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Clin Med III
Diseases
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Before performing a necropsy you should | review the signalment and clinical history |
| What is the most common fixative used to perserve tissue? | 10% buffered formalin |
| The top portion of the skull which is removed during a necropsy is called | Calvarium |
| Tissue sections for histopathology should be ____ thick | Not greater than 1 cm |
| What is the procedure when examining the heart? | Examine the right auricle and right ventricle first |
| Ruminants are necropsied in which position? | Left lateral recumbency |
| What is the correct proportion of tissue to formalin fixative? | 1:10 |
| What fixative is used for preserving brain, spinal cord and bone tissue? | 50% formalin |
| Why do we perform a necropsy? | Determine the cause of death, determine the accuracy of the clinical diagnosis, and to evaluate the results of therapeutic or surgical treatments |
| If a necropsy cannot be performed immediately the cadaver should be | Refrigerated as soon as possible |
| Necropsies are routinely done by what facilities? | Zoos, aquariums, laboratories |
| Necropsies should be done in a | Well ventilated area |
| What lab equipment should be assembled before beginning a necropsy? | Tissue cassettes, clean slides, culturettes for bacterial culture, labeled jars and bags |
| Which instruments are used for a necropsy? Pruning or lopping shears Microwave oven Sharp Knife and steel Serrated paper | Pruning or lopping shears and Sharp knife and steel |
| Tissues for virus isolation are collected aseptically and immersed in | 50% buffered glycerol |
| If rabies is suspected in a dog or cat the appropriate specimen to submit is | The entire head |
| Clinical history of the deceased animal should include: Results of the last physical examination Laboratory blood test results Time of death or euthanasia | All |
| The person performing a necropsy is called | The prosector |
| Formalin is a ____ and proper precautions must be taken | Known carcinogen |
| On a necropsy do you record normal or abnormal findings? | Both |
| What are some useful ways to document necropsy results? | Photography/video, dictation to another person as you perform the necropsy, and audio recorder |
| What does signalment include? | Age, breed, gender |
| Two documents required before beginning a necropsy are the owner's | Signed permission and wishes for disposal of the remains |
| If you aren't sure how to prepare necropsy samples for submission you should | Call the diagnostic lab for directions |
| Tissues for toxicology should | Include blood and stomach contents |
| Can trained technicians perform a necropsy? | Yes, under the direct supervision of a veterinarian |
| In order to perform a thorough necropsy it is necessary to: Work in a careful, methodical manner Examine each organ in situ before it is removed for closer inspection Work as quickly as you can to get it over with | Work in a careful, methodical manner Examine each organ in situ before it is removed closer inspection |
| What tissues are necessary to submit when performing a necropsy? | All tissues |
| What tool do you use to open the skull to examine the brain? | Stryker saw |
| Synonyms commonly used for the word necropsy include: Post mortem Autopsy Ante Mortem Autopilot | Post Mortem Autopsy |
| Death of tissue/cells | Necrosis |
| Changes visible to the eye | Gross Pathology |
| Passed genetically | Inherited |
| Substance which stimulates a reaction | Mediator |
| Microscopic study of tissues | Histopathology |
| Inflammation of vessels | Vasculitis |
| Alterations/disease due to cold | Cryopathic |
| Expected outcome | Prognosis |
| Organized collection of macrophages | Granuloma |
| Origin of disease | Pathogenic |
| Clinical signs of inflammation include | Erythema, swelling, heat |
| A pathogen is | a disease causing organism or substance |
| Passive immunity is | Resistance to disease acquired without exposure |
| Reticulocytes are an indication of | Regenerative anemia |
| Iron deficiency anemia may be seen with Acute hemorrhage Chronic Hemorrhage Poor Diet | Poor Diet and Chronic Hemorrhage |
| Acute anemias are associated with: Trauma with hemorrhage Ruptured vascular tumors Dirofilariasis | Trauma with hemorrhage and Ruptured vascular tumors |
| When does extra vascular hemolysis occur? | When an external stimulus triggers the immune system to attack RBCs |
