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Anesthesia Test 2

QuestionAnswer
what are the 4 main causes of anesthetic deaths in animals human error, anesthetic agent, anesthetic machine, patient-related problems
what type of anesthetist makes the most errors more experienced, they have more experience and become over confident
what is the most common reason for human error failure to do a complete physical exam and to take a complete history
Xylazine shouldn't be used in what patients pregnant, geriatric, neonates
In many cases using multiple drugs may be __________ for the patient than one drug alone. safer
If you are using a premix of multiple drugs, what do you do to the individual doses lower them
you must ensure oxygen tank is always __________. full
make sure carbon dioxide is not __________, endotracheal tube is _________ and in the ________. Vaporizer must contain the right __________ exhausted, patent, trachea, anesthetic
why should the pop-off valve not be inadvertently left closed rapidly compromise the animals breathing
what classes of patients are at high risk during anesthesia class III and class IV
what are the patients that are commonly considered to be at greater risk for anesthesia -geriatrics, neonates, brachycephalics, sighthounds, obese animals, trauma patients, c-sections, cardio/resp/hepatic/renal diseases.
the bacteria in the mouth or bad dental health can cause problems in which organ system circulatory system
what patients would halothane not be appropriate for patients with hepatic disease
________ access should be established __________ surgery. IV, before
IV fluids should be provided _______ the course of surgery to support the __________. during, circulation
True or false: an ET tube is more ideal than a mask? true
how often should the patient be monitored ideally continually but at least every 5 minutes
what does CPCR stand for Cardiopulmonary Cerebral Resuscitation
what is CPCR defined as cessation of both the heart beats and respirations
when does clinical death occur when the brain is dead which normally happens 4 mins after CPA
_____________ arrest always precedes __________ arrest respiratory, cardiac
what are the signs seen prior to resp and cardiac arrest -weak irregular pulse -decreased resp rate -cyanotic MM -prolonged CRT -central, dilated pupils
7 steps anesthetist should take is cardiopulmonary arrest appears imminent 1. vaporizer turned off 2. airway is assessed to ensure ET tube is patent 3. pure oxygen should be available 4. animal bagged every 6 seconds 5. give reversal agent if there is one 6. IV fluids and drugs given 7. continue monitoring during this time
acronym to help represent steps to carry out in an emergency CABD (circulation, airway, breathing, drugs)
what do you carry out in step C (circulation) when assessing an emergency -check if heart is still beating and that animal has a pulse. otherwise start compresions
what do you carry out in step A (airway) when assessing an emergency ensure a patent airway is present by making sure is chest is rising
what do you carry out in step B (breathing) when assessing an emergency bag animal every 6 seconds with pure oxygen until it is no longer cyanotic
what do you carry out in step D (drugs) when assessing an emergency admin IV fluids at shock rate unless animal is euvolemic
what does euvolemic mean animal has a normal amount of fluids in their body
cardiac massage can be ________ or ________. open, closed
what does closed cardiac massage entail compressing the chest without opening the chest wall
what does open cardiac massage entail involves squeezing the heart through an open chest
why is open cardiac massage not the first open very invasive, recovery is very critical, expensive
how should an animal be placed for cardiac massage right lateral
how much of the chest do you compress during cardiac arrest approx. 1/3 to 1/2 of the chest diameter
what is the appropriate rate of compressions for a dog and cat 100/min for medium large dog 120/min for small dog or cat
what are the 2 ways to check the effectiveness of CPCR -assess ETCO2 (10-15 mmHg is normal) -doppler probe on eyeball
where do you cut for internal cardiac massage through the side between the ribs, through the sternum, or up through the diaphragm
you should keep compressions going and check every ________ minutes 2
if resps are not seen they should be provided every _________ seconds. 15
what are the 3 common emergency drug routes IV, IT, IC
what kind of drug is epinephrine and when should it be given Cardiac stimulant, only when heart stops
