Save
Busy. Please wait.
Log in with Clever
or

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 
Sign up using Clever
or

Username is available taken
show password


Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
Your email address is only used to allow you to reset your password. See our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.


Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.
focusNode
Didn't know it?
click below
 
Knew it?
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

Nursing Exam

QuestionAnswer
what is shock The state where widespread reduction of tissue perfusion leads to reversible, and then if prolonged, irreversible cellular injury
potential causes of shock -trauma -anesthetic or surgical complications -anaphylaxis -colic -gastrointestinal obstruction -sepsis
4 types of shock 1. cardiogenic 2. hypovolemic 3. distributive 4. obstructive
what is cardiogenic shock failure of the heart to pump
what is hypovolemic shock decreased intravascular volume
what is distributive shock loss of peripheral resistance causing flow maldistribution
what is obstructive shock impaired diastolic filling or impaired systolic contraction from a cause originating outside of the heart
4 major ways body responds to shock 1. sympathetic nervous system is activated and releases epinephrine 2. shunting of blood from unnecessary to necessary organs 3. renal shut-down 4. splenic contraction
order of where the blood vessels contract first to last 1st. Skin, fat, muscles 2nd. liver and GI tract 3rd. Kidney
when is shock irreversible -blood volume is inadequate to perfuse brain and heart -when cells are too damaged by hypoxia and acidosis
what is DIC Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
what happens during DIC massive vasodilation occurs along with excessive activation of the clotting mechanism and fibrin clots form throughout the body's smallest vessels
why is DIC also known as death is coming very hard to treat
clinical signs of shock -prolonged CRT -weak pulse -tachycardia -pale MM -cold extremities
how fast do patients die when not treated for shock within 12 hours
what is the ultimate goal in treating shock optimize tissue oxygen delivery
how to treat shock in hospital 1. ABC 2. Crystalloid fluids 3. Colloids (use when not responding to crystalloids 4. Treat blood loss 5. Good nursing care
when do we treat blood loss in canines and felines -PCV <20% in canine -PCV <15% in feline
what drugs can be used to treat shock -dopamine/dobutamine -sodium bicarbonate -bactericidal antibiotics -doxapram -epinephrine -lidocaine -furosemide -analgesics -corticosteroids
what is the normal urine output 1-2ml/kg/hr
what is normal blood pressure >90 mmHg systolic
7 first steps when seeing a patient during triage 1. identify yourself 2. assess the owner 3. thorough history and examination 4. classify emergency 5. contact veterinarian 6. watch what you tell owner 7. seperate before treatment if needed
levels of triage -Class I (critical), needed within sec to mins -Class II(urgent), min to an hour -Class III (pressing), within a few hours -Class IV(non-pressing), within 24 hours
examples of class I triage -cardiac/resp arrest -GDV -anaphylaxis
examples of class II triage -shock -dystocia -seizures
examples of class III triage -lacerations -burns -fractures
examples of class IV triage -lameness -anorexia
5 most common causes of critical emergencies -resp failure -severe dyspnea -cardiac arrest -anaphylaxis -GDV
3 possible causes of resp failure -trauma -anaphylaxis -anesthetic emergencies
3 possible causes of dyspnea -pleural effusion -airway obstruction -pulmonary edema
how long does a seizure need to be for it to be status epilepticus seizure lasting more than 10 minutes
3 causes of status epilepticus -epilepsy -head trauma -toxicity
a few treatments for heat stroke -large bore IV catheter and cool IV fluids -NO ICING -Oxygen and corticosteroids
when should we stop cooling after heat stroke occurs @ 39 degrees celcius
when does gastric dilation +/- volvulus usually occur -in large deep chested dogs who exercised after a meal or who gulp air during eating
6 steps in treating GDV 1. place stomach tube 2. gastric lavage 3. trocarization PRN 4. IV catheter and fluids 5. surgery PRN 6. monitor heart for PVC's
4 other gastrointestinal emergencies 1. intussusceptions, part of the bowel telescopes on itself 2. foreign bodies 3. string gut 4. obstructive tumours
3 causes of acute pre-renal failure -dehydration -shock -heart failure
4 reasons for acute renal failure -infection -ischemia -immune-mediated damage -nephrotoxins
reasons for acute post-renal failure -obstruction or rupture of urinary tract
clinical signs of acute renal failure -dehydration -anorexia -oral ulcers
what happens in acute renal failure to cause PU/PD azotemia= increased BUN and CREA and 3/4 of the nephrons are damaged and/or function is lost
what is isothenuric urine specific gravity between 1.008-1.012. kidneys are unable to concentrate
