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2nd half for final

increased frequency of urination polakiuria
blood in urine hematuria
difficulty/pain on urination dysuria
obtaining a urine sample via needle puncture into the bladder cystocentesis
increased volume of urine produced polyuria
ureters that enter the urinary tract in the wrong location, usually in the urethra instead of the bladder ectopic ureters
no urine production at all anuria
these are typically cauesd by ascending bacterial infections urinary tract infections
these are often the cause of struvite crystals/stones in dogs urinary tract infection
clinical signs of these vary from polakiuria > hematuria > dysuria urinary tract infections
diagnosis of these is made via urinalysis with sediment urinary tract infections
bacteria may not be seen in sediment, may only seen increased wbc's with these urinary tract infections
with this type of infection a cbc may or may not have an increased wbc urinary tract infections
urine culture must be run on a sample obtained via cystocentesis to prevent cross contamination when diagnosing these uti
does a negative urine culture and sensitivity rule out a uti? heck no!
multiple weeks of what are required to treat a UTI antibiotics
how many weeks of treatment are usually done for a UTI 2-3
this disease can be acute or chronic with numerous causes renal disease
what is the most common symptom of renal disease pu/pd
how is renal disease diagnosed chem panel and UA
what is the hallmark treatment for both chronic and acute renal disease fluid therapy
along with fluid therapy what should also be included when treating chronic renal disease transition to a low protein diet
supportive care for what may be needed when treating renal disease electrolyte imbalances, nausea, and anemia
what is very important to monitor and maintain during anesthesia to ensure adequate blood flow to the kidneys blood pressure
the cause for this disease may be neurological or non-neurological; hormone responsive is the most common cause in spayed females urinary incontinence
a pet with this disease may present for "having accidents in the house" urinary incontinence
with this disease symptoms may only occur when the animal is sleeping (most commonly seen with hormone responsive) urinary incontinence
symptoms of this disease may cause urine scalding(dermatitis), and concurrent UTI urinary incontinence
what does IVP stand for intravenous pyelogram
what is an IVP used to diagnose ectopic ureters
what is the most common treatment for hormone responsive incontinence phenylopropanolamine (PPA)
what may be used to treat hormone responsive incontinence but can cause bone marrow suppression estrogen
what can be used for a patient with urinary incontinence when treatment is not possible or not effective diapers!
what are the 3 components of a urinalysis dipstick, sediment, & specific gravity
how should the specific gravity of urine be measured on a refractometor
if a urine sample is left sitting to long after collection what may it test positive for crystals
small amounts of blood may be seen as contamination if a urine sample was collected how cystocentesis
if urine is collected how any amount of hematuria seen is real free catch
urine sediment may be evaluated with or without what sediment stain
using this when evaluating urine sediment may make it easier to view cells BUT contains precipitate that can be confused with bacteria sediment stain
crystals and stones can be seen with or without each other (true/false) true
what does FLUTD stand for feline lower urinary tract disease
this describes a set of symptoms, but not a disease itself FLUTD
dysuria, stranguria, hematuria, and inappropriate elimination are all symptoms of what FLUTD
causes of FLUTD can be divided into what two categories metabolic & behavioral
inflammation, stones or crystals, or a UTI describe what cause category of FLUTD metabolic
pet doesn't like litter, does like box location, box isn't clean enough describe what cause category of FLUTD behavioral
stress is a factor in the disease, but the exact cause is unknown interstitial cystitis
what is the mainstay for interstitial cystitis diluting the urine
what medication can be helpful in treating interstitial cystitis because of the bladder lining containing glycosaminoglycans glucosamine
these may be composed or struvites or calcium oxalates crystaluria/uroliths
what type of crystal/urolith forms in urine with an elevated pH struvites
what type of crystal/urolith has historically been associated with lower urine pH, but may now not be as much of a factor as previously thought calcium oxalates
what feline breeds are predisposed to forming calcium oxalates persians, himilayans, and burmese
these type of crystals/uroliths can be dissolved using diet and/or medication to acidify urine struvites
these type of crystals/uroliths can not be dissolved using diet and/or medication calcium oxalates
what may be necessary (especially in male kitties) with bladder stones surgical removal
the study of animal reproduction theriogenology
an infected/abscessed uterus pyometra
the inner lining of the uterus endometrium
inflammation within the abdominal cavity peritonitis
