Save
Busy. Please wait.
Log in with Clever
or

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 
Sign up using Clever
or

Username is available taken
show password


Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
Your email address is only used to allow you to reset your password. See our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.


Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.
focusNode
Didn't know it?
click below
 
Knew it?
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

Veterinary Radiology

Veterinary Radiology/Xrays

Term, QuestionDefinition / Answer
Define Amplitude: Height of an energy wave
Define Frequency: The number of waveforms that strike an object during a given time period
The most common Blue-emitting phosphor Calcium tungstate
What is the benefit of using screened film vs. non-screened film? Screened = lower radiation exposure time, minimizes blur potential Non-Screened = requires higher mA & longer exposure time.
Define X-Ray: Nonluminous, electromagnetic radiation
Cathode filaments are made of: Thoriated tungsten
What is the function of a Bucky Tray? Holds the film cassette under the tabletop
DICOM is an acronym for: digital imaging and communications in medicine
Electrons are generated at the: ______ and travel to the: _______ Cathode; Anode
What is the function of a collimator? Used to restrict the size of the x-ray beam and reduce the amount of scatter radiation
What is the function of a focusing cup? Allows excited electrons to be released from the cathode in a straight pattern towards a focused target on the anode.
Define Time as it relates to radiography: Duration in seconds the anode has a positive charge and is receiving electrons
Define Kilovoltage potential (kVp) Energy of electrons when they reach the anode
Define Milliamperage (mA) Controls the quantity of electrons that will be produced and released from the filament during x-ray production
Usually associated with the contrast of the image: Kilovoltage
Higher kV & lower mA setting is used for: Soft tissue (abdominal/thoracic); varied contrast, more shades of grays
Lower kV & higher mA setting is used for: Extremities where sharper differences are needed; less shades of gray
Define Fluoroscopy: Live-time image of the area being assessed. Multiple x-rays that make a mini video
What is the function of an Intensifying screen? Helps decrease the amount of radiation needed to produce a diagnostic image; increases contrast of the image
Able to absorb more x-rays per crystal & produce more light per absorbed photon Rare earth phosphors
The amount of radiation needed to produce an image on the film is associated with: Screen Speed
Grids should be used when the thickness of the area to be X-rayed is _____cm or more 10cm
What is the function of a Grid and where is it placed? Decreases scatter radiation while increasing contrast of the radiograph. Placed between the animal and film.
The acceleration of the electrons and their striking energy is determined by the: kVp
Define a "RAD": Unit of absorbed dose of ionizing radiation
Define Roentgen: Measure of radiation and x-ray machine production
Define REM (Roentgen equivalent man): Expresses the dose equivalent that comes from exposure to radiation
What is meant by MPD (maximum permissible dose)? It is the maximum dose of radiation a person can receive in a specific period of time
The degraded rays after they have had collision with tissues or structures are defined as: Scatter radiation
What is the best means to reduce exposure to x-ray radiation? Minimize the duration of time x-rays are being released
Define Halation: Light reflected back off the base resulting in a shadow appearance
Why do you store film in an upright position? It is pressure sensitive.
Single emulsion film is best used for: CT (computed tomography) and MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
What is the chemical: Phenidone used for when processing film? To produce gray densities on the film
What is the chemical: Hydroquinone used for when processing film? To increase the contrast of the image and black areas of the film
Hydroquinone is sensitive to: Oxygen, temperature and the age of the chemical
What is the function of the fixer when developing film? To remove unchanged silver halide crystals from the emulsion layer on the film.
The ideal wash time for film is: 12 minutes with flowing water
The pH of the fixer is: Acidic
What wattage is used for safelight bulbs? 7-10 watts
What are the six components of the developer? Developing agents, activator, restrainer, preservative, hardener, solvent
Image detail refers to: The degree of sharpness of the image
The biggest factor that affects the detail of the image is: Focal-film distance (FFD): distance between x-ray tube and film
The major factor affecting density is the: mAs setting (Milliamperage)
Why is a higher kVp preferred for thoracic imaging? They are more uniformly absorbed amongst body tissues resulting in lower contrast.
If the film contrast is too dark or over-penetrated, what should you adjust? Decrease the kVp by 10-15%
If the film density is too dark, what should you adjust? Decrease the mAs by 30-50%
Sante's rule states that kVp should be approx:____ plus ____ the measurement in cm. 40, twice
When should the tabletop method be used? When the anatomic measurement is less than 10 cm
The penetrating power of the incident photons is concerned with what? Kilovoltage (kV)
Contrast is mostly dependent upon: Increases or decreases in milliamperage and time
You should collimate your field size in as much as possible, because if you don't you'll have increased scatter. This scatter will be more noticeable at: higher kVp, thicker patient, and larger field size.
If the xray machine is set at 50kV when it should have been set at 60 kV, the film would look: light
The quality of a beam refers to the____ and is controlled by the ___ Penetration of the beam; kV
Compare kV at 40 and at 80. The kV at 80 will have: A higher-quality beam
When is x-ray film most vulnerable? When it's wet during development
When does the film get initially rinsed in water? Between the developer and fixer tanks
The exposure time for nonscreen film can run as high as 2 seconds
Image noise refers to: Unwanted, random variations in shades of gray produced on a digital radiograph from electric or quantum interference.
Increased noise increases or decreases image contrast? Decreases
What is Dose Creep? Increases in exposure factors made in an attempt to reduce the amount of image noise
How soon should you process an image plate after exposure? As soon as possible. The electrons only retain the image for a few hours. 25% is lost within 8 hours.
Cassettes and IPs are not required for which type of imaging? Digital Radiography (DR)
What is DQE? Detective quantum efficiency = the sensitivity and accuracy of the system expressed as a % of x-ray energy that strikes the detector.
What is a scintillator? Material that fluoresces when exposed to the x-ray beam
What is a histogram? The graphical representation of the signal intensity of each of the pixel values.
Windowing controls the _____ and leveling controls the ______ range of densities displayed; brightness of the image
Which imaging method is preferred for Esophagography? Fluoroscopy or standing imaging. Lateral and dorsal are the least effective.
What are BIPS and what are they used for? BIPS = Barium impregnated polyethylene spheres. Used to assist in diagnosing GI obstructions, motility and gastric emptying disorders.
What is the purpose of performing a lower GI study? To evaluate the cecum, colon and rectum to help identify extramural masses, lesions, disease of ileocolic valves and morphology.
What is the purpose of performing an upper GI study? To evaluate the morphology of the stomach & small intestines and visualize extramural, mural and intramural lesions of the GI tract.
What are the four types of contrast agent? Which one is considered a negative contrast? Soluble (1) ionic & (2) nonionic radiopaque media, (3) insoluble inert radiopaque media, (4) radiolucent gases. Radiolucent = negative contrast.
What two studies are part of an excretory contrast study? Nephrogram (flow of blood to kidney) and Pyelogram (renal pelvis & ureters).
What is Azotemia? an excess of urea and other nitrogenous wastes in the blood as a result of kidney insufficiency
What is the best position for excretory contrast studies? Right lateral due to separation of the right and left kidney
Which positive contrast compound is not diluted by secretion or absorbed through the intestine? Barium Sulfate
Which contrast agent is used if the Veterinarian suspects a perforation of the small bowel? Triiodinated compound
The Radiolucent gases used as negative contrast agents include: Air, oxygen, carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide
Areas in an ultrasound that do not generate an echo are described as: Anechoic - appear black on ultrasound. Usually fluid filled structures.
Areas with returning echoes on an ultrasound that are the same as the surrounding tissues Isoechoic
Which transducer array is ideal for use in abdominal imaging? Microconvex curvilinear transducers
What shape does a sector array transducer produce? Wedge/pie-shaped image
What affect does increasing the intensity of the sound wave (amp) have on an ultrasound? Higher voltage = louder sound = louder echoes = brighter image.
What does the gain control modify? The strength of the returning echo
What is doppler ultrasound primarily used for? Evaluating blood flow
Abdominal focused assessment w/sonography for trauma (aFAST) requires what type of patient placement? Right lateral recumbency
Loss of amplitude in an ultrasound wave is referred to as: Attenuation
Which gas is used during endoscopic insufflation and why? CO2 because it has a reduced risk of air embolisms and you can control the flow rate.
Caudal aspect of the hind limb, distal to the tarsus: Plantar
Caudal aspect of the forelimb distal to the carpus: Palmar
____ and ____ within the structures of the abdominal cavity affect radiographic contrast. Gas; Fluid
Abdominal radiographs are exposed during: respiratory pause (after full exhalation; before inspiration) to minimize motion artifacts and position diaphragm cranially for better visualization of other organs.
What is the proper positioning for Lateral projection? Right lateral recumbency w/ forelimbs extended cranially and hindlimbs extended caudally. Foam pad under sternum to avoid rotation. Measure and Center: Slightly caudal to last rib.
What is the proper positioning for Ventrodorsal projection? Dorsal recumbency in V-trough; sand/foam bags on lateral wall if needed; extend forelimbs cranially and hindlimbs caudally. Measure and center: caudal aspect of last rib.
When should the lateral decubitus be used? When there is a suspicion of fluid or gas within the abdominal cavity or if standard ventrodorsal position would compromise the animal
What is the proper positioning for Ventrodorsal projection using a horizontal beam (lateral decubitus)? Right lateral recumbency w/ forelimbs extended cranially and hindlimbs extended caudally. Foam pad under sternum to avoid rotation. Measure and Center: Slightly caudal to last rib.
How can you confirm when a DV or VD thoracic image is properly positioned? When the sternum appears superimposed on the thoracic vertebrae
Thoracic imaging is primarily used to evaluate: The heart and lungs
When lesions are suspected in one lung, the patient should be positioned: with the unaffected lung down on the table
Which position is preferred for evaluation of the heart? Dorsoventral (DV)
Which position is preferred for evaluation of the Lungs? Ventrodorsal (VD) at full inspiration
What is the caudal collimation border for the ventrodorsal projection of the thorax? 1st lumbar vertebrae
Which characteristic can confirm proper position for the lateral view of the abdomen? The lateral process on the right side of the vertebra should superimpose over the ones on the left side
What are the collimation borders for Lateral projection of the abdomen? Cranial: halfway between caudal border of scapula and xiphoid Caudal: coxofemoral joints Dorsal: Spinous processes of vertebral column Ventral: Sternum
What are the collimation borders for Ventrodorsal projection of the abdomen? Lateral: abdominal wall within V-trough Cranial: halfway between caudal border of scapula and xiphoid Caudal: coxofemoral joints
When is the modified lateral projection of the abdomen used? To evaluate the entire length of the urinary tract when hindlimbs would obscure urethra if in standard lateral position
What are the collimation borders for Lateral projection of the thorax? Cranial: Thoracic inlet | Caudal: 1st lumbar vertebrae | Dorsal: spinous processes | Ventral: xiphoid | Entire rib-cage in collimated area
What are the collimation borders for Ventrodorsal projection of the thorax? Cranial: Thoracic inlet | Caudal: 1st lumbar vertebrae | Lateral: body walls | V-trough entirely within collimated area
What are the collimation borders for Lateral projection of the pelvis? Cranial: edge of ilium | Caudal: border of ischium | Dorsal: include 1/3 of femurs | Ventral: spinous processes of vertebrae
How are the hindlimbs positioned for a Ventrodorsal Extended hip projection? Fully extended evenly & parallel to each other; stifles rotated medially & parallel to each other; patellas centered over trochlear groove; tail aligned w/spine
Where is the cassette placed for a hindlimb image and why? On the tabletop b/c the measurement for dog & cat limbs is fairly small.
How are the hindlimbs positioned for a Craniocaudal projection of the femur? Place band of tape around femurs proximal to the stifles and pull femurs together so patellas are straight over distal femurs
What is the preferred position for mediolateral projection of the femur? Femoral head toward cathode end of x-ray tube.
What is the collimation for the flexed lateral projection of the tarsus? From the distal portion of the tibia to proximal portion of metatarsals
What is the collimation for a mediolateral projection of the femur? From the coxofemoral joint to the stifle
Where is the primary beam centered for the lateral projection of the pelvis? Greater trochanter of the femur
You can tell when a patient is in proper position for Ventrodorsal abdominal radiograph when: there is symmetry of the wings of the ilium and ribs, and central alignment of the spinous processes within the vertebrae.
Proper thoracic lateral positioning is evidenced by: the right and left ribs over the heart will be superimposed
Proper thoracic Ventrodorsal or Dorsoventral positioning is evidenced by: The sternum appearing to be superimposed on the thoracic vertebrae.
If you are asked to take a lateral decubitus view of the thorax, you would essentially be taking a: Ventrodorsal with a horizontal beam
How many baseline dental radiograph images are needed for Canines and Felines? Generally: 12 for Canines, 8 for Felines
What is the parallel technique used for in dental radiography? To obtain images of the mandibular 4th premolars and molars in dogs and cats
How would you correct a dental image that appears foreshortened? Decrease the bisecting angle by redirecting the tube head toward the patient.
How would you correct a dental image that appears elongated? Increase the bisecting angle by redirecting the tube head toward the sensor.
If additional magnification of small patients is desired, you should: Increase the object-film distance
If the alveolar bone isn't visible on a dental radiograph, then you should: Move the sensor laterally
What is the special x-ray tube placement for the ventrodorsal cervical spine and why is it necessary? Angled slightly toward the head of the animal so the x-ray beam can pass cleanly through the space between the vertebrae.
When positioning an animal for a craniocaudal humerus view, a common problem is that the: Humerus usually looks somewhat magnified
What is proper positioning for a Rostrocaudal Foramen Magnum projection? Dorsal recumbency, forelimbs secured caudally, foam/sandbag under neck, tilt nose approx. 30 degrees with mandible close to chest.
To determine if a lateral skull view is truly lateral or not, the ______should be superimposed Top and bottom canine teeth
When radiographing the thorax, where should the positioning sponges be placed to prevent rotation? Under the elbows and ventral abdomen
When positioning for the caudocranial view of a tibia, the ____side of the animal should be closest to the table Ventral
When should a left marker be used? When a ventrodorsal pelvis radiograph is being taken or a left limb is being radiographed
For a radiograph of soft tissue such as the pharynx, how should the x-ray machine settings be changed from the settings for the cervical spine? The kV should be increased, the mAs decreased
When performing a dorsoplantar radiograph of an equine hoof, what special piece of positioning equipment is used for this view and why? Tube tilted downward, cassette placed under hoof. All equine radiographs are taken in standing position. The cassette needs to be placed in a tunnel so that it is not damaged under the weight of the horse.
An evaluation of the navicular bone of an equine includes what views? Dorsopalmar/dorsoplantar view (65 degrees), flexor view, Oblique view
An evaluation of a carpus of a horse includes what views? Dorsopalmar/lateral, medial oblique, lateral oblique, flexed, skyline
Even though avian patients can be restrained with tape directly to a cassette, what method is more highly recommended and why? Tape the bird to a Plexiglass sheet rather than the cassette to allow the bird to be moved from one cassette to another without having to untape each time
A cervical spine study of an equine requires collimation centered: On the ventral part of the neck, in a lateral view
Computed tomography is not useful for imaging which body part? The abdomen of a horse
What would be the best type of equipment and settings to use for optimal radiographs of birds or lizards? High mA, low kVp, rare earth screen
Define echogenicity: How well a certain tissue type reflects sound waves
What is a concern when attempting to ultrasound the GI area? The concern is gas or air which is reflective and doesn't allow for proper visualization of the structures around it
When fractures are suspected in the hips, the __________ view is often used for initial evaluation. Frogleg view: dorsal recumbency with thorax in V-trough, femurs at 45 degrees to the spine (large dogs 90 degrees). Center between ischial tuberosities.
What do you look at when evaluating a film to see if the ventrodorsal abdominal radiograph is truly ventrodorsal? Dorsal ventral processes
According to the bone rule of collimating radiographs, how should the beam be centered? Over the caudal joint and should include one inch of bone on either side.
The thoracic girdle is also referred to as the: Shoulder area (including scapulae and clavicle.
Minimally, what 2 views are taken of every area radiographed? Lateral view and ventrodorsal (VD) view
Generally speaking, the most common error in taking an abdominal radiograph is that the shot is too: Caudal and doesn't include the liver
You're taking a radiograph of a spaniel's abdomen. It's best to put the animal in which position(s)? Right lateral or Dorsal recumbency
When radiographing the pelvis in a lateral position the _____ should be included in the view Entire femur
Which radiographic view of a horse requires general anesthesia? Ventrodorsal view of the pelvis
What is generally the ideal focal-film distance when radiographing exotic companion animals? 40 inches
Where should a Bird be measured for the lateral and VD radiographs? Mid-sternum at the thickest part of the chest
For small mammals, a chest film is taken with the primary beam centered on the: Xiphoid process
What does PID stand for? Position indicating device
How many views are normally required when radiographing an equine joint? 6 views
Which bone in horses only requires three views to be taken? Navicular bone
The vasovagal response is induced in lizards by gentle digital pressure applied to the: Orbits
Incisors generally require an angle of ______ degrees to produce a good quality dental radiograph. 60 degrees
To take a lateral proximal phalanx (P1) in a horse, you should position the beam at what angle to the ground? Parallel
Technique is the term used to describe: All factors that are set on the machine
What are the 3 methods of radiation protection? Distance, shielding, & time
Radiographic envelopes generally do not contain what information? kVp and mA settings
What is the best way to remove hair and dust from an intensifying screen? Dampen a gauze pad with cleaning solution and wipe the surface carefully.
The purpose of a rectifier is to: Convert direct current to alternating current (DC to AC)
After placing the film into the tank for developing, you should: Gently move the film up and down to remove air bubbles
When should you refill a film cassette? Immediately after you place the film into the water tank
What material absorbs the most x-rays? Bone
If a radiograph has a dark background, and the bones are relatively bright, for the next radiograph you should: Decrease the mAs
According to the inverse square law, if you double the subject's distance from the X-ray tube, the X-ray exposure is: Cut to one quarter (1/4)
An automatic processor takes less time to process film than hand developing because: It uses special chemicals and a higher developing temperature
Why is it important to keep the darkroom counter tops clean? When a film box is opened, it creates a vacuum that can draw in dirt and debris
If the 'S' setting is correct what is true about an image taken at 70 kVp as compared to one taken at 50 kVp? At 70 kV there's an increased radiographic density and decreased radiographic contrast
A higher kVp will result in: dense, darker images
What component of the fixer decreases the time needed for drying a developed film? Hardener
A special film must be used with an intensifying screen using rare-earth phosphorus because the: Crystals emit light in the green spectrum, which silver halide film won't absorb
Along with solvent and preservatives, fixer contains: a fixing agent, acidifier and hardener
Why would you perform a survey radiograph before a GI series? To ensure that a previously administered enema worked properly
In what situation would barium be contradicted as a first line contrast agent? If there's suspected intestinal perforation
Computed tomography is useful for imaging which body part of a feline? The Spine
In ultrasound, _____ wave lengths produce greater resolution. shorter wave lengths
Name two functions of the adjustable collimator seen on most stationary small-animal machines: To limit the area covered by the primary beam; to reduce scatter radiation
What is the minimal radiation safety protection necessary when in the room during the x-ray exposure? Lead gown, lead gloves with 0.5mm lead equivalent, thyroid protector
What is the purpose of a rotating anode? To dissipate heat more quickly and prevent damage to the anode.
What determines the amount of absorption of the x-rays as they pass through an object? The atomic number of the material, the physical density of the object, and the energy of the x-rays
What is the difference between primary and scatter radiation? Primary = found in x-ray beam leaving machine and makes the image on the film. Scatter = radiation that bounces off the target and is harmful to others in room at time of exposure
What is the purpose of the aluminum filter, located between the x-ray tube and the collimator? Eliminates the soft x-ray, which causes skin damage.
Why is it important in veterinary radiology to keep the mA setting as high as possible? Exposure time can be lower. Since motion is the main artifact in vet med, shortened time = less chance of motion from the animal. Also reduces radiation exposure.
List three functions of a cassette: hold the intensifying screens, keep the film clean, and keep light away from the film.
What is a latent image? Image on film once the film is exposed to radiation, but cannot be seen because film development hasn't yet occurred.
When storing film, what three factors must be considered? The film storage must be light-tight, dry, and cool. Free from radiation; no fumes from chemicals in sufficient amounts to be a detriment to the film.
What is the most common cause of x-ray tube failure? Filament evaporation
Where is the grid located and what is its purpose? Under the table; above the cassette holding tray. Prevents scatter radiation from reaching the film when cassette is placed in the holding tray.
What is the difference between nonscreen film and regular film? Discuss appearance and function: Screen film: placed in cassette for use; sensitive to light which produces the image via intensifying screens. Nonscreen: placed in lighttight paper envelope; sensitive to x-rays which produce the image vs. light. Higher detail, requires more radiation
When does reticulation of the film occur? During the developing process when film is moved from a chemical of one temperature to another at a different temperature. The change causes reticulation. Keeping all at same temp prevents reticulation.
What are the steps in the manual film processing procedure? Developer; wash; fixer; wash; dry
When developing, films should spend twice as long in the ____ as in the _____ fixer; developer
List three possible causes in the radiology room for a light radiograph: Not enough radiation; tube is too far away from the cassette; cassette was placed in the tray when it should have been placed on the tabletop.
List two possible causes in the darkroom for a dark radiograph: Overdeveloped (too long in the developer solution); fog due to improper lighting or light leak.
Why is it necessary to check the collimator light against the x-ray beam? The light mechanism is located in the collimator, but isn't the same mechanism that controls the size of the beam. If they don't align, you might expose a different area than the light is indicating.
For most vet clinic technique charts, exposure time usually needs to be ____ when a grid is used. Doubled
Which skull view requires the x-ray tube to be tilted? Why is this a requirements for this view? Open-mouth nasal view (ventrodorsal). Helps prevent the mandible from superimposing over the nasal area and therefore rendering the radiograph useless for this area
Name two ways the tympanic bullae can be evaluated. Give the positioning for each. Lateral position- head is rotated to the affected side Open-mouth tympanic bullae-dorsal recumbency, nose is pointed to ceiling, lower jaw slightly opened and beam centered into back of mouth
When radiographing the spine of an animal, there are four "points" that we use for landmarks. What are they? Base of skull, shoulder, where last rib meets spine, the greater trochanter of the femur
Name several contrast agents that are commonly used in veterinary radiography. Barium sulfate, iodine preparations, oxygen, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, and nitrous oxide
Describe the steps required for taking a dorsoventral view of a turtle: Turtle on back, flip ventrally right before exposure but wait for legs and head to be extended then take radiograph
What is the concept behind ultrasound images? a transducer placed against the skin emits sound waves into patient; different tissues reflect different amounts of the waves and the information is fed to computer for evaluation
What angle is used for obtaining the image of the premolars and molars with a feline patient in sternal recumbency? 35 degrees
What angle is used for obtaining the image of the fourth premolar in a canine patient placed in sternal recumbency? 45 degrees
What is the proper collimation for the small mammal lateral view of the abdomen? Cranial to the xyphoid and caudal to the pubis
What is the proper collimation for the small mammal lateral view of the thorax? Cranial to thoracic inlet and caudal to last rib
What are two common errors that occur in dental radiography? Elongation and foreshortening of the teeth
What are the two techniques used in dental imaging? Parallel and bisecting angle techniques
Describe the basic idea of how an x-ray tube works: Electrons generated at cathode by filament. Voltage passed between cathode & anode. Electrons pass from cathode to anode an colide with target. X-rays are then directed down towards patient.
How is the electromagnetic spectrum measured? Energy (eV), frequency (Hz), and wavelength (l)
Why are short wavelengths better than long wavelengths for radiograph production? They’re more powerful; higher potential for penetration through mass.
Define milliamperage (mA): The number/quantity of x-rays that will be emitted from the machine. Higher amount = darker image.
What affects the film speed? What are the film speed ratings? The size of the silver halide crystals. Ratings = high-speed (fast), average (par), slow (detailed).
Define Object Film Distance (OFD): The distance from the object being radiographed to the cassette.
What are the 4 technique charts normally kept for the x-ray machine? Thorax, abdomen, pelvis/spine, extremities
What is the density order of tissues from low to high? Gas > fat > water > bone
What four areas are evaluated on a completed radiograph to decide if it’s high quality? Film contrast, density of the image, proper positioning, and labeling.
How do you try to remove image noise? since noise is directly inverse to image contrast, use higher mAs or kVp to minimize noise
What type of cassette screen is used in computed radiography (CR)? A screen composed of photostimulable phosphors
What needs to be done prior to a contrast study? Animal fasted 8-24hrs; enema if applicable. Perform early so gas doesn't build up and obscure the image. Take a survey radiograph. before admin of contrast.
List three types of transducers: Sector, linear, curvilinear, phased, and annular arrays
What is the difference between Positioning and Landmarks? Positioning: the way the animal looks when lying on the table. Landmarks: part of the animal you use to determine whether or not you are including entire body part in radiograph
What does OFA stand for? Orthopaedic Foundation for Animals
What does CHD stand for? Canine Hip Displasia
What do the PennHIP radiographs evaluate? Distraction index, arthritis, and breed laxity profile ranking
Created by: AmySichta
Popular Veterinary sets

 

 



Voices

Use these flashcards to help memorize information. Look at the large card and try to recall what is on the other side. Then click the card to flip it. If you knew the answer, click the green Know box. Otherwise, click the red Don't know box.

When you've placed seven or more cards in the Don't know box, click "retry" to try those cards again.

If you've accidentally put the card in the wrong box, just click on the card to take it out of the box.

You can also use your keyboard to move the cards as follows:

If you are logged in to your account, this website will remember which cards you know and don't know so that they are in the same box the next time you log in.

When you need a break, try one of the other activities listed below the flashcards like Matching, Snowman, or Hungry Bug. Although it may feel like you're playing a game, your brain is still making more connections with the information to help you out.

To see how well you know the information, try the Quiz or Test activity.

Pass complete!
"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
Retries:
restart all cards