what kind of drug is dopamine and when can it be given cardiac stimulant, when heart is still beating
what drug is a longer acting corticosteroid that helps reverse shock and reduce inflammation Dexamethasone
what drug is an anticholinergic useful for prevention and treatment of bradycardia that also causes dilation of the pupils Atropine
what does furosemide do and what is its product name "lasix", treats pulmonary edema, stimulate kidneys, treat over-hydration
what drug is useful to give after Cardiac arrest Sodium Bicarbonate
what cardiac stimulant has fallen into disfavour but used to treat eclampsia Calcium Gluconate
what drug is sometimes used instead of epinephrine and why Vasopressin, less likely to cause arrhythmias
what is the most common arrhythmia is dogs and cats asystole, and PEA (pulseless, electrical activity) is the next
what position should the patient be place din for EKG dorsal or lateral recumbency
what is the initial EKG shock and what do you increase too is there is no response 3-5 joules/kg, 50%
most major surgeries on equines are done under _______ anesthesia rather than _____________. inhalant, injectables
ruminant surgery is performed using...... local analgesics
True or False: intubation in large animals is normally done blindly with head and neck extended True
what are the common ET tubes used in large animals 15,20,15,30mm
in what areas of anesthesia differs from small and large animals induction, maintenance, recovery
how to restrain a horse for induction -in clinic with a wall with rings and ropes available to stabilize horse. -in the field the head is held with a halter and separate handler hold the tail to help steady the horse
why should the horse be walked in in a circle when being induced to dissuade rearing
once the horse is induced what does the handler do to prevent it from standing up sit on its neck
why should the surgery table be well-padded for large animals during surgery large muscles puts pressure on nerves which can result in paralysis after surgery
where is it preferable for a large animal to recover unbothered, quiet, dimmed, padded stall
how long is food and water withheld from in a horse before surgery food: 8-12 hours water: 2 hours prior
what is different about horse preanesthetic prep -shoes are taken off and thoroughly cleaned. -mouth is rinsed out
what 2 drugs are tranquilizers and can cause prolapse of penis in males which can be permanent in horses acepromazine, promazine
which drug is not normally given to horses as a pre-med and why Atropine, may decrease intestinal peristalsis which could result in ileus and colic
what are the common drug "cocktails" used in horses -xylazine/ketamine -detomidine/ketamine -diazepam/ketamine
when giving a horse a cocktail. It is important to give the ____________. IV first and wait __________ minutes until animal is sedated. Then you can give __________ IV. tranquilizer, 3-5 mins, ketamine
what drug are barbiturates usually paired with foe induction Glyceryl gluconate (Guaifenesin)
what are the approx ET tube sizes for neonates and one month old foal neonate: 7-9mm foals: 9-11mm
what is the inducing agent that WAS commonly used in horses for standing castrations Succinyl Choline
why is Succinyl Choline deemed inhumane now it is a muscle paralyzing agent. Therefore the animal is not able to move but can feel everything
how are horses positioned in a clinic setting for surgery -on a large foam rubber pad or water bed
what is the most common used inhalation agent for horses and what is the flow rate -ISO -4-6 L/min
what should a horses resp rate be maintained at under anesthesia 7-10 rpm
what should a horses heart rate be maintained at under anesthesia greater or equal to 28 bpm
how can you find a heart rate on a horse facial artery, dorsal metatarsal artery, or from the chest with a stethoscope
what reflexes should you look monitor during horse anesthesia -palpebral and corneal reflexes
where is the doppler or oscillometer placed on the horse tail
why is it ESSENTIAL to monitor horses frequently to ensure they do not get too deep horses experience slow responses to changes in anesthetic concentrations and it can take up to 20 mins to see a change in depth
what are the 5 common post-op complications in horses -myositis, phlebitis, eye trauma, neurological injury, excitement
what is myosostitis and what breed of horses is it common in inflammation of the muscles, heavy draft horses
how can you prevent eye injury after anesthesia in horses -remove halters and provide padding for eyes and head
