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VTEC 575: Exam 1
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| plant extracts | in the 15th century, what did they use to control pain |
| 1864 | when was diethyl used for the first time |
| AVTA | Academy of Veterinary Technician Anesthetists |
| ACVAA | Amercian College of Veterinary Anesthesia and Analgesia |
| ECVAA | European College of Veterinary Anesthesia and Analgesia |
| IVAPM | Veterinary Academy of Pain Management |
| VAASG | Veterinary Anesthesia and Analgesia Support Group |
| sedation | CNS depression, drowsiness, drug induces, various levels, slightly aware or unaware of surroundings, aroused by noxious stimulation, used for minor procedures |
| tranquilization | calmness, patient is reluctant to move, aware of surroundings but doesn't care |
| hypnosis | drug induced, sleeplike state, impairs patient's ability to respond to stimuli, patient can be aroused with sufficient stimulation |
| narcosis | drug induced sleep, patient is not easily aroused, associated with narcotic drugs |
| vet techs role | preparation/operation/maintenance of anesthetic machine, administer anesthetic agenst, endotracheal intubation, patient monitoring |
| anesthesia challenges and risks | dos calculations and rate adjustment, vital signs and anesthetic depth, assess multiple pieces of information, patient management, anesthetic accidents |
| asepsis | a condition of sterility whereby no living organisms are present |
| sterile | absence of all living microorganisms, including spores |
| surgical conscience | commitment of the surgical personnel to adhere strictly to aseptic technique |
| cleanest to dirties | in what order would you schedule cases |
| prep room, scrub area, surgery room | what are the three separate areas that AAHA recommends? |
| antiseptic | chemical that inhibits or prevents the growth of microbes on living tissue |
| disinfectant | chemical used to inhibit or prevent the growth of microbes on inanimate objects |
| bactericide | agents that destroy bacteria |
| bacteriostat | agent that inhibits the growth of bacteria |
| fungicide | agent that kills fungi |
| sanitize | to reduce the number of microbes to a safe level |
| sporicide | agent that kills spores |
| sterilize | to eliminate all microbes by killing or inactivation |
| virucide | agent that kills viruses |
| ideal disinfectants | broad spectrum, nonirritating, nontoxic, noncorrosive, inexpensive |
| effectiveness of disinfectants | _____________ depends on type of microorganisms, degree of contamination, amount of protein in the area, organic matter, additional sanitizing compounds, concentration/quality of chemical, contact time, and temperature |
| types of disinfectants | chlorine based, phenol based, quaternary amine based, iodine, chlorhexidine, alcohols |
| Perioperative equipment | patient warming devices, surgical lights, surgical table, electrocautery, suction machines |
| endogenous | ________ contamination is contamination from the patient |
| exogenous | ______ contamination is contamination from the surgical team and/or the environment |
| mechanical | component of hand scrub that removes bacteria and debris by producing friction when rubbing or brushing; removes dirt, oil, and transient organisms |
| chemical | component of hand scrub that the antimicrobial skin cleansing agent is working |
| contaminated | is a wet drape sterile or contaminated? |
| contaminated | if someone reaches over the sterile field is it still sterile or is it contaminated? |
| purpose of gowning and gloving | creates a barrier between the sterile and non |
| not sterile | is the cuff of the gown considered sterile or not sterile? |
| not sterile | is the back of the gown considered sterile or not sterile? |
| scalpel | instrument used to make most incisions, comes in a variety of sizes and shapes |
| Bard | Parker #3 / #4 |
| scissors | most commonly used instrument, multiple different kinds |
| operative scissors | type of scissor classified by blade type, character of point, and design of cutting edge |
| mayo scissors | type of scissor that are very heavy duty, used for cutting fascia and dense tissue |
| metzenbaum scissors | type of scissor that is fine and used for cutting delicate tissue |
| iris scissor | type of scissor used for ophthalmic operations |
| Lister scissor | type of scissor also known as a bandage scissor |
| Littauer scissor | type of scissor also known as suture removal scissors |
| needle holder | type of instrument used to grasp and pass suture needles with suture through tissue |
