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Vet Clinical 1 Final
Vet Clinical Practices 1 Final Exam Review
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The gingival mucous membranes are important areas for a veterinary technician to assess during a physical examination. What may the capillary refill time (CRT) of <1 second indicate? | Hypertension |
| The ________ is an easy place to examine for the yellow discoloration seen with icterus. | sclera |
| Which of the following lymph nodes can be examined for irregular size and shape through external palpation of a normal animal? | Popliteal |
| When should discussion about a pet’s behavioral and development needs begin with the pet’s owner? | at the first veterinary appointment |
| Hyperresonance heard during percussion is | a booming sound heard over a gas-filled area. |
| When taking a patient history, it is important to ask open-ended questions. An open-ended question is one that | requires clients to fill in the information themselves. |
| The MAOR, also known as a ward treatment sheet, is used to ensure that hospitalized patients are given treatments, diagnostic tests, and diet as requested by the attending veterinarian. When a medication was inadvertently not given what should be done? | Enter the letters “NG” into the box |
| You may hear this abnormal lung sound in an asthmatic cat | wheezes |
| What is an important advantage of electronic medical records compared to hard copy versions? | They allow for multiple viewers simultaneously |
| A clinical finding that indicates glaucoma is _____. | increased intraocular pressure |
| During physical examination of a dog you note that he is excitable and startled by noises in the examination room. You have observed his | mentation |
| Systematic desensitization is a procedure by which we change a dog’s emotional response to a stimulus. This is done by ________. | gradually increasing exposure to the stimulus. |
| _____________ is the part of the eye behind the cornea but in front of the iris and should normally be clear. | Anterior chamber |
| What should be the next step if a limb is found to be painful upon examination? | Check the corresponding limb on the opposite side |
| Hypothermia can lead to | hypotension |
| A capillary refill time of more than 2 seconds can indicate | pericardial effusion |
| ______________ conditioning occurs when a neutral stimulus comes to elicit a reflexive response when paired with a stimulus that normally elicits that response. | Classical |
| Taking a behavior-specific history can be challenging because | clients anthropomorphize their pet’s behavior. |
| Associations that are ________ will be learned most readily. | highly predictable |
| Medical records maybe used as legal documents therefore written entries | should be signed or initialed by the author, and the author’s credentials. |
| Retropulsed means | pushing backwards, such as on the eyes |
| ____________ is the position of the lower eyelid when it is rolling outward away from the eye. | Ectropion |
| _________, also known as response blocking, is a technique that exposes an animal to a fearful stimulus at full intensity and prevents the animal from escaping until it ceases to be fearful. | Flooding |
| ___________________ is the process used to substitute an alternative emotional response or behavior that is incompatible with the problem behavior or emotional response you are trying to eliminate. | Counter conditioning |
| __________________ learning occurs when an animal forms a learned association between two features or events. | Associative |
| __________________ staining is usually required for recognition of a corneal ulcer. | Fluorescein |
| Absence of lung sounds during auscultation suggests | air or fluid in the pleural space |
| Farm animal veterinarians keep _____ immunization records on large numbers of animals. | combined herd |
| Normal vesicular respiratory sounds are heard over normal lung parenchyma and are produced by movement of air through | small bronchi |
| Light palpation is used to detect ____________; deep palpation is used to assess __________. | tenderness; underlying organs |
| A fluctuation in heart rate with respiration is called | sinus arrhythmia. |
| The rate, pattern, and effort of breathing are controlled by | the brain and respiratory muscles |
| Increased respiratory rate can be caused by | anxiety |
| Another name for the provision of exercises and materials that stimulate physical and mental activity is environmental ________. | enrichment |
| Pulses are generally evaluated using the femoral artery, which is located | in the inguinal region |
| Dullness heard during percussion is | a thudlike sound produced by an encapsulated tissue. |
| A bounding pulse can be caused by | fever |
| New dog introductions should be performed | at an area away from the owner's residence |
| The _____________ includes the major medical disorders experienced by a patient during its lifetime. Each problem represents a conclusion or a decision resulting from examination, investigation, and analysis of the database. | master problem list |
| Which of the following is a component of proper use of positive punishment in behavior modification? | Punishment should not be severe enough to cause the pet to be fearful. |
| Severe hyperthermia is | a body temperature >107° F. |
| Repeated sweeping eye movements are called | nystagmus |
| When performing an eye examination, which of the following internal structures requires some specialized equipment to adequately view? | retina |
| Normal bronchial respiratory sounds are produced by movement of air through the | large bronchi |
| To obtain an animal’s respiratory rate most commonly you should | count for 15 seconds and then multiply by 4. |
| Absence of a palpable pulse (or a significant change in pulse quality) accompanied by an audible heartbeat is called a _____________. | pulse deficit |
| Inside the pinnae is a common place to recognize ______________, which is indicative of a primary hemostatic defect (such as thrombocytopenia). | petechiation |
| Auscultation of a patient means to | listen to sounds produced by the body |
| An awareness of body part position is termed | proprioception |
| Although heart valve positions in dogs are similar to those in _________, abnormal heart sounds in the latter are more commonly auscultated in the sternal area. | cats |
| Resonance heard during percussion is | a hollow sound such as heard in air-filled lungs. |
| The fluid wave that travels from the heart to the peripheral arteries, due to blood being pumped into the aorta during ventricular contraction is called a | pulse |
| Possible causes of an animal’s illness are termed | differential diagnoses |
| Diseases of the oral cavity may cause | halitosis |
| When observing the general appearance of a standing or recumbent animal during a physical examination you would assess the animal’s | general body condition |
| Stethoscope auscultation is used to assess areas within | a body cavity |
| What is the term for the presence of different sizes of a patient’s pupils? | anisocoria |
| A depressed animal is | conscious but slow to respond |
| Which is the typical period of socialization in the kitten? | 2 to 7 weeks of age |
| During a physical examination on a dog, which heart valves can be auscultated on the left side of the chest? | pulmonic, aortic, mitral |
| Although each veterinary hospital has its own review and purging schedule, it is generally accepted that old files that have not been in use for ___ or more maybe shredded. | 8 years |
| Moist lung sounds during auscultation indicate | fluid in the lung tissues |
| Pyometra most often occurs | 2 weeks to 2 months after a heat cycle. |
| Completion of the _______ portion of the SOAP notes requires analysis of all subjective and objective data that have been gathered thus far. | assessment |
| A leading cause of pet relinquishment to animal shelters is | behavior problems reported by owners |
| What duration of time should encompass an active medical record? | 3 years |
| The ________________ period maybe one of the most critical periods of development for a dog. Ideally, all puppies should be exposed to a large variety of the environmental features that they are likely to encounter as an adult during this period. | socialization |
| Which is involved with the “take away” method of behavior modification? | Take away an object valued by the offending animal. |
| Tympany is another term for | a musical drumlike sound caused by an air-filled organ. |
| In general, veterinary medical records are the property of | the veterinary practice |
| In which type of medical record systems is patient information is kept together by subject matter? | SOVMR |
| The key to a good physical examination is | careful completion of all parts of the examination every time it is performed. |
| Abnormal lung sounds caused by air movement through small airways within the lumen reduced by fluid, mucus, or thickened walls are called | crackles |
| Which heart arrhythmia may be normal in dogs? | sinus arrhythmia |
| Each quadrant of the lungs should be auscultated through at least ________ to _______ respiratory cycles of inspiration and expiration. | two; three |
| Dogs may normally have a slight variation in heart rhythm, such that the heart rate increases slightly during inspiration and decreases slightly during expiration. This is called ______________, and it is a sign that a dog has normal cardiac function. | respiratory sinus arrhythmia |
| Why cannot the kidneys normally be palpated in a canine? | they are covered in fat |
| Normal capillary refill time is | 1-2 seconds |
| A short capillary refill time of less than 1 second may be related to | compensatory shock |
| After the fluid has been administered when using an orogastric tube, the tube is bent to occlude it and then withdrawn in a downward direction. This technique | prevents a backflow of fluid from entering the trachea. |
| When surgical instruments are placed into the ultrasonic cleaner, box locks should be in the ______ position. | open |
| The ________________ is a specialized type of hand-held retractor used to grasp the horn of the uterus during an ovariohysterectomy. | Snook hook |
| What is the carrier gas that is used in all anesthetic procedures? | oxygen |
| When troubleshooting signal loss when using a pulse oximeter with a transmission probe, the veterinary technician should always first | make sure the patient is safe by assessing vital signs. |
| Some solid medications are sticky when administered orally, and prolonged contact with the esophageal mucosa can lead to serious complications. What can be done in order to manage this? | Follow the solid dose with a syringe of fluid to mobilize the medication. |
| Why should intramuscular injections at the area of the caudal thigh be directed lateral to the body of the muscle? | To prevent damage to the sciatic nerve. |
| Ideally, the topical anesthetic should be in contact with the skin for ____________________________ to reach its maximal effectiveness. | 30 to 60 minutes |
| ____________________ is a device that is designed to detect changes in the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin. | a pulse oximeter |
| Considering intratracheal dosing of medications, what does the “A” in ALE represent? | atropine |
| When should a non-rebreathing circuit be used for surgical intubation? | When the patient is <7 kg |
| Why would a clinician choose the intraperitoneal (IP) route when delivering a medication to a patient? | There are complications with accessing a patent vessel for IV injection. |
| Veterinary technicians should monitor respiratory rates while the patient is under anesthesia. A normal respiration rate for a dog under anesthesia is | 8 to 20 breaths per minute |
| Which route of medication administration is consistent with topical application of ointments or creams placed directly on the skin? | transdermal |
| It has been proved that culture swabs of the pharynx and the tonsil region are unreliable in evaluating lower respiratory tract disease because | of contamination of the samples with oral flora. |
| Premedications are chosen to produce a specific set of desired effects, such as | sedation, analgesia, and muscle relaxation. |
| When placing a IV catheter in the cephalic vein of achondroplastic breeds (such as the Dachshund or Basset hound), ___________ of the carpus will stretch the vessel, thereby improving vessel immobilization. | flexion |
| _______________ is a procedure that may be used to diagnose or treat pleural filling defects (pneumothorax or pleural effusion). | Thoracocentesis |
| Chamber induction of anesthesia should have a vaporizer setting of _________ for isoflurane, or ________for sevoflurane. | 3% to 5%; 4% to 6% |
| If the patient needs both an ophthalmic solution and an ointment, | the solution should be placed in the eye 3 to 5 minutes before the ointment. |
| Which of the following sites is recommended for a rabies vaccination in a cat? | right rear leg |
| Oxygen tanks are which color when purchased in the United States? | green |
| Which of the following is contraindicated concerning caring for a catheter used for the IV delivery of chemotherapeutic medications? | Regular flushing of the catheter with heparinized saline. |
| Which hemostatic forceps have transverse grooves associated with only the distal-most aspect of the jaws? | Kelly |
| _____________________ of the neck or movement by the patient during oral medication administration may result in fluid aspiration into the trachea. | Hyperextension |
| What is the most common route used to administer parenteral medications? | subcutaneous |
| What is the vaporizer setting that should be used as a baseline to provide surgical anesthesia in most cases? | 1.5 times MAC |
| Maintenance of the pulse oximeter probes should be done by | wiping with a mild disinfectant. |
| When placing an orogastric tube, it is important to premeasure from the _______ to ___________. | tip of the nose; the last rib |
| Once the needle has been inserted for a subcutaneous injection, the syringe plunger is retracted slightly, and the needle hub is checked for blood prior to giving the injection. If blood appears in the hub | the needle should be withdrawn and reinserted in another location. |
| Fluid administration via the ______ route is not recommended in severely dehydrated or critically ill patients when immediate absorption is required. | SC |
| _______________ are instruments that are used to pry periosteum or muscle from the bone surface. | Periosteal elevators |
| Difficulty keeping a patient adequately anesthetized is most often related to problems with the machine and associated equipment. What should you check? | Check that the oxygen is on and flow is adequate, the vaporizer is not empty and is turned on, the machine is correctly assembled, no system leaks are present, and the endotracheal tube is properly placed and cuffed. |
| Urine collected by manual expression of the bladder can be used for routine urinalysis, but should not be used for culture because urine obtained by this method | will contain contaminants from the lower urinary tract, skin, and hair. |
| ____________ are fine, straight, or curved scissors used for cutting delicate tissue, such as fat or thin muscle. | Metzenbaum scissors |
| Lack of movement of the reservoir bag or of the unidirectional valves when the anaesthetized patient breathes could indicate | that the endotracheal tube is not in the trachea. |
| During anesthesia healthy SA patients should receive intermittent positive pressure ventilation (bagging, manual ventilation) at a rate of ____________ to prevent atelectasis. | 1 breath every 2 to 5 minutes |
| During blood collection, the amount of negative pressure applied to aspirate the blood into the syringe must not be excessive, as this may | result in hemolysis of red blood cells. |
| A technician who is knowledgeable in IV catheter complications is performing IV catheter care and notices that the catheter insertion site is erythematous, swollen, painful, and warm to the touch. The veterinary technician assesses the problem to be | thrombophlebitis |
| When using a mask induction technique for a cat or dog, what should the oxygen flow rate be set at? | 300 ml/kg/minute |
| One of the best ways to assess pulmonary function is through measurement of | arterial blood gasses |
| An area several inches in diameter is clipped and surgically prepared for a thoracocentesis. Thoracocentesis is performed where? | at the 7th to 8th intercostal space |
| A normotensive, normovolemic patient with intact renal function should produce ___________ of urine per kilogram of body weight per hour. | 1 to 2 mL |
| The required distance for a jugular catheter insertion is estimated by measuring the distance from | the intended insertion site to the caudal edge of the triceps muscle. |
| Which surgical instrument is used to scrape hard tissues, such as bone? | Currettes |
| If the anesthetized patient begins to retch or vomit at any time during general anesthesia, quickly position the patient’s head | lower than the body |
| After it has been rinsed in cold water or soaked in detergent, each surgical instrument should be inspected and scrubbed with a soft brush in warm water using an instrument detergent with a pH of ________. | 7 |
| What is a benefit of using external fixators to repair a fractured bone? | They allow for closed fracture repair. |
| For noninvasive blood pressure measurements, the cuff should be placed | at the same elevation as the heart |
| When administering liquid medication, the syringe tip should be placed in the | commissure of the lips |
| If during a surgical procedure, the primary tank becomes empty and there is no reserve tank, you should | disconnect the endotracheal tube from the breathing system. |
| If the initial venipuncture attempt on a peripheral vein is unsuccessful, reinsert the needle _________ previous entry site. | proximal to the |
| Recommended fasting times to withhold food prior to anesthesia in dogs and cats are | 8 to 12 hours |
| ______________ are used to cut bone by pounding on the flat or flared end of the instrument with a mallet. | Osteotomes |
| Coherent light emitted from a laser means that it | is uniform in wavelength |
| What does tissue swelling distal to an IV catheter bandage usually indicate? | an overly tight bandage |
| It is imperative that the veterinary technician have a standard protocol to follow when preparing and anesthetic machine for use. The first step should always be to | Check the quantity of carrier gas in the compressed gas cylinders. |
| When performing a cystocentesis, release... | negative aspiration pressure on the plunger of the syringe before withdrawing the needle. |
| The __________________ catheter is the most common type of catheter used today, and is used primarily for peripheral vein catheterization. | OTN |
| When using electrocautery if good contact is not maintained between the surgical patient and the ground plate | the patient might be burned |
| Cerclage wire is used in orthopedic procedures to | encircle bones or bone fragments |
| Which species of animals is historically implicated with the development of vaccine-associated sarcomas? | Feline |
| What is the state that is induced by dissociative drugs such as ketamine, characterized by the patient appearing awake but unresponsive to its environment? | Catelepsy |
| ______________-is a self-retaining retractor. | Gelpi |
| Cats that have had a urinary obstruction for a long period are often obtunded and _________ and, therefore, should be carefully evaluated and monitored before anesthetic agents are administered. | hyperkalemic |
| Lasers are divided into four classes according to their ability to | inflict damage to skin or eyes |
| Regular intravenous catheter care should include | close inspection at least every 48 hours. |
| _________ tissue forceps are considered to be “traumatic forceps” and should be used only on tissues that are being removed from the patient (e.g., tumors, damaged bowel, etc.). | Allis |
| ___________ lasers create minimal latent and collateral thermal damage, and can be used for precise cutting. | CO2 |
| Abdominocentesis is performed __________________ to avoid the liver, spleen, and urinary bladder. | at the right midabdominal region |
| Deep lumbar injections in the third to fifth lumbar region are used to administer heartworm treatment. However, placement of the needle in the lumbosacral muscles is not recommended in ____________. | very thin animals |
| In addition to the intravenous route of parenteral injection, which type of injection allows for instantaneous absorption of medications? | Intraosseous |
| ___________ thumb forceps are commonly used. They have multiple intermeshing teeth with a broad tip to provide good tissue and suture needle handling for most routine suturing and wound/incisional closures. | Brown-Adson |
| The primary difference between needle holders is the presence of built-in scissors. The ___________ needle holder contains built- in scissors. | Olsen-Hegar |
| Hemostatic forceps are classified according to | their size, the pattern of the grooves on the inside surface of the jaws, and whether they are straight or curved. |
| Low oxygen saturation is defined as SpO2 ___________ on a pulse oximeter. | <95% |
| The ___________ is the best noninvasive tool for judging the appropriateness of the respiratory rate and volume in an anesthetized patient. | capnograph |
| If excessive pressure is applied to the airways, alveoli can rupture, resulting in pneumothorax or pneumomediastinum, Never allow pressure in the breathing circuit to exceed ____________ in small animals. | 20cm of water |
| If the patient requires multiple topical ophthalmic medications in the same eye, these should be applied | 3 to 5 minutes apart to allow for sufficient absorption. |
| Signs of an anal gland impaction include | scooting |
| Infectious agents that can infect a human or an animal via a common vector, such as fleas or ticks, are called | shared-vector zoonoses |
| What is the most important advice to give clients regarding insulin administration? | To always match insulin type to the proper insulin syringe |
| Treatment for feline heartworm disease is unrewarding because | the death of just one heartworm can trigger anaphylactic shock or cause pulmonary thromboembolism, both of which can result in sudden death. |
| Intraosseous catheter placement is typically utilized in which of the following patients? | pediatric |
| Daily weighing is important in which of the following situations? | renal failure |
| Any unexplained fever may be a result of | catheter-related infection |
| Buccal administration of analgesia is effective in | feline patients |
| Which is the most common form of heart dysfunction in cats? | Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy |
| Bladder expression is necessary to prevent | bladder atony |
| ________________ is the accumulation of excessive fluid within the thoracic cavity. | Pleural effusion |
| Assessment of the central nervous system should begin with which of the following? | level of consciousness |
| The compilation of information on a patient—such as physical examination results, medical history, attending veterinarian input, and diagnostic test results—is collectively considered the | database |
| No gender preference has been noted for non-obstructive feline lower urinary tract disease (FLUTD). Obstructive FLUTD | is seen primarily in males |
| A ______________ is a pathologic stone formed from mineral salts found in the urinary tract. | urolith |
| Mucous membranes that are brick red in color may indicate | endotoxemia or shock |
| Bloody, tarry stools may indicate | GI ulceration |
| Hyperthyroidism is a disease that most commonly affects __________ . | cats |
| Degenerative atrioventricular valve disease affects the cardiac valve leaflets or cusps and is characterized by thickening of the tissue. It primarily affects dogs, with approximately 60% of cases involving | only the mitral valve |
| What are the common signs of hypoxia? | mucus membrane pallor, cyanosis, tachypnea |
| Lack of breathing is termed | apnea |
| What is the most important criterion of patient selection for orogastric intubation? | presence of a swallowing reflex |
| When giving a medicated bath, it is of good practice to use | examination gloves |
| Paradoxical breathing is common with which of the following? | Diaphragmatic hernias |
| A patient with heart failure has clinical signs referable to the perfusion deficit. These signs include: | tachypnea, cough, exercise intolerance and weakness |
| Clinical signs of __________________ are related to the increased metabolic rate and include weight loss, increased appetite, increased activity level, polyuria and polydipsia, vomiting, and diarrhea. | hyperthyroidism |
| Mean arterial pressure should be greater than _______ to perfuse vital organs. | 60 mmHg |
| Patients with infectious diseases often require extensive nursing care and support while the patient’s body fights the infection. This is especially true of _____ infections, for which there is no direct way to destroy the pathogen. | viral |
| Which type of portosystemic shunt (PSS) is associated with older dogs as a secondary effect of hepatitis of chronic duration? | acquired |
| Delayed skin turgor indicates | dehydration |
| Injection of local anesthetics or analgesics into the lumbosacral junction is termed | epidural administration |
| ___________ is the coughing up of blood. | hemoptysis |
| Which enzyme is implicated in pancreatitis? | Trypsin |
| The maximum force caused by contraction of the left ventricle of the heart is termed | systolic blood pressure |
| The normal body temperature of a neonatal pup or kitten is | 35.5° to 36.5°C. |
| Hematochezia is the presence of blood in the feces. It can be seen with diarrhea or as streaks of blood on the outside of normally formed stool. Hematochezia usually indicates a problem with the | colon or rectum |
| Dietary therapy that includes novel proteins and carbohydrates for patients with food allergies or intolerance, and is aimed at reducing inflammation, is called a _____ diet. | hypoallergenic |
| Diagnosis of feline heartworm disease via antigen testing alone is unreliable because | unisex infection is common in cats |
| Clinical signs of ____________________ include hindlimb paresis/paralysis and severe pain, cyanotic toe pads, absent or poor femoral pulses, and coolness of the affected limb. | feline arterial thromboembolism |
| This bandage relies on an extremely thick secondary layer such as cast padding or cotton, which is tightly compressed to cause uniform compression of the distal limb. | Robert Jones |
| Distal limb bandages are not appropriate for fractures above the ______ or the ________ because they cannot effectively immobilize injuries above those joints. | elbow; stifle |
| For optimal effectiveness in immobilization, a cast must immobilize | the joint proximal and distal to the injury. |
| What type of sling is used to immobilize all of the joints on a forelimb? | Velpeau sling |
| Spica splints are used to keep a limb in _______ in order to reduce the mobility of the affected limb. | extension |
| If fluid strike-through of the tertiary layer of a bandage occurs, | bacteria from the environment can penetrate the bandage and contaminate the wound. |
| What is the main advantage of a fiberglass cast over its plaster counterpart? | Fiberglass is strong yet lightweight |
| When monitoring distal limb bandages an increased distance between the toe nails indicates | swelling |
| What is the function of a 90/90 flexion sling in puppies? | To stretch the quadriceps |
| A support bandage placed on a limb before a splint should be long enough to cover | the limb above and below the ends of the splint. |
| When applying a fiber glass cast __________ the water, the faster the curing process of the resin, resulting in premature hardening of the fiberglass cast material. | the warmer |
| What is the proper way to remove a cast from an equine limb? | Cut both the medial and lateral surfaces of the cast |
| The _______________ layer of a bandage, absorbs and holds exudate (if present) and provides some immobilization and support. | secondary |
| A(n) ________ is a non-weight-bearing sling applied to the pelvic limb to protect the hip joint after injury. | Ehmer |
| The quarter drape is positioned a few centimeters from the proposed incision site and once placed | should never be advanced toward the proposed incision. |
| Synthetic absorbable sutures offer an advantage over natural absorbable sutures because _______. | they are not significantly affected by inflammation |
| ______________ needles have three cutting edges; however, the third edge is on the outer convex curvature of the needle and are designed to resist tissue cutout. | Reverse-cutting |
| ____________ needles contain a sharp tip that is capable of piercing and spreading tissue. | Taper |
| Silk is a multifilament suture that consists of braided or twisted strands. Silk has _____________, which makes it the near-perfect suture to handle. | no memory |
| ____________ needles cause greater tissue trauma due to the loop of suture through the eye. | Eyed |
| _________________ sutures have greater capillary action. | Braided |
| Surgical patient drapes are sterile and placed on the nonsterile patient | by the sterile surgeon or sterile assistant. |
| Electrocautery plates | should be indirect contact with the patient at all times. |
| It is the job of the circulating nurse to watch that sterility is maintained in the OR. The most likely time for a break in sterility to occur is | when the patient is being draped |
| __________ sutures are considered easier to pass through the tissue because they cause less resistance. | Monofilament |
| __________ sutures lose most of their breaking strength within 60 days | Absorbable |
| When fine electrocautery is required, as during an ophthalmic procedure, ______ should be used. | Bipolar electrocautery |
| ________________ patterns allow increased control of suture tension and apposition of wounds. | Interrupted |
| ____________ is an example of a braided multifilament suture. | Polyglycolic acid (Dexon) |
| Irrigation is mandatory during bone drilling primarily because | heat generated from drilling can cause thermal damage to bone and result in tissue necrosis. |
| If a small intestinal resection is performed in a horse, this segment of small intestine is isolated from the rest of the abdominal cavity as much as possible with _____________ and impervious drapes. | laparotomy sponges |
| Which of the following tissues is not considered to be located in the retroperitoneal space? | urinary bladder |
| Suture needles can be preloaded with suture. This is called a/an ________________ needle. | swaged |
| Veterinary technicians in the OR are very careful to count all gauze sponges before and after abdominal surgery because | if left behind they can cause adhesions and inflammation. |
| While setting up for equine intestinal surgery, the veterinary technician must set out | extra gowns and gloves |
| Surgical lights should be finely adjusted to the surgical site | after the patient is draped |
| Drains are generally removed when | fluid production has slowed or ceased. |
| Catgut is a _____ suture constructed from the intestines of sheep, goats, or cattle and consists mostly of collagen. | multifilament |
| ________ drains are considered gravity dependent. | Passive |
| Which grip of the scalpel is most commonly used when making long incisions such as with a celiotomy? | Fingertip grip |
| A patient undergoing an intercostal thoracotomy should be positioned for surgery in | lateral recumbancy |
| Once the patient is prepared for surgery, the surgical assistant and veterinarian should avoid contact with the skin because | it increases the risk of contamination |
| If a surgeon’s or surgical assistant’s gown or glove comes into contact with a contaminated region, | that item should be removed and a sterile replacement obtained. |
| Surgical gloves should be wet when abdominal organs are touched, particularly the gastrointestinal tract, because dry gloves can | cause tearing of the serosal layer or drying of the organs. |
| Monopolar electrocautery is most efficient in a ______ surgical site. | dry |
| Enteral fluids are often used in | horses |
| Linear fluid maintenance requirement calculations (such as 60 mL/kg/day) tend to _____________ rates in small canine patients (<10 kg) and __________________ rates in large patients (>30 kg). | underestimate; overestimate |
| What type of replacement fluids is recognized for its ability to expand vascular volume through its influence on oncotic pressure? | colloids |
| Animals in diabetic ketoacidosis often present with | hypokalemia |
| Donor horses should be weighed and should have PCV/TP measured before blood collection. Ideally, the PCV should be greater than______. | 35% |
| What is the typical normal systolic blood pressure range for dogs and cats? | 110 to 140 mmHg |
| Equine cross-matching may be difficult to interpret because of __________. | rouleaux formation |
| The use of sodium bicarbonate should only be used when the blood pH is approximately | <7 |
| Sodium bicarbonate can be administered to patients with ___________ because it helps to promote a shift of potassium (K+) into cells in exchange for hydrogen ions (H+). | hyperkalemia |
| _____________ fluid therapy involves correction of dehydration, replacement of ongoing losses, and provision of maintenance fluid requirements. | Replacement |
| Hypothermic patients that need whole blood transfusions should receive | blood warmed to room temperature |
| One of the greatest concerns with volume overload from fluid therapy is | pulmonary edema |
| ________ fluids should never be used in fluid resuscitation (administered rapidly as a bolus) because they are highly ineffective for expanding vascular volume and could cause overly rapid changes in blood osmolality. | Hypotonic |
| The high osmolality of ___________ saline will cause a shift of fluid from the interstitium to the intravascular space, promoting rapid expansion of vascular volume (volume expansion) to aid in resuscitation. | hypertonic |
| Dextrose solutions greater than 2.5% should not be given subcutaneously because | skin sloughing and abscess formation may occur. |
| The recommended maximum blood donation for dogs is ___________ of its blood volume. | 15% to 20% |
| Fluid resuscitation administration should be titrated to effect based on clinical response the best practice of this would be to | administer one-fourth of the shock dose over 15 minutes and then reassessing for improvement in perfusion parameters. |
| In foals more than 12 hours old, an immunoglobulin (Ig-G) concentration of less than __________ is an indication for plasma transfusion. | 800 mg/dL |
| Colloids move fluid into ________ by increasing the oncotic pressure of blood | the vascular space. |
| The rate of fluid replacement should be altered in animals with kidney disease, cardiac disease, and chronic loss. True or False | True |
| If donated blood will be transfused immediately, the anticoagulant ___________ is acceptable to use during blood collection, but it will not support RBC metabolism during storage. | sodium citrate |
| 0.45% Sodium chloride (NaCl), is an example of a ____________fluid. | hypotonic crystalloid |
| Cats have a circulating blood volume that is _______ per kg than horses or dogs | less |
| Why do patients with immune-mediated thrombocytopenia often fail to respond to platelet transfusions? | platelets are actively destroyed |
| The recommended maximum blood donation for cats is ______ | 11 to 15 ml/kg |
| How much fluid should an 84 kg St. Bernard be administered if it is assessed to be 6% dehydrated? | 5 L |
| When would it be appropriate to target a low systolic blood pressure (90 to 100 mmHg)? | When the patient is hemorrhaging. |
| To increase the likelihood of having a compatible blood donor in a horse you should | choose a donor horse of the same breed as the recipient. |
| When an electrolyte solution is administered, approximately _______ will remain in the vascular space and ____ will move into the interstitium. | 25%; 75% |
| Measurement of blood ________ levels is used to indicate the level of anaerobic metabolism in the tissue. | lactate |
| Dogs do not have naturally occurring antibodies; therefore, with regard to red blood cells, a transfusion reaction is | less likely after a first transfusion. |
| Which of the following is a primary benefit of delivering fluids via the subcutaneous route? | it allows for client administration at home |
| Dogs have a circulating blood volume of approximately | 80 to 90 mL/kg |
| In hospitalized patients, quantifying water losses can be accomplished by weighing fluids collected in absorbable pads. This is achieved by weighing the soiled pads and then subtracting the weight of the pads themselves. When taking this approach | every gram of weight lost is equal to 1 mL of fluid loss. |
| A useful guideline for RBC transfusion in dogs is that 2 mL/kg of whole blood or 1 mL/kg of packed RBCs will raise the PCV by | 1% |
| What is the typical packed cell volume (PCV) cut-off where a whole blood transfusion should be considered for a patient that is actively bleeding? | PCV of 20% to 25% |
| In _______and_________, an initial emergency blood transfusion may be given without pretesting because the likelihood of naturally occurring RBC antibodies is low. | horses and dogs |
| Plasma that is used within ______ hour(s) of collection is considered to be fresh plasma. | 8 |
| What is the purpose of a “stay” suture? | To steady a tissue within an incision |
| What is the term used to indicated the generalized removal of a mass? | Lumpectomy |
| Infection along tissue planes that can arise postoperatively is called | cellulitis |
| During abdominal surgery, any excess hemorrhage on the viscera is blotted away with moistened sponges. The surfaces of the viscera should not be wiped with sponges because this | causes tissue trauma and dislodges blood clots |
| Complete dehiscence of a thoracic wound will result in _______________ (air within the chest causing collapse of the lungs), a problem that may result in sudden death. | pneumothorax |
| Wounds can drain excessively, causing serum to seep through the bandage and extend to the external environment. This is called ____________________. | strike-through |
| To help offset hypothermia during the intraoperative and postoperative periods, what methods are recommend? | warm water bottles, wrapping paws and body in plastic wrap, actively warmed cages and surgery tables |
| Ointments and creams applied to a surgical incision can | cause irritation and delay healing |
| Gastropexy is attachment of the stomach to the body wall after a dog experiences GDV in order to | create a permanent adhesion |
| Animals with substantial blood loss may experience ________, as well as rapid heart rate with weak peripheral pulses, rapid respiratory rate, and pale or white mucous membranes. | hypothermia |
| Accumulation of serum under a surgical incision may last for weeks and is called a | seroma |
| Prior to gastrointestinal surgery the veterinary technician should have two surgical packs prepared or at the least extra instruments | in case the primary pack is contaminated with intestinal contents during the procedure. |
| Characteristics of intestinal devitalization include the following: | Lack of motility, gray, green, or black discoloration, severe thinning of the visceral wall, lack of bleeding on cut section, lack of fluorescein dye uptake, and lack of Doppler blood flow. |
| If hemorrhage from a ruptured spleen is suspected, a __________ may be performed. | abdominocentesis |
| What occurs with wound dehiscence? | the wound layers separate |
| During a routine ovariohysterectomy, the most painful manipulation will occur during ____, and the veterinary technician must be mindful of the anesthetic plane at this point in the surgery. | tearing of the suspensory ligament |
| Intraoperative intestinal and pancreatic manipulation can lead to ________, temporary loss of intestinal motility. | ileus |
| Dehiscence which can occur in the postoperative period refers to | wound breakdown |
| A/an _____ is an external opening surgically created in the male feline’s urogenital tract that is large enough for passage of urine, mucus, crystals, and small calculi without obstruction. | Perineal urethrostomy |
| Animals being prepared for an exploratory celiotomy should always be clipped widely because | the incision may have to be extended |
| Therapeutic drug levels must be present in the wound fluid (serum and interstitial tissues) at the time of surgical incision, or the antibiotics will be ineffective. They should be given at least ________ minutes before the surgical incision is made. | 20 |
| Onychectomy is painful. Pain medication should be administered | to all cats in the postoperative period |
| Swelling secondary to surgical trauma will usually resolve within____ to _____ days after surgery. | 3 to 7 days |
| A possible complication of pyometra includes | peritonitis |
| When should a surgical patient be administered pain-relief medication? | prior to any potential pain occuring |
| Most feline mammary cancers are _________, while in dogs these are fairly equally distributed between benign and malignant tumors. | malignant |
| How much time should be given after a surgery before the external sutures can be removed? | 2 weeks |
| If an abdominocentesis is performed, the PCV of the fluid when compared to the systemic PCV will be _______ if hemorrhage into the abdominal cavity is actively occurring. | equal to the systemic PCV |
| Animals suffering from GDV usually are in shock. This shock is classified as | hypovolemic |
| Antibiotics are not suitable substitutes for proper surgical preparation, and should be used instead to | minimize potential infection due to exposure to pathogens during surgery. As a rule, antibiotics should never be given indiscriminately to any animals. |
| Is feline onychectomy elective or non-elective? | elective |
| ______________ is the suturing together of portions of the gastrointestinal tract to allow confluent ingesta flow. It is performed when damaged tissue or a tumor requires a segment of the gastrointestinal tract to be removed. | Anastomosis |
| Veterinary technicians should advise clients that animals undergoing routine sterilization or simple mass removal usually require _________ of restricted activity. | 10-14 days |
| At which temperature (° F) should a postoperative dog or cat be removed from any external heating devices? | 100° |
| Tail docking and dewclaw removal in puppies should be performed during which time period? | The first 3 to 5 days after birth |
| Seromas are not typically drained because | of the increased chance of infection |
| It is not unusual for packed cell volume (PCV) and total plasma protein (TP) to drop up to ______% as a result of anesthesia and surgery, even when no major blood loss has occurred. | 10 |
| Diaphragmatic hernias should be suspected in all cases of trauma. True or False | True |
| Potential problems that could arise during anesthesia and surgery that a veterinary technician should always be on the lookout for include | hypothermia, blood loss, and decreased blood pressure |
| Ovariohysterectomy if performed during estrus or pregnancy in the dog increases the potential surgical risk due to | increased vasculature which increases the potential for hemorrhage. |
| When would prophylactic antibiotics not be appropriate? | If the operation only takes 30 minutes |
| For an exploratory celiotomy, which layer of the three-layered closure is the holding layer? | the linea alba |
| Sudden withdrawal of reinforcement, especially of a behavior that has been reinforced for a long time, leads to a certain amount of frustration in the animal and often leads to greatly increased frequency of the behavior initially. This is called ______. | extinction burst |
| _______________ behaviors (those acquired by classical conditioning) are involuntary or reflexive types of behaviors. | Respondent |
| Which organization is responsible the awarding technicians a specialist certifications in animal behavior? | AVBT |
| The terms positive reinforcement means | something is given to the animal |
| _______________ reinforcement is the best way to teach an animal a new behavior. It leads to a very rapid learned response. | Continuous |
| Pet behavior problems rooted in fear or anxiety are often exhibited through effects of what type of learning? | Respondent |
| Which occurs first in dogs, sexual or social maturity? | sexual maturity |
| If a pet seems to be stressed by the restraint you are using | take a break and consider a different technique |
| Who is responsible for injuries incurred by veterinary technicians while they are performing duties on a patient on a farm? | the practice owner |
| Muzzles are often safe and effective for restraining uncooperative dogs; however, be sure | the dog can still pant in order to cool itself |
| Which component of the nervous system is activated when an animal reacts with alert upon being handled? | Sympathetic |
| Before attempting to remove a dog or cat from its cage, the first consideration is to | close all escape routes |
| Solid wooden panels called hurdles are best used as a herding device for | pigs |
| Voice commands usually work very well with which of these animals? | dogs |
| If a dog escapes from the clinic, veterinary personnel should first | follow the dog from a safe distance and give it time to calm down. |
| With most small mammals, the first impulse when frightened is to | flee |
| A dog’s head dropped lower than its shoulders, tail straight out, and looking right at you indicates a dog that is | aggressive |
| What technique can be used on a cat that is objecting vigorously to an IV injection into the femoral vein? | A back leg sticking out of a burrito-wrapped towel |
| Distraction techniques work extremely well on | horses |
| In a clinic setting, most aggressive behaviors in dogs and cats can be classified as ___________________. | fear aggression |
| Which small animal can climb its own tail, which can be a biting hazard to the restrainer? | mouse |
| If blood needs to be collected from an aggressive cat, it would be safer to use the | medial saphenous vein |
| Which of the following should a receptionist obtain from the owner of a pet that is to undergo surgery or some other procedure requiring anesthesia? | the client's schedule for the day |
| Which of the following organs would most likely be palpable when performing abdominal palpation on a healthy dog? | Spleen |
| Damage to which cranial nerve is associated with deficits in facial skin tone? | VII |
| A _______ animal is unresponsive to any stimuli, while a _______ animal only responds to offensive stimulation such as pain. | comatose; stuporous |
| The chest piece on most stethoscopes consists of two sides: a flat side called the _________ and a cup-shaped side called the bell. | diaphragm |
| What is a reasonable justification for using the intradermal route for administering a drug? | For the delivery of an antigen for allergy testing |
| When would using a peripheral catheter be an acceptable alternative to a jugular catheter in an animal? | When an IV antibiotic must be injected SID for 3 days. |
| Which landmark on the femur should be identified via palpation in preparation for intraosseous catheter or needle placement? | Greater trochanter of the femur |
| Veterinary technicians must always remember that _______ are most sensitive to xylazine and doses must be checked very carefully when the drug is used. | cattle |
| During the postanesthetic period, once a ruminant is lying in sternal recumbency without support and is no longer in danger of ___________, it can be left unattended. | bloating |
| After catheterization for anesthesia induction, the horse’s mouth should be rinsed out with a dose syringe placed between the cheek and the teeth on each side of the mouth to flush out any feed material. This | prevents aspiration of the material during intubation. |
| Signs that a horse is adequately sedated prior to anesthesia induction include | head and lower lip droop |
| When inducing a dog using propofol, the drug should be given | at one-fourth of the calculated dose every 30 seconds to effect. |
| When preparing to extubate a horse, the veterinary technician should always keep in mind horses | are obligate nasal breathers |
| During equine anesthesia, systolic blood pressure should be maintained at | >80 mmHg |
| When performing a laparoscopic procedure, the abdomen must be filled with a gas to cause distension. This process is called | insufflation |
| Metal implants usually are made of stainless steel alloy, cobalt-chromium alloy, or titanium. Of these types, which is the most resistant to corrosion and has the best fatigue life (although it is also the most expensive)? | Titanium |
| In terms of aseptic technique, débridement of a cutaneous abscess would be considered | a dirty surgery |
| Filtering face masks specifically made for lasering should be worn in lieu of conventional surgical masks, because | they protect against the plume |
| What is the safe storage time for an autoclaved sterile pack that was double-wrapped in muslin and is being kept in a closed cabinet? | 7 weeks |
| Different types of surgical laser units get their energized light from what sources? | liquid, crystal, or gas |
| When preparing to introduce an arthroscope into a joint, a sharp trocar is inserted into a hollow, cannula-type instrument called the_____. | arthroscope sleeve |
| When using an arthroscope, it is important to keep in mind that fiberoptic cables are easily damaged if | they are kinked excessively |
| Which size blades are most often used in large animal surgeries? | #20, #21, #22 |
| The most commonly used scalpel handles include the Bard-Parker No. 3 and No. 4.Which size blades fit the No. 3 handle? | #10, #11, #12, #15 |
| Which laser is emitted as a free beam and therefore does not touch the tissue? | CO2 |
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