| When does neonatal isoerythrolysis occur? | When the foal ingests antiRBC antibodies through the colostrum |
| What four parasites can cause anemia? | Hookworms, whipworms, fleas, and ticks |
| What blood parasite causes anemia, vasculitis, and thrombocytopenia | Cytoauxzoon felis |
| Babesia canis and Ehrlichia canis are both... Protozoal diseases Carried by Rhipicephalus sanguineus Extracellular parasites Treated with tetracycline | Carried by rhipicephalus sanguineaus and treated with tetracyclince |
| What is serologic, ELISA, testing useful for diagnosing? Babesia Ehrlichia Onion toxicosis | Babesia and Ehrlichia |
| Heinz bodies are: Intracellular parasitic organisms Denatured hemoglobin Characteristics of onion toxicosis | Denatured hemoglobin and Characteristic of onion toxicosis |
| Methemoglobinemia is characteristic of what kind of toxicity? | Acetaminophen |
| Methemoglobinemia causes ____ color blood and "____" mucus membranes | Chocolate brown blood and muddy mucus membranes |
| What do we treat methemoglobinemia in animals with? | Acetylcysteine IV |
| Immune mediated hemolytic animea (IMHA) is an autoimmune disease which means | The immune system produces antibodies against its own RBC |
| What does IMHA cause? | Intravascular hemolysis, extravascular hemolysis, agglutination of RBC |
| A quick easy in-clinic test for a presumptive diagnosis of IMHA is | Rapid slide agglutination test |
| What is the prognosis for IMHA? | Guarded |
| What is Ehrlichia canis? | obligate intracellular rickettsia |
| Where are E. canis organisms found? | Circulating mononuclear WBCs and tissue mononuclear WBCs |
| What are symptoms of an E. canis infection? | Thrombocytopenia, vasculitis, and peripheral edema |
| What is the treatment for E. canis? | Tetra/doxycycline |
| What is the prognosis for E. canis? | Good |
| What are little hemorrhages seen in the skin and mucus membranes? | Petechia |
| What is petecchia seen with? | Immune mediated thrombocytopenia |
| What breed is von Willebrand's Disease commonly seen in? | Dobermans |
| von Willebrands Disease heritability is: Sex linked dominant Sex linked recessive Autosomal dominant Autosomal recessive Its not genetic | Autosomal dominant |
| What is von Willebrands disease similar to in humans? | Hemophilia |
| If a dog has a low von Willebrands factor it: May still not show clinical signs May bleed for extended periods from a venipuncture May need plasma with clotting factors preoperatively | All of the above |
| What virus is Feline Immunovirus(FIV) caused by? | Lentivirus |
| FIV is in the same class of organisms as what human virus? | HIV |
| What does FIV in cats exhibit clinically as? | Recurrent infections |
| What is an early sign of FIV? | Severe stomatitis and gingivitis |
| What is the treatment for FIV? | There is none |
| What disease are most lymphomas in cats associated with? | FeLV |
| Which are symptoms of lymphoma in cats? Dsypnea, tachypnea Weight loss, anorexia Vary with the system affected | All of them |
| What is the treatment for feline lymphoma? | Antineoplastics |
| What is the prognosis for feline lymphoma? | Poor |
| What is a common, early presenting sign of canine lymphoma? | Enlarged submandibular lymph nodes |
| How may you diagnosis both canine and feline lymphoma? Serology CBC Fine needle aspirate, biopsy, thoracocentesis ELISA testing Clotting profile | Fine needle aspirate, biopsy, and thoracocentesis |
| What is the preferred treatment of canine lymphoma? | Antineoplastics |
| What is the prognosis for canine lymphoma? | Varies and depends on the cell line type and stage of disease |
| Feline viral rhinotracheitis (FVR) is caused by what virus? | Herpes virus and it is a severe disease |
| What are some clinical signs of FVR? | Corneal ulcerations and purulent nasal discharge |
| How is FVR killed? | Disinfectants |
| How is FVR transmitted? | Via aerosol or fomites |
| How do you treat FVR? | Supportive care and antivirals |
| What is calicivirus characterized by? | Oral ulcerations |
| Calicivirus infection is a disease with High mortality and sudden onset High morbidity but low mortality High morbidity and high mortality High mortality and slow onset | High morbidity but low mortality |
| In Illinois, rabies vaccines are licensed for ___ or ___ years | 1 or 3 |
| Panleukopenia in cats is related to what disease in dogs? | Parvovirus |
| Cats which are most likely ot contract panleukopenia and most viral disease are: Less than one year Greater than 8 years old Unvaccinated | Unvaccinated and Less than one year old |
| Panleukopenia is characterized by: High fever Diarrhea Elevated WBC | High fever and Diearrhea |
| Exposing a pregnant queen to panleukopenia virus while she's pregnant may result in white of the kittens? | Hydrocephalus |
| What does treatment of panleukopenia include? | IV fluids & antibiotics |
| What class of viruses is Feline Leukemia in? | Retrovirus |
| How is feline leukemia spread? | Saliva, nasal secretions, urine & feces, milk and blood |
| Which are clinical symptoms of feline leukemia disease in cats? Vomiting/Diarrhea Neurologic Uveitis | All of them |
| What is the mortality rate for cats who remain positive for feline leukemia? | 80% mortality in 2-3 years |
| How is feline infectious peritonitis(FIP) spread? | Feces, urine, and saliva |
| What virus causes FIP? | Coronavirus |
| Positive virus titers in a sick cat provide a definitive diagnosis of FIP True/False | False |
| Clinical signs of dry FIP include: Non-responsive fever Weight loss Subnormal WBC | Non-responsive fever and weight loss |
| What are clinical signs of wet, or effusive, FIP? | Accumulations of bright yellow abdominal or thoracic fluid |
| What is the prognosis for cats showing clinical FIP? | Grave |
| What is Toxoplasma gondii? | Protozoa |
| What is the most likely way a person would contract toxoplasmosis? | Undercooked meat |
| Clinical signs of toxoplasmosis in the cat? Respiratory Lameness Uveitis | All |
| Rabies is ____ in wildlife in the United States | Endemic |
| What are the most common carriers of rabies in Illinois? | Bats |
| Rabies are also found in what animals? Skunks Coyotes Foxes | All |
| What kind of virus is rabies? | Rhabovirus |
| What kind of disease is rabies? | Neurological |
| Rabies' symptoms are associated with the disturbance the...? | Central Nervous System |
| How is rabies primarily spread? | Saliva |
| What is the length of time from exposure to onset of clinical signs of rabies is dependent on? | How far from the brain the bite occurred |
| What is the length of time from the appearance of clinical signs of rabies to death of the animal? | Ten days or less |
| What days following the bite do we observe the animal for rabies who is currently vaccinated? | First and tenth days |
| In Illinois, what is done during rabies observation of a dog or cat with no history of rabies vaccine (ever)? | Impoundment |
| Which are classic symptoms of rabies in the dog and cat? Changes in personality Paralysis of the throat Ascending paralysis of the body | All of them |
| What is the pathognomic histologic (microscopic) finding of rabies? | Negri bodies |
| What is the reservoir of canne distemper in the environment? | Raccoon and wild canines |
| Canine distemper is what kind of virus? | Paramxyovirus |
| Which of the following is true of canine distemper virus? Hardy in the environment A parvovirus Spread in the feces Easily killed by disinfectants like bleach An intracellular rickettsial parasite | Easily killed by disinfectants like bleach |
| What are clinical signs of canine distemper? Mucopurulent oculonasal discharge, high fever Normal temperature, serous nasal discharge Hyperkeratosis and enamel hypoplasia | Mucopurulent oculonasal discharge, high fever and Hyperkeratosis and enamel hypoplasia |
| What may puppies who survive distemper permanently exhibit? | Chorea and seizures |
| How do we treat canine distemper? | Anticonvulsives and antidiarrheals |
| What is the prognosis for canine distemper? | Poor to grave |
| What breeds show increased susceptibility to the canine parvovirus? | Rottweilers and Dobermans |
| Which of the following characterize canine parvovirus? Fever Fetid diarrhea Severe neutropenia | All |
| Which of the following is true of canine parvovirus? Its a paramyxovirus Its very hardy in the environment Its spread through urine and nasal secretions Its carried by skunks | Its very hardy in the environment |
| Which of the following is used to diagnosis canine parvovirus? Fecal examination to rule out parasites CBC Fecal ELISA Serology | All of them |
| What does the treatment of parvovirus consist of? | IV fluids and antibiotics |
| Which of the following will help decrease the chance of parvovirus in puppies? All puppies should receive vaccine series Decrease their exposure to other dogs until at least two vaccines are given Avoid contact with feces from other dogs | All of them |
| What is brucellosis caused by? | Bacteria |