| types of needle holders | Olsen |
| Tissue forceps | type of instrument that locks to clamp/ grip tissue |
| allis tissue forceps | type of tissue forceps that are traumatic and should only be used on tissues being removed from the patient |
| babcock intestinal forceps | type of tissue forceps that are less traumatic than allis at expense of security |
| doyen intestinal forceps | type of tissue forceps that is flexible with atraumatic jaws |
| sponge forceps and tongue grasping forceps | two less commonly used forceps |
| hemostatic forceps | instrument that stops bleeding by crushing tissues and associated blood vessels, classified according to size and patterns of grooves |
| halstead mosquito hemostats | type of hemostatic forcep that is small and designed to occlude small vessels |
| crile forceps and kelly forceps | two kinds of hemostatic forceps that are similar in design to mosquitoes but are larger for use in crushing larger tissues and vessels, differ in jaw tooth pattern |
| rochester | pean hemostatic forceps |
| rochester | ochsner hemostatic forceps |
| rochester carmalt hemostatic forceps | type of hemostatic forcep used for clamping across tissue that contains vessels |
| thumb forceps | type of instrument that have spring action, jaws opposed by manual compression, important for manipulation, designed in several different sizes and grasping surfaces, selected according to attended use |
| retractors | type of instrument used to atraumatically improve the field of visualization, should not interfere with surgery |
| poole suction tip | type of suction tip that has an outer sleeve with small holes, used for abdominal or thoracic cavity |
| yankauer suction tip | type of suction tip that is for a general purpose |
| periosteal elevator | type of orthopedic instrument used to pry periosteum or muscle from bone surface |
| rongeurs | type of orthopedic instrument used to cut small pieces of dense tissue, has sharp cupped tips |
| bone cutting forceps | type of orthopedic instrument that is similar to rongeurs, has paired chisel |
| curette | type of orthopedic instrument used to scrape hard tissue |
| bone holding forceps | type of orthopedic instrument that is used to hold bone and bone fragments in alignment with implants are applied |
| osteotomes and chisels | two types of orthopedic instruments used to cut bone |
| jamshidi needles | type of orthopedic instrument specially designed to remove a core of bone for a biopsy |
| power equipment | type of orthopedic instruments powered by nitrogen gas supplied via sterile hose |
| arthroscope | instrument that is used to examine various joints of the horse and dog, rigid telescope that carries light into the joint cavity and produces a magnified image, uses various instruments to introduce the scope into the joint and to work inside the joint |
| uses of suture material | close skin/ body cavities, reappose edges of organs, reattach ligaments and tendons, pexy techniques, eliminate dead space, perform hernia repairs |
| wound type | what is the characteristic that tells you what suture to use? |
| absorbable | what kind of suture would you use for a quick healing organ (ex. bladder, stomach, SI)? |
| nonabsorbable | what kind of suture would you use for a slow healing organ (ex. fasciae and tendons)? |
| monofilament | single strand suture that is easier to pass through tissue and is slippery and can untie |
| multifilament | several filament suture that has greater capillary action and is more susceptible to bacterial colonization |
| United States Pharmacopia | who determines suture size? |
| size correlates with a millimeter diameter size | what does the size number of a suture mean? |
| 0.4mm | example: what is the diameter of a size 1 suture |
| 0 | what number is added to suture size to specify numbers smaller than size 1 |
| thinnest | is 11 |
| thickest | is 7 the thinnest or thickest suture size? |
| larger | is size 3 suture larger or smaller than size 2 suture? |
| smaller | is size 3 |
| knot | what is the weakest point of a tied suture? |
| absorbable suture | type of suture that loses most of breaking strength within 60 days of placement, synthetic and natural, monofilament and multifilament, absorbed by enzymes (natural) or hydrolysis (synthetic) |
| catgut | natural absorbable suture that is multifilament derived from intestines of sheep/goat/cattle, consists of mostly collagen, strength maintained for short time period, rate of absorption unpredictable, can stimulate a severe inflammatory reaction |
