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Clin Med III


Before performing a necropsy you should review the signalment and clinical history
What is the most common fixative used to perserve tissue? 10% buffered formalin
The top portion of the skull which is removed during a necropsy is called Calvarium
Tissue sections for histopathology should be ____ thick Not greater than 1 cm
What is the procedure when examining the heart? Examine the right auricle and right ventricle first
Ruminants are necropsied in which position? Left lateral recumbency
What is the correct proportion of tissue to formalin fixative? 1:10
What fixative is used for preserving brain, spinal cord and bone tissue? 50% formalin
Why do we perform a necropsy? Determine the cause of death, determine the accuracy of the clinical diagnosis, and to evaluate the results of therapeutic or surgical treatments
If a necropsy cannot be performed immediately the cadaver should be Refrigerated as soon as possible
Necropsies are routinely done by what facilities? Zoos, aquariums, laboratories
Necropsies should be done in a Well ventilated area
What lab equipment should be assembled before beginning a necropsy? Tissue cassettes, clean slides, culturettes for bacterial culture, labeled jars and bags
Which instruments are used for a necropsy? Pruning or lopping shears Microwave oven Sharp Knife and steel Serrated paper Pruning or lopping shears and Sharp knife and steel
Tissues for virus isolation are collected aseptically and immersed in 50% buffered glycerol
If rabies is suspected in a dog or cat the appropriate specimen to submit is The entire head
Clinical history of the deceased animal should include: Results of the last physical examination Laboratory blood test results Time of death or euthanasia All
The person performing a necropsy is called The prosector
Formalin is a ____ and proper precautions must be taken Known carcinogen
On a necropsy do you record normal or abnormal findings? Both
What are some useful ways to document necropsy results? Photography/video, dictation to another person as you perform the necropsy, and audio recorder
What does signalment include? Age, breed, gender
Two documents required before beginning a necropsy are the owner's Signed permission and wishes for disposal of the remains
If you aren't sure how to prepare necropsy samples for submission you should Call the diagnostic lab for directions
Tissues for toxicology should Include blood and stomach contents
Can trained technicians perform a necropsy? Yes, under the direct supervision of a veterinarian
In order to perform a thorough necropsy it is necessary to: Work in a careful, methodical manner Examine each organ in situ before it is removed for closer inspection Work as quickly as you can to get it over with Work in a careful, methodical manner Examine each organ in situ before it is removed closer inspection
What tissues are necessary to submit when performing a necropsy? All tissues
What tool do you use to open the skull to examine the brain? Stryker saw
Synonyms commonly used for the word necropsy include: Post mortem Autopsy Ante Mortem Autopilot Post Mortem Autopsy
Death of tissue/cells Necrosis
Changes visible to the eye Gross Pathology
Passed genetically Inherited
Substance which stimulates a reaction Mediator
Microscopic study of tissues Histopathology
Inflammation of vessels Vasculitis
Alterations/disease due to cold Cryopathic
Expected outcome Prognosis
Organized collection of macrophages Granuloma
Origin of disease Pathogenic
Clinical signs of inflammation include Erythema, swelling, heat
A pathogen is a disease causing organism or substance
Passive immunity is Resistance to disease acquired without exposure
Reticulocytes are an indication of Regenerative anemia
Iron deficiency anemia may be seen with Acute hemorrhage Chronic Hemorrhage Poor Diet Poor Diet and Chronic Hemorrhage
Acute anemias are associated with: Trauma with hemorrhage Ruptured vascular tumors Dirofilariasis Trauma with hemorrhage and Ruptured vascular tumors
When does extra vascular hemolysis occur? When an external stimulus triggers the immune system to attack RBCs
When does neonatal isoerythrolysis occur? When the foal ingests antiRBC antibodies through the colostrum
