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Lrg Animal Medicine
Lecture Review Questions - Sheep & Goat Diseases + Camelids
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is preventative heath care? What four things is it based on? | An organized program designed to prevent disease and maximize health. Age, activity, geographic location, reproductive status. |
| Equine preventative medicine can be broken down into what four categories? | Vaccinations. Parasite control. Dental care. Foot care. |
| Vaccinations are based on what three things? | Age (foal, yearling, adult, senior). Housing. Activity (racing, pasture ornament, broodmare, stud). |
| Name four equine core vaccinations: | Tetanus, EEE & WEE, West Nile Virus, Rabies (depends on area) |
| Name three best IM sites for equine vaccinations: | Lateral cervical neck (5-10 mL), pectoral (5 mL), and semitendinosus (hamstring). |
| Tetanus is also called: | Lockjaw |
| What causes Tetanus a.k.a. Lockjaw? | Toxins produced by the bacteria Clostridium tetani. |
| Where is Clostridium tetani found? How does it infect the animal? | The spores live in the soil and gain access through deep penetrating wounds and the umbilicus of foals. The bacteria multiply, produce the toxin (exotoxin), and affect the nervous system. |
| Who is affected by Clostridium tetani? | All ages especially the unvaccinated. History of deep puncture wound, fresh umbilicus, or post-partum mares. However, sometimes a puncture wound is not detected. |
| Describe the progression of Tetanus (Clostridium tetani infection): | Incubation period 1-3 weeks. Toxin blocks nerve signals. Stiff gait and tremors. Drooling (dysphagia). "Sawhorse stance" Collapse. Convulsions. Death. |
| How is Tetanus treated? | Tetanus vaccine (even if vaccinated). Rapid immune response. Tetanus anti-toxin. Neutralizes free toxin not toxin already bound. Supportive care (hydration, deep bedding, nutritional support). Decrease stimulation. Tranquilizers. Very poor prognosis. |
| How is Tetanus prevented in Adult horses? | Initial vaccination, followed by booster on month later. |
| How is Tetanus prevented in Foals? | Have a series of 3, last one being given at about 10 to 12 months of age. |
| How is Tetanus prevented in Pregnant Mares? | 4 to 6 weeks before foaling. Annually thereafter. |
| True or false: Tetanus has a high mortality rate. Vaccination is very effective. Annual boosters for horses are necessary. Booster is hx is unclear and recent puncture wound or wound. Every 10 years for humans. | True |
| Name three types of Equine Encephalitis Virus: | Eastern (EEE), Western (WEE), and Venezuelan (VEE). |
| Equine Encephalitis Virus (EEE or WEE) is transmitted by: | mosquitos |
| What are some clinical signs of Equine Encephalitis Virus? | Neurological Disease. Lethargy, fever, colic, behavior change, abnormal gait, circling, blindness, seizures. |
| In regard to Equine Encephalitis Virus, it is ___ fatal. Full recovery is ___. Describe prognosis of recovered animal. | Highly. Unlikely. Horse may not return to full performance capability and may be unsafe to use. EEE mortality rate: 50-90%. WEE: 20 - 50%. VEE: 50-75%. |
| Name six treatment options for Equine Encephalitis Virus. | Supportive nursing care. Fluids. Deep bedding. Slings. Nutritional support. Anti-inflammatory meds. Time. Ill, neurological horses are challenging and very expensive to treat. |
| How is EEE & WEE prevented? | Vaccination is effective. Booster annually in Spring, before insect season. Given semi-annually where insects are year round. (every six months?) |
| How is Equine Encephalitis Virus prevented in Adults? | Initial vaccination then booster in 4 to 6 weeks. |
| How is Equine Encephalitis Virus prevented in Pregnant Mares? | Booster 4 to 6 weeks before foaling. |
| How is Equine Encephalitis Virus prevented in Foals? | 3 dose series starting at 3 to 4 months of age with last dose given at 10 to 12 months old. |
| What is an additional preventative option for Equine Encephalitis Virus? | Control of insects and reservoir hosts through insect sprays, repellents, plus bird and insect free housing. |
| True or false: West Nile Virus is an encephalitis virus similar to EEE, WEE, and VEE, but with a lower mortality rate. Birds are reservoir hosts and the virus is transmitted by mosquitos. Very serious. | True |
| True or False: horses are mainly affected by West Nile Virus, but human are also affected. | True |
| Where is West Nile Virus found? | All over the US, most of Canada, and Mexico. |
| What are the clinical signs of West Nile Virus in Horses? | Ataxia, circling, hind limb weakness, inability to stand, multiple limb paralysis, muscle twitching, blindness, lip droop/paralysis, teeth grinding, fever, and acute death. |
| How is West Nile Virus prevented in horses? | Vaccinate annually in Spring, before insect season. In moist parts of the country horses should be vaccinated semi-annually. |
| What is the West Nile Virus Vaccine Schedule for Adult horses? | Initial vaccine followed by a booster in 4 - 6 weeks. |
| What is the West Nile Virus Vaccine Schedule for Pregnant mares? | Booster 4 to 6 weeks pre-foaling |
| What is the West Nile Virus Vaccine Schedule for Foals? | Start between 3 to 6 months, give 3 dose series. |
| ___ is a viral disease of warm blooded animals (that includes you) that is found all over the world, affects animals of any age. Bats are the reservoir of WA state. | Rabies |
| How is Rabies transmitted? | Exposure to saliva of infected animal via bite, open wound, or mucous membrane. |
| How many cases of Rabies have been seen in Washington state since 1980? What animals were affected? | Three: cat, llama, horse |
| Describe the progression of a Rabies virus infection. | Virus enters the nerves at the bite or wound. Migrates up to the brain and multiplies. Migrates back to the salivary glands.... then a bite wound, etc. |
| What are five clinical signs of Rabies Virus infection? | Neurological Disease: behavior changes, drooling, dysphagia, stupor, paralysis. |
| True or false: once clinical signs appear with Rabies virus it is fatal. This is a zoonotic disease. | True |
| How is Rabies Virus Prevented? | Vaccination is highly effective. Exposed humans may get post exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with immunoglobulins but not animals. |
| How is Rabies virus diagnosed? | Examination of brain and spinal cord for presence of the virus. There are strict rules for handling of suspected cases. Quarantine regulations. |
| How is rabies virus testing done? | Small creatures such as bats can be submitted intact to a state lab, but larger animals must have head with brain and brain stem submitted. No formalin. No freezing. Necropsy should be performed with gloves, face/eye protection (prevent splatter). |
