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Small+Lg Animal Med
Small and Large Animal Medicine
| Define/Question/True | Term/Answer/False |
|---|---|
| Define an Infectious disease: | Any disease resulting from the presence of a microorganism (such as virus or bacteria) |
| Define a Contagious disease: | Any disease that can be spread from one animal to another |
| Define a Congenital disease: | Any disease that’s present from birth |
| Define a Genetic disease: | Any disease that results from an inherited abnormality in the DNA |
| Define a Parasitic disease: | Any disease resulting from the presence of any lifecycle stage of a parasite |
| Define an Idiopathic disease: | Any disease for which a cause hasn’t been found |
| Define a Neoplastic disease: | Disease that results from an abnormal, uncontrolled cellular growth |
| Define a Metabolic disease: | Disease that results from dysfunction of any process involved with the synthesis, breakdown, or elimination of any substances in the body |
| Define an Immune-mediated disease: | Disease that results from dysfunction of any component of the immune system |
| Define a Degenerative disease: | Any disease resulting from gradual deterioration of organs and cells along with loss of function |
| Define a Toxic disease: | Any disease resulting from ingestion, inhalation, or contact with a poisonous substance |
| The term disease refers to: | Any variations or alterations from a normal function or process within cells, tissues, organs, or organ systems. |
| What is the difference between acute and chronic disease? | Acute: rapid onset, short acting time Chronic: lasts a long time, can't be cured - only controlled. |
| What is the difference between mortality and morbidity? | Mortality: likelihood disease is fatal Morbidity: degree of physiological dysfunction produced by the disease. |
| What does the term: pathognomonic refer to? | One or more signs & symptoms that verify the presence of a specific disease. |
| What are anamnestic signs of disease? | Signs that indicate a prior disease condition. Also refers to the secondary immune response if the animal had been previously infected or vaccinated against the disease. |
| What are prognostic signs of a disease? | Signs used to predict the future outcome of a disease. |
| What three syndromes are associated with FeLV ?(Feline Leukemia) | Lymphosarcoma; nonregenerative anemia; immunosuppression leading to opportunistic infections. |
| How can FeLV be spread among felines? | Mutual grooming; in utero to a female's offspring; blood donors |
| What does the term: Ascites mean and what is it a sign of? | Abnormal accumulation of fluid within the abdomen; liver dysfunction or failure. |
| The two forms of feline infectious peritonitis (FIP) are: | Effusive & dry |
| What are possible signs of distemper in a canine? | head tilt, whole-body rigidity, nasal discharge, chorea (facial muscle twitch), seizures, severe ocular discharge |
| How is feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV) spread? | Saliva; most commonly through bite wounds |
| How is Brucellosis acquired/transmitted? | Through contact w/contaminated feces or fluids of horses, camels, dogs, swine, hares and rodents. |
| How is Anthrax acquired/transmitted? | Through contact with bodily fluids from an infected animal or contaminated soil. |
| How should an Anthrax situation be controlled? | Limit exposure, ensure vaccination of personnel, quarantine infected herds, burn carcasses, report to Gov. |
| How is Cat-Scratch disease/fever transmitted to humans? | When a human is scratched and the cut becomes contaminated with flea feces carrying bartonella henselae. |
| Which agents can kill Tetanus spores? | Oxidizing disinfectants: iodine & chlorine |
| What is the best way to control tapeworms? | Proper food-prep techniques and inspection of slaughtered animals. |
| Which disease requires both a definitive and intermediate host for transmission? | Hydatidosis (echinococcosis). An infected carnivore's feces is ingested by herbivores; parasite encysts in their muscle tissue; carnivore consumes the meat and parasite moves to GI tract. |
| Why should pregnant women avoid cleaning cat-litter boxes? | The oocyst Toxoplasma gondii can cross the placenta and is passed in feline feces. |
| What are signs that an animal has been infected with Orf (Contagious Ecthyma)? | Crusting, proliferative lesions on the muzzles of young animals. In humans, these lesions are on the hands. |
| What is the pre-exposure schedule for the Rabies vaccine? | Dose 2 given 7 days after dose 1; dose 3 given 21 or 28 days after dose 1. |
| What animals commonly serve as a source of salmonellosis in humans and how has this changed over time? | Historically, poultry. In recent years, reptiles kept as pets. |
