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Vet1100Blood
Vet 1100 Blood
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Define Blood Transfusion: | The process of transferring whole blood or components of it from a donor to a recipient |
| What is the purpose of transferring blood? | It is used to restore lost blood, to improve clotting time, to improve the ability of blood to deliver oxygenated blood to the body's tissues |
| Define erythrocyte | Mature red blood cell |
| D: hemoglobin | blood protein which transfers O2 |
| D: Serum | Liquid portion of blood |
| D: Plasma | Yellow/straw protein of blood which transports nutrients, hormones, waste products, and clotting factors to the body's tissues |
| D: Hemolysis | Breakdown of red blood cells ((Hem/o=blood -lysis=breakdown)) |
| D: Anemia | Less than normal levels of erythrocytes or hemoglobin ((determined by a reduced PCV)) |
| D: Antigen | A substance such a bacteria, viruses, and pollen, which produce an immune response because they are foreign to the body. "A substance the body regards as foreign." |
| D: Antibody | A disease fighting protein produced by the body in response to the presence of a specific antigen. |
| D: Allergy | An overreaction by the body to a particular antigen. |
| D: Anaphylaxis | A severe response to a foreign substance. Develops acutely and may include tachycardia, swelling, blockage of the airways, etc. |
| D: Agglutination | Clumping together of cells of particles...sign of IMHA (Immune Mediated Hemolytic Anemia) |
| D: Rouleax | Erythrocytes stacked like coins; a normal finding in equines |
| D: Autoimmune Disease | A disorder in which the body makes antibodies direct against ( attack) themselves. |
| Common physical finding of anemia are | lethargy, weakness, pale mucous membranes, tachycardia, tachypnea, and a bounding pulse |
| In severe anemic state, a low grade systolic flow murmmer may occur secondary to: | decreased blood viscosity |
| Prolonged tissue CRT is suggestive of: | compromised tissue perfusion and shock, but may be difficult to assess in a anemic patient |
| Weak and rapid pulse suggests: | severe dehydration and poor perfusion; a bounding pulse suggests anemia |
| Coagulation disorders are rare in ______ | Cats |
| Most bleeding disorders in veterinary medicine are seen in ___________ patients | Canine |
| Primary coagulation disorders are rare and are usually the result of an inherited defect in the production of | coagulation factors |
| The most common inherited coagulation disorder in domestic animals is | Von Willebrand's disease |
| Von Willibrand's disease is most seen affecting ____________, but may also be seen in __________ and __________ | Doberman dogs, may also be seen in rabbits and swine |
| ______________ refers to a decreased number of platelets and is the most common bleeding disorder of hemostasis | Thrombocytopenia |
| _____________ can occur as a result of bone marrow depression that reduces the production of platelets, or autoimmune disease that increases the rate of platelet destruction | Thrombocytopenia |
| D: hemostasis | the control of bleeding |
| D: DIC | Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation |
| DIC is often seen in _______ cases, as well as a large number of _________ ___________ | trauma, infectious diseases |
| DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation) may manifest as systemic __________ or microvascular ___________ | systemic HEMORRHAGE or microvascular THROMBOSIS |
| Most DIC patients have elevation in __ or more coagulation tests, as well as elevated _________ and ___________ | THREE or more coagulation tests, as well as elevated FIBROGEN and THROMBOCYTOPENIA |
| _____________ may be seen on the blood film because of the intravascular ___________ of erythrocytes | Schistocytes may be seen on the blood film b/c of the DESTRUCTION of erythrocytes (RBC's) |
| D: petechia | small, pinpoint homerrhages often seen on the pinna and inguinal area |
| D: ecchymoses | small hemorrhagic spot in the skin or mucous membranes forming a nonelevated, rounded or irregular, blue or purplish patch (ie. briuse) |
| D: epistaxis | nosebleed |
| Clinical presentation of DIC may include (3), and prolonged bleeding following __________ or _________ | petechia, ecchymosis, epistaxis; and prolonged bleeding following TRAUMA or SURGERY |
| D: Thrombus | blood clot |
| D: Hematuria | blood in the urine |
| Dogs have at least __ blood groups | 19 |
| D: DEA | Dog Erythrocyte Antigen |
| Canine blood types are noted by its ___ and a _______ | DEA and a NUMBER |
| This is the most common canine blood type | DEA 1.1+ |
| Dogs with the blood type ____ are considered to be the universal __________ | 1.1+ = canine universal RECIPIENT |
| Canine blood type 1.1+ is the equivalent to a human blood type _____ | 1.1+ is equivalent to human blood type A positive |
| Canine blood types ___ and ___ are said to be the universal ________ | 1.1- or 1.2- = universal DONORS |
| Canine blood types ____ and ____ are simillar to human blood type A negative | 1.1- and 1.2- |
| Cats are said to have __ blood types; __, __, and ___ | Cats have 3 blood types; A, B, and AB |
| The most common feline blood type is | A |
| Many purebred cats have __ blood type | B |
| Most cats in North America, as well as DSH/DLH have __ blood type | A |
| European cats have a higher percentage of __ blood type | B |
| Cats have naturally occuring ______________ against the blood-type they lack, therefor there is no universal feline blood _______ | Alloantibodies, no universal feline DONOR |
| Type AB cats can receive __ or __ blood with no clinical recations | A or B |