since the rumen is so large in cattle, they should have roughage withheld _________ hours, gran withheld _________ hours and water withheld _____ hours prior to major anesthesia and surgery 48, 24, 12
what could happen if a cattle rumen is too large before surgery regurgitation may occur which could lead to aspiration pneumonia particularly in lateral recumbency
why is atropine not given to cattle it may cause bloat
what drug is so potent in can be used as an induction agent in cattle xylazine
what iso can cattle be maintaned on 1-3% and flow of 4-5 L/min
what reflexes should you monitor in cattle eye rotation and corneal and palpebral reflexes
where should the eye be positioned in cattle for anesthesia ventromedially rotated
which is the most common pre-anesthetic used in ovine and caprine xylazine
what makes IV induction a challenge in swine they have hard to access superficial veins
what 2 species are prone to laryngospasm cats, pigs
what is a pigs idiosyncratic reaction to halothane hyperthermia (greater than 41 degrees), blotchy skin, muscle rigidity and tachycardia
what tranquilizer is approved for pigs and it quite effective Azaparone (stresnil)
what is the difference between local analgesia and local anesthesia local analgesia (affects peripheral nerves) local anesthesia (affects brain)
3 common situations when local analgesics are used 1. spray larynx before intubation in cats 2. epidural analgesia 3. lubrication of urinary catheters
what is one disadvantage to local analgesics cannot reach deep tissues properly
what can happen if a local anesthetic is injected into a nerve may be permanent loss of function
small animal epidurals are inserted into the....... intervertebral space just cranial to the sacrum between L7 and S1
minor skin surgeries are usually in what shapes L shape or a fan shape
If the nerve is palpable for the minor skin surgery the lidocaine should be deposited _________ to the nerve not in it adjacent
what is the paravertebral blocks used for used in cattle to block the nerves supplying the paralumbar fossa
what is the site used to repair the left displaced abomasum and c-sections paralumbar fossa
where is lidocaine injected during a paravertebral block transverse process of T13 and L1
how long does it take for a paravertebral block to kick in 10 mins
what is an alternative technique to the paravertebral block inverted "L" block
how does an L block work insert a need SQ and approx 10-15 ml of lidocaine is infiltrated as the needle is withdrawn
what is the ring block used for teat surgery
how does the basic ring block work teat and area above are cleaned, multiple sites around the base pf the teat are injected with lidocaine
in the case that the actual teat needs to be frozen for a ring block, what needs to happen a tourniquet is placed at the base of the teat, and 10ml of 2% lidocaine is infused into the teat
what nerve block is used to dehorn cattle cornual nerve block
where is the cornual nerve palpated frontal crest between the eye and the ear
how do perform the cornual nerve block approx 5-10ml of 2% lidocaine is injected using a 18g 1-1.5 inch needle
where does the epidural block provide analgesia too the tail, birth canal, and perineum
what block can also treat vaginal and rectal prolapses epidural block
how do you find where to insert the needle for an epidural block tail is lifted up and down, the space between the 1st and 2nd coccygeal vertebrae is then felt to be an indentation
how to insert the needle for an epidural block along the midline, pushed through the ligamentum flavum until a pop is felt
what is the IV block used for and what is it also known as amputation of a digit also known as "bier block"
what do you place above the site for amputation tourniquet
what are the 3 most common uses of local analgesics in equines 1. intra-articular blocks 2. lameness exams 3. line blocks
what are equine Intra-articular blocks used for diagnosis of lameness within a joint
how does the intra-articular block work it removes the sensation to the site and if the joint was the source of the lameness the horse will appear sound
how does a lameness exam work a serious of blocks are performed starting distally. in between each block the horse is walked to see if the lameness is alleviated
how is the limb help to inject for a lameness exam in flexion
what block is used to detect lameness of the fetlock high palmer block
what is the line block used for used to repair lacerations
Created by: jscott41
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