is acute renal failure reversible potentially, it is best to catch early
treatment for acute pre-renal failure -address primary problem -rehydrate, control heart
treatment for acute renal failure -correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances, decrease BUN/CREA, give antiemetics, treat cause
treatment for acute post-renal failure -relieve obstruction/repair rupture
who is chronic renal failure more common in older animals, especially cats
what is the goal of treating chronic renal failure palliative and aimed at improving quality of life while slowing disease progression
what treatments can we provide during palliative care for chronic renal failure -increase fluid intake to decrease azotemia -food nutrition, sometimes less protein and higher quality food -decrease stress
how often should we monitor a patient with CKD every 3-6 months
explain the difference between CKD and AKD AKD: -patient history is healthy -good body condition but depressed -normal or large sized kidney possibly painful CKD: -history is weeks to months of PU/PD -could have weight loss and vomitng -small and non-painful kidney
4 factors IRIS looks at to stage renal failure -Creatinine -SDMA -urine specific gravity -UPC ratio
what is prostatic disease -when the prostate gland is enlarged due to infection, cysts, benign hypertrophy, neoplasia
clinical signs of prostatic disease -difficulty urinating -blood in urine -tenesmus -difficulty walking
treatment of prostatic disease -castration for all forms
what is a pyometra pus filled uterus
what species does a pyometra normally affect intact females
what is the difference between an open and closed pyometra -open is presented with vaginal discharge -closed is presented with PU/PD, anorexia, no discharge
what is the best treatment for a pyometra -ovariohysterectomy
what does IMHA stand for Immune-mediated Hemolytic Anemia
what happens in IMHA body destroys its on RBC's because it recognizes them as foreign and develops autoantibodies against them
clinical signs of IMHA -lethargy -pale or icteric MM -prolonged CRT -Tachycardia, Tachypenia
how to diagnose IMHA -CBC -Microscopic analysis -Slide agglutination test -Coombs test
what is a classic finding of IMHA agglutination
what percentage of animals survive IMHA to be discharged from hospital 50-80%
what are some treatment options for IMHA -volume resuscitation -O2 -blood transfusion -immunosuppressive drugs -anticoagulants to prevent thromboembolism
what are 7 most common types of cancer in dogs -skin -mammary -testicular -bone -lymph node -splenic -lipomas
what are mammary tumours lumps over mammary glands on abdomen or thorax
what is the percentage that mammary tumours are malignant in dogs 50%
what should we always check for before doing surgical removal of mammary tumours radiograph thorax to determine if metastasis has occurred to lungs
a ______ greatly reduces chances of mammary tumours by ______ if done before _______ of age OVH, 80%, 2 years
what percentage of mammary tumours are malignant in cats 80-90%
neutering is 100% effective at preventing what type of cancer testicular
what is bone cancer also known as what osteosarcoma
what species is bone cancer most common in and where is the cancer normally found anatomically -large breed dogs -usually found at distal ends of the long bones
what are splenic tumours also known as hemangiosarcoma
what is a splenic tumour cancer of the lining of the blood vessels
where is the primary splenic tumour most common primary tumour is in the right atrium of the heart
what clinical signs does splenic tumours create causes signs of hypovolemic shock
what are the 3 stages of splenic tumours/hemangiosarcomas stage 1: non-ruptured stage 2: ruptured with hemoabdomen stage 3: ruptured or non with metastasis to lungs, liver, omentum, etc
treatments for splenic tumours -treat shock -surgical removal (splenectomy) -possibly chemotherapy
what is a lipoma benign tumours of subcutaneous fat
when are lipomas most common older overweight dogs
what is a surgical excision of a lipoma necessary if it interferes with locomotion
what is the most common skin tumours in cats squamous cell carcinoma
7 cancer treatment options 1. surgery 2. chemotherapy 3. immunotherapy 4. radiation 5. no treatment 6. palliative care 7. euthanasia
what is debulking when doing a surgical treatment partially remove a neoplasm in order to make other therapies more effective
what is marginal surgical treatment used for locally aggressive tumours
what is wide margin surgical treatment complete excision
what is radical surgical treatment removal of a body part
common side effects of chemotherapy -lethargy -decreased appetite -vomiting/diarrhea -hair loss or slow hair growth
what are the 3 primary symptoms of GI disease -vomiting -diarrhea -anorexia
when is vomiting and diarrhea a concern -young patient -occur longer than 24hrs -not eating -weak -dehydrated -abdominal pain -presence of blood in a significant amount