| collagen | classification of natural absorbable suture that is made from bovine flexor tendon, similar rate of absorption to catgut, generally only used in microsurgeries |
| absorbable synthetic suture | type of suture; infected wounds do not affect degradation of suture (ex. poliglcaprone 25 monocryl) |
| poliglcaprone 25 (monocryl) | specific brand of absorbable synthetic suture: monofilament, one of the strongest absorbable sutures, tensile strength lost rapidly, good knot security and handling, absorbed 90 |
| polydioxanone (PDS) | specific brand of absorbable synthetic suture: monofilament, better maintenance of strength, generally absorbed at 180 days |
| silk | specific type of nonabsorbable natural suture: multifilament, no memory, poor strength, high capillarity, stimulate reaction |
| polyamide (nylon) | specific type of nonabsorbable synthetic suture: monofilament and multifilament, minimal tissue reaction, poor handling and knot security, 30% tensile strength lost after 2 years |
| polypropylene (prolene) | specific type of nonabsorbable synthetic suture: monofilament, greatest strength, minimal tissue reactivity, high memory/slippery, suitable for use in skin |
| cutting | needle shape that is used on tough tissue (skin), available in conventional and reverse cutting |
| tapered | needle shape that has a sharp tip capable of piercing tissue, but surrounding tissues are not cut |
| blunt | needle shape that has a rounded point (liver and kidney) |
| interrupted | basic suture pattern that increases control of suture tension and apposition of wounds, avoids catastrophe if continuous breaks |
| continuous | basic suture patter that decrease operative time, form air |
| patient preparation | clip hair, vacuum patient and area, empty urinary bladder |
| skin preparation | surgical clip (#40 blade), clip fur first in same direction of hair growth then opposite direction, pencil grip, thorough but gentle (traumatized skin is perfect for harboring infections), general rule of 5 |
| start over incision site and extend outward in a spiral position, alternating 3 | 5 cycles |
| "dirty" then sterile in surgery suite | what are the two types of scrubs for surgery |
| exceptions to shaving | feline castration, feline onychectomy, tail docking |
| chlorhexidine | bactericidal action aganst 30 bacterial genera, virucidal/fungicidal properties, relatively low tissue tissue toxicity |
| rinsing agents | used to remove detergent, 70% isopropyl alcohol, sterile saline |
| abdominal surgery | positioning for ____: dorsal recumbency, secure all 4 legs |
| feline castration | positioning for____: dorsal recumbency with hind legs pulled toward the head |
| orthopedic/extremity | positioning for_____: lateral recumbency |
| tail/perianal | positioning for_____: ventral recumbency, hind legs draped over end of table with towel under caudal abdomen |
| back surgery | positioning for _____: ventral recumbency |
| thoracic surgery | positioning for_____: ventral or dorsal recumbency, extend forelegs cranially |
| stage III, plane 1 | inadequate stage and plane to perform surgery |
| stage III, plane 2 | stage and plane suitable for most surgical procedures |
| stage III, plane 3 | stage and plane considered excessively deep for most surgical procedures |
| stage III, plane 4 | stage and plane that indicates anesthetic overdose |
| stage I | stage___ |
| stage II | stage____ |
| stage III | stage____ |
| stage IV | stage____ |
| physical assessment of HR | monitoring: palpation of peripheral or apical pulse, auscultation with stethoscope or esophageal stethoscope |
| mechanical assessment of HR | monitoring: ECG, doppler monitor, NIBP monitor, intraarterial line attached to transducer |
| hypotension | BP below normal |
| hypertension | BP above normal |
| hypotension | is hypertension or hypotension common during anesthesia? |
| central venous pressure | indicator of circulation: allows assessment of blood return to the heart and heart function, especially helpful in monitoring right sided heart failure and fluid therapy |
| intraoperative blood loss | what does male mm color indicate? |
| low blood oxygen concentration | what does cyanotic mm color indicate? |
| pulse oximeter | indicator of circulation that estimates the saturation of hemoglobin |
| >95% | during oxygen administration, what should the oxygen saturation be? |
| ventilation | refers to the movement of gases in and out of the alveoli |
| tachypnea | increase in respiratory rate |
