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vet1155
midterm review
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| the ability to produce diseases | pathogenicity |
| properties affecting degree of virulence | ability to multiply, infect host, resist host defenses |
| the presence of bacteria in the blood | bacteremia |
| a generic term for the presence of toxin in the blood | toxemia |
| the presence of bacteria in the blood that is associated with severe infections | septicemia |
| bacteria that grow in the presence of 02 | aerobic |
| bacteria that do not live or grow in the presence of o2 | anaerobic |
| a long, branching filamentous structure of a fungus | hyphae |
| unicellular growth form of fungus | yeast |
| a reproductive structure that is adapted for dispersal and surviving for extended periods of time in unfavorable conditions | spore |
| abnormal, transmissible agent that is able to induce abnormal folding of normal cellular proteins in the brain leading to brain damage | prion |
| study of the cause of disease | etiology |
| mechanism of what goes wrong in the body | pathogenesis |
| condition following as a consequence of disease | sequela |
| a list of possible causes of disease manifestation | differential diagnosis |
| The removal and examination of a sample of tissue from a living body for diagnostic purposes. | biopsy |
| examination of a body after death | necropsy |
| examination of a body after death to determine the cause of death | autopsy |
| an insufficient supply of blood to an organ, usually due to a blocked artery. | ischemia |
| an inanimate object or material on which disease-producing agents may be conveyed | fomites |
| Of or being a secondary disorder associated with being treated in a hospital but unrelated to the patient's primary condition. | nosocomial |
| any adverse condition in a patient resulting from treatment by a physician or surgeon. | iatrogenic |
| capable of causing an infection | infectious |
| a disease or infection that is capable of being transmitted from one individual to another | contagious |
| toxin present in the cell walls of bacteria that is released after the bacteria has died | endotoxin |
| a substance that is poisonous or destructive to nerve tissue | neurotoxin |
| any cell that ingests microorganisms or other cells and foreign particles | phagocyte |
| Immunity that occurs naturally as a result of a person's genetic constitution or physiology and does not arise from a previous infection or vaccination | innate immunity |
| The component of the immune response involving the transformation of B cells into plasma cells that produce and secrete antibodies to a specific antigen. | humoral immunity |
| any substance capable of inducing a specific immune response and of reacting with the products of that response | antigen |
| The surface portion of an antigen capable of eliciting an immune response and of combining with the antibody produced to counter that response. | epitope |
| the wbc that responds to acute inflammation, phagocytizes, and produces numerous immune chemicals | neutrophil |
| the wbc that responds to parasites and allergies, possible phagocyte | eosinophil |
| the wbc that responds to chronic inflammation | basophil |
| the wbc that responds to chronic inflammation and is a phagocyte | monocyte |
| this wbc is produced by the lymphatic tissues, some of which produce antibodies | lymphocyte |
| A large white blood cell, found primarily in the bloodstream and connective tissue, that helps the body fight off infections by ingesting the disease-causing organism | macrophage |
| cells with long cytoplasmic processes in the lymph nodes and germinal centers of the spleen; such processes, which extend along lymphoid cells, retain antigen molecules for extended periods of time. | dendritic cells |
| bursa-dependent lymphocytes; the precursors of antibody-producing cells (plasma cells) and the cells primarily responsible for humoral immunity. | b cells |
| thymus-dependent lymphocytes; those that pass through or are influenced by the thymus before migrating to tissues; they are responsible for cell-mediated immunity and delayed hypersensitivity. | t cells |
| differentiated T lymphocytes that can recognize and lyse target cells bearing specific antigens recognized by their antigen receptors | cytotoxic cells |
| T and B lymphocytes that mediate immunologic memory. They are believed to retain information that permits a subsequent antigenic challenge to be followed by a more rapid efficient immunologic reaction than that seen with the first exposure | memory cells |
| a rapidly progressing, life-threatening allergic reaction. | anaphylaxis |