difficult labor or birth dystocia
straining to defecate tenesmus
straining to urinate stranguria
painful urination dysuria
lack or weak uterine muscle contractions uterine inertia
this can be fatal if not treated; E. coli is the most common etiologic agent pyometra
with this disease the patient will have a history of having had a heat cycle within the last 2 months pyometra
with a pyometra the cervix may be ___ or ____ open; closed
animals with a ___ pyometra are generally more sick closed
animals with a ___ pyometra may only show vulvular discharge open
what can be tried to treat an open pyometra, but is no generally recommended and is only valuable in breeding animals to try and breed one more time medical management(antibiotic therapy)
what is the treatment of choice for a pyometra following stabilization ovariohysterectomy
this can be caused by uterine inertia, to large of fetus, n abnormal positioning, or fetal death dystocia
the first puppy/kitten should generally be born within ___ ___ or start of active labor; if not- possible dystocia 4 hours
there is commonly up to __ __ between births; if longer- possible dystocia 1 hour
what medication can be given to stimulate uterine contractions unless the birth canal is obstructed/ or there is abnormal fetal positioning oxytocin
what might be necessary especially in cases of abnormal positioning or fetal size disparity in the case of a dystocia c-section
this disease is seen in intact males that may present for constipation or UTI benign prostatic hyperplasia
an enlarged prostate is palpable on what type of exam rectal
what is the treatment of choice for benign prostatic hyperplasia neuter
what medication can be tried to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, BUT can cause bone marrow suppression diethylstilbesterol
study of the skin dermatology
the skin, including the dermis, epidermis, hair, nails and sebaceous glands integument
outermost lay of skin epidermis
thicker middle layer of skin dermis
bottom layer of skin hypodermis
hair, nail, hooves, etc adnexa
infection of the skin pyoderma
inflammation of the skin dermatitis
redness of the skin erythema
loss of hair alopecia
itchiness puritis
allergic reaction to allergens other than parasites or food atopy
non-malignant benign
locally invasive, destructive growth, and spreads to other sites malignant
the skin has many functions such as: barrier; protection from environment; regulates body temp; sensory perception; motion & shape; antimicrobial; regulates BP; produces sweat, adnexa, melanin; storage for some nutrients & electrolytes
this skin problem can be primary or have an underlying cause; typically treated with topical meds and/or systemic antibiotics pyoderma
these are usually fleas, ticks, & mites; skin scraping is needed to diagnose mites ectoparasites
this type of mite is a normal inhabitant of the skin that only becomes problematic when the immune system is impaired; IT IS NOT ZOONOTIC demodex
this mite is the cause of scabies and is highly puritic; VERY ZOONOTIC sarcoptes
definitive diagnosis of this disease can only be made by intradermal skin testing or IgE blood testing allergic dermatitis
this can only be diagnosed with a food trial with prescription diet only being fed for 10 weeks food allergic dermatitis
these can only be managed not cured allergies
what meds are commonly used to manage allergies in animals corticosteroids; antihistamines; allergen shots (desensitization shots)
this condition may require infusion of antibiotics into the area, repeated infections may necessitate surgical removal of the gland, may rupture before owner realizes there is a problem anal gland abscess
these can be benign or malignant skin tumors
these type of skin tumors are categorized as grade I(usually benign), grade II(uncertain) or grade III (usually malignant) mast cell tumors
infection of the skin caused by a pathogenic fungi (dermatophytes) ringworm (dermatophytosis)
thickening of the epidermis giving rise to an appearance resembling a tree bark lichenification
an area of chronic inflammtion associated with monocytes/macrophages granuloma
DTM stands for dermatophyte test medium
inflammation of the ear otitis
this skin condition is seen in 3 forms depending on the location of the lesion eosinophilic granuloma complex
what are the 3 forms of eosinophilic granuloma complex rodent ulcers, eosinophilic plaques, linear granulomas
definitive diagnosis of this is made based on histopath, but typically tentative diagnosis may be made based on clinical signs and response to treatment eosinophilic granuloma complex
treatment of this condition is aimed at testing underlying allergies with food trials, steroids, or antihistamines eosinophilic granuloma complex
this condition is a fungal infection of the skin caused by microsporum canis and microsporum gypseum; it will cause alopecia with white, crusty exudates dermatophytosis(ringworm)
what percent of dermatophytes will fluoresce under black light 50%
what special type of black light is used to diagnose dermatophytes woods lamp
a definitive diagnosis of this skin condition is made by fungal culture dermatophytosis(ringworm)
