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vet1155

midterm review

QuestionAnswer
the ability to produce diseases pathogenicity
properties affecting degree of virulence ability to multiply, infect host, resist host defenses
the presence of bacteria in the blood bacteremia
a generic term for the presence of toxin in the blood toxemia
the presence of bacteria in the blood that is associated with severe infections septicemia
bacteria that grow in the presence of 02 aerobic
bacteria that do not live or grow in the presence of o2 anaerobic
a long, branching filamentous structure of a fungus hyphae
unicellular growth form of fungus yeast
a reproductive structure that is adapted for dispersal and surviving for extended periods of time in unfavorable conditions spore
abnormal, transmissible agent that is able to induce abnormal folding of normal cellular proteins in the brain leading to brain damage prion
study of the cause of disease etiology
mechanism of what goes wrong in the body pathogenesis
condition following as a consequence of disease sequela
a list of possible causes of disease manifestation differential diagnosis
The removal and examination of a sample of tissue from a living body for diagnostic purposes. biopsy
examination of a body after death necropsy
examination of a body after death to determine the cause of death autopsy
an insufficient supply of blood to an organ, usually due to a blocked artery. ischemia
an inanimate object or material on which disease-producing agents may be conveyed fomites
Of or being a secondary disorder associated with being treated in a hospital but unrelated to the patient's primary condition. nosocomial
any adverse condition in a patient resulting from treatment by a physician or surgeon. iatrogenic
capable of causing an infection infectious
a disease or infection that is capable of being transmitted from one individual to another contagious
toxin present in the cell walls of bacteria that is released after the bacteria has died endotoxin
a substance that is poisonous or destructive to nerve tissue neurotoxin
any cell that ingests microorganisms or other cells and foreign particles phagocyte
Immunity that occurs naturally as a result of a person's genetic constitution or physiology and does not arise from a previous infection or vaccination innate immunity
The component of the immune response involving the transformation of B cells into plasma cells that produce and secrete antibodies to a specific antigen. humoral immunity
any substance capable of inducing a specific immune response and of reacting with the products of that response antigen
The surface portion of an antigen capable of eliciting an immune response and of combining with the antibody produced to counter that response. epitope
the wbc that responds to acute inflammation, phagocytizes, and produces numerous immune chemicals neutrophil
the wbc that responds to parasites and allergies, possible phagocyte eosinophil
the wbc that responds to chronic inflammation basophil
the wbc that responds to chronic inflammation and is a phagocyte monocyte
this wbc is produced by the lymphatic tissues, some of which produce antibodies lymphocyte
A large white blood cell, found primarily in the bloodstream and connective tissue, that helps the body fight off infections by ingesting the disease-causing organism macrophage
cells with long cytoplasmic processes in the lymph nodes and germinal centers of the spleen; such processes, which extend along lymphoid cells, retain antigen molecules for extended periods of time. dendritic cells
bursa-dependent lymphocytes; the precursors of antibody-producing cells (plasma cells) and the cells primarily responsible for humoral immunity. b cells
thymus-dependent lymphocytes; those that pass through or are influenced by the thymus before migrating to tissues; they are responsible for cell-mediated immunity and delayed hypersensitivity. t cells
differentiated T lymphocytes that can recognize and lyse target cells bearing specific antigens recognized by their antigen receptors cytotoxic cells
T and B lymphocytes that mediate immunologic memory. They are believed to retain information that permits a subsequent antigenic challenge to be followed by a more rapid efficient immunologic reaction than that seen with the first exposure memory cells
a rapidly progressing, life-threatening allergic reaction. anaphylaxis
possessing very large quantities of specific antibodies in the serum. hyperimmune
that occurring as a result of prior exposure to an infectious agent or its antigens (active i.), or of passive transfer of antibody or immune lymphoid cells (passive i.) acquired immunity
passive transfer of antibody or immune lymphoid cells passive immunity
a substance added to an antigen that enhances or modifies the antibody response to the antigen. adjuvant
Of or relating to a protein from a single clone of cells, all molecules of which are the same, protect against one pathogen monoclonal
pertaining to or designating a group of cells or organisms derived from several cells, protect against multiple antigen polyclonal
this type of vaccine will give effective long lasting immunity, can result in symptoms similar to the disease modified live vaccine
this type of vaccine needs repeated administration to maintain protection, often contain adjuvants to improve the immune response killed vaccine
Material produced by genetic engineering, highly effective, few side effects recombinant vaccine
a rare anemic condition with an uncertain link to vaccinations that usually occurs within 2-4 weeks of vaccinations being given immune mediated hemolytic anemia(IMHA)
study of cells cytology
study of tissues histology
study of diseased tissue histopathology
programmed cell death apoptosis
excess fluid in the cells cytoplasm hydrophic
accumulation of fat steatosis
accumulation of homogenous proteinaceous substances within a cell hyaline
accumulation of starch-likke protein in between cells amyloid
conversion of connective tissue to gelatinous substance mucoid
increase in cell number hyperplasia
increase in cell size hypertrophy
decrease in cell number hypoplasia
decrease in cell size atrophy
lack of development agenesis
replacement of cell type with another normal cell type metaplasia
replacement of cell type with abnormal cell type dysplasia
uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells neoplasia
deposited in injured, degenerating, or dead tissue dystrophic
deposition occurs at a distant location to injury metastatic
formation of stones lithiasis
physical changes at the site of injury, destruction of removal of responsible substance by the body, repair and healing of affected tissues inflammation
this fluid contains a low number of cells serous
this fluid contains mucous catharrhal
this fluid contains fibrin fibrinous
this fluid contains pus suppurative/purulent
this fluid is bloody hemorraghic
this type of inflammation is chronic, macrophages are the predominant cells, they often contain connective tissues granulomatous
this type of neoplasia originates from epithelial tissue carcinoma
this type of neoplasia originates from connective tissue sarcoma
this type of neoplasia originates from wbc's leukemia
Redness of the skin caused by dilatation and congestion of the capillaries, often a sign of inflammation or infection. erythema
Very sharp; very violent; sudden on set of disease peracute
relating to a disease present in a person with no symptoms of it, no sudden onset of disease subacute
Dilation of a blood vessel, as by the action of a nerve or drug. vasodilation
The act or an instance of oozing forth exudation
Of no danger to health; not recurrent or progressive benign
Tending to metastasize; cancerous malignant
the heart muscle myocardium
blood remaining in the chamber during diastole cardiac afterload
disease of the heart muscle cardiomyopathy
fluid accumulation in the abdomen ascites
enlarged liver hepatomegaly
fluid accumulation within the lungs pulmonary edema
fainting; a sudden/brief lack of cardia output resulting in lack of oxygen to the brain producing unconscioiusness syncope
enlarged heart cardiomegaly
cells lining the inside of blood vessels endothelium
without symptoms asymptomatic
loss of blood supply ischemia
low blood calcium level hypokalemia
the neurotransmitters epinepherine, norepinephrine, and dopamine catecholamines
slow heart rate bradycardia
high heart rate tachycardia
effectiveness/strength of cardiac muscle contraction contractility
difficulty breathing dyspnea
blood clot within a vessle thromboembolism
high blood pressure hypertension
low blood pressure hypotension
low blood potassium level hypokalemia
cardiac ultrasound echocardiogram
free blood within the eye, specifically the anterior chamber hyphema
removal of fluid or air from the thorasic cavity thoracocentesis
fracture that occurs because the bone is weakened by a neoplasia or disease pathologic fracture
fracture in which the bone protrudes through the skin open fracture
fracture involving 3 or more pieces comminuted fracture
fracture that is straight across the bone transverse fracture
fracture that is at an angle oblique fracture
metal rod that is surgically placed down the marrow cavity of a bone intramedullary pin (IM pin)
metal device used to hold metal pins going transversely across the bone external fixator
cup-shaped depression of the pelvis where the head of the femur fits acetabulum
to remove a piece of bone ostectomy
to cut into bone osteotomy
the awareness of where an animals own limbs are in space conscious proprioception
weakness in the limbs paresis
inability to move the limbs paralysis
a contrast study of the spinal canal in which contrast media is injected into the spinal canal myelogram
state in which seizures wont stop without medical intervention status epilepticus
system in the body that controls physical balance vestibular system
rapid oscillation of the eyes nystagmus
incoordination of the body/limbs ataxia
the study of animal reproduction theriogenology
an infected/abscessed uterus pyometra
the inner lining of the uterus endometrium
inflammation within the abdominal cavity peritonitis
difficult labor or birth dystocia
straining to defecate tenesmus
straining to urinate stranguria
painful urination dysuria
lack or weak uterine muscle contractions uterine inertia
how can infections be spread? direct/indirect contact, vectors, medical personnel
this means it can multiply within a host infectious
some infections can not be passed on to another host meaning it is not contagious
all ___ organisms are ___, but not all ___ organisms are ___ contagious; infective, infective; contagious
this is determined by the ability of the organism to replicate in the host and its ability to produce toxins virulence
these are classified by shape, staining, and oxygen demands bacteria
these are technically non-cellular, contain only DNA or RNA(never both), and require a host's cell to replicate Virus
cells of the immune system can be divided in those in the ___ ___ and ___ ___ peripheral blood; accessory cells
this immune system occurs immediately, treats every antigen the same, does not create memory cells innate
these neutralize antigens, produce epitopes, and produce cytokines phagocytes
this immune system takes days to weeks to occur, is a specific response to a specific antigen, and does not create memory cells acquired
lymphocytes can be divided into _ cells, _ cells, and _ cells B;T; natural killer
plasma cells that produce antibodies b-cells
plasma cells that produce memory cells b-cells & t-cells
antigen presenting cells are ___, ___, and ___ macrophages; dendritic cells; b-cells
t-cells can be divided into __ __ __, __ __ __, and __ __ __ helper T cells; cytotoxic T cells; memory T cells
these present epitopes to b-cells helper T cells
these induce cells to die through chemical stimulus cytotoxic T cells
these work by binding to antigens to block their function and by enhancing the immune response antibodies
the major antibody produced during the primary immune response IgM
the major antibody produced during the secondary immune response IgG
the major antibody involved in allergic reactions (including anaphylaxis) and parasitic reactions IgE
the major antibody found in body secretions including colostrum IgA
the antibody not found in all animals and has no known function at this time IgD
this immunity type is from maternal antibodies and does not produce memory cells natural passive
this immunity type is human induced such as antitoxins or antibody transfer and does not produce memory cells artificial passive
this immunity type is from recovery from natural infection and memory cells are produced natural active
this type of immunity is from vaccinations and memory cells are produced artificial active
this is used to treat rabies exposure and tetanus in people, but can cause an allergic reaction antibody transfer
maternal IgG will cross the placenta __% in primates 100
maternal IgG will cross the placenta __% in horses, pigs, and ruminants 0
maternal IgG will cross the placenta ___ in dogs and cats some
this is very important in animals in which IgG cannot pass the placenta colostrum
the three most common types of vaccines modified live; killed; recombinant
these have been implicated as the cause for some vaccine reactions adjuvants
can cause fever, lethargy, or more serious adverse effects such as anaphylaxis, fibrosarcoma in cats, or possibly IMHA vaccines
at least __ vaccines __-__ weeks apart are typically required to produce a strong secondary immune response 2; 2-3
puppies and kittens require ____ vaccinations because of the interference of maternal antibodies multiple
the D in the DAMNIT scheme stands for degenerative
the A in the DAMNIT scheme stands for autoimmune/anomalous
the M in the DAMNIT scheme stands for metabolic
the N in the DAMNIT scheme stands for neoplastic/nutritional
the I in the DAMNIT scheme stands for inflammatory/infectious/ischemic
the T in the DAMNIT scheme stands for toxins/trauma
what are the 4 cardinal signs of inflammation erythema, swelling, heat, pain
this is described by location, extent of the lesion, and duration inflammation
physical changes associated with inflammation are vasodilation, exudation, increased vascular permeability, emigration of WBC'S, phagocytosis
this type of inflammation is categorized by the exudates it produces acute
this type of inflammation is categorized by the predominant cell type involved chronic
can heal by either first or second intention wounds
healing takes longer and will often result in significant scar tissue formation second intention
often used to refer to a malignant neoplasia cancer
occur because of abnormal start to electrical impulses or abnormal conduction of those impulses through the heart cardiac arrhythmia
most commonly seen in large breed dogs cardiac arrhythmia
clinical signs are syncope, weakness, and or collapse cardiac arrhythmia
this is needed to determine the exact arrhythmia EKG
most common cardiac disease in dogs dilated cardiomyopathy
males are most common affect with this type of cardiac disease dilated cardiomyopathy
most common cardiac disease seen in cats: maine coons, rag dolls, american & british shorthairs, and rex breeds are predisposed hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
hypertrophy decreases the left ventricle chamber size but increases muscle wall thickness hyptertrophic cardiomyopathy
this is typically seen secondary to other conditions such as chronic renal disease, hyperthyroidism, or hypokalemia hypertension
may be asymptomatic, blindness can occur bc of retinal hemorrhages, retinal detachment or hyphema hypertension
pressures > __ are diagnostic for hypertension, between __-__ is considered borderline, but diagnoses may be made if concurrent symptoms still exist 180; 160-180
this disease is transmitted by the mosquito, highly preventable, often asymptomatic, but advanced disease will show signs of right sided heart disease and cough heartworm disease
adult heartworms live and multiply in the pulmonary arteries
diagnoses of heartworms involves demonstrating either a piece of a __ worm is present in the blood stream (dogs & cats) or presents of _____ to the worms (cats) female; antibodies
can be associated with allergies, but may be idiopathic, diagnosis typically is made based on history and clinical signs feline asthma
acute asthma attack may require oxygen therapy
never stress a dyspnic cat it can be fatal
these medications are typically needed for long term management of an asthmatic cat corticosteroids
this is caused by multiple different viruses and bacteria, high contagious in close confinement, presents as a goose-honking cough, treatment is aimed at relieving symptoms, the vaccine does not protect against all causes tracheobronchitis
this vaccine is only effective for 6 monts so it requires boostering more frequently bordetella
clinical signs of this are swelling, pain, loss of function (non weight bearing) fracture
classified by whether the skin is intact, how many pieces there are, and what angle the break occured fracture
___ is typically needed for radiograph of a fracture because 2 views are always needed sedation
___ ___ require extra home care to prevent infection external fixators
__ __ are rarely removed bone plates
this is a malformation of the hip joint that results in an unstable joint, genetics and growth rate are the 2 major factors affecting development, symptoms are not usually evident until arthritis develops, pelvic radiographs are needed to confirm hip dysplasia
dogs can be certified free of hip dysplasia either through __ or __ OFA; PennHip
___ can not be done until a dog is at least 2 years old OFA
__ can be done when a dog is 4 months old Penn Hip
___ treatment is aimed at improving stability of the joint surgical
___ treatment is aimed at decreasing pain from arthritis conservative
slower growth rate in large and giant breed dogs can decrease the risk for hip dysplasia
these ligaments prevent the tibia and femur from sliding past each other cruciate
diagnosis is made by eliciting a drawer sign, which often requires sedation cruciate ligament tear (ACL tear)
surgery is intended to stabilize the joint cruciate ligament tear
dogs will commonly rupture the opposite acl withing __ year/years 1
protrusion of inter-vertebral disc material into the spinal canal causing pain and neurologic dysfunction of the limbs intervertebral disc disease (IVDD)
dogs with elongated backs such a dachshunds and basset hounds are predisposed to this disease intervertebral disc disease (IVDD)
this can be treated either with surgery or conservative therapy depending on the severity of signs and lack or presence of motor function (moving the legs) intervertebral disc disease (IVDD)
the most important component of conservative therapy for IVDD is preventing further damage to the spinal cord
these type of seizures are most common in dogs grand-mal
diagnosis is made by ruling out other causes through blood work and potentially more advanced diagnostics idiopathic epilepsy
these medications are indicated when seizures last to long or occur to frequently phenobarbital; potassium bromide
blood levels of these medications must be monitored to ensure they are in the therapeutic range and to monitor for adverse effects especially in the liver, with long term use to control seizures phenobarbital; potassium bromide
this is a potentially life threatening condition that is initially treated with Valium and sometimes even anesthesia status epilepticus
this is an idiopathic condition resulting in loss of balance old dog vestibular syndrome
diagnosis of this is made by ruling out other causes (inner ear infection, etc) old dog vestibular syndrome
no treatment of old dog vestibular syndrome is necessary because symptoms resolve in _-_ weeks 1-3
increased frequency of urination polakiuria
blood in the urine hematuria
difficult/pain on urination dysuria
straining to urinate stranguria
obtaining urine sample via needle puncture into the bladder cystocentesis
increased volume of urine produced polyuria
increased drinking polydypsia
ureters that enter the urinary tract in the wrong location, usually in the urethra instead of the bladder ectopic ureters
no urine produced anuria
typically caused by ascending bacterial infection, often cause struvite crystals/stones in dogs, clinical signs vary from polakiruia to hematuria and dysuria, diagnosis is made via urinalysis with sediment urinary tract infection
bacteria may not be seen in sediment, may only see increased WBC, CBC may or may not have increased WBC, negative urine culture and sensitivity does not rule out urinary tract infection
multiple weeks of antibiotic therapy may be necessary, typically 2-3 weeks needed to treat this urinary tract infection
urine culture must be run on a sample obtained via cystocentesis
this type of renal disease can be caused by progression from acute renal disease, congenital renal disease, renal neoplasia, idiopathic chronic
this type of renal disease can be caused by toxins such as ethylene glycol or rasins, infectious, medications such as anticancer drugs or NSAIDS, or decreased renal blood flow acute
this disease may be acute or chronic, diagnosed based on chem panel and UA, most common clinical sign is PU/PD but can be asymptomatic, fluid therapy is the hallmark treatment renal disease
chronic renal disease therapy should include transition to a __ __ diet low protein
anlways monitor and maintain __ __ during anesthesia to ensure adequate blood flow to the kidneys blood pressure
causes may be neurological or non-neurological, hormone response is the most common cause in spayed females, may present for "having accidents in the house", leakage may only occur when the animal is sleeping urinary incontinence
may cause urine scalding(dermatitis), urinalysis may reveal concurrent UTI urinary incontinence
__ __ is needed to diagnosis ectopic ureters intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
the most common treatment for hormone responsive urinary incontinence phenylpropanolamine (PPA)
may be used to treat hormonal responsive incontinence but can cause bone marrow suppression estrogen
three components are dipstick, sediment, and specific gravity urinalysis
__ __ is not valid on a dipstick and must be read on a refractometer specific gravity
urinalysis should be run immediately after collection to prevent false positive for crystaluria
small amount of __ seen may be contamination if urine was collected via cystocentesis blood
if urine is collected free catch any amount of __ seen is real hematuria
this describes a set of symptoms but not a disease in itself: dysuria, stranguria, hematuria, inappropriate elimination FLUTD(feline lower urinary tract disease)
causes of FLUTD can be divided into__ and __ causes metabolic and behavioral
inflammation, stones or crystals, or UTI are all __ causes metabolic
cat doesn't like the litter, doesn't like where the litter box is located, or the litter box isn't clean enough are all __ causes behavioral
stress is a factor in causing this, etiology is unknown, hematuria is seen with it, diluting urine is mainstay of therapy, diagnosed by ruling out other causes or symptoms interstitial cystitis
glucosamine can be effective because bladder lining contains glycosaminoglycans, analgesics should be used during a flare up for this disease interstitial cystitis
may be composed of struvites or calcium oxalates, surgical removal may be necessary especially in male cats crystaluria/uroliths
these have historically been associated with lower urine pH, but that may not be much of a factor as previously thought calcium oxalates
these form in urine with an elevated pH struvites
persians, himilayans, and burmese are predisposed to forming calcium oxalates
these can be dissolved using diet and/or medication to acidify the urine struvites
these can not be dissolved using diet and/or medication to acidify the urine calcium oxalate
this is an emergency seen in male cats, it can cause urine to back up into the kidneys causing acute renal failure and electrolyte imbalances urethral obstruction
stones, crystals, or urethral plugs (blood + amorphous debris) can cause the blockage, bladder wall may rupture urethral obstruction
cat may present for vomiting and lethargy instead of urinary issues, especially in a multicat household urethral obstruction
___ ___ is done to establish renal function and electrolyte levels of blocked kitties blood work
blockage must be relieved by passage of a urinary catheter
this may be given to correct severe hyperkalemia insulin
___ must be done if stones are present to remove them in dogs and cats surgery
litter boxes should be cleaned at least daily
house hold should have __ more litter box than their number of cats 1
this can be fatal if not treated, E. coli is the most common etiologic agent, will have a history of having a heat cycle 2 months prior to presentation, can be opened or closed pyometra
animals with __ pyometra are generally more sick closed
medical management may be tried with a ___ pyometra but is generally not recommended open
the treatment of choice for a pyometra is ___ but can still be a fatal condition ovariohysterectomy
this can be caused by uterine inertia, too large of a fetus, abnormal positioning, or fetal death dystocia
first puppy/kitten should be born within __ hour(s) of starting active labor 4
there is commonly up to __ hour(s) between birth and if longer it is considered a dystocia 1
this medication can be given to stimulate uterine contractions unless obstructed/abnormal positioning oxytocin
this may be necessary especially in cases of abnormal positioning or fetal size disparity cesarean section
this is commonly seen in intact older males, may present for constipation because of tenesmus, or UTI bc of stranguria benign prostatic hyperplasia
an enlarged prostate is palpable on __ exam rectal
the treatment of choice for benign prostatic hyperplasia is neuter
____ can be tried to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, but it can cause bone marrow suppression diethylstilbesterol
Created by: chop