| How is Rabies virus prevented in Adult horses? | initial dose and annual booster |
| How is Rabies virus prevented in Pregnant horses? | Booster 4 to 6 weeks before foaling. |
| How is Rabies virus prevented in Pregnant horses? | Initial dose at 3 to 6 months of age, then annual booster. |
| ___ is a severe allergic reaction. It can occur after any vaccination and any drug administration. | Anaphylaxis |
| Anaphylaxis can occur within ___ to ___ to ___ after a vaccination or drug is given. | seconds. minutes. hours. |
| When anaphylaxis occurs, massive amounts of ___ are released. This causes: | Histamine. Severe hypotension, collapse, even death. Horses may also be itchy, break out in hives, sweat, colic. |
| Anaphylaxis needs rapid treatment. What drug is used? | Epinephrine, sometimes other drugs. |
| Recommended Equine Vaccinations Equine Influenza Rhinopneumonitis is also called: | Strangles (Strep equi) |
| Recommended Equine Vaccinations Equine Influenza Rhinopneumonitis is a: | viral respiratory disease - Caused by Equine Herpesvirus 1 and 4 |
| Recommended Equine Vaccinations What animals are typically affected by Equine Influenza Rhinopneumonitis? | Younger animals 1 - 5 years old. Stressed. Crowded. Traveling. |
| Recommended Equine Vaccinations What are the clinical signs of Equine Influenza Rhinopneumonitis? | Fever (up to 106 F). Coughing. Lethargy. Inappetence. Nasal discharge. (inflammation, bronchoconstriction, decreased air flow and gas exchange. |
| Recommended Equine Vaccinations True or False: Equine Influenza Rhinopneumonitis is most common viral respiratory disease in horses and more severe in foals after maternal immunity has decreased. | True |
| Recommended Equine Vaccinations How is Equine Influenza Rhinopneumonitis treated? | Supportive nursing care. Decrease stress, increase time off from training. Isolation. Sometimes antibiotics or other drugs. |
| Recommended Equine Vaccinations True or false: Equine Influenza Rhinopneumonitis (Equine herpesvirus) can cause problems other than respiratory disease. | True. It can cause abortion or high foal mortality, if mare is infected in last trimester. Neurological dysfunction has also been seen. |
| Recommended Equine Vaccinations Equine Strangles is a ___ respiratory disease caused by ___ ___. | Bacterial. Streptococcus Equi. |
| Recommended Equine Vaccinations Name some clinical signs of Equine Strangles. | Infected by bacteria in the environment or from carrier horse results in fever, nasal discharge, submandibular lymph node enlargement and abscessation. |
| Recommended Equine Vaccinations Describe supportive care for Equine Strangles (Streptococcus Equi infection). | Supportive nursing care. Hot pack to facilitate drainage. +/- antibiotics (only if very ill). NSAIDs |
| Recommended Equine Vaccinations Describe prevention of Equine Strangles (Streptococcus Equi infection). | Transmission: control measures and quarantine. Identify carrier animals. Vaccination: intranasal or killed virus vaccine. Requires booster for foals and adults not previously vaccinated. Can have prolonged immunity after disease. |
| Vaccination: Risk Based Vaccines Not common and based on specific locations and conditions. Name six. | Equine Viral Arteritis. Anthrax. Botulism. Leptospirosis. Potomac Horse Fever. Rotavirus. |
| Vaccination: Risk Based Vaccines Equine Viral Arteritis (a contagious viral disease) can cause: | Abortion and neonatal death. Stallions can be carriers. |
| Vaccination: Risk Based Vaccines Anthrax is an extremely rare disease caused by ingestion of spores of the ___: ___ ___. | bacteria: Bacillus anthracis |
| Vaccination: Risk Based Vaccines Anthrax leads to diverse clinical signs such as: | colic, bloody diarrhea, and swelling. Often fatal if not treated. |
| Vaccination: Risk Based Vaccines True or false: handling animals carrying anthrax could be a potential zoonotic risk. | True |
| Vaccination: Risk Based Vaccines Botulism is a disease caused by a toxin (a type of poison) produced by ___ ___. | Clostridium botulinum |
| Vaccination: Risk Based Vaccines True or False: Botulism is not usually an infection but a poisoning. It is endemic to Kentucky. May cause "Shaker Foal" syndrome when bacteria grows in the gut of young foals. | True |
| Vaccination: Risk Based Vaccines Leptospirosis is an infection caused by one of 21 different species of ___ ___. | leptospira bacteria |
| Vaccination: Risk Based Vaccines What are some ways that Leptospirosis is contracted: | Direct contact with infected urine or urine contaminated feed or water. Transmission of bacteria via bite wound, eating infected tissue, or during birth. |
| Vaccination: Risk Based Vaccines Leptospirosis causes what clinical signs? | Kidney disease and abortions, but is most commonly associated with recurrent uveitis: moon blindness. |
| Vaccination: Risk Based Vaccines What is the treatment for Leptospirosis? | Antibiotics and prevention with a new vaccine. Could be potentially zoonotic. |
| Vaccination: Risk Based Vaccines What is Potomac horse fever? | Also called equine monocytic ehrlichiosis. It is a syndrome producing mild colic, fever, and diarrhea in horses of all ages as well as loss of foals in pregnant mares. |
| Vaccination: Risk Based Vaccines What causes Potomac Horse Fever (Equine Monocytic Ehrlichiosis)? | A bacteria called Neorickettsia risticcii. The bacteria is found in parasites called flukes. They can be isolated from freshwater snails and appear to be present in a number of insects. |
| Vaccination: Risk Based Vaccines What is one possible route of exposure to Potomac Horse Fever (Equine Monocytic Ehrlichiosis)? | Horses accidental ingestion of aquatic insects containing infected flukes. |
| Vaccination: Risk Based Vaccines What causes Rotavirus? | Viral infection |
| Vaccination: Risk Based Vaccines Clinical signs of Rotavirus? | Diarrhea in young foals. |
| Vaccination: Risk Based Vaccines How is Rotavirus prevented? | Vaccine is given to pregnant mares to improve antibody levels passed to their foals. 3 vaccine series. |
| Equine Infectious Anemia (Swamp Fever) True or false: really really BAD news....no vaccine available. | True |
| Equine Infectious Anemia (Swamp Fever) Who is affected? What causes the disease? | Viral disease that can affect horses, ponies, donkeys, mules, and zebras. Any equine species. Any age, breed, or sex. Anywhere in the world. |
| Equine Infectious Anemia (Swamp Fever) How is it transmitted? | Virus is transmitted by blood sucking insects, contaminated needles or instruments, mare to foal (vertical transmission) in utero. Also via semen and milk. |