this skin condition is very ZOONOTIC, it is transmitted by direct contact with infected animals or environmental contamination dermatophytosis(ringworm)
what feline breed may be asymptomatic carriers of dermatophytosis(ringworm) persians
treatment of this skin condition is with antifungals (systemic and topical available) and environmental decontamination with bleach when possible dermatophytosis(ringworm)
this condition is inflammation of the external ear canal that can be caused by ear mites, yeast, or bacteria otitis externa
this condition can become a viscous cycle of inflammation causing puritis causing inflammation; recurrent bacterial/yeast infections are typically associated with allergies otitis externa
diagnosis of otitis externa is made with an ear swab cytology to differentiate __ from ___ yeast; bacteria
these type of mites can be seen in a patient with otitis externa using an otoscope ear mites(otodectes cynotis)
this type of otitis externa will cause moist discharge, erythema, puritis, and can be painful bacterial/yeast
this type of otitis externa will cause dry, crusty, black discharge with intense puritis ear mites (otodectes cynotis)
excessive eating polyphagia
a potential complication of diabetes in which prolonged high blood sugar results in accumulation of ketone bodies in the blood ketoacidosis
increased respiratory rate tachypnea
presence of glucose in urine glucosuria
presence of ketones in urine ketonuria
the inability of the thyroid to produce t3/t4 resulting in decreased metabolic rate hypothyroidism
clinical signs of this disease include unexplained weight gain, hairloss, hyperpigmentation, and lethargy hypothyroidism
diagnosis of this disease is made by finding elevated TSH levels and low t3/t4 levels hypothyroidism
treatment for this disease is by supplementation with thyroxine for the life of the animal hypothyroidism
t4 & TSH must be periodically monitored to assure adequate blood levels of the drug for what disease hypothyroidism
with this disease females are more commonly affected than males; clinical signs include polyuria/ploydypsia, polyphagia, and weight loss diabetes mellitus
diagnosis of this disease is made by finding elevated blood glucose levels and glucose in the urine diabetes mellitus
high fiber diets and regular exercise can help regulate diabetes, but it is commonly treated with what medication insulin
how are insulins categorized by how quickly they are absorbed and utilized in the body
this type of insulin is typically used only to treat ketoacidosis regular insulin
these types of insulin are considered intermediate insulin and are used for maintenance therapy of diabetes humulin n or vetsulin
this is a condition in which excessive amounts of cortisol are produced either because of a benign pituitary tumor causing excess ACTH production or an adrenal tumor producing to much cortisol hyperadrenalcorticism(cushings)
this condition can also be caused by medicating with excessive amounts of cortisone (hyperadrenalcorticism)iatrogenic cushings disease
clinical signs of this condition include polyuria/polydypsia, polyphagia, pot-bellied apperance, bilateral symmetrical alopecia cushings disease
diagnosis of this condition is made by finding elevations of specific chemistries, elevated cortisol:creatine ration, and through specialized test- ACTH stimulation and/or low dose dexamethasone suppression cushings disease
how are adrenal tumors best treated surgical removal
how are pituitary tumors best treated medication; most commonly lysodren
what medication has been used other than lysodren to treat pituitary tumros ketoconozole
this medication is given initially 7-10 days, then put on a maintenance dose of usually twice weekly to treat pituitary tumors lysodren
treatment of this condition must carefully be monitored to ensure cortisol levels do not drop to low and induce "addisons crisis" pituitary tumor induce cushings disease
this disease is typically idiopathic, can be iatrogenic, is basically low glucocoritcoid levels and more importantly low mineralcorticoid levels addisons disease(hypoadrenocorticism)
clinical signs of this disease are vague and include depression/lethargy, weakness, anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, weight loss, pu/pd addisons disease (hypoadrenocorticism)
clinical signs of a crisis of this condition are more severe and include weak pulses, bradycardia, prolonged CRT, severe mental depression addisons disease (hypoadrenocorticism)
the hall mark sign of addisons disease is a low what on a chemistry panel sodium:potassium ratio
diagnosis of addisons disease is made by lack of response to what specific test ACTH stimulation test
maintenance of addisons disease is with what two types of medications DOCP(percoten) or fludrocortisone (florinef)
how can iatrogenic addisons be prevented? by weaning off glucorticoids
decreased blood calcium levels hypocalcemia
walking/standing up with metatarsals on the ground plantagrade stance
protein made at higher than normal levels in response to continuous hyperglycermia fructosamine
not in its proper place ectopic
this condition is seen primarily in older cats; is rare in dogs; results in increased metabolism rate because of high levels of t4 hyperthyroidism