| possessing very large quantities of specific antibodies in the serum. | hyperimmune |
| that occurring as a result of prior exposure to an infectious agent or its antigens (active i.), or of passive transfer of antibody or immune lymphoid cells (passive i.) | acquired immunity |
| passive transfer of antibody or immune lymphoid cells | passive immunity |
| a substance added to an antigen that enhances or modifies the antibody response to the antigen. | adjuvant |
| Of or relating to a protein from a single clone of cells, all molecules of which are the same, protect against one pathogen | monoclonal |
| pertaining to or designating a group of cells or organisms derived from several cells, protect against multiple antigen | polyclonal |
| this type of vaccine will give effective long lasting immunity, can result in symptoms similar to the disease | modified live vaccine |
| this type of vaccine needs repeated administration to maintain protection, often contain adjuvants to improve the immune response | killed vaccine |
| Material produced by genetic engineering, highly effective, few side effects | recombinant vaccine |
| a rare anemic condition with an uncertain link to vaccinations that usually occurs within 2-4 weeks of vaccinations being given | immune mediated hemolytic anemia(IMHA) |
| study of cells | cytology |
| study of tissues | histology |
| study of diseased tissue | histopathology |
| programmed cell death | apoptosis |
| excess fluid in the cells cytoplasm | hydrophic |
| accumulation of fat | steatosis |
| accumulation of homogenous proteinaceous substances within a cell | hyaline |
| accumulation of starch-likke protein in between cells | amyloid |
| conversion of connective tissue to gelatinous substance | mucoid |
| increase in cell number | hyperplasia |
| increase in cell size | hypertrophy |
| decrease in cell number | hypoplasia |
| decrease in cell size | atrophy |
| lack of development | agenesis |
| replacement of cell type with another normal cell type | metaplasia |
| replacement of cell type with abnormal cell type | dysplasia |
| uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells | neoplasia |
| deposited in injured, degenerating, or dead tissue | dystrophic |
| deposition occurs at a distant location to injury | metastatic |
| formation of stones | lithiasis |
| physical changes at the site of injury, destruction of removal of responsible substance by the body, repair and healing of affected tissues | inflammation |
| this fluid contains a low number of cells | serous |
| this fluid contains mucous | catharrhal |
| this fluid contains fibrin | fibrinous |
| this fluid contains pus | suppurative/purulent |
| this fluid is bloody | hemorraghic |
| this type of inflammation is chronic, macrophages are the predominant cells, they often contain connective tissues | granulomatous |
| this type of neoplasia originates from epithelial tissue | carcinoma |
| this type of neoplasia originates from connective tissue | sarcoma |
| this type of neoplasia originates from wbc's | leukemia |
| Redness of the skin caused by dilatation and congestion of the capillaries, often a sign of inflammation or infection. | erythema |
| Very sharp; very violent; sudden on set of disease | peracute |
| relating to a disease present in a person with no symptoms of it, no sudden onset of disease | subacute |
| Dilation of a blood vessel, as by the action of a nerve or drug. | vasodilation |
| The act or an instance of oozing forth | exudation |
| Of no danger to health; not recurrent or progressive | benign |
| Tending to metastasize; cancerous | malignant |
| the heart muscle | myocardium |
| blood remaining in the chamber during diastole | cardiac afterload |
| disease of the heart muscle | cardiomyopathy |
| fluid accumulation in the abdomen | ascites |
| enlarged liver | hepatomegaly |
| fluid accumulation within the lungs | pulmonary edema |
| fainting; a sudden/brief lack of cardia output resulting in lack of oxygen to the brain producing unconscioiusness | syncope |
| enlarged heart | cardiomegaly |
| cells lining the inside of blood vessels | endothelium |
| without symptoms | asymptomatic |
| loss of blood supply | ischemia |
| low blood calcium level | hypokalemia |
| the neurotransmitters epinepherine, norepinephrine, and dopamine | catecholamines |
| slow heart rate | bradycardia |
| high heart rate | tachycardia |
| effectiveness/strength of cardiac muscle contraction | contractility |
| difficulty breathing | dyspnea |
| blood clot within a vessle | thromboembolism |
| high blood pressure | hypertension |
| low blood pressure | hypotension |
| low blood potassium level | hypokalemia |
| cardiac ultrasound | echocardiogram |
| free blood within the eye, specifically the anterior chamber | hyphema |
| removal of fluid or air from the thorasic cavity | thoracocentesis |
| fracture that occurs because the bone is weakened by a neoplasia or disease | pathologic fracture |
| fracture in which the bone protrudes through the skin | open fracture |
| fracture involving 3 or more pieces | comminuted fracture |
| fracture that is straight across the bone | transverse fracture |
| fracture that is at an angle | oblique fracture |
| metal rod that is surgically placed down the marrow cavity of a bone | intramedullary pin (IM pin) |
| metal device used to hold metal pins going transversely across the bone | external fixator |
| cup-shaped depression of the pelvis where the head of the femur fits | acetabulum |
| to remove a piece of bone | ostectomy |
| to cut into bone | osteotomy |
| the awareness of where an animals own limbs are in space | conscious proprioception |
| weakness in the limbs | paresis |
| inability to move the limbs | paralysis |
| a contrast study of the spinal canal in which contrast media is injected into the spinal canal | myelogram |
| state in which seizures wont stop without medical intervention | status epilepticus |
| system in the body that controls physical balance | vestibular system |
| rapid oscillation of the eyes | nystagmus |
| incoordination of the body/limbs | ataxia |
| the study of animal reproduction | theriogenology |
| an infected/abscessed uterus | pyometra |
| the inner lining of the uterus | endometrium |
| inflammation within the abdominal cavity | peritonitis |
| difficult labor or birth | dystocia |
| straining to defecate | tenesmus |
| straining to urinate | stranguria |
| painful urination | dysuria |
| lack or weak uterine muscle contractions | uterine inertia |
| how can infections be spread? | direct/indirect contact, vectors, medical personnel |
| this means it can multiply within a host | infectious |
| some infections can not be passed on to another host meaning it is not | contagious |
| all ___ organisms are ___, but not all ___ organisms are ___ | contagious; infective, infective; contagious |
| this is determined by the ability of the organism to replicate in the host and its ability to produce toxins | virulence |
| these are classified by shape, staining, and oxygen demands | bacteria |
| these are technically non-cellular, contain only DNA or RNA(never both), and require a host's cell to replicate | Virus |
| cells of the immune system can be divided in those in the ___ ___ and ___ ___ | peripheral blood; accessory cells |
| this immune system occurs immediately, treats every antigen the same, does not create memory cells | innate |
| these neutralize antigens, produce epitopes, and produce cytokines | phagocytes |
| this immune system takes days to weeks to occur, is a specific response to a specific antigen, and does not create memory cells | acquired |
| lymphocytes can be divided into _ cells, _ cells, and _ cells | B;T; natural killer |
| plasma cells that produce antibodies | b-cells |
| plasma cells that produce memory cells | b-cells & t-cells |
| antigen presenting cells are ___, ___, and ___ | macrophages; dendritic cells; b-cells |
| t-cells can be divided into __ __ __, __ __ __, and __ __ __ | helper T cells; cytotoxic T cells; memory T cells |
| these present epitopes to b-cells | helper T cells |
| these induce cells to die through chemical stimulus | cytotoxic T cells |
| these work by binding to antigens to block their function and by enhancing the immune response | antibodies |
| the major antibody produced during the primary immune response | IgM |
| the major antibody produced during the secondary immune response | IgG |
| the major antibody involved in allergic reactions (including anaphylaxis) and parasitic reactions | IgE |
| the major antibody found in body secretions including colostrum | IgA |
| the antibody not found in all animals and has no known function at this time | IgD |
| this immunity type is from maternal antibodies and does not produce memory cells | natural passive |
| this immunity type is human induced such as antitoxins or antibody transfer and does not produce memory cells | artificial passive |
| this immunity type is from recovery from natural infection and memory cells are produced | natural active |
| this type of immunity is from vaccinations and memory cells are produced | artificial active |
| this is used to treat rabies exposure and tetanus in people, but can cause an allergic reaction | antibody transfer |
| maternal IgG will cross the placenta __% in primates | 100 |
| maternal IgG will cross the placenta __% in horses, pigs, and ruminants | 0 |
| maternal IgG will cross the placenta ___ in dogs and cats | some |
| this is very important in animals in which IgG cannot pass the placenta | colostrum |
| the three most common types of vaccines | modified live; killed; recombinant |
| these have been implicated as the cause for some vaccine reactions | adjuvants |
| can cause fever, lethargy, or more serious adverse effects such as anaphylaxis, fibrosarcoma in cats, or possibly IMHA | vaccines |
| at least __ vaccines __-__ weeks apart are typically required to produce a strong secondary immune response | 2; 2-3 |
| puppies and kittens require ____ vaccinations because of the interference of maternal antibodies | multiple |
| the D in the DAMNIT scheme stands for | degenerative |
| the A in the DAMNIT scheme stands for | autoimmune/anomalous |
| the M in the DAMNIT scheme stands for | metabolic |
| the N in the DAMNIT scheme stands for | neoplastic/nutritional |
| the I in the DAMNIT scheme stands for | inflammatory/infectious/ischemic |
| the T in the DAMNIT scheme stands for | toxins/trauma |
| what are the 4 cardinal signs of inflammation | erythema, swelling, heat, pain |
| this is described by location, extent of the lesion, and duration | inflammation |
| physical changes associated with inflammation are | vasodilation, exudation, increased vascular permeability, emigration of WBC'S, phagocytosis |
| this type of inflammation is categorized by the exudates it produces | acute |
| this type of inflammation is categorized by the predominant cell type involved | chronic |
| can heal by either first or second intention | wounds |
| healing takes longer and will often result in significant scar tissue formation | second intention |
| often used to refer to a malignant neoplasia | cancer |
| occur because of abnormal start to electrical impulses or abnormal conduction of those impulses through the heart | cardiac arrhythmia |
| most commonly seen in large breed dogs | cardiac arrhythmia |
| clinical signs are syncope, weakness, and or collapse | cardiac arrhythmia |
| this is needed to determine the exact arrhythmia | EKG |
| most common cardiac disease in dogs | dilated cardiomyopathy |
| males are most common affect with this type of cardiac disease | dilated cardiomyopathy |
| most common cardiac disease seen in cats: maine coons, rag dolls, american & british shorthairs, and rex breeds are predisposed | hypertrophic cardiomyopathy |
| hypertrophy decreases the left ventricle chamber size but increases muscle wall thickness | hyptertrophic cardiomyopathy |
| this is typically seen secondary to other conditions such as chronic renal disease, hyperthyroidism, or hypokalemia | hypertension |
| may be asymptomatic, blindness can occur bc of retinal hemorrhages, retinal detachment or hyphema | hypertension |
| pressures > __ are diagnostic for hypertension, between __-__ is considered borderline, but diagnoses may be made if concurrent symptoms still exist | 180; 160-180 |
| this disease is transmitted by the mosquito, highly preventable, often asymptomatic, but advanced disease will show signs of right sided heart disease and cough | heartworm disease |
| adult heartworms live and multiply in the | pulmonary arteries |
| diagnoses of heartworms involves demonstrating either a piece of a __ worm is present in the blood stream (dogs & cats) or presents of _____ to the worms (cats) | female; antibodies |
| can be associated with allergies, but may be idiopathic, diagnosis typically is made based on history and clinical signs | feline asthma |
| acute asthma attack may require | oxygen therapy |
| never stress a dyspnic cat it can be | fatal |
| these medications are typically needed for long term management of an asthmatic cat | corticosteroids |
| this is caused by multiple different viruses and bacteria, high contagious in close confinement, presents as a goose-honking cough, treatment is aimed at relieving symptoms, the vaccine does not protect against all causes | tracheobronchitis |
| this vaccine is only effective for 6 monts so it requires boostering more frequently | bordetella |
| clinical signs of this are swelling, pain, loss of function (non weight bearing) | fracture |
| classified by whether the skin is intact, how many pieces there are, and what angle the break occured | fracture |
| ___ is typically needed for radiograph of a fracture because 2 views are always needed | sedation |
| ___ ___ require extra home care to prevent infection | external fixators |
| __ __ are rarely removed | bone plates |
