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Food Animal Exam 4

QuestionAnswer
What are the 4 P’s that endanger the health of sheep and goats Predators, parasites, pedals, prehension
What are the primary gastrointestinal parasites of concern in pastured small ruminants? Haemonchus, Ostertagia, trichostrongylus, Cooperia, Nematodes also Eimeria
What vaccines are considered most essential for sheep and goats whether they be pet or production animals Clostridium perfringens type C and D and tentanus!! Camphylobacter fetus subsp fetus (Vibriosis)
What are the most common etiologic agents for Peracute and acute mastitis in sheep and goats a. Staphylococcus aureus – blue bag b. Manheimia haemolytica
What organisms have been associated with “hard udder” in sheep and goats? a. Sheep – Ovine Progressive Pneumonia virus (OPP) b. Goats-Caprine arthritis and encephalitis virus (CAE)
What limitations exist in the use of California mastitis test and somatic cell count as evaluation tools for diagnosing mastitis in goats? a. Small ruminants have an apocrine secretion that reacts with the CMMT. Normal healthy goats usually have a +1. So have to do test while they are healthy for monitoring.
What are the 2 causative organisms of contagious foot rot in sheep Fusobacterium and Dichelobacter (bacteriodes)
Clostridium perfringens type C is more common in goats than sheep and may occur in any age animal T/F? age of animal? a. False- goats, sheep, pigs, foals b. Neonatal (<3wks) hemorrhagic enterotoxemia
Name and describe different clinical presentations of CAE virus in goats a. Hard Bag mastitis b. Arthritis c. Neurologic- ascending paralysis – lateralizing – (can look like listeria) d. Chronic interstitial pneumonia (dry cough- not responsive to Abx) e. Subclinical- uncommon
Name and describe the different clinical presentations of OPP virus in sheep a. Chronic progressive debilitating pneumonia b. Wasting c. Indurative (hard) mastitis
11. Describe briefly which ewes are most likely predisposed to developing pregnancy toxemia? When would you expect to see clinical signs of this disorder manifested? a. Multiple fetuses, obese or thin animals, stressed out animals b. Manifests during last 2-4 weeks of gestation
What clinicopathologic abnormalities are commonly noted in affected sheep with pregnancy toxemia c. Abnormalities = i. anorexia, depression, ii. neurologic signs: tremors, start gazing, in coordination, bruxism, blindness, recumbency, convulsions, coma, death iii. hypoglycemia, ketonemia, ketonuria. Hypocalcemia, High BUN,
12. What is the causative organism of Caseous Lymphadenitis? Briefly describe what you would recommend as a treatment and control program for goat. Sheep herd/flocks affected with this problem? a. Causative organisms: cornybacterium pseudotuberculosis → abscess LNs b. Treatment and control: i. Tx: If superficial - isolate, drain abscess, ii. If systemic – cull iii. Control: isolate and treat, vaccinate, or cull.
What is the primary clinical sign of Johne’s dz manifested by clinically affected sheep and goats? a. Choric weight loss!! (not diarrhea until very late!)
14. When is the most common time in the pregnancy –lactation cycle to see hypocalcemia in sheep and/or goats? i. Last 4 weeks of gestation, or post partum or peak lactation ii. Common to relapse tx 4-5d
Mr Smith wants the “fight teeth” trimmed in his llama stud. What specific teeth are you going to be trimming 6 Permanent upper incisors, upper and lower canines
Describe the clinical presentation of llama affected with “heat stress” a. Hypophagia, weakness, ataxia, neuro signs, cardiovascular shock, scrotal edema
17. What is the most common, non-traumatic causes of neurologic disease in llamas/alpacas in Wi? What drugs are commonly used to treat this condition? a. Paralephastrongylus tenius – meningeal worm found in white tail deer worm b. Fenbendazole, ivermectin and banamine, dmso and vit e
18. Although usually a secondary pathogen, what red cell parasite may cause severe anemia in llamas/ alpacas? What drug is commonly used to clear this parasite from the blood? a. Mycoplasma haemolamae b. Tx with oxytetracycline
19. What is the most common congenital defect causing respiratory distress in newborn llamas? a. Choanal atresia
20. List 4 anatomical differences between llamas and goats walk on a digital cushion, separated philtrum , fighting teeth, metatarsal glands, have no gallbladder, Fimbriated edge to liver , Jugular vein is well protected by muscle and vertebrae, 4 teats , 8 glands
21. What 3 vaccinations are considered essential in the management of a llama/ alpaca herd a. Costridium perfingens type C b. C. perfringens type D c. C. tetani
22. What vaccinations should be added to the management program in #21 when llamas/ alpacas are housed with horse and zebra? a. Equine Herpes Virus and Influenza
23. What disease should you test for in an alpaca herd experiencing low birth weight crias or unexplained stillbirths, abortions, or acute deaths? BVDV
24. Why is I difficult to confirm the diagnosis of E mac infestation as a cause of weight loss in adult camelids? a. Don’t show up on a normal fecal (must centrifuge) b. Intestinal biopsy or necropsy for ddx → Histo!! c. Really long PPP – 1mo. Many animals die in the PPP d. If reinfested- PPP is longer and don’t shed as many oocytes
25. Describe clinical findings and laboratory abnormalities supportive of E mac in a camelid presented for ill-thrift and failure to thrive a. Clinical – ill thrift, weight loss, weakness, anorexia, leth, weakness, enteritis, PLE, +/- diarrhea, dyspnea, drooling b. Lab: hypoproteinemia, panhypoproteinemia, anemia i. Fecal test- direct smear.
1. what is grass tetany hypomagnesemia
what are the risk factors for cows to develop grass tetany? and how is it treated? b. Risk factors = lush green spring pasture – Mg has not reached the top of the grass c. Tx = Calcium gluconate with Mg hypophosphate Iv, or MgSO4 orally or rectally
What are you differential dx for downer cows syndrome? How do you differentiate? d. Ddx = dystocia, Ca, Mg Phos, Toxic mastitis, trauma, downer cow syndrome e. ??How to differentiate= history, chem panel, stage of lactation, is she prego? How far along? Milk test
2. What is the initial compound in acute bovine emphysema "fog fever" ? What is the toxic metabolite? L-tryptophan → 3-methyl indole
What are the ddx for interstitial pneumonia in cattle? b. Ddx = salmonella Dublin, 4 ipomenol (moldy sweet potatoes) toxic gases, analphyaxis, Acute respiratory distress sydrome of feedlot cattle
3. What is the toxic compound associated in feedlot cattle fed moldy sweet potatoes that develop acute interstial pneumonia? a. 4- Ipomenol
4. What is the causative agent of IBK? What are the major differentials? How is it treated? a. Moroxella bovis b. Ddx: trauma, IBR, BVDV, Malignant Catarrahl fever c. Tx: sunconj inj of penicillin, or oxytetracycline
5. What is the risk factor of cattle on fescue pasture? How is it different in warm vs cold a. Grazing cattle on a poorly managed pasture – fescue infected with endophyte → alkaloid toxicity b. Warm – heat intolerance, ill thrift c. Cold – dry gangrene of distal extremities
6. What is the causative agent of calf diptheria? How are the CS assoc with the disease? a. Fusobacterium necrophorum b. ?? Bacteria accesses – causes dyspnea and stridor - stridor causes hypoxia i. primary infection with histophilus→ vascultitis → secondary fusobacterium infection
7. What are the major viral and bacterial pathogens associated with BRDC? a. Viral: IBR, BRSV, BVDV, PI3 b. Bacterial: Manheimia hemolytica , pasturella multocida, histophilus somnii, mycoplasma
8. Which one of those pathogens is associated with neurologic disease a. Histophilus somnii
10. Describe the pathophysiology of caval syndrome? a. Too much grain → ruminal acidosis → rumenitis → ruminal –repopulation by pathogenic G – anaerobes →ulceration of the rumen → abcessation in liver, lungs and vasculature → bacterial plaque build up on portal vasculture → rupture of vena cava →
What is the most commonly associated bacteria found in associated abcesses? Fusobacterium necrophorum
11. What are the common nematodes of cattle? What is type 1 vs type 2 Ostertagia infection? a. Lung nematodes – dictocalus viviparous b. Intestinal nematodes – ostertagia ostertagii , haemonchus, trichosrtongylus i. Type 1 – poor doer ii. Type 2 – all hypobiotic larvae emerge at once and destroys abomasal tissue.
12. What is the host specific trematode of cattle? What is the intermediate host? fasciola hepatica snails
14. What are your ddx for hematuria in cattle a. Bracken fern toxicosis, red water disease caused by clostridia haemolyticum, Ecoli, uroliths, neoplasia
15. What is the current leading theory of the cause of polio? What are the other causes? What is the treatment? How does the treatment work? sulfur toxicity vit B deficiency (thiamine) thiaminases (coccidiostats) Tx: thiamine - metabolic cofactor - requ for NADPH reduction
16. What types of lesions are associated with hypovitaminosis a? what is pathognomonic? a. Neurologic signs. Lack of PLR pathognomonic
17. Name different types and causes of bloat in cattle. How do you treat different types of bloat? Frothy bloat - leguminous pasture - therabloat Free gas bloat - too many carbs - tube
18. Name the causative agent of footrot and drug choice to treat it. What are the risk factors for cattle to develop footrot? a. Fusobacterium – topical oxytetracycline b. Risks = wet, abrasive, contaminated, dirty surfaces.
Created by: dmpc