the most common sign of this disease is weight loss despite the pets rapid weight loss hyperthyroidinm
hyperthyroidism can cause __ leading to blindness from hyphema, retinal hemorrhages, retinal detachment, or irritability if left untreated hypertension
diagnosis of this disease is made by fining high levels of t4 hyperthyroidism
surgical removal of the glands, radioactive iodine therapy, or medication are treatment options for what disease hyperthyroidism
this hyperthyroid treatment can result in hypoglycemia because of damage to the parathyroid glands surgical removal of the glands
this hyperthyroid treatment is the treatment of choice in people, best if funding is available, requires patient to be isolated for 3 days - 3 weeks radioactive iodine therapy
this is the most commonly prescribed medication used to treat hyperthyroidism, have to recheck levels regularly methimazole(tapazole)
what diets contain high protein and low carbohydrates and are the recommended diets for diabetes mellitus hills m/d or purina dm
glucose curves have variable benefit in diabetic monitoring because of what stress hyperglycemia
the best way to prevent diabetes mellitus is by maintain ideal body weight
diabetic cats rarely develop what life threatening complication of this disease process ketoacidosis
what species have become non-insulin dependent especially with treatment of glargine(lantus) felines
nutrients can be divided into what two categories energy producing and non-energy producing
what are the basic building blocks of life amino acids
what can be used for energy, but is more commonly used for other processes such as structure of organs, blood, muscle, hair, hormones, and enzymes proteins
when proteins are broken down in the body what are they converted into urea
pet foods are classified by their moisture content
how much moisture can be found in canned food 75%
how much moisture can be found in semi-moist food 40%
how much moisture can be found in dry food 10%
unable to meet nutrients requirements without meat in the diet obligate carnivore
abnormally low blood sugar hypoglycemia
food is avaliable at all times ad lib feeding
extracts of foods claimed to have a medicinal effect nutraceutical
malformation of the hip joint hip dysplasia
disruption of the cartilage formation within the joint osteocondrosis
puppies generally nurse until they are 5-6 weeks old
if a feeding tube is used to feed an orphan they must be monitored for aspiration pneumonia
what breed of puppies are especially prone to hypoglycemia toy
large breed puppies should be fed a food that supports what to prevent several joint diseases slow rate of growth
kittens should gain about how much weight a month 1 lb
bottle fed orphaned kittens have a higher risk for developing what to anyone but their owner aggression
feeding tubes are named based on what location
what can be seen with esophagostomy and gastrotomy tubes if to large of a volume of food/liquid is given at one time vomiting
what does TPN stand for total parenteral nutrition
the goal of this is to provide the patient with adequate nutrition without overworking the diseased organ nutritional management
around the tooth periodontal
inflammation of the gingivia gingivitis
bad breath halitosis
difficulty swallowing dysphagia
excessive salivation ptyalism
space between the surface of the tooth and the free gingival gingival sulcus
cleaning of the subgingival teeth surfaces root planning
inflammation of the stomach and intestines gasteroenteritis
medication given to stop vomiting antiemetic
yellow pigmentation because of excess bilirubin icterus
this is composed of the gasterointestinal tract (mouth to anus) and accessoory structures (salivary glands, liver, pancreas) digestive system
what is the leading cause of health issues in dogs periodontal disease
this is based on the degree of inflammation, presence of infection, and amount of bone loss periodontal disease
what is the most commonly diagnosed disease in small animal medicine periodontal disease
what is the most effective prevention mechanism of periodontal disease mechanical removal (brushing)
symptoms of this can mimic pancreatitis, liver disease, and renal disease gasteroenteritis
this virus causes severe enteritis with blunting of the intestinal vili parvo
this virus can cause septicemia and thus secondary pneumonia, can be diagnosed with an in house test parvo
this virus can live in the soil and can only be killed by bleach, flame torch, or 7 months direct sun light parvo
this is caused by the spirochete bacteria leptosipres leptospirosis
this bacteria is commonly the cause of liver disease and sudden death leptospirosiss
definitive diagnosis of this bacteria is made by serum antibody titers, but concurrent liver and kidney disease is highly suspicious leptospirosis
this is when the stomach fills up with gas and then twists, cutting off blood supply to parts of the stomach and putting pressure on the caudal vena cava gastric dilation-volvulus (GDV)
this is seen primarily in deep chested dogs that present for collapse, in shock, dyspneic, dry heaving gastric dilation-volvulus
what is the first order of treatment for a GDV relieve dilation of stomach