| this is a malformation of the hip joint that results in an unstable joint, genetics and growth rate are the 2 major factors affecting development, symptoms are not usually evident until arthritis develops, pelvic radiographs are needed to confirm | hip dysplasia |
| dogs can be certified free of hip dysplasia either through __ or __ | OFA; PennHip |
| ___ can not be done until a dog is at least 2 years old | OFA |
| __ can be done when a dog is 4 months old | Penn Hip |
| ___ treatment is aimed at improving stability of the joint | surgical |
| ___ treatment is aimed at decreasing pain from arthritis | conservative |
| slower growth rate in large and giant breed dogs can decrease the risk for | hip dysplasia |
| these ligaments prevent the tibia and femur from sliding past each other | cruciate |
| diagnosis is made by eliciting a drawer sign, which often requires sedation | cruciate ligament tear (ACL tear) |
| surgery is intended to stabilize the joint | cruciate ligament tear |
| dogs will commonly rupture the opposite acl withing __ year/years | 1 |
| protrusion of inter-vertebral disc material into the spinal canal causing pain and neurologic dysfunction of the limbs | intervertebral disc disease (IVDD) |
| dogs with elongated backs such a dachshunds and basset hounds are predisposed to this disease | intervertebral disc disease (IVDD) |
| this can be treated either with surgery or conservative therapy depending on the severity of signs and lack or presence of motor function (moving the legs) | intervertebral disc disease (IVDD) |
| the most important component of conservative therapy for IVDD is | preventing further damage to the spinal cord |
| these type of seizures are most common in dogs | grand-mal |
| diagnosis is made by ruling out other causes through blood work and potentially more advanced diagnostics | idiopathic epilepsy |
| these medications are indicated when seizures last to long or occur to frequently | phenobarbital; potassium bromide |
| blood levels of these medications must be monitored to ensure they are in the therapeutic range and to monitor for adverse effects especially in the liver, with long term use to control seizures | phenobarbital; potassium bromide |
| this is a potentially life threatening condition that is initially treated with Valium and sometimes even anesthesia | status epilepticus |
| this is an idiopathic condition resulting in loss of balance | old dog vestibular syndrome |
| diagnosis of this is made by ruling out other causes (inner ear infection, etc) | old dog vestibular syndrome |
| no treatment of old dog vestibular syndrome is necessary because symptoms resolve in _-_ weeks | 1-3 |
| increased frequency of urination | polakiuria |
| blood in the urine | hematuria |
| difficult/pain on urination | dysuria |
| straining to urinate | stranguria |
| obtaining urine sample via needle puncture into the bladder | cystocentesis |
| increased volume of urine produced | polyuria |
| increased drinking | polydypsia |
| ureters that enter the urinary tract in the wrong location, usually in the urethra instead of the bladder | ectopic ureters |
| no urine produced | anuria |
| typically caused by ascending bacterial infection, often cause struvite crystals/stones in dogs, clinical signs vary from polakiruia to hematuria and dysuria, diagnosis is made via urinalysis with sediment | urinary tract infection |
| bacteria may not be seen in sediment, may only see increased WBC, CBC may or may not have increased WBC, negative urine culture and sensitivity does not rule out | urinary tract infection |
| multiple weeks of antibiotic therapy may be necessary, typically 2-3 weeks needed to treat this | urinary tract infection |
| urine culture must be run on a sample obtained via | cystocentesis |
| this type of renal disease can be caused by progression from acute renal disease, congenital renal disease, renal neoplasia, idiopathic | chronic |
| this type of renal disease can be caused by toxins such as ethylene glycol or rasins, infectious, medications such as anticancer drugs or NSAIDS, or decreased renal blood flow | acute |
| this disease may be acute or chronic, diagnosed based on chem panel and UA, most common clinical sign is PU/PD but can be asymptomatic, fluid therapy is the hallmark treatment | renal disease |
| chronic renal disease therapy should include transition to a __ __ diet | low protein |
| anlways monitor and maintain __ __ during anesthesia to ensure adequate blood flow to the kidneys | blood pressure |
| causes may be neurological or non-neurological, hormone response is the most common cause in spayed females, may present for "having accidents in the house", leakage may only occur when the animal is sleeping | urinary incontinence |