vomiting vs regurgitation Vomiting -retching occurs -occurs variable time after eating -has a variable appearance -pH is acidic Regurgitation -no retching -occurs immediately after eating -looks like food/saliva -pH is the same as food
4 treatments for vomiting 1. NPO (for 12-24 hours) 2. Fluid therapy 3. Drug therapy 4. Bland Diet (once V stopped)
4 mechanisms of diarrhea and explain 1. osmotic (something in intestinal lumen draws in water to intestine) 2. secretory (excess fluids and electrolytes are excreted) 3. permeability (leakage of plasma proteins/blood due to increase pore size 4. motility (any change in normal motility)
common causes of diarrhea -toxins and poisons -viral or bacterial infections -parasites
small intestine VS large intestine diarrhea Small: -liquid -no mucous -commonly has fat -melena (black) colour -no straining -weight loss is common Large: -firm -often mucus -rarely fat present -frank red colour -straining (tenesmus) -weight loss is rare
what id the definition of anorexia lack of appetite
what are some options for providing nutrition to an anorexic animal -tempt appetite -force feed -tube feed -administer drugs
what is gastritis inflammation of the lining of the stomach
why are dogs more prone to gastritis because they are most likely to have an unusual meal or overeat
what is maldigestion incomplete digestion, primarly seen in dogs often due to EPI
what is EPI exocrine pancreatic insufficiency -unable to produce pancreatic enzymes to digest food
explain the attitude and appearance of a dog with EPI -emaciates and voracious appetite -greasy, clay coloured stool with rancid odour
what is malabsorption able to digest food but unable to absorb the nutrients from it
what is IBD inflammatory bowel disease
what happens during IBD -inflammatory response in GIT results in thickening of mucosa of stomach
how to diagnose IBD -endoscopic biopsy -laparoscopic biopsy
clinical signs of IBD -V/D -anorexia -weight loss
how to treat IBD treatment is palliative only
what are the common symptoms of liver disease -icterus/jaundice -ascites -weakness -weight loss
diagnostic tests to diagnose liver disease -CBC chemistries (ALT, AST) -bile acids
4 most common diseases of the pancreas 1. diabetes mellitus 2. exocrine pancreatic insufficiency 3. pancreatitis 4. pancreatic tumour
what are common clinical signs of pancreatitis -abdominal pain -V/D -diarrhea -anorexia -fever
why do clinical signs start to occur during pancreatitis begin when digestive enzymes leak into tissues of abdomen and into circulation
what animal is more prone to pancreatitis dogs
how is pancreatitis diagnosed -increased serum amylase and lipase -snap/spec cPLi and fPLi tests
how to treat pancreatitis -analgesia -fluid therapy -antiemetics -mucosal protectants
what can obesity predispose an animal to -cardiovascular problems -musculoskeletal problems -liver disease -diabetes mellitus -increased risk during anesthesia and surgery
why is obesity so common -decreased exercise -increased age. but decreased metabolic rate -table scraps -genetic predisposition -boredom (beg for treats)
5 strategies for weight loss -recognize problem -select an appropriate weight loss diet -calculate amount to be fed safe for weight loss -weekly weigh ins -adjust caloric intake down as needed
top 5 endocrine disorders most commonly seen in dogs and cats -diabetes mellitus -hypothyroidism -hyperthyroidism -cushings disease -addisons disease
what does insulin do the key that allows glucose to enter cells to be used for energy
clinical signs of animals with diabetes -PU/PD -polyphagia -weight loss -cataracts -UTI's
what is the new treatment for diabetes mellitus and how does it work Senvelgo -once daily oral solution
which is life-threatening hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia hypoglycemia is the one that is life-threatening because it is an overdose of insulin
when is insulin normally administered twice daily AFTER eating
Why is client education and compliance so important for successful management of diabetes? -the owner must be able to mix insulin correctly, give SQ injections, record clinical signs, ensure food is offered regularly ,recognize insulin shock and keep animal on a schedule
what is insulin shock also known as hypoglycemia
what happens during insulin shock -overdose of insulin, animal is not eating and the regular amound of insulin is given or too much.
signs of insulin shock -weakness/confusion -trembling -seizures
how to treat insulin shot -apply corn syrup to gums -bring in to vet for IV dextrose
how is hyperglycemia caused occurs if too little insulin is administered
what do the thyroid glands do produce T4 and T3 which control the level of metabolism
which species is most common for hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism -hypothyroidism dogs -hyperthyroidism cats
what is hyperthyroidism a tumour or a disease affecting the thyroids ability to work