| Cats may have a ________ reaction to the first transfusion | Severe |
| Canine blood donors need to meet __________________ (9) prerequisites to donate blood | Be in good physical condition, be screened for blood transmissible diseases, over a certain body weight, UTD on vaccines, be on HW prevention, have an adequate predonation PCV, must have a good temperment |
| Fresh whole blood contains a mixture of cellular components which includes (3) and plasma components (?) | Erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets; plasma = liquid portion containing proteins and nutrients) |
| Fresh whole blood must be transfused within __ hours | 4 |
| Fresh whole blood is used to treat (6) | hemorrhagic shock, bleeding disorders (due to thrombocytopenia or clotting factor deficiencies), anemia, surgical hemorrhage, and IMHA |
| D: IMHA | Immune Mediated Hemolytic Anemia |
| What are two disadvantages of whole blood transfusions? | 1. Limited resources - so separation of WB components permits a single donation to help mult patients; 2. Volume overload & pulmo edema vs component therapy |
| Packed Red Blood Cells is refrigerated _____ ______ that is ______________ and the ______ is removed | Packed RBC's is refrigerated WHOLE BLOOD that is CENTRIFUGED and the PLASMA is removed |
| Packed RBC's is primarily used in patients with decreased _______ carrying capabilities | Oxygen |
| Packed RBC's would be used in patients with _____ anemias and __-________ anemias | hemolytic and non-regenerative anemias |
| D: ADSOL - this is used to prolong storage life, maintain the cells, and prevent hemolysis | Adenine, Dextrose, NaCl, and mannitol |
| Packed RBC's are only good for about __ days | 30 |
| An alternative to Packed RBC's is | Oxyglobin |
| ________ is bovine hemoglobin solution | Oxyglobin |
| 3 advantages of oxyglobin | 1. No need for blood typing or crossmatching 2. Shelf life up to 3 years 3. Transfusion reactions not generally seen in canine patients |
| 3 disadvantages of oxyglobin | 1. Cats may show signs of pulmo edema 2. A colloid solution and may cause volume overload if given to cardiac or renal patients 3. Discoloration of serum, urine, and mucous membranes (yellowish-brown) |
| Plasma contains (3) | coagulation factors, proteins, and platelets |
| Plasma transfusions may be used to treat (3) | warafrin toxicity, DIC, and inherited coagulation factor deficiencies |
| Plasma transfusions are used primarily for (5) | volume expansion, hypoproteinemia, pancreatitis, sepsis, and liver toxicities |
| What are the three varieties of transfusable plasma | Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP), Frozen Plasma (FP), Cryoprecipitate |
| Fresh Frozen Plasma must be frozen before __ _____ of donation | 8 hours |
| Fresh Frozen Plasma contains the clotting factors _ & ___, ________, and __ _________ factor | clotting factors V (5) & VIII (8), albumin, and Von Willebrand's factor |
| Frozen Plasma is frozen _ ____ after donation | 8 hours |
| Frozen Plasma does not contain factors _, __, or ___ _______ factor | FP does NOT contain clotting factors V, VIII, or Von Willebrand's factor |
| What are two diseases NOT treatable with FP | Hemophilia and VW disease |
| Cryoprecipitate contains everything ___ does only in a much _____ volume | FFP, smaller volume |
| Blood in Heparin or Sodium Citrate must be used within __ hours b/c ? | 48 hours, because of the lack of RBC preservative |
| D: ACD / CPD | Acid Citrate Dextrose Citrate Phosphate Dextrose |
| Refrigerated blood with preservatives may be stored for __-__ days | 14-21 days |
| Blood with CPD-1 (added RBC preservative adenosine) may be stored for __-__ days | 35-45 days |
| Packed RBC's without preservatives may be refrigerated and stored for __ days | 21 days |
| Fresh or Frozen Plasma (FFP) can be stored at -4 - -22 degrees for up to _____ | one year |
| Excessive warming (+50 degrees celcuis) when thawing FFP will cause | hemolysis |
| All blood products should be given at ____ (temp) using an __-____ filter to remove _____ and ____ | room temperature, using an IN-LINE filter to remove DEBRIS and CLOTS |
| Prior to and during transfusions, IV lines should be flushed using a __%____ solution | 0.9% NaCl solution |
| Platelet administration sets should never contain _____ because platelets will _____ to it | latex, platelets will adhere to it |
| Initial administration rate should be ____ ml/kg for the first __ minutes, then __-__ ml/kg/hr | 0.25ml/kg for first 15 minutes, then 5-10 ml/kg/hr |
| Acute signs of a negative transfusion reaction are | hypotension, vomiting, salivation, muscle tremors, tachycardia, fever, and hives |
| _-__ days post transfusion, the recipients body will destroy the RBC's | 7-10 days |
| A key indicator of delayed reaction is an unexpected ____ in PCV _-__ days post transfusion | Drop in PCV 2-21 days post transfusion |
| Reactions may be caused by (3) incompatibilities | leukocyte, platelet, or plasma protein |
| The use of ________ 30 minutes prior to a transfusion may reduce reactions | antihistamines |
| Nonimmunologic reactions are principally due to | vascular overload |
| Signs of vascular overload include (4) | coughing, increased resp rate, resp distress, and vomiting |
| evidence of preexisting cardiac dysfunction = a reduced transfusion rate of | 1 ml/kg/hr |
| Why should a patient be withheld from food and water access prior to transfusions? | Because vomiting may occur |
| Once blood type is known, the donor's ___ and _____ should be cross matched with the patients ___ and _____ for incompatabilities | RBC's and Serum |
Created by:
ahaggan001
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