this is seen most commonly in miniature schnauzers, history involves having consumed a high fat meal followed by vomiting, anorexia, painful abdomen pancreatitis
CBC CHEM panel will show elevated ___, ___, and ___ WBC; lipase; amylase
what is the most important treatment for pancreatitis to allow the pancrease to stop producing digestive enzymes with holding food
medication given that supress the immune system immunosuppressant
excess fat in the liver hepatic lipidosis
liver coenzyme involved in metabolic reactions SAMe
extract from milk thistle having hepatoprotective properties silymarin
inflammation of the liver and bile ducts cholangiohepatitis
combination of cholangiohepatitis, pancreatitis, and inflammatory bowel disease occurring together in cats triaditis
this is resorption of cat tooth from the inside out, cause is idiopathic, condition is painful, yet the cat continues to eat feline resorptive lesions
this is severe inflammation of the entire mouth, extremely painful, may be caused by hypersensitivity to plaque, full mouth extractions are generally needed lymphocytic-plasmacytic stomatitis
generalized term encompassing multiple causes, only definitive diagnostic test is intestinal biopsy, if idiopathic immunosuppressants are frequently needed inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)
sequela of prolonged anorexia in cats primarily, fat accumulates in the liver to the extent that liver cells are crowded out which results in liver failure hepatic lipidosis
rapid weight loss, jaundice, and anorexia are typical symptoms, can be fatal if not treated, most important treatment is nutritional support hepatic lipidosis
diagnosis of this can be difficult especially in cats, may involve radiogrpahs, abdominal ultrasound, or specialized tests such as PLI- canine test is in house, feline is sent to texas a&m pancreatitis
decreases WBC leukopenia
decrease in all white blood cell lines panleukopenia
class of cytokines with antiviral, antiparasitic, and antineoplastic properties interferon
virus in the blood stream viremia
inflammation consisting of primarily macrophages granulomatous inflammation
inflammation of blood vessels vasculitis
caused by feline parvo virus, highly contagious via direct and indirect transmission, most commonly seen in shelters and catteries, can present as high fever and lethargy with or without GI and respiratory symptoms feline panleukopenia
this can be potentially fatal especially in kittens, if cat survives infection will typically develope life-long immunity feline panlaukopenia
this attacks the immune system of cats and can cause neoplasia( lymphoma is most common) symptoms can be anything, transmission is primarily via saliva over a long period of time, or mom to kitten in milk or transplacental, in house antigen test avaliable feline leukemia virus (FeLV)
what is the 30% rule for FeLV? 30% exposed will be viremic, 30% exposed will fight it off, 30% will hibernate the virus in the bone marrow
this attacks the immune system and can cause neoplasia(lymphoma most common) transmission is via saliva primarly through bite wounds, seen most commonly in unneutered males feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)
in house antibody screening test is avaliable for this virus, there is no definitive treatment, managed to reduce or aggressively treat infections FIV
this virus causes microabscess in tissues or around vessels in cats; has a wet form and a dry form feline infectious peritonitis
feline infectious peritonitis in tissues will result in what form dry
feline infectious peritionitis around vessels will result in what form wet
this form of FIP will cause non-specific symptoms (ADR) dry
this form of FIP will cause pleural effusion of ascites wet
these are caused by herpesvirus and/or feline calicivirus feline upper respiratory infections
these clinical signs are associated with what condition: nasal congestion, conjunctivitis, gingivitis and oral ulcerations feline upper respiratory infections
this virus is highly virulent, causes peripheral edema, skin sloughing, and multiple organ system failure; primarily seen in shelter cats; transmited via fomites and airborn; vaccines and good husbandry/hygiene can prevent this virus feline calicivirus
this virus is transmitted via fomites or airborne, lysine can decrease the severity and frequency of recurrent episodes related to its infections, vaccines and good husbandry/hygiene can prevent this virus feline herpesvirus
what disease in dogs can cause obesity hypothyroidism
Pertaining to the small intestine. enteral
Not delivered via the intestinal tract parenteral
passing a stomach tube via the mouth orogastric
involving the insertion of a plastic tube through the nose, past the throat, and down into the stomach nasogastric
The surgical formation of an opening directly into the esophagus for which a plastic tube is placed esophagostomy
Creation of an artificial external opening into the stomach for nutritional support or gastrointestinal compression gastrostomy
an alternative to gastrostomy when the stomach is unsuitable for a feeding tube; an artificial opening into the jejunum jejunostomy
Created by: chop



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