clinical signs of hypothyroidism -overweight -lethargic -thickened skin -seeks skin -infertility
treatment for hyperthyroidism life long administration of thyroid hormone
what is hypothyroidism thyroid produces too much thyroxine, resulting in a increased metabolic rate
hypothyroidism clinical signs -thin -voracious appetite -unkempt coat
treatment for hyperthyroidism -lifetime meds that inhibit T4 production -surgical removal of thyroid glands -radioactive iodine -
what is cushings disease (hyperadrenocorticism) increased levels of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids
clinical signs of cushings disease -overweight -pot-bellied -thin skin -bilateral hair loss
treatment for cushings disease -surgical removal of adrenal or pituitary gland
what is addisons disease -decreased production of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids
2 types of addisons disease -primary and iatrogenic
what does ACTH do stimulates cortex of adrenal glands to produce glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids
where does Otitis externa start in the pinna
common causes of otitis externa -bacteria -parasites -yeast -allergies
clinical signs of otitis externa -red/painful pinna -itchy or smelly -discharge -if chronic pinna may be thickened
how to diagnose otitis externa -swab -otoscopic exam -culture and sensitivity
what to do if there is suspected mites when a patient has otitis externa -place sample onto slide with a drop of mineral oil
how to treat otitis media -antibiotics -surgery is severe -sometimes total ear canal ablation is performed to prevent further infection
why do aural hematomas develop -often secondary to otitis externa and due to head shaking which ruptured blood vessels in the pinna
how to treat aural hematomas -oral steroids possibly with a bandage -minor surgery to open hematoma and remove clots -must stabilize ear to prevent shaking -may use a drain
if surgery is performed to treat an aural hematoma what is used to prevent re-filling sutures pass through pinna
what species is deafness most common in Dalmatians and white cats with blue eyes
what is entropion eye rolls inward
how to treat entropion and what can it cause -causes ulcerations and irritation -surgical correction is necessary
what is ectropion when the eyelid turns away from the eye
how to treat ectropion and what does it cause -causes dryness and irritation -surgically corrected or eye drops to maintain moisture
what is conjunctivitis inflammation of the membrane that lines the eyeball
signs of conjunctivitis -often blepharospasm (squinting) due to pain -pink/red
how to treat conjunctivitis -eye exam needed including fluorescein dye -give topical antibiotics -sometimes steroids given
what is KCS inadequate tear production causing dry cornea
how to diagose KCS (keratoconjunctivitis sicca) Schirmer tear test
what is cherry eye Third eyelid gland prolapse
how to treat cherry eye surgery to tack down gland
when is cherry eye common in certain breeds before age 2
what is a corneal ulcer loss of the corneal epithelium due to trauma
how to treat corneal ulcers -drops -support via third eyelid flap -cross-hatching to stimulate healing -install patients own serum into eye to speed healing
what is the new treatment for corneal ulcers -Optixcare -can be used on horses, birds, and exotics -administer one drop every 2 days for 10 days
what is pannus granulation tissue gradually grows over the cornea
what is anisocoria pupils of unequal size
what can cause anisocoria -trauma -eye disease -neurological disease
what are cataracts opacity of the lens
how to treat cataracts only Tx is surgical removal
what is glaucoma excessive intraocular pressure because there it too much fluid in the eye
why do we not want to use atropine when a patient has a glaucoma atropine increases pressure in eye
what does atropine do for ocular treatments relaxes pupils, decreases pain
what do antibiotics do for ocular treatments treat bacterial infections
what do steroids do for ocular treatments decrease inflammation and scarring
5 main categories of skin problems 1. alopecia 2. pruritis 3. blistering and ulceration 4. scaling and crusting 5. skin masses
name one endocrine disease that could result in bilateral alopecia cushings disease
what is an elimination diet short term eating plan that eliminates certain food that may be causing allergies. then reintroduces them one at a time to determine which are and well and not-well tolerated
a few diagnostic tests to test for allergies -skin biopsies -blood tests -elimination diet -intradermal skin tests
how to determine if alopecia is from a physiological cause examine the hairs under the microscope to see of they are broken off
what is seborrhea condition where flakes of dead skin are shed
True of False? seborrhea be dry and oily True
what is pyoderma bacterial infection of the skin
blistering and ulceration conditions are often ________ mediated diseases immune