| What three zoonotic diseases are most likely to pose a risk to veterinary team members who work frequently in bird aviaries? | Psittacosis, Newcastle disease, cryptococcosis |
| At what age range are cats considered 'Senior'? | 11-14 yrs and geriatric when 15+ |
| When and how often should puppies or kittens receive their initial vaccines? | Every 3-4 weeks from 8-16 weeks of age to ensure the switch from passive to active immunity via vaccination. |
| What two types of vaccines are used in the veterinary clinic? Provide a brief description of each. | Non-infectious: contains dead whole or subunits of pathogens and adjuvants which stimulate a stronger immune response Infectious: contain altered pathogens that can infect cells but not cause disease. |
| What are the core vaccines for Felines? | Rabies, Feline herpesvirus type 1, Feline panleukopenia, Feline rhinotracheitis, calcivirus. |
| What are the non-core vaccines for Felines? | FeLV (feline leukemia), FIV (feline immunodeficiency), Chlamydophila, Bordetella. |
| What are the core vaccines for Canines? | Rabies, distemper, adenovirus, parvo |
| What are the non-core vaccines for Canines? | Parainfluenza, leptospirosis, bordetella, borrelia (lyme), influenza |
| What does a Coggins test accomplish? | Tests a new horse brought into a herd for equine infectious anemia. Horse should be quarantined for 1 month to ensure safety |
| What are the core vaccines for Horses? | Tetanus, Encephalitis, Rabies, West Nile |
| What are the non-core vaccines for Horses? | Rhinopneumonitis (herpes), influenza, strangles, viral arteritis, Potomac horse fever, Botulism, anthrax |
| What are fomites? | Contaminated objects that can act as a transmission source for disease/bacteria |
| How often should horses receive dewormers? | Every 8-12 weeks |
| Which disease is currently managed using a test-and-slaughter approach in the US? | Brucellosis |
| What's the most common source of human Campylobacter infection? | Handling young puppies or kittens with diarrhea |
| What's the best measure to prevent infection with Erysipelothrix? | Wearing gloves and hand washing |
| What's the causative agent of Q fever? | Coxiella burnetii |
| Cryptococcosis is caused by: | Fungal infection |
| What viruses typically cause upper respiratory signs in cats? | Herpesvirus, calicivirus |
| What effects can equine viral arteritis have on an infected mare? | EVA can lead to abortion or neonatal death |
| What is a normal temperature range for small animals? | normal temp of small animals is 100–102.5°F. Temps above 103° or below 99° should be addressed. |
| How does Cardiomyopathy differ in cats and dogs? | Cats - left ventricle becomes enlarged which can cause arterial thromboembolism. Dogs entire heart dilates and loses contractility |
| In dogs, signs of heartworm disease include: | cough, exercise intolerance, dyspnea, and ascites due to right-side heart failure |
| In cats, the most common signs of heartworm disease include: | coughing, vomiting, dyspnea, lethargy, anorexia, and weight loss |
| What is Melena? | Digested blood in the feces usually indicative of stomach or small intestine problems. |
| What is tenesmus? | Painful straining with urination of defecation. Often seen w/colonic disease. |
| What is hematochezia? | red blood in the feces, Usually indicates a problem with the colon or rectum |
| What is the function of the exocrine vs endocrine pancreas? | Endocrine = releases insulin Exocrine = releases digestive enzymes |
| How does acute or chronic pancreatitis occur? | When trypsin (digestive enzyme) is activated in the pancreatic tissue instead of after it is released into the small intestine. |
| How does exocrine pancreatic insufficiency occur? | When the pancreas doesn't produce enough digestive enzymes so food nutrients cant be absorbed which leads to weight loss and diarrhea. |
| How is a PSS (portosystemic shunt) diagnosed? | Using bile acids tests, ultrasound or exploratory surgery. |
| Which diabetes type is more common in Dogs vs. cats? | Dogs = type 1 - decreased insulin production in the pancreas Cats = type 2 - insulin resistance in the body tissues |
| Which virally induced disease in dogs causes the highest morbidity and mortality? | Distemper |
| List and describe the 4 steps of the veterinary technician practice model: | Gather patient data | ID and Prioritize evaluations | Develop a nursing care plan | Reevaluate the patient |
| Describe FLUTD (feline lower urinary tract disease) | A condition causing bladder irritation, resulting in straining to urinate, hematuria, and urinating in inappropriate spots. Can be caused by uroliths and many other issues. |
| What’s the difference between vomiting and regurgitation? | Vomiting = active process, abdominal heaving usually w/nausea. Regurgitation= passive process, typically occurs w/o warning. |
| What’s the recommended treatment for feline heartworm disease? | None. Supportive care is only real treatment for lifetime of the parasite. |
| What treatments are typically recommended for feline interstitial cystitis? | Treatment of FIC includes stress reduction, increased water intake, and medications. |
| Canine infectious tracheobronchitis is caused by which of the following organisms? | Parainfluenza virus and Bordetella bronchiseptica |
| Etiology refers to the _______ of a disease. | identification of causative agent(s) |
| Cushing's disease is the common term for which of the following diseases? | Hyperadrenocorticism | Addison's disease is Hypoadrenocorticism |
| Cystitis is inflammation of the: | bladder |
| Immune-mediated diseases are treated primarily by | Steroids |
| Panleukopenia in a pregnant, unvaccinated female cat will cause what type of developmental problems in her kittens? | Cerebellar disease which can lead to Intention tremors |
| _______ is characterized by a loss of appetite for two or more days. | Anorexia |
| A temperature below _______ degrees is defined as hypothermia | 99 F |
| Define Pathogenesis: | The mechanism of development of a disease |
| What organism is the most common cause of bacterial cystitis? | E. Coli |
| Which 2 heart valves are most commonly affected in dogs with valve disease? | Mitral and Tricuspid |
| Which thyroid disease is most common in cats? | Benign thyroid tumor causing hyperthyroidism |
| Which canine infectious disease is most commonly associated with seizures and other neurological signs? | Distemper |
| What are normal vital signs for a horse? | Temp: 99–101.5°F | Pulse: 28–44 bpm | RR: 6–16 bpm |
| Lower airway diseases are typically assessed using which techniques? | bronchoscopy, bronchoalveolar lavage, transtracheal wash, pulmonary function tests, radiology, or ultrasound. |
| Strangles is a respiratory infection caused by: | Streptococcus equi |
| The most characteristic finding in strangles is: | development of large abscesses in the submandibular and retropharyngeal lymph nodes. |
| Signs of strangles includes: | fever, lethargy, and inappetence. |
| Guttural pouches are dilations of the: | Eustachian tubes |
| What is the difference between guttural pouch empyema vs. guttural pouch mycosis? | Empyema = bacterial infection Mycosis = fungal infection |
| Which disease in horses can cause abortion in a pregnant mare? | Herpes if it occurs in the 7th - 11th month of gestation. |
| Signs of the allergic airway disease Heaves include: | cough, nasal discharge, flared nostrils when breathing, increased expiratory effort, increased RR, wheezing. |
| Which cardiovascular issue is the most common clinically-relevant arrhythmia in horses? | Atrial fibrillation |
| What are contributing factors for ulcers in horses? | stress, high-grain diet, and treatment with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) |
| Which bacteria causes Potomac horse fever? | Neorickettsia risticii - found in snails and trematodes from the snails. |
| What are the 4 viruses that can cause encephalitis in horses? | Eastern, Western and Venezuelan equine encephalitis (EEE), (WEE), and West Nile virus |
| Equine protozoal myelitis (EPM) is caused by which parasite? | Sarcocystis neurona, spread by opossums |
| Signs of tetanus in horses can include: | a stiff gait, hyperexcitability, seizures, and possible coma |
| The most common tumors of the skin in horses are: | Sarcoids |
| Serious pain is generally suspected in a horse if their heart rate is: | over 60 bpm |
| Signs of endotoxemia in a horse include: | fever, elevated heart rate, brick-red mucous membranes, depression, and bloodwork changes |
| Elevated serum calcium in horses may indicate: | Renal failure |
| Electrolyte abnormalities in horses may occur with: | colonic inflammation |
| Lactate levels in horses is elevated in cases of: | decreased oxygen delivery to tissues |
| Why are guttural pouch infections so concerning in horses? | B/C there are several structures in close proximity to the guttural pouch including: internal +external carotid arteries & multiple cranial nerves. |
| Which of the following is more concerning in a horse: second-degree atrioventricular block or atrial fibrillation? Why? | Atrial fibrillation. 1) it contributes to poor performance & exercise intolerance. 2) can indicate underlying heart disease, which carries a poor prognosis. |
| White muscle disease (deficient selenium or Vit E uptake) in young calves can lead to: | degeneration of heart and skeletal muscle resulting in death for severely affected calves |
| Lamb and kid mortality within the first 48 hours of life is commonly caused by: | Hypothermia and hypoglycemia |
| Enterotoxemia is caused by: | Clostridium perfringens, which releases toxins |
| Traumatic reticuloperitonitis occurs when: | a ruminant ingests a foreign body, which penetrates the reticulum. |
| Johne disease is caused by:______ and affected cattle can by identified by: | Mycobacterium paratuberculosis | Chronic diarrhea and weight loss |
| Bovine respiratory disease syndrome (BRDS) is usually caused by: | stress, viral disease, and bacterial disease. |
| Subclinical cases of Mastitis can be diagnosed via: | milk testing only |
| Clinical cases of Mastitis can be diagnosed via: | visible abnormalities of the milk and udder |
| Retained fetal membranes mean that the placenta hasn't passed _____ hours after birth | 12 hours |
| Milk fever is usually caused by: | inadequate intake of calcium or animal's inability to metabolize the increased calcium requirements during pregnancy |
| The most practical treatment for Caseous lymphadenitis (abscesses in lymph nodes of sheep and goats) is: | Culling |
| Which bacteria causes foot rot in ruminants? | Fusobacterium necrophorum & Dichelobacter nodosus |
| Erysipelas is a bacterial disease affecting pigs and humans that is identified by: | diamond-shaped skin lesions, heart disease, and joint inflammation |
| The number one cause of infectious infertility in sows is: | Porcine parvovirus |
| What are the two primary types of bloat seen in cattle, and how do they differ? | Free gas = failure to eructate normally, often secondary to esophageal foreign bodies. Frothy bloat = ingestion of large amounts of legumes/certain grains, leading to froth in the rumen that blocks eructation. |
| What’s the five-point plan for mastitis control? | Hygiene; proper milking procedures; dry cow treatment; culling cows; maintaining good records |
| How does the prognosis differ in acute versus chronic cases of erysipelas in affected pigs? | Acute = relatively good prognosis with penicillin treatment. Chronic = doesn’t respond to treatment. |
| Which class of gastric ulcer treatment is preferred for use in horses? | Proton pump inhibitors (omeprazole) |
| What is the causative agent of Bovine Keratoconjunctivitis? | Moraxella bovis |
| A subpalpebral lavage system is used to treat which condition in a horse? | Corneal ulcer |
| The basic steps involved in a necropsy include: | Weighing, performing external exam (checking for wounds, parasites, etc.), collecting samples formalin fixed and fresh, describing all gross findings. |
| How should lesions found during necropsy be described? | Location, Number, Color, Size, Shape, Distribution, Consistency, Odor |
| How large should fixed tissue samples for histopathology be? | No more than 1cm thick so formalin can properly preserve the sample |
| What are fresh tissue samples often collected for? | Infectious disease testing and toxicology |
| What are the two principles of dissection that are typically followed in necropsy? | 1. Each part of body examined in situ, then removed for closer evaluation as a whole, then dissected/examined. 2. Organ sample collected/processed in full before moving on to the next |
| In a necropsy, why should the eyes always be dissected first? | The retina decomposes more quickly than other organs |
| Which tissue is sometimes referred to as "the pluck"? | tongue, larynx, pharynx, trachea and esophagus |
| What are the 8 fundamental characteristics of cancer cells? | 1) Stimulate own growth 2) insensitive to signals meant to stop growth 3) evasion of programmed cell death 4) multiply indefinitely 5) supply own nutrition via blood 6) invade local tissue & spread 7) abnormal metabolic pathways 8) evade immune defenses |
| What is the difference between a carcinoma and a sarcoma? | Carcinomas arise from epithelial tissues (skin, mucous membranes) | Sarcomas arise from mesenchymal tissues (bone, cartilage) |
| What does the oncological term "staging" refer to ? | How large a tumor is and how far it has spread in the body |
| What does the oncological term "grading" refer to | How aggressive the tumor is expected to be based on cellular characteristics |
| What are some of the common signs of cancer in an animal? | Nonhealing skin/wounds, weight loss, decrease in appetite, exercise intolerance, difficulty urinating/breathing/defecating, persistent discharge from nasal/other orifices |
| A "Quality of Life" scale may include factors such as: | appetite, pain, hydration, self-care, attitude, mobility, and “good versus bad days. |
| What are the most common oral tumors in dogs and cats? | Dogs: melanoma. Cats: squamous cell carcinoma |
| Why must an IV catheter be placed when administering injectable chemotherapy drugs? | Many chemotherapy drugs are vesicants which cause significant skin inflammation and sloughing if they leak out of the vein. |
Created by:
AmySichta
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