What four parasites can cause anemia? Hookworms, whipworms, fleas, and ticks
What blood parasite causes anemia, vasculitis, and thrombocytopenia Cytoauxzoon felis
Babesia canis and Ehrlichia canis are both... Protozoal diseases Carried by Rhipicephalus sanguineus Extracellular parasites Treated with tetracycline Carried by rhipicephalus sanguineaus and treated with tetracyclince
What is serologic, ELISA, testing useful for diagnosing? Babesia Ehrlichia Onion toxicosis Babesia and Ehrlichia
Heinz bodies are: Intracellular parasitic organisms Denatured hemoglobin Characteristics of onion toxicosis Denatured hemoglobin and Characteristic of onion toxicosis
Methemoglobinemia is characteristic of what kind of toxicity? Acetaminophen
Methemoglobinemia causes ____ color blood and "____" mucus membranes Chocolate brown blood and muddy mucus membranes
What do we treat methemoglobinemia in animals with? Acetylcysteine IV
Immune mediated hemolytic animea (IMHA) is an autoimmune disease which means The immune system produces antibodies against its own RBC
What does IMHA cause? Intravascular hemolysis, extravascular hemolysis, agglutination of RBC
A quick easy in-clinic test for a presumptive diagnosis of IMHA is Rapid slide agglutination test
What is the prognosis for IMHA? Guarded
What is Ehrlichia canis? obligate intracellular rickettsia
Where are E. canis organisms found? Circulating mononuclear WBCs and tissue mononuclear WBCs
What are symptoms of an E. canis infection? Thrombocytopenia, vasculitis, and peripheral edema
What is the treatment for E. canis? Tetra/doxycycline
What is the prognosis for E. canis? Good
What are little hemorrhages seen in the skin and mucus membranes? Petechia
What is petecchia seen with? Immune mediated thrombocytopenia
What breed is von Willebrand's Disease commonly seen in? Dobermans
von Willebrands Disease heritability is: Sex linked dominant Sex linked recessive Autosomal dominant Autosomal recessive Its not genetic Autosomal dominant
What is von Willebrands disease similar to in humans? Hemophilia
If a dog has a low von Willebrands factor it: May still not show clinical signs May bleed for extended periods from a venipuncture May need plasma with clotting factors preoperatively All of the above
What virus is Feline Immunovirus(FIV) caused by? Lentivirus
FIV is in the same class of organisms as what human virus? HIV
What does FIV in cats exhibit clinically as? Recurrent infections
What is an early sign of FIV? Severe stomatitis and gingivitis
What is the treatment for FIV? There is none
What disease are most lymphomas in cats associated with? FeLV
Which are symptoms of lymphoma in cats? Dsypnea, tachypnea Weight loss, anorexia Vary with the system affected All of them
What is the treatment for feline lymphoma? Antineoplastics
What is the prognosis for feline lymphoma? Poor
What is a common, early presenting sign of canine lymphoma? Enlarged submandibular lymph nodes
How may you diagnosis both canine and feline lymphoma? Serology CBC Fine needle aspirate, biopsy, thoracocentesis ELISA testing Clotting profile Fine needle aspirate, biopsy, and thoracocentesis
What is the preferred treatment of canine lymphoma? Antineoplastics
What is the prognosis for canine lymphoma? Varies and depends on the cell line type and stage of disease
Feline viral rhinotracheitis (FVR) is caused by what virus? Herpes virus and it is a severe disease
What are some clinical signs of FVR? Corneal ulcerations and purulent nasal discharge
How is FVR killed? Disinfectants
How is FVR transmitted? Via aerosol or fomites
How do you treat FVR? Supportive care and antivirals
What is calicivirus characterized by? Oral ulcerations
Calicivirus infection is a disease with High mortality and sudden onset High morbidity but low mortality High morbidity and high mortality High mortality and slow onset High morbidity but low mortality
In Illinois, rabies vaccines are licensed for ___ or ___ years 1 or 3
Panleukopenia in cats is related to what disease in dogs? Parvovirus
Cats which are most likely ot contract panleukopenia and most viral disease are: Less than one year Greater than 8 years old Unvaccinated Unvaccinated and Less than one year old
Panleukopenia is characterized by: High fever Diarrhea Elevated WBC High fever and Diearrhea
Exposing a pregnant queen to panleukopenia virus while she's pregnant may result in white of the kittens? Hydrocephalus
What does treatment of panleukopenia include? IV fluids & antibiotics
What class of viruses is Feline Leukemia in? Retrovirus
How is feline leukemia spread? Saliva, nasal secretions, urine & feces, milk and blood
Which are clinical symptoms of feline leukemia disease in cats? Vomiting/Diarrhea Neurologic Uveitis All of them
What is the mortality rate for cats who remain positive for feline leukemia? 80% mortality in 2-3 years
How is feline infectious peritonitis(FIP) spread? Feces, urine, and saliva
What virus causes FIP? Coronavirus
Positive virus titers in a sick cat provide a definitive diagnosis of FIP True/False False
Clinical signs of dry FIP include: Non-responsive fever Weight loss Subnormal WBC Non-responsive fever and weight loss
What are clinical signs of wet, or effusive, FIP? Accumulations of bright yellow abdominal or thoracic fluid
What is the prognosis for cats showing clinical FIP? Grave
What is Toxoplasma gondii? Protozoa
What is the most likely way a person would contract toxoplasmosis? Undercooked meat
Clinical signs of toxoplasmosis in the cat? Respiratory Lameness Uveitis All
Rabies is ____ in wildlife in the United States Endemic
What are the most common carriers of rabies in Illinois? Bats
Rabies are also found in what animals? Skunks Coyotes Foxes All
What kind of virus is rabies? Rhabovirus
What kind of disease is rabies? Neurological
Rabies' symptoms are associated with the disturbance the...? Central Nervous System
How is rabies primarily spread? Saliva
What is the length of time from exposure to onset of clinical signs of rabies is dependent on? How far from the brain the bite occurred
What is the length of time from the appearance of clinical signs of rabies to death of the animal? Ten days or less
What days following the bite do we observe the animal for rabies who is currently vaccinated? First and tenth days
In Illinois, what is done during rabies observation of a dog or cat with no history of rabies vaccine (ever)? Impoundment
Which are classic symptoms of rabies in the dog and cat? Changes in personality Paralysis of the throat Ascending paralysis of the body All of them
What is the pathognomic histologic (microscopic) finding of rabies? Negri bodies
What is the reservoir of canne distemper in the environment? Raccoon and wild canines
Canine distemper is what kind of virus? Paramxyovirus
Which of the following is true of canine distemper virus? Hardy in the environment A parvovirus Spread in the feces Easily killed by disinfectants like bleach An intracellular rickettsial parasite Easily killed by disinfectants like bleach
What are clinical signs of canine distemper? Mucopurulent oculonasal discharge, high fever Normal temperature, serous nasal discharge Hyperkeratosis and enamel hypoplasia Mucopurulent oculonasal discharge, high fever and Hyperkeratosis and enamel hypoplasia
What may puppies who survive distemper permanently exhibit? Chorea and seizures
How do we treat canine distemper? Anticonvulsives and antidiarrheals
What is the prognosis for canine distemper? Poor to grave
What breeds show increased susceptibility to the canine parvovirus? Rottweilers and Dobermans
Which of the following characterize canine parvovirus? Fever Fetid diarrhea Severe neutropenia All
Which of the following is true of canine parvovirus? Its a paramyxovirus Its very hardy in the environment Its spread through urine and nasal secretions Its carried by skunks Its very hardy in the environment
Which of the following is used to diagnosis canine parvovirus? Fecal examination to rule out parasites CBC Fecal ELISA Serology All of them
What does the treatment of parvovirus consist of? IV fluids and antibiotics
Which of the following will help decrease the chance of parvovirus in puppies? All puppies should receive vaccine series Decrease their exposure to other dogs until at least two vaccines are given Avoid contact with feces from other dogs All of them
What is brucellosis caused by? Bacteria
What species is brucellosis found in? Dog Swine Cattle
What are clinical signs of brucellosis in the male? Lethargy Orchitis Epididymitis All of them
Which are clinical signs of brucellosis in the female? Late term abortion Infertility Vaginitis All of them
Elimination of brucellosis in the domestic species requires...? Testing and euthanasia of positive individuals
How is brucellosis spread? Venereal (breeding) Vaginal discharge Contact with aborted tissues All of them
Who should be concerned about zoonotic transmission of brucellosis? Veterinarians Lab Workers Kennel/Herd owners All of them
What is the tick vector for monocytic Erhlichiosis? Rhipicephalus sanguineus
What organsim causes monocytic Erhlichiosis? E. canis
What are clinical signs of acute monocytic Ehrlichiosis? Vasculitis Peripheral edema Uveitis Vasculitis and Peripheral edema
What are the classic symptoms of chronic monocytic Erhlichiosis? Thrombocytopenia and epistaxis
What does the treatment for all Erhlichia disease include? Doxycycline
Where is the Canine Granulocytic Erhlichiosis organism found? Neutrophils (PMNs)
What is the vector for Erhlichia ewingii? Amblyomma americanum
What characterizes E. ewingii infection? Acute polyarthritis, increased ALT
What is the vector for Erhlichia equii? Ixode dammini
What characterizes E. equii infection? Severe lethargy, hypoalbuminemia
Why is the diagnosis of all Erhlichia species the E. canis test? The cross reactivity of the SNAP test and serological testing
What is the tick vector for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever? Dermacentor variabilis
How many hours must the tick be attached to transmit RMSF? 5-20 hours
What is the organism that causes RMSF? Rickettsia rickettsii
RMSF is called "spotted", what does it cause in humans and dogs to earn this nickname? Petechia and ecchymoses
Which are the clinical signs of RMSF? Bulls eye rash and petechia Epistaxis and seizures Arrhythmias and acute renal failure Thrombocytopenia and buboes Arrhythmias and acute renal failure
What is the vector for Lymes disease? Ixodes dammini
How many hours must the tick be attached to transmit Lymes disease? 48 hours
What kind of organism is Borellia borgderferii? Spirochete
Which are the clinical signs of Lyme disease? Shifting lameness Myocarditis Nephritis All of them
In what breed are you most likely going to see Lyme associated nephritis? Labradors
What does the treatment for Lyme disease include? Post exposure vaccination, doxycycline, and NSAIDs
Which of these may help prevent Lyme disease? Pre-exposure vaccine Use of tick repellents/insecticides Avoiding wooded areas Daily grooming of pet All of them
A parasite that lives on the outside of the body Ectoparasite
What are otodectes species commonly called? Ear mites
What does differential diagnosis of Otodectes include? Yeast infections? Bacterial infections? Atopy? All of them
What is the minimum required to diagnose most ectoparasites? Skin scraping/cytology
What is the most common species of fleas found on both cats and dogs? Ctenocephalides felis
What can we find on the pet to diagnosis fleas, even if adult fleas can not be found? Flea dirt
Flea eggs and larvae may be found on the pet True/False? False
What percentage of the entire flea life cycle do fleas spend as adults? 5%
What percentage of an adult flea's life is spent on a pet? 100%
Which is part of effective treatment of a flea infestation? Treating the pet Treating the household environment every 2-3 weeks Treating the yard every 2-3 weeks Preventative flea topicals All of them
Lice are a zoonotic parasitic infection True/false? False
What is an infestation of Cheyletiella species commonly called? Walking dandruff
What is the classical clinical presentation of Cheyletiella? Pruritic heavy flaking
Is Demodex canis a normal resident of the skin? Yes
How is Demodex sp. usually clinically diagnosed? Skin scraping
Cats never get demodecosis True/False? False
What is the treatment of demodecosis? Amitraz dip on dogs Oral/topical ivermectin on dogs and cats Injectable ivermectin
What is the prognosis for generalized demodecosis? Guarded
What is the common name for a Sarcoptes infestation? Scabies
What is the Sarcoptes-like parasite that affects cats? Notoedres cati
Which of these may help diagnos Sarcoptes? Skin scrapings Biopsy Clinical signs Response to treatment All of them
Is Sarcoptes a zoonotic parasite? Yes
What is involved with treatment of Sarcoptes infestation? Ivermectin injection Topical selamectin Oral ivermectin
What causes Cuterebra, AKA warbles or wolves? Fly larva in the skin
What may removal of Cuterebra cause? Anaphylaxis
How is myiasis treated? Flushing the parasite out with saline then mild antiseptic solution
A dermatomycosis is what kind of infection? Fungal infection of the skin
What organism most commonly causes dermatomycosis? Microsporum canis
What light, which is an ultraviolet light, is shined on the fur as an easy test for dermatomycosis? A Wood's light
If the base of the fur glows ____ the UV test is positive, but the test is only ___ % accurate Glows green , 50% accurate
What is the common name for dermatomycosis? Ringworm
Is dermatomycosis zoonotic? Yes
Which of these may treat dermatomycosis? Oral antifungals Topical antifungals Antifungal dips and shampoo All of them
What is the medical name for "hot spots"? Acute moist dermatitis
What is a common location for hot spots? Around the face and ears
What may cause hot spots? Otitis and ectoparasites
Which of these is involved in the treatment of hot spots? Shaving the lesion entirely Oral antibiotic Identifying the primary cause Topical antibiotic All of them
What is impetigo also called? Juvenile pyoderma
Where are feline acne lesions found on and around? the chin and mouth
What may contribue to feline acne? Plastic food bowls
In deep pyoderma the infection is: Confined to the epidermis Secondary to other skin infections Extends into the dermis Secondary to other skin infections Extends into the dermis
What is a classical sign of anal gland impaction? Scooting
Which of these is included in treatment of deep pyoderma? Identifying and treating the cause is necessary C & S is performed Antibacterial shampoos are helpful Antibiotic treatment must continue 8-12 weeks or longer All of them
What's a potential post-operative complication of anal sacculectomy, which is performed to treat chronic anal gland problems? Fecal incontinence
What breed are perianal fistulas common in? German Shepherds
Which of these may be involved in treatment of perianal fistulas? Expressing the anal gland Surgical ablation of affected tissue Immunosuppressive drugs (cyclosporine) Surgical ablation of affected tissue Immunosuppressive drugs
What is oral papillomatosis caused by? A DNA virus
Oral papillomatosis is seen in what age of dog? Young
What two forms of neoplasia are usually self resolving? Oral papillomatosis and histiocytoma
Which of these fill sebaceous cysts? Sebum Keratin Thick, cheesy material All of them
All skin tumors have a distinctive appearance and are easily diagnosed by sight True/False? False
What should all skin tumors being examined for the first time have done? FNA (Fine Needle Aspirate)
What is the prognosis of fibrosarcoma, whether vaccine induced or not? Baaaaaad
What is the occurrence of vaccine induced fibrosarcoma linked to? Aluminum adjuvants
What is involved in the treatment of fibrosarcoma if possible? Wide and deep excision Chemotherapy
Which are true of mast cell tumors? They occur in cats and dogs Are highly aggressive in dogs Multiple tumors is a poor prognosis factor All of them
The granules in the cytoplasm of MCT are stained blue during FNA histamine
Are all melanomas pigmented? No
What is the most common location(s) for melanomas in the dog? On the toes In the oral cavity
What part of the body in cats are melanomas most often involved in? The iris
Which of the following are true of melanomas? They metastasize quickly Carry a poor prognosis Metastasize to the lungs and regional lymph nodes All of them
How can perianal adenomas be prevented? Neutering male dogs
Which are true of perianal adenocarcinomas? Highly invasive Occurs in males and females May cause increased blood calcium levels All of them
Where do squamous cell carcinomas(SCC) occur? Unpigmented skin
What does differential diagnosis for SCC include? MCT
How do you prevent SCC in animals? Avoid UV exposure
Created by: 48604741



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