| Equine Infectious Anemia (Swamp Fever) What are four clinical signs? | Fever, depression, anemia, clotting problems. Can look quite healthy and be a carrier. |
| Equine Infectious Anemia (Swamp Fever) Why is it considered really, really bad news? | No treatment. No cure. No vaccine. Positive horses must be euthanized or strictly quarantined in a screened stall at least 200 yards from any other horse. |
| Equine Infectious Anemia (Swamp Fever) What are two tests used to diagnose this viral disease? | Blood tests: ELISA or AGID (Coggins test). |
| Equine Infectious Anemia (Swamp Fever) If there is no treatment, cure, or vaccination, how is it prevented? | Washington State Department of Agriculture & Animal Health requires all domestic equids older than 6 months coming into WA to have a negative EIA test in the last 6 months. Horse events should require a negative EIA test for attendees. |
| Equine Dental Care ___ and ___ of food is the first step in digestion. | Prehension and chewing |
| Equine Dental Care The presence of sharp edges, due to excess hay and concentrate diets, can lead to ___, which is: | quidding. dropping partially chewed food from the mouth. It has been estimated that a 500 kg equine produces up to 60,000 jaw movements per day when grazing. |
| Equine Dental Care Horses will naturally graze for __ hours per day. | 20 |
| Equine Dental Care What are four characteristics of equine teeth? | Grazing animal designed to bite off and chew fibrous grasses. Teeth continue to erupt throughout life. Upper jaw is wider than the lower. Uneven wear is common. |
| Equine Dental Care True or false: the upper jaw is wider than the lower jaw. | True |
| Equine Dental Care If a tooth is not opposed by another tooth, it will ___ into the mouth. | elongate |
| Equine Dental Care What is parrot mouth? | Upper jaw is longer than the lower. Mild to severe, with severe impairment of ability to chew. |
| Equine Dental Care How often is care recommended? | Annual oral evaluations with annual examinations. Recommended every six months from birth until all adult teeth are in. Floating as needed. |
| Parasites vs Horses True or false: we can't eliminate all parasites, but we can minimize the parasite burden. | True. There are other methods than drugs such as: good stabling practices and pasture management/rotation. |
| Parasites vs Horses What are some consequences of parasitism? | Chronic diarrhea. Chronic weight loss/ill thrift. Poor performance. Colic. Lung inflammation. Tail head itching. |
| Parasites vs Horses Name six equine intestinal parasites that are transmitted via feces, insects, or mare to foal (vertical transmission). | Large and small strongyles. Threadworm. Roundworm. Pinworm. Bots. Tapeworm. |
| Parasites vs Horses True or false: deworming based on fecal egg counts is usually more cost effective than "blanket" deworming of every horse in the barn at the same time. | True |
| Parasites vs Horses True or false: parasite resistance is an emerging problem. | True |
| Parasites vs Horses What are some methods to manage parasites? | Avoid overgrazing/overstocking fields. Rake fields to spread manure when hot or dry. Feed hay & grain off the ground. Quarantine new arrivals and check fecal egg counts. Compost manure. Cross graze pasture with other species. |
| Parasites vs Horses: Don't forget the foals. Parascaris equorum is a ___ infection that can cause serious malnutrition, intestinal blockage, and Intussusception. | roundworm. Dull coat, pot belly, thin. |
| Parasites vs Horses What is Intussusception? | A serious condition in which part of the intestine slides into an adjacent part of the intestine. This "telescoping" often blocks food or fluid from passing through. |
| Hoof Care Why is trimming and shoeing important? | Protects hooves from wear. Protects sensitive sole from bruising. Trimming improves "hoof angle" to a normal angle. Shoes can improve balance and treat disease. |
| Hoof Care What are six consequences of poor hoof care? | Thrush. Overgrown hoof walls. Cracks. White line disease. Bruised soles. Unseen puncture wounds (a tetanus risk). |
| Hoof Care How often do most horses require trims? | every 8 - 12 weeks. |
| Hoof Care True or false: hooves grow more in the summer and slower in the winter. | True |
| True or false: abnormal hooves need trimming more often. | True |
| Respiratory System Function: Upper Airway Name five parts of the upper airway: | nose, larynx, sinuses, guttural pouch, trachea |
| Respiratory System Function: Upper Airway Name four functions of the upper airway: | warm and humidify air, protect lower airway from debris, vocalization, cool blood to the brain (guttural pouches). |
| Respiratory System Function: Upper Airway Horses are obligate ___ breathers. | nasal |
| Respiratory System Function: Upper Airway ___ ___ are air-filled cavities in the skull that connect to the nose. What are their function? | Paranasal sinuses. Make head lighter in weight and protect structures within the head. |
| Respiratory System Function: Upper Airway True or false: connection of the cheek teeth into the maxillary sinus is medically significant. If so, what species? | True. Horses. |
| Respiratory System Function: Upper Airway True or false: connection of developed horns to frontal sinus is medically significant. If so, what species? | True. Cattle. |
| Respiratory System Function: Upper Airway ___ ___ are unique structures of the horse. They are large, air-filled pouches that open into the nasopharynx. What is their function? | guttural pouches. Cool blood flow to the brain during exercise by absorbing heat from carotid arteries. |
| Respiratory System Function: Upper Airway True or false: guttural pouches are an expansion of the Eustachian tube of the middle ear. | True |
| Respiratory System Function: Upper Airway What is the medical importance of the guttural pouches? | Disease of these regions can effect cranial nerves VII, IX -XII causing significant neurologic signs. Their close proximity to arteries in the neck can lead to acute and severe hemorrhage. (Erosion of vessel wall) |
| Respiratory System Function: Upper Airway The ___ is the region in the back of the throat. It is composed of a set of cartilage in the shape of a rigid box (voice box), which is connected to the bones of the hyoid apparatus (pharynx). | Larynx |
| Respiratory System Function: Upper Airway What is the function of the larynx (3)? | "Gatekeeper" to the trachea. Closes to protect the trachea from foot and water entering during swallowing. Phonation. Will dilate for increased air movement during heavy exercise or excitement. |
| Respiratory System Function: Upper Airway What are four parts of the larynx? | epiglottis, thyroid cartilage, arytenoids, cricoid cartilage |
