaries is called Reabsorption
The kidneys do not play a vital role in regulating: H2O balance pH balance electrolyte balance blood-glucose levels pH balance
This is part of the renal tubules, and is a network of blood capillaries The glomerulus
This hormone is at its highest concentration level when an egg is released from the ovary LH
Because of this hormone, males can smell impending ovulation, and indicates that estrus is coming Progestins
When __ is at its highest level, ovulation occurs, egg(s) are released, and mating is allowed LH
Insemination must occur during this period estrus
During this period: formation of the corpus luteum metestrus
The corpus luteum produces/releases __________, causing the uterine wall to thicken Progesterone
This hormone aids in the transportation of spermatozoa through the cervix to the oviducts Oxytocin
Capacitation is the release of enzymes from the acrosome to allow the sperm to enter the egg
For fertilization to be sucessful, the sperm must arrive in the oviduct (before/at the same time/after) the egg? Before
After __ weeks, the embryo is called a fetus 8
What are the three stages of early embryonic development? Cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis
This organ attaches the fetus to the mother, contains the umbilical cord, and provides nutrients and waste removal for the fetus Placenta
This layer surrounds the fetus Amnion, amniotic sac
This layer surrounds the amniotic sac allantois
This layer surrounds the allontic sac and attaches it to the uterine lining Chorion
Spermatazoa are produced in the semiferous tubule
Spermatozoa are stored in the epididimys
The three main functions of the male repro system Produce male sex cells, produce male sex hormone (androgens), deliver spermatozoa to the female
The head of the spermatozoa contains the ___, and is covered by a cap like structure called the ___________- DNA, acrosome
The midpiece of the spermatozoa is called the power-plant because it contains energy producing mitochondria
The newly formed primary spermatocyte contains _______ chromosomes diploid
Primary spermatocytes divide via meiosis
Secondary spermatocytes contain a _________ number of chromosomes, and divides via haploid, mitosis
After mitosis, the spermatocytes are then transported to the ___________ where they mature and grow ________-- epididimys, grow tails
This is the functional unit of the testes Semiferous tubule
What are the two main functions of the testes? Spermatogenesis, hormone production
These cells produce male sex hormone; where are they located? Interstitial cells, located in the seminiferous tubules
This muscle controls the contraction/relaxation of the scrotal position Cremaster muscle
These cells produce male sex hormone under the influence of LH Interstitial cells
These cells are also known as 'nurse cells'; they provide mechanical and nutritional support, and shield the sperm from the bodys immune system Sertoli cells
Sertoli cells produce a small amount of ____ under the influence of______ estrogen, under the influence of FSH
Another name for Interstitial cells is Leydig cells
Semen is (?)% spermatozoa and (?)% fliud and glandular secretions 5% sperm, 95% fluid
What are the three accessory repro glands? Seminal vesicles, prostate gland, bulbourethral gland
Two main functions of the ovaries produce ova, produce hormones ((estrogens, progesins (progesterone))
Two female hormones produced in the ovaries, two female hormones produced in the pituitary Ovary-estrogen, progestin Pituitary-FSH, LH
(term) develop ovum w/in a follicle, release from the follicle ovulation
term for an animals that produces only one mature ovum per cycle uniparous
term for an animal that produces multiple ovum per cycle multiparous
Granulosa cells produce estrogen
____ influences ovulation LH
This hormone maintains pregnancy Progesterone
Ovulation results as the rising level of __, leading to the rupture of the mature follicle and release of ovum into the oviduct LH
Formation of the corpus luteum is under continuous __ stimulation LH
__________ cells that line the blood filled follicle begin to multiply again, forming a solid yellow structure, aka Granulosa cells, corpus luteum
This is where fertilization takes place oviduct aka fallopian tubes aka uterine horn
This is where a fertilized egg implants uterus
the myometrium is make up of ______ muscle smooth
This period is when the female is receptive to the male (in heat) Estrus
The estrous cycle is controlled by the a. pituitary homones (2) FSH, LH
Cycle continuously throughout the year; cattle, swine Polyestrus
Cycle continuously at certain times of the year; horses, cats, sheep Seasonally polyestrous
Two cycles per year, once in spring and fall; dogs diestrous
Cycle only once per year; foxes, minks Monoestrous
List the stages of the estrous cycle Proestrus, Estrus, Metestrus, Diestrus, Anestrus
A physical characteristic of proestrus is cornification of the vaginal epithelium
What hormones affect proestrus? FSH, LH, estrogen
Follicular development is .. primary follicle --> growing (secondary) follicle --> mature follicle
During estrus, ______ peaks, ___________ production begins, ovulation occurs estrogen peaks, progesterone production begins
Granulosa cells produce estrogen
During metestrus, __________ will inhibit follicular development in the ovary causing the lining of the uterus to become thick progesterone
If no fertilization occurs, __________ levels drop, and the corpus luteum will ___________ Progesterone drops, corpus luteum degenerates
Placenta attachment is spread diffusely in pigs and horses
placenta attachments is in small, separate and numerous attachemnt sites, aka cotyledonary cattle sheep, goats
zonary placenta attachments dogs, cats
discoid placenta attachments humans
________ stimulates the contractions of parturition oxytocin
this hormone increases the sensitivity to oxytocin Prostaglandins
During parturition, _________ decreases progesterones
What are the three stages of parturition? uterine contractions, delivery of newborn, delivery of placenta
These two hormones are responsible for mammary gland development Prolactin (LTH) and GH
Created by: ahaggan001



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