how is blistering and ulceration characterized by raised papules or pustules that rupture and form ulcerative lesions
scaling and crusting are what kind of disorders keritainization
6 types of specific dermatoses 1. acanthosis nigricans 2. acral lick granuloma 3. acute moist dermatitis 4. miliary dermatitis 5. feline acne 6. solar dermatitis
what is a acral lick granuloma -obsessive licking of anterior surface of carpus and metatarsus until hair and/or layers of skin are worn off
treatment of acral lick granuloma -place-e-collar -address underlying problem -consult behaviourist
what is miliary dermatitis -multiple small, dry scabs, often pruritic with open sores
what species is miliary dermatitis common in cats
what are the causes for miliary dermatitis -allergies -parasites -bacterial infection
what is another name for acute moist dermatitis hot spot
how does acute moist dermatitis happen -rapid onset of excessive biting and licking at an area leading to a hairless, red, weeping lesion
what is acanthosis nigricans hyperpigmentation in axilla or inguinal area (usually due to inflammation from friction)
what is solar dermatitis burn from excessive exposure to U/V radiation
what is feline acne chin and skin next to lower lips have blackheads which progress to pimples and inflamed/red skin
what material should a cat be fed from if the have feline acne ceramic or stainless steel plate
what is the cause of feline acne blockage of pored by excess sebum or keratin
what is tracheal collapse respiratory disorder when there is partial airway obstruction
how is tracheal collapse presented loud, honking, non-productive cough
what is congestive heart disease fluid accumulates in the body, resulting in edema
signs of left-sided heart failure -coughing -exercise intolerance -pulmonary edema
signs of right-sided heart failure -generalized edema -ascites
is there a breed-predisposition to congenital heart diseases yes
how do puppies present when they have heart failure -weak, smaller than normal -heart murmur -possibly cyanosis
what is patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) -if the pulmonary artery remains open 2-3 after birth there might be blood flowing from aorta to lungs (left to right shunt)
what is reverse PDA unoxygenated blood will bypass the lungs and enter the aorta and systemic circulation (right to left shunt)
is surgery contradicted in PDA or reverse PDA reverse PDA
what is aortic stenosis narrowing of aortic outflow, can lead to ventricular arrhythmias
what is pulmonic stenosis abnormal valve leads to R ventricle hypertrophy from increased pressure, then atrial dilation, possibly tricuspid valve regurgitation
what is a ventricular septal defect hole between the ventricles
what is tetralogy of fallot polygenic genetically transmitted malformation of the heart
what 4 defects does the tetralogy of the fallot consist of 1. pulmonic stenosis 2. ventricular septal defect 3. overriding aorta 4. hypertrophy of right ventricle
how does phlebotomy work as a treatment stimulated RBC production
what happens if right aortic arch persists -the esophagus is trapped in the arch and megaesophagus results
what is megaesophagus esophagus dilates proximal to structure, resulting in frequent regurgitation of food
what is congestive heart failure from impaired pumping ability of heart
what age of animals is CHF most common in older animals
5 treatment options for CHF -diuretics -oxygen -bronchodilators -other meds -low sodium diet
3 types of cardiomyopathy in cats 1. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 2. dilated cardiomyopathy 3. restrictive cardiomyopathy
what is the most common type of cardiomyopathy in cats hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
what is saddle thrombus clot on heart valve dislodges, enters aorta. then lodges at the iliac artery obstructing blood flow to one or both legs
Created by: jscott41
Popular Veterinary sets

 

 



Voices

Use these flashcards to help memorize information. Look at the large card and try to recall what is on the other side. Then click the card to flip it. If you knew the answer, click the green Know box. Otherwise, click the red Don't know box.

When you've placed seven or more cards in the Don't know box, click "retry" to try those cards again.

If you've accidentally put the card in the wrong box, just click on the card to take it out of the box.

You can also use your keyboard to move the cards as follows:

If you are logged in to your account, this website will remember which cards you know and don't know so that they are in the same box the next time you log in.

When you need a break, try one of the other activities listed below the flashcards like Matching, Snowman, or Hungry Bug. Although it may feel like you're playing a game, your brain is still making more connections with the information to help you out.

To see how well you know the information, try the Quiz or Test activity.

Pass complete!
"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
Retries:
restart all cards