| What species is brucellosis found in? | Dog Swine Cattle |
| What are clinical signs of brucellosis in the male? Lethargy Orchitis Epididymitis | All of them |
| Which are clinical signs of brucellosis in the female? Late term abortion Infertility Vaginitis | All of them |
| Elimination of brucellosis in the domestic species requires...? | Testing and euthanasia of positive individuals |
| How is brucellosis spread? Venereal (breeding) Vaginal discharge Contact with aborted tissues | All of them |
| Who should be concerned about zoonotic transmission of brucellosis? Veterinarians Lab Workers Kennel/Herd owners | All of them |
| What is the tick vector for monocytic Erhlichiosis? | Rhipicephalus sanguineus |
| What organsim causes monocytic Erhlichiosis? | E. canis |
| What are clinical signs of acute monocytic Ehrlichiosis? Vasculitis Peripheral edema Uveitis | Vasculitis and Peripheral edema |
| What are the classic symptoms of chronic monocytic Erhlichiosis? | Thrombocytopenia and epistaxis |
| What does the treatment for all Erhlichia disease include? | Doxycycline |
| Where is the Canine Granulocytic Erhlichiosis organism found? | Neutrophils (PMNs) |
| What is the vector for Erhlichia ewingii? | Amblyomma americanum |
| What characterizes E. ewingii infection? | Acute polyarthritis, increased ALT |
| What is the vector for Erhlichia equii? | Ixode dammini |
| What characterizes E. equii infection? | Severe lethargy, hypoalbuminemia |
| Why is the diagnosis of all Erhlichia species the E. canis test? | The cross reactivity of the SNAP test and serological testing |
| What is the tick vector for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever? | Dermacentor variabilis |
| How many hours must the tick be attached to transmit RMSF? | 5-20 hours |
| What is the organism that causes RMSF? | Rickettsia rickettsii |
| RMSF is called "spotted", what does it cause in humans and dogs to earn this nickname? | Petechia and ecchymoses |
| Which are the clinical signs of RMSF? Bulls eye rash and petechia Epistaxis and seizures Arrhythmias and acute renal failure Thrombocytopenia and buboes | Arrhythmias and acute renal failure |
| What is the vector for Lymes disease? | Ixodes dammini |
| How many hours must the tick be attached to transmit Lymes disease? | 48 hours |
| What kind of organism is Borellia borgderferii? | Spirochete |
| Which are the clinical signs of Lyme disease? Shifting lameness Myocarditis Nephritis | All of them |
| In what breed are you most likely going to see Lyme associated nephritis? | Labradors |
| What does the treatment for Lyme disease include? | Post exposure vaccination, doxycycline, and NSAIDs |
| Which of these may help prevent Lyme disease? Pre-exposure vaccine Use of tick repellents/insecticides Avoiding wooded areas Daily grooming of pet | All of them |
| A parasite that lives on the outside of the body | Ectoparasite |
| What are otodectes species commonly called? | Ear mites |
| What does differential diagnosis of Otodectes include? Yeast infections? Bacterial infections? Atopy? | All of them |
| What is the minimum required to diagnose most ectoparasites? | Skin scraping/cytology |
| What is the most common species of fleas found on both cats and dogs? | Ctenocephalides felis |
| What can we find on the pet to diagnosis fleas, even if adult fleas can not be found? | Flea dirt |
| Flea eggs and larvae may be found on the pet True/False? | False |
| What percentage of the entire flea life cycle do fleas spend as adults? | 5% |
| What percentage of an adult flea's life is spent on a pet? | 100% |
| Which is part of effective treatment of a flea infestation? Treating the pet Treating the household environment every 2-3 weeks Treating the yard every 2-3 weeks Preventative flea topicals | All of them |
| Lice are a zoonotic parasitic infection True/false? | False |
| What is an infestation of Cheyletiella species commonly called? | Walking dandruff |
| What is the classical clinical presentation of Cheyletiella? | Pruritic heavy flaking |
| Is Demodex canis a normal resident of the skin? | Yes |
| How is Demodex sp. usually clinically diagnosed? | Skin scraping |
| Cats never get demodecosis True/False? | False |
| What is the treatment of demodecosis? | Amitraz dip on dogs Oral/topical ivermectin on dogs and cats Injectable ivermectin |
| What is the prognosis for generalized demodecosis? | Guarded |
| What is the common name for a Sarcoptes infestation? | Scabies |
| What is the Sarcoptes-like parasite that affects cats? | Notoedres cati |
| Which of these may help diagnos Sarcoptes? Skin scrapings Biopsy Clinical signs Response to treatment | All of them |
| Is Sarcoptes a zoonotic parasite? | Yes |
| What is involved with treatment of Sarcoptes infestation? | Ivermectin injection Topical selamectin Oral ivermectin |
| What causes Cuterebra, AKA warbles or wolves? | Fly larva in the skin |
| What may removal of Cuterebra cause? | Anaphylaxis |
| How is myiasis treated? | Flushing the parasite out with saline then mild antiseptic solution |
| A dermatomycosis is what kind of infection? | Fungal infection of the skin |
| What organism most commonly causes dermatomycosis? | Microsporum canis |
| What light, which is an ultraviolet light, is shined on the fur as an easy test for dermatomycosis? | A Wood's light |
| If the base of the fur glows ____ the UV test is positive, but the test is only ___ % accurate | Glows green , 50% accurate |
| What is the common name for dermatomycosis? | Ringworm |
| Is dermatomycosis zoonotic? | Yes |
| Which of these may treat dermatomycosis? Oral antifungals Topical antifungals Antifungal dips and shampoo | All of them |
| What is the medical name for "hot spots"? | Acute moist dermatitis |
| What is a common location for hot spots? | Around the face and ears |
| What may cause hot spots? | Otitis and ectoparasites |
| Which of these is involved in the treatment of hot spots? Shaving the lesion entirely Oral antibiotic Identifying the primary cause Topical antibiotic | All of them |
| What is impetigo also called? | Juvenile pyoderma |
| Where are feline acne lesions found on and around? | the chin and mouth |
| What may contribue to feline acne? | Plastic food bowls |
| In deep pyoderma the infection is: Confined to the epidermis Secondary to other skin infections Extends into the dermis | Secondary to other skin infections Extends into the dermis |
| What is a classical sign of anal gland impaction? | Scooting |
| Which of these is included in treatment of deep pyoderma? Identifying and treating the cause is necessary C & S is performed Antibacterial shampoos are helpful Antibiotic treatment must continue 8-12 weeks or longer | All of them |
| What's a potential post-operative complication of anal sacculectomy, which is performed to treat chronic anal gland problems? | Fecal incontinence |
| What breed are perianal fistulas common in? | German Shepherds |
| Which of these may be involved in treatment of perianal fistulas? Expressing the anal gland Surgical ablation of affected tissue Immunosuppressive drugs (cyclosporine) | Surgical ablation of affected tissue Immunosuppressive drugs |
| What is oral papillomatosis caused by? | A DNA virus |
| Oral papillomatosis is seen in what age of dog? | Young |
| What two forms of neoplasia are usually self resolving? | Oral papillomatosis and histiocytoma |
| Which of these fill sebaceous cysts? Sebum Keratin Thick, cheesy material | All of them |
| All skin tumors have a distinctive appearance and are easily diagnosed by sight True/False? | False |
| What should all skin tumors being examined for the first time have done? | FNA (Fine Needle Aspirate) |
| What is the prognosis of fibrosarcoma, whether vaccine induced or not? | Baaaaaad |
| What is the occurrence of vaccine induced fibrosarcoma linked to? | Aluminum adjuvants |
| What is involved in the treatment of fibrosarcoma if possible? | Wide and deep excision Chemotherapy |
| Which are true of mast cell tumors? They occur in cats and dogs Are highly aggressive in dogs Multiple tumors is a poor prognosis factor | All of them |
| The granules in the cytoplasm of MCT are | stained blue during FNA histamine |
| Are all melanomas pigmented? | No |
| What is the most common location(s) for melanomas in the dog? | On the toes In the oral cavity |
| What part of the body in cats are melanomas most often involved in? | The iris |
| Which of the following are true of melanomas? They metastasize quickly Carry a poor prognosis Metastasize to the lungs and regional lymph nodes | All of them |
| How can perianal adenomas be prevented? | Neutering male dogs |
| Which are true of perianal adenocarcinomas? Highly invasive Occurs in males and females May cause increased blood calcium levels | All of them |
| Where do squamous cell carcinomas(SCC) occur? | Unpigmented skin |
| What does differential diagnosis for SCC include? | MCT |
| How do you prevent SCC in animals? | Avoid UV exposure |
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