| tidal volume | the amount of air inhaled during a breath |
| 10 | 15mL/kg |
| blood gas analysis | refers to the measurement of blood pH and dissolved O2 and CO2 in arterial or venous blood, indicator of both ventilation and oxygenation as well as acid |
| 15 | 30 minutes |
| anesthetic protocol | a list of anesthetics and adjuncts prescribed for a particular patient |
| total intravenous anesthesia | what does TIVA stand for? |
| constant rate infusion | what does CRI stand for? |
| IV induction and inhalant maintenance | most commonly used method of inducing and maintaining anesthesia in small animals |
| 10 | 20 minutes |
| anesthetic recovery | the period between the time the anesthetic is discontinued and the time the patient is able to stand and walk without assistance |
| hypostatic congestion | when helping in anesthetic recovery, what do you prevent when you turn the patient ever 10 |
| 5 minutes | how often do you monitor vital signs during anesthetic recovery? |
| PS5 | physical status is 12 yr MN GSD presented with history of restlessness and distended abdomen |
| opioid and tranquilizer | what is a neuroleptic analgesic a combination of? |
| atipamazole | severe bradycardia caused by dexmedatomadine is best treated with what drug? |
| naloxone | what is the reversal agent for opiods? |
| diazepam | what drug precipitates out when mixed with other solutions? |
| cardiac disease | etomidate is well suited for inductions of dogs with what issue? |
| iso eliminated through lungs | what is the primary advantage of isoflurane over something like meloxiflurane? |
| lowest concentration at which 50% of patients so response to painful stimuli | what is considered the MAC of an anesthetic agent? |
| air within the trachea, larynx, nasal passages | anatomic dead space is considered to be what? |
| inadequate tissue perfusion | during anesthesia, a MAP of less than 60mmHg indicates what? |
| flow meter | the amount of oxygen an animal is receiving under anesthesia is indicated by what? |
| 60 ml/kg | the minimum size of a reservoir bag can be calculated as? |
| 7 kg | rebreathing systems when used with standard small animal anesthesia are best preserved for patients weighing no more than how many kgs? |
| stage III, plane 3 | a 20 kg dog is anesthetized by mask induction with isoflurane and after intubation is maintained with 2% iso. HR is 80, RR is 8 and shallow, relaxed jaw tone, all reflexes are absent. What stage and plane is this? |
| need for supportive therapy | a pulse oximeter reading of 89% indicates what? |
| flash sterilization | what is the emergency sterilization technique called? |
| street clothes | what is not acceptable for surgical attire? |
| front of gown from below the shoulders to the waist | what is the sterile area of a person? |
| PS1 | what is the classification for a 16 week old F DSH who has come into the clinic for a spay and has no underlying health concerns? |
| ketamine | what is an example of a dissociative anesthetic? |
| PS3 | what is the classification of a patient that is moderately dehydrated and moderately anemic? |
| PS4 | patient classification for a pt that has severe systemic disease that could be life threatening |
| BAR | consciousness level: fully conscious, alert, engaged, interested in enviroment |
| QAR | consciousness level: fully conscious and alert, not engaged due to fear/pain/illness |
| lethargic | consciousness level: mildly depressed, aware of surroundings, can be aroused with minimal difficulty |
| obtunded | consciousness level: very depressed, uninterested in surroundings, responds to but cannot be fully aroused by a verbal or tactile stimulus |
| stuporous | consciousness level: a sleep |
| comatose | consciousness level: sleep |
| 1.5x1.3 | isoflurane MAC canine formula |
| 1.5x1.6 | isoflurane MAC feline formula |
| 60 x weight in kg | reservior bag size formula |
| 80 bpm | minimal canine acceptable heart rate under anesthesia |
| 100 bpm | minimal feline acceptable heart rate under anesthesia |
| 8 | 20 breaths |
| 80 mmHg | minimal acceptable systolic pressure under anesthesia |
| 40 mmHg | minimal acceptable diastolic pressure under anesthesia |
| 60 mmHg | minimal acceptable MAP under anesthesia |
| capnography | measures the amount of CO2 in the air as it is breathed in and out of the patient |
| 0 | what CO2 should be at during inspiration |
| 30 | 55 |
| 20 | in small animal anesthesia when an animal is bagged the pressure monometer should not exceed what? |
Created by:
savstrout
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