| may cause urine scalding(dermatitis), urinalysis may reveal concurrent UTI | urinary incontinence |
| __ __ is needed to diagnosis ectopic ureters | intravenous pyelogram (IVP) |
| the most common treatment for hormone responsive urinary incontinence | phenylpropanolamine (PPA) |
| may be used to treat hormonal responsive incontinence but can cause bone marrow suppression | estrogen |
| three components are dipstick, sediment, and specific gravity | urinalysis |
| __ __ is not valid on a dipstick and must be read on a refractometer | specific gravity |
| urinalysis should be run immediately after collection to prevent false positive for | crystaluria |
| small amount of __ seen may be contamination if urine was collected via cystocentesis | blood |
| if urine is collected free catch any amount of __ seen is real | hematuria |
| this describes a set of symptoms but not a disease in itself: dysuria, stranguria, hematuria, inappropriate elimination | FLUTD(feline lower urinary tract disease) |
| causes of FLUTD can be divided into__ and __ causes | metabolic and behavioral |
| inflammation, stones or crystals, or UTI are all __ causes | metabolic |
| cat doesn't like the litter, doesn't like where the litter box is located, or the litter box isn't clean enough are all __ causes | behavioral |
| stress is a factor in causing this, etiology is unknown, hematuria is seen with it, diluting urine is mainstay of therapy, diagnosed by ruling out other causes or symptoms | interstitial cystitis |
| glucosamine can be effective because bladder lining contains glycosaminoglycans, analgesics should be used during a flare up for this disease | interstitial cystitis |
| may be composed of struvites or calcium oxalates, surgical removal may be necessary especially in male cats | crystaluria/uroliths |
| these have historically been associated with lower urine pH, but that may not be much of a factor as previously thought | calcium oxalates |
| these form in urine with an elevated pH | struvites |
| persians, himilayans, and burmese are predisposed to forming | calcium oxalates |
| these can be dissolved using diet and/or medication to acidify the urine | struvites |
| these can not be dissolved using diet and/or medication to acidify the urine | calcium oxalate |
| this is an emergency seen in male cats, it can cause urine to back up into the kidneys causing acute renal failure and electrolyte imbalances | urethral obstruction |
| stones, crystals, or urethral plugs (blood + amorphous debris) can cause the blockage, bladder wall may rupture | urethral obstruction |
| cat may present for vomiting and lethargy instead of urinary issues, especially in a multicat household | urethral obstruction |
| ___ ___ is done to establish renal function and electrolyte levels of blocked kitties | blood work |
| blockage must be relieved by | passage of a urinary catheter |
| this may be given to correct severe hyperkalemia | insulin |
| ___ must be done if stones are present to remove them in dogs and cats | surgery |
| litter boxes should be cleaned at least | daily |
| house hold should have __ more litter box than their number of cats | 1 |
| this can be fatal if not treated, E. coli is the most common etiologic agent, will have a history of having a heat cycle 2 months prior to presentation, can be opened or closed | pyometra |
| animals with __ pyometra are generally more sick | closed |
| medical management may be tried with a ___ pyometra but is generally not recommended | open |
| the treatment of choice for a pyometra is ___ but can still be a fatal condition | ovariohysterectomy |
| this can be caused by uterine inertia, too large of a fetus, abnormal positioning, or fetal death | dystocia |
| first puppy/kitten should be born within __ hour(s) of starting active labor | 4 |
| there is commonly up to __ hour(s) between birth and if longer it is considered a dystocia | 1 |
| this medication can be given to stimulate uterine contractions unless obstructed/abnormal positioning | oxytocin |
| this may be necessary especially in cases of abnormal positioning or fetal size disparity | cesarean section |
| this is commonly seen in intact older males, may present for constipation because of tenesmus, or UTI bc of stranguria | benign prostatic hyperplasia |
| an enlarged prostate is palpable on __ exam | rectal |
| the treatment of choice for benign prostatic hyperplasia is | neuter |
| ____ can be tried to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, but it can cause bone marrow suppression | diethylstilbesterol |
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