| Respiratory System Function: Lower Airway What structures make up the lower airway? | Lungs: bronchi, bronchioloes, alveoli. Pleura. |
| Respiratory System Function: Lower Airway What is the main purpose of the lower airway? | gas exchange |
| Respiratory System Function: Lower Airway Describe the airways of the lungs. What happens in the alveoli? ___ is a mixture of phospholipids that decrease surface tension of fluids in the alveoli, allowing them to remain open with exhale. | bronchus -> bronchioles -> alveolar ducts -> alveoli: site of gas exchange with blood in capillaries. Surfactant. |
| Respiratory System Function: Lower Airway What is the pleura? | the lining tissue of the thorax that contains the lungs in two separate sacs. |
| Respiratory System Function: Lower Airway What is the function of the pleura? | produces a small amount of fluid that lubricates tissues, decreasing friction caused by breathing. |
| Respiratory System Function: Lower Airway What is the medical significance of the pleura? | may collect excess fluid, free air or infection in certain diseases. Such abnormalities greatly inhibit the lungs ability to expand and ventilate. |
| Respiratory System Function: Lower Airway Pleural fluid accumulation is called: | pleuralpneumonia |
| Respiratory System Function: Lower Airway Blood in the thorax is called: | hemothorax |
| Defense Mechanisms of the Respiratory System What is the purpose of mucous secretion and the mucociliary escalator? | Mucous secretions help moisten the tissues and entrap bacteria and particulate matter that can then be eliminated. The mucociliary escalator is mucus & cilia, which moves mucus up & out of the lungs where it can be expelled by coughing or swallowing. |
| Defense Mechanisms of the Respiratory System What is the purpose of the Lymphoid Tissues? | They are scattered throughout the respiratory tract, either as diffuse or follicular accumulations of lymphocytes. These are a part of "mucosal" immunity and secrete IgA. |
| Defense Mechanisms of the Respiratory System What are three neurogenic reflex mechanisms? | Coughing. Sneezing. Gag. |
| Clinical Signs: Upper Respiratory Name four: | nasal discharge. sneezing. dry hacking/nonproductive cough. Unusual respiratory sounds such as wheezing, whistling, roaring. Increased respiratory noise when inhaling. |
| Clinical Signs: Upper Respiratory True or false: you may hear increased respiratory sounds when inhaling with upper respiratory disease or occlusion. | True |
| Clinical Signs: Lower Respiratory Name seven: | "Deep" cough (may or may not be productive). Tachypnea. Dyspnea. Cyanosis. Abnormal (or absent) lung sounds. "Heave" lines. Increased respiratory sounds when exhaling. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract True or false: horses are obligate nasal breathers and about 50% of the total airway resistance to the passage of air occurs in the nasal passages. | True |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract True or false: disease of the nasal passages can further increase this (about 50%) resistance. | True |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract Inflammation of the nasal cavity/nasal passages is called ___. It can also involve sinuses and other components of the upper airways and even lungs. | Rhinitis |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract What are three causes of rhinitis? | Viruses: Equine rhinopneumonitis (herpes virus) and influenza. Allergies. Irritants. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract What are clinical signs of rhinitis? | Nasal discharge: initially clear and colorless but later can become opaque due to mucous or purulent inflammation that accompanies secondary bacterial infection. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract What are some treatments for Rhinitis? | Antihistamines, decongestants, anti-inflammatory. If allergic: try to identify and alleviate the cause. Antibiotics for secondary bacterial infection usually not indicated unless severe. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract Describe the outcome of Rhinitis. | Viral infections are usually self-limiting with no permanent sequel. If chronic inflammation persists: scarring, polyp formation. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract ___ ____: when one or both arytenoids do not retract causing obstruction of the glottis. | Laryngeal Paralysis (Hemiplegia) |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract What causes Laryngeal Paralysis (Hemiplegia)? | Inherited demyelination of the left recurrent laryngeal nerve. Common in thoroughbred and draft breeds. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract What are two clinical signs of Laryngeal Paralysis (Hemiplegia)? | Inspiratory stridor with exercise. Poor work performance. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract How is Laryngeal Paralysis (Hemiplegia) diagnosed? | Endoscopy of larynx demonstrating abnormal function. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract How is Laryngeal Paralysis (Hemiplegia) treated? | Surgical correction (especially laser surgery). Retirement from sport; "pasture pet." |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract What is Dorsal Displacement of the Soft Palate? | Soft palate moves dorsally and partially obstructs the airway usually when at high speed. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract What are three causes of Dorsal Displacement of Soft Palate? | Airway inflammation. Nerve damage. Congenital (?) |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract How is Dorsal Displacement of Soft Palate diagnosed? | Endoscopy while horse is running. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract How is Dorsal Displacement of Soft Palate treated? | Surgery |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract What is Strangles? | Highly contagious. Passed from animal to animal by secretions, fomites. Usually affects horses 1 - 5 years old (important!) Foals <4 months usually protected by colostral immunity & horses >5 years typically have acquired immunity. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract True or false: Strangles in horses is similar to Strep Throat in humans. | True |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract Etiology of Strangles? | Bacterial: Streptococcus equi |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract What are five clinical signs of Strangles? | Sudden onset of fever and catarrhal inflammation of the upper respiratory tract. Thick, yellow nasal discharge. Enlargement of lymph nodes in neck. Typical outcome is rupture of node abscesses through skin with drainage of pus. Rarely fatal. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract What is catarrhal inflammation? | Mucous membranes in one of the airways or cavities of the body, usually the throat & paranasal sinuses. Results in thick exudate of mucus & white blood cells caused by the swelling of the mucous membranes in the head in response to an infection. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract How is Strangles diagnosed (3)? | Clinical signs. Culture and sensitivity. PCR (Polymerase chain reaction). |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract How is Strangles treated? | Lance abscesses, flush and treat topically. Antibiotics. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract Can Strangles be prevented? | Yes. Isolate affected animals (highly contagious) for 6 weeks. Vaccination. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract What is Guttural Pouch Empyema? | Accumulation of purulent material in guttural pouch, usually secondary to respiratory infection. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract Name four clinical signs of Guttural Pouch Empyema. | Nasal discharge (especially when lowering the head). Swelling of guttural pouch area. Dysphagia. Respiratory distress. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract Name three means of diagnosing Guttural Pouch Empyema. | Endoscopy. Radiographs. Culture results. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract How is Guttural Pouch Empyema treated (4)? | Surgical drainage of guttural pouch and lavage. Antibiotics. Chronic cases may be difficult to treat due to hard dry exudate. Topical and systemic antifungal therapy. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract Etiology of Guttural Pouch Empyema? | Most commonly a fungal infection caused by Aspergillus spp. Can also be due to a bacterial infection of Streptococcus spp . |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract What are four clinical signs of Guttural Pouch Mycotic Infection? | Epistaxis. Cranial nerve deficits such as dysphagia (CN 10 & 12). Nasal discharge. Swelling. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract What is Guttural Pouch Mycotic Infection? | Fungi such as Aspergillus spp commonly cause invasive type lesions with extension into blood vessels. Severe and sometimes fatal hemorrhage occurs from rupture of the internal carotid artery that courses through the wall of the pouch. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract What is the Prognosis and Treatment of Guttural Pouch Mycotic Infection? | Guarded to poor prognosis. Common treatments reflect a combination of medical and surgical management. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract What is Sinusitis? | Infection and inflammation of one or more sinuses. Primary: inhalation of bacteria or fungi. Secondary: due to infection/disease of other area (tooth root infections) More common. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract What are three clinical signs of Sinusitis? | nasal discharge. foul breath. facial swelling. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract How is Sinusitis diagnosed? | Radiographs. Endoscopy. Culture. |
| Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract How is Sinusitis treated? | Drainage of sinus. Remove primary cause (tooth infection). Antibiotics. |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract What is COPD? (Heaves) Describe the etiology. | Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease. Etiology: due to chronic inflammation of lower airways (small bronchi & bronchioles). May be multifactoral. Generally represents hyperresponsiveness of airways to dusts & allergens (analogies w/ human asthma). |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract What are three clinical signs of COPD (Heaves)? | Mild cases may only show respiratory distress & coughing w/ exercise or exposure to dusty conditions. Severe cases have respiratory difficulty at rest w/ abdominal movement. Chronic abdominal movements results in "heave lines" from muscle development. |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract There are many treatments for COPD (Heaves). Name 4 to 7: | Move horses outdoors, if possible. Avoid dusty or humid conditions (avoid dusty feed). Provide good ventilation. Corticosteroids. Antihistamines may provide some relief during early stages. Bronchodilators. Inhaler. |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract What is Exercise-Induced Pulmonary Hemorrhage (EIPH)? | Condition in which bleeding occurs from the lungs of horses during exercise. Thoroughbred, Standard-bred, Racehorses subjected to strenuous exercise. Blamed for reduced performance (race tracks, barrel races, endurance races). |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract What are some clinical signs of Exercise-Induced Pulmonary Hemorrhage? | In most cases there are no clinical signs. Epistaxis. |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract How is Exercise-Induced Pulmonary Hemorrhage (EIPH) controlled? | Diuretics (Lasix). Reduces pulmonary blood flow and may not prevent but can lesson the severity of hemorrhage. |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract What is Foal Pneumonia? | A common disease of young horses, and one of the leading causes of death in foals. Estimates put the incidence of infection as high in one in ten for all foals. Overall mortality is about 20%, but on some farms as many as 80% of affected foals may die. |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract Describe the etiology of Foal Pneumonia. | Etiology: Bacterial infection: Rhodococcus equi. Facultative intracellular (can evade host defenses). Bacterium from soil. Foals 1 to 6 months. |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract How is Foal Pneumonia diagnosed? | Radiographs. Transtracheal wash. Clinical signs of pneumonia. |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract How is Foal Pneumonia treated or controlled? | Early recognition. Antibiotics 4 - 9 weeks; a combination of erythromycin and rifampin. Adequate colostrum is best prevention. |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract What is Equine Influenza? | It is an acute, highly contagious, viral disease. Can cause rapidly spreading outbreaks of respiratory disease in horses and other equine species. |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract What are the clinical signs of Equine Influenza? | High morbidity in susceptible horses, low mortality. Initial high fever (> 101.5) Serous nasal discharge. Cough, dry hacking. Muscle pain/Depression. |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract What is considered a normal temperature in a horse? | 99.5 to 101.5°F |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract How is Equine Influenza treated? | Prolonged rest: often months. Cough may persist up to 3 weeks. Antipyretics and analgesics. Antibiotics if needed to control secondary bacterial infections. |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract What is an antipyretic? | A medication used to lower body temperature when a fever is present. Examples: Aspirin, acetaminophen/paracetamol (Tylenol), ibuprofen, and others. |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract Can Equine Influenza be prevented? | Vaccines (most contain both sub-types of myxovirus). Bleach fomites. |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract What is Equine Viral Rhinopneumonitis? | Highly contagious viral disease. Transmitted through aerosols. Incubation period 3 to 7 days. May be high morbitity in susceptible; low mortality rate. |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract What is the etiology of Equine Viral Rhinopneumonitis? | Caused by the Herpesvirus: types 1 (EHV-1) and 4 (EHV-4) EHV-1: mainly abortion, neonatal infection, and myeloencephalitis. EHV-4: some believe this to be the main respiratory pathogen. |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract Name five clinical signs of Equine Viral Rhinopneumonitis. | High fever. Depression. Serous nasal discharge becoming mucopurulent. Cough +/-. Clinical signs may be indistinguishable from influenza. |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract How is Equine Viral Rhinopneumonitis diagnosed? | Rising titer against EHV-1. PCR testing for viral DNA on blood, nasopharyngeal swabs, lymphoid tissue and CNS tissue. |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract What treatments are effective against Equine Viral Rhinopneumonitis? | Usually supportive care and rest. Analgesics, antipyretics if needed. Antibiotics, only if necessary to control secondary bacterial infection. |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract How is Equine Viral Rhinopneumonitis prevented? | Vaccinations: Several are multivalent - contain both EHV 1 & 2. Vaccination schedules differ depending on needs (breeding mares, etc.). |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract: Herpes is forever. True or false: after clinical illness, virus persists in "latent" phase in lymph nodes for the life of the horse. | True |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract What is Viral latency? | The body does not recognize the infection is present (virus is inactive). |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract What is Recrudescence? | Virus emerges and reactivates. |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract True or False: Recrudescent viruses have the potential to cause disease and act as a reservoir for other horses. | True |
| Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract What is morbidity? | The condition of suffering from a disease or medical condition. "the therapy can substantially reduce respiratory morbidity in horses." It can also mean: the rate of disease in a population. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal Disease What is lameness? | Not a disease itself, but a sign of an underlying disease. It is an abnormality of movement caused by pain or dysfunction of the nervous system, musculoskeletal system, or cardiovascular system. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal Disease Fracture of limb causes lameness through: | pain and dysfunction |
| Equine Musculoskeletal Disease A ___ is an abnormal nerve bundle that causes pain through a neurologic problem and then lameness. | neuroma |
| Equine Musculoskeletal Disease How does a horse show lameness? Change in movement to compensate for pain or dysfunction #1: | May reduce or eliminate motion in a joint resulting in less flexion or extension of a joint. |
| How does a horse show lameness? Change in movement to compensate for pain or dysfunction #2: | Reducing the total impulse or amount of energy transmitted through the limb. |
| How does a horse show lameness? Change in movement to compensate for pain or dysfunction #3: | Shifting body's weight away from the limb during the stance phase resulting in "head nod." |
| How does a horse show lameness? Change in movement to compensate for pain or dysfunction #4: | Unable to maintain a normal movement due to neurologic disease - weakness or "wobbliness." |
| Equine Musculoskeletal Disease Name 10 means of evaluating for lameness: | Lameness examination. Complete Hx from owner. Observation of horse at rest. Closer visual inspection. Observe horse in motion. Palpation of structures. Diagnostic testing. History: when did it start? What legs seems affected. Has it become worse? Better? |
| Equine Musculoskeletal Disease Six other history questions to ask the owner: | Have you noticed swelling? What do you use horse for? Is horse on any medications? Is there a hx of previous lameness? Have you treated the horse w/ anything? Has the exercise program changed recently? Does the horse have shoes. Were they recently shod? |
| Equine Musculoskeletal Disease What is often the most advantageous gait for exam because of its symmetry? | Trot |
| Equine Musculoskeletal Disease True or false: it can be easiest to look at on e set of limbs at a time, usually beginning with the forelimbs. Try to define which limbs are involved in the lameness, and the degree of lameness. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal Disease When evaluating a horse in motion, you should view them from: | the front, side, and behind. Also, circling the horse or having them perform figure eight's can accentuate a lameness. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal Disease True or false: when evaluating a horse for lameness, look for head nodding, gait deficits, alterations in height of foot flight arc, phase of stride, joint flexion angle, foot placement, symmetry in gluteal rise & duration. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal Disease True or false: During, lameness evaluation, choosing the correct surface is important. | True. Hard surfaces allow for audible interpretations or gravel surfaces to exaggerate certain lameness'. The animal should have plenty of room to move freely with the handler. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal Disease: Grade the Lameness The lameness is not recognized at the walk, but is evident at the trot. This grade of lameness is typically seen in chronic, non-progressive diseases. | Grade 1 |
| Equine Musculoskeletal Disease: Grade the Lameness Lameness barely perceptible at walk. Very apparent at trot. Head movements not often visible at walk become obvious at trot. Some head & neck lifting as lame foot hits the ground. Why is this? | Grade 2. This is an attempt to reduce the weight bearing on the affected limb. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal Disease: Grade the Lameness Lameness apparent at both walk & trot. Head & neck lifting obvious w/ forelimb & hind limb lameness. Head nodding is apparent when the opposite forelimb hits the ground. | Grade 3 |
| Equine Musculoskeletal Disease: Grade the Lameness With this degree of lameness, the horse will not place the foot completely flat during weight bearing. They will be reluctant to jog. | Grade 4 |
| Equine Musculoskeletal Disease: Grade the Lameness This is a non-weight bearing lameness. This is often associated with fractures, subsolar abscesses, severe tendonitis, and septic arthritis. | Grade 5 |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Abnormal Limb Contact ___ refers to light striking, especially as in forging or interfering. | Brushing |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Abnormal Limb Contact ___ refers to contact on the inside of the diagonal fore and hind feet; common with pacers. | Cross-firing |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Abnormal Limb Contact ___ ___: horse hits elbow with the shoe of the same limb; fairly rate. | Elbow hitting |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Abnormal Limb Contact ___ refers to when toe of hind food hits the sole of the forefoot on the same side. | Forging |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Abnormal Limb Contact ___ ___ occurs in cases of high interference; generally see in standard breeds. | Knee hitting |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Abnormal Limb Contact ___ refers to striking, in either fore or hind limbs, anywhere between the coronary band and the cannon by the opposite foot. | Interfering |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Abnormal Limb Contact ___ occurs when the toe of the hind foot catches the forefoot on the same side, usually on the heel; the hind foot advances more quickly than in forging. | overreaching |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Abnormal Limb Contact ___ happens when the toe of the front foot hits the hairline at the coronary band or above on the hind foot of the same side. | Scalping. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Palpation of Structures: Hoof Not the ___ and ___ of the foot. | size. shape. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Palpation of Structures: Hoof True or false: compare the normal with the abnormal. Look for any abnormal hoof wear, ring formation, heel bulb contraction, hoof wall cracks and swellings, and any other asymmetries. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Palpation of Structures: Hoof Palpate the ___ ___ for heat, swelling and pain on pressure. | coronary band |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Palpation of Structures: Hoof Have available a hoof ___, a hoof ___, and hoof ___. Clean the sole of the foot and search for any abnormalities, including frog atrophy, flat-footedness, or puncture wounds. | hoof pick, hoof knife, and hoof testers. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Palpation of Structures: Hoof Use hoof testers on: | the entire sole and frog region of the foot. Try to localize any hoof sensitivities. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Palpation of Structures: Hoof ___ ___ used as "pinchers" to find areas of pain. | hoof tester |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Palpation of the Pastern Palpate this region for ___ and ___. | heat and enlargement |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Palpation of the Pastern Compare any suspected abnormalities with the ___ pastern. | opposite |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Palpation of the Pastern Check for any ___ of the tendons. | thickening |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Palpation of the Pastern Rotate the joint to test for: | pain in the collateral ligaments |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Palpation of the Fetlock Palpate both the dorsal and palmar aspect for any: | thickening and swelling of the joint capsule. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Palpation of the Fetlock Palpate the superficial and deep digital flexors for: | heat, pain, and swelling. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Palpation of the Fetlock True or false: Palpate the sesamoid bones and the associated ligaments. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Palpation of the Fetlock Rotate and flex the fetlock to check the collateral ligaments and: | range of motion |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Metacarpus & Metatarsus Palpate the tendons on both the dorsal and palmar surfaces for any: | swelling, pain or heat |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Metacarpus & Metatarsus Palpate the length of MC3/MT3 and the ___ bones looking for any abnormalities. | splint |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Metacarpus & Metatarsus With the fetlock flexed and raised, check the ___ ___ and compare them to the opposite side | Suspensory ligaments |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Palpation of the Carpus Visualize for ___ on the dorsal and palmar surfaces. Try to associate any ___ with a particular joint space. Is the ___ diffuse or local? | swelling, swelling, swelling |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Palpation of the Carpus Palpate all the regions individually. This evaluation is most effective while the carpus is ___. | flexed. Note the degree of flexion and any associated pain. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Palpation of the Carpus Evaluate the individual carpal bones and accessory carpal bones with ___ pressure. | thumb |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Palpation of the Elbow Palpate the soft tissues of the elbow joint. One can use a stethoscope to auscultate for any ___. | crepitation |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Palpation of the Elbow Abduct the elbow and carpus to place stress on the medial support structures looking for ___. | pain. Flex and extend the elbow. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Palpation of the Elbow Palpate the ___, collateral ligaments, and distal humerus. | olecranon |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Flexion Tests Are used to put extra strain on a joint or surrounding ligaments to: | exacerbate lameness |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Flexion Test True or false: try to separate lameness to a particular joint. | True. Test distal to proximal joints separately. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Flexion Test How long is extreme flexion typically held? | 60 seconds. Horses then trotted off to assess if lameness has worsened. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Regional anesthesia True or false: using appropriate nerve blocks can help localize the causative area of lameness. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Regional anesthesia Intraarticular nerve block is: | into a joint |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Regional anesthesia Perineural nerve blocks are: | around a nerve |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Regional anesthesia Once the lameness has been alleviated, we can proceed to: | diagnostic imaging |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Regional anesthesia A __ digital nerve block is at the level of the pastern joint or elbow. It blocks the palmar/plantar and distal parts of the hoof, PIII, termination of the deep digital flexor, and most of the coffin joint. | palmar |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Regional anesthesia An abaxial ___ block occurs on the abaxial surface of the base of the proximal sesamoids. It blocks the entire digit distal to the fetlock, except some areas of skin. | sesamoid |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Regional anesthesia A ___ palmar/plantar, also called a ____ block is at the level of the distal ends of the metacarpal bones. it blocks the fetlock joint, sesamoids, and sesamoid ligaments. | low. distal metacarpal |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Regional anesthesia A ___ palmar/plantar, also called a ___ block is at the level of the proximal metacarpal region distal to the carpus/tarsus. It blocks the entire digit & most of the palmar/plantar side of the metacarpal bones. | high. proximal metacarpal |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Regional anesthesia A ___ and ___ nerve block is proximal to the hock. It blocks deep sensation from the hock and structures distal to it. Some skin sensation may remain. | peroneal and tibial |
| True or false: Intraarticular blocks can be performed on most joints at any point during the lameness examination and will be specific to the joint. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Radiography True or false: very useful for evaluation of bony structures: joints, long bones, sesamoids, etc. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Radiography True or false: may not see acute bony injuries on first set of radiographs. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Radiography Multiple views call ___ are needed for joints. | orthogonal |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Radiography Usually requires ___ and specialized equipment. | sedation |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Ultrasound Very helpful for looking at the internal structure of __ __ especially tendons. | soft tissues. It can help diagnose problems as well as evaluate healing. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Ultrasound Tendon problems can be diagnosed ___ after injury and usually show up as "core lesions" where the normal central fibers of the tendon have been replaced by blood and fluid. | very soon |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Ultrasound True or false: may or may not require sedation and equipment can be very expensive and fragile. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Nuclear Scintigraphy Looks for new areas of: | bone production |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Nuclear Scintigraphy A radioactive substance called technetium is joined together with a phosphorus compound and then: | injected intravenously into the horse. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Nuclear Scintigraphy True or false: The bones use this phosphorous compound to make more bone cells at different rates depending on what is going on in each individual bone. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Nuclear Scintigraphy A ___ that can pick up the radioactive signal is used to take a " picture" of the horse. | scanner |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Magnetic Resonance Imaging Can be useful for seeing inside structures including: | bone, ligament, tendon, and cartilage |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Magnetic Resonance Imaging Can be used: | below the carpus and below the hock |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Magnetic Resonance Imaging True or false: it is very helpful for foot problems. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Magnetic Resonance Imaging True or false: general anesthesia is required and it is very expensive. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Name eight possible causes: | Foot abscess. Laminitis. Navicular disease. Subsolar Bruising. Thrush. White Line disease. Calcification of the lateral cartilages (side bone). Puncture wounds. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Prognosis of a puncture outside the Frog is ___. Name four treatment options. | Excellent. drainage, bandage, NSAIDS, ABXs (antibiotics). |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Prognosis of a puncture inside the Frog is ___. Describe one possible necessary treatment. | poor. may require surgical drainage. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot A puncture in or out of the frog can turn into a subsolar abscess. What is it? Is there a treatment? | Pus in the foot. An infection beneath the sole of the foot. They cause severe pain to your horse due to the buildup of pressure under the hoof capsule that cannot expand. This causes severe lameness. Requires drainage preferably through the sole. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot It is discovered that a horse has a puncture in the sole of its foot, name one thing we must take care of right away. | Tetanus vaccine |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is laminitis? | Inflammation of the connection between the sensitive and insensitive laminae. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What clinical signs might we see with Laminitis? | Significant lameness, characteristic stance, increased digital pulses. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot True or false: laminitis usually only occurs in the front feet or is worse in the front. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot If laminitis is severe, it can cause: | disconnection of the bone (P3)(Coffin bone) from the hoof capsule and rotation due to the strength of the DDF tendon. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Name five possible causes of Laminitis. | Grain overload. Obesity. Severe diarrhea. Infections elsewhere in the body. Weight overload. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is Laminitis treated? (5) | Rest. NSