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Food Animal Exam 4
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What are the 4 P’s that endanger the health of sheep and goats | Predators, parasites, pedals, prehension |
| What are the primary gastrointestinal parasites of concern in pastured small ruminants? | Haemonchus, Ostertagia, trichostrongylus, Cooperia, Nematodes also Eimeria |
| What vaccines are considered most essential for sheep and goats whether they be pet or production animals | Clostridium perfringens type C and D and tentanus!! Camphylobacter fetus subsp fetus (Vibriosis) |
| What are the most common etiologic agents for Peracute and acute mastitis in sheep and goats | a. Staphylococcus aureus – blue bag b. Manheimia haemolytica |
| What organisms have been associated with “hard udder” in sheep and goats? | a. Sheep – Ovine Progressive Pneumonia virus (OPP) b. Goats-Caprine arthritis and encephalitis virus (CAE) |
| What limitations exist in the use of California mastitis test and somatic cell count as evaluation tools for diagnosing mastitis in goats? | a. Small ruminants have an apocrine secretion that reacts with the CMMT. Normal healthy goats usually have a +1. So have to do test while they are healthy for monitoring. |
| What are the 2 causative organisms of contagious foot rot in sheep | Fusobacterium and Dichelobacter (bacteriodes) |
| Clostridium perfringens type C is more common in goats than sheep and may occur in any age animal T/F? age of animal? | a. False- goats, sheep, pigs, foals b. Neonatal (<3wks) hemorrhagic enterotoxemia |
| Name and describe different clinical presentations of CAE virus in goats | a. Hard Bag mastitis b. Arthritis c. Neurologic- ascending paralysis – lateralizing – (can look like listeria) d. Chronic interstitial pneumonia (dry cough- not responsive to Abx) e. Subclinical- uncommon |
| Name and describe the different clinical presentations of OPP virus in sheep | a. Chronic progressive debilitating pneumonia b. Wasting c. Indurative (hard) mastitis |
| 11. Describe briefly which ewes are most likely predisposed to developing pregnancy toxemia? When would you expect to see clinical signs of this disorder manifested? | a. Multiple fetuses, obese or thin animals, stressed out animals b. Manifests during last 2-4 weeks of gestation |
| What clinicopathologic abnormalities are commonly noted in affected sheep with pregnancy toxemia | c. Abnormalities = i. anorexia, depression, ii. neurologic signs: tremors, start gazing, in coordination, bruxism, blindness, recumbency, convulsions, coma, death iii. hypoglycemia, ketonemia, ketonuria. Hypocalcemia, High BUN, |
| 12. What is the causative organism of Caseous Lymphadenitis? Briefly describe what you would recommend as a treatment and control program for goat. Sheep herd/flocks affected with this problem? | a. Causative organisms: cornybacterium pseudotuberculosis → abscess LNs b. Treatment and control: i. Tx: If superficial - isolate, drain abscess, ii. If systemic – cull iii. Control: isolate and treat, vaccinate, or cull. |
| What is the primary clinical sign of Johne’s dz manifested by clinically affected sheep and goats? | a. Choric weight loss!! (not diarrhea until very late!) |
| 14. When is the most common time in the pregnancy –lactation cycle to see hypocalcemia in sheep and/or goats? | i. Last 4 weeks of gestation, or post partum or peak lactation ii. Common to relapse tx 4-5d |
| Mr Smith wants the “fight teeth” trimmed in his llama stud. What specific teeth are you going to be trimming | 6 Permanent upper incisors, upper and lower canines |
| Describe the clinical presentation of llama affected with “heat stress” | a. Hypophagia, weakness, ataxia, neuro signs, cardiovascular shock, scrotal edema |
| 17. What is the most common, non-traumatic causes of neurologic disease in llamas/alpacas in Wi? What drugs are commonly used to treat this condition? | a. Paralephastrongylus tenius – meningeal worm found in white tail deer worm b. Fenbendazole, ivermectin and banamine, dmso and vit e |
| 18. Although usually a secondary pathogen, what red cell parasite may cause severe anemia in llamas/ alpacas? What drug is commonly used to clear this parasite from the blood? | a. Mycoplasma haemolamae b. Tx with oxytetracycline |
| 19. What is the most common congenital defect causing respiratory distress in newborn llamas? | a. Choanal atresia |
| 20. List 4 anatomical differences between llamas and goats | walk on a digital cushion, separated philtrum , fighting teeth, metatarsal glands, have no gallbladder, Fimbriated edge to liver , Jugular vein is well protected by muscle and vertebrae, 4 teats , 8 glands |
| 21. What 3 vaccinations are considered essential in the management of a llama/ alpaca herd | a. Costridium perfingens type C b. C. perfringens type D c. C. tetani |
| 22. What vaccinations should be added to the management program in #21 when llamas/ alpacas are housed with horse and zebra? | a. Equine Herpes Virus and Influenza |
| 23. What disease should you test for in an alpaca herd experiencing low birth weight crias or unexplained stillbirths, abortions, or acute deaths? | BVDV |
| 24. Why is I difficult to confirm the diagnosis of E mac infestation as a cause of weight loss in adult camelids? | a. Don’t show up on a normal fecal (must centrifuge) b. Intestinal biopsy or necropsy for ddx → Histo!! c. Really long PPP – 1mo. Many animals die in the PPP d. If reinfested- PPP is longer and don’t shed as many oocytes |
| 25. Describe clinical findings and laboratory abnormalities supportive of E mac in a camelid presented for ill-thrift and failure to thrive | a. Clinical – ill thrift, weight loss, weakness, anorexia, leth, weakness, enteritis, PLE, +/- diarrhea, dyspnea, drooling b. Lab: hypoproteinemia, panhypoproteinemia, anemia i. Fecal test- direct smear. |
| 1. what is grass tetany | hypomagnesemia |
| what are the risk factors for cows to develop grass tetany? and how is it treated? | b. Risk factors = lush green spring pasture – Mg has not reached the top of the grass c. Tx = Calcium gluconate with Mg hypophosphate Iv, or MgSO4 orally or rectally |
| What are you differential dx for downer cows syndrome? How do you differentiate? | d. Ddx = dystocia, Ca, Mg Phos, Toxic mastitis, trauma, downer cow syndrome e. ??How to differentiate= history, chem panel, stage of lactation, is she prego? How far along? Milk test |
| 2. What is the initial compound in acute bovine emphysema "fog fever" ? What is the toxic metabolite? | L-tryptophan → 3-methyl indole |
| What are the ddx for interstitial pneumonia in cattle? | b. Ddx = salmonella Dublin, 4 ipomenol (moldy sweet potatoes) toxic gases, analphyaxis, Acute respiratory distress sydrome of feedlot cattle |
| 3. What is the toxic compound associated in feedlot cattle fed moldy sweet potatoes that develop acute interstial pneumonia? | a. 4- Ipomenol |
| 4. What is the causative agent of IBK? What are the major differentials? How is it treated? | a. Moroxella bovis b. Ddx: trauma, IBR, BVDV, Malignant Catarrahl fever c. Tx: sunconj inj of penicillin, or oxytetracycline |
| 5. What is the risk factor of cattle on fescue pasture? How is it different in warm vs cold | a. Grazing cattle on a poorly managed pasture – fescue infected with endophyte → alkaloid toxicity b. Warm – heat intolerance, ill thrift c. Cold – dry gangrene of distal extremities |
| 6. What is the causative agent of calf diptheria? How are the CS assoc with the disease? | a. Fusobacterium necrophorum b. ?? Bacteria accesses – causes dyspnea and stridor - stridor causes hypoxia i. primary infection with histophilus→ vascultitis → secondary fusobacterium infection |
| 7. What are the major viral and bacterial pathogens associated with BRDC? | a. Viral: IBR, BRSV, BVDV, PI3 b. Bacterial: Manheimia hemolytica , pasturella multocida, histophilus somnii, mycoplasma |
| 8. Which one of those pathogens is associated with neurologic disease | a. Histophilus somnii |
| 10. Describe the pathophysiology of caval syndrome? | a. Too much grain → ruminal acidosis → rumenitis → ruminal –repopulation by pathogenic G – anaerobes →ulceration of the rumen → abcessation in liver, lungs and vasculature → bacterial plaque build up on portal vasculture → rupture of vena cava → |
| What is the most commonly associated bacteria found in associated abcesses? | Fusobacterium necrophorum |
| 11. What are the common nematodes of cattle? What is type 1 vs type 2 Ostertagia infection? | a. Lung nematodes – dictocalus viviparous b. Intestinal nematodes – ostertagia ostertagii , haemonchus, trichosrtongylus i. Type 1 – poor doer ii. Type 2 – all hypobiotic larvae emerge at once and destroys abomasal tissue. |
| 12. What is the host specific trematode of cattle? What is the intermediate host? | fasciola hepatica snails |
| 14. What are your ddx for hematuria in cattle | a. Bracken fern toxicosis, red water disease caused by clostridia haemolyticum, Ecoli, uroliths, neoplasia |
| 15. What is the current leading theory of the cause of polio? What are the other causes? What is the treatment? How does the treatment work? | sulfur toxicity vit B deficiency (thiamine) thiaminases (coccidiostats) Tx: thiamine - metabolic cofactor - requ for NADPH reduction |
| 16. What types of lesions are associated with hypovitaminosis a? what is pathognomonic? | a. Neurologic signs. Lack of PLR pathognomonic |
| 17. Name different types and causes of bloat in cattle. How do you treat different types of bloat? | Frothy bloat - leguminous pasture - therabloat Free gas bloat - too many carbs - tube |
| 18. Name the causative agent of footrot and drug choice to treat it. What are the risk factors for cattle to develop footrot? | a. Fusobacterium – topical oxytetracycline b. Risks = wet, abrasive, contaminated, dirty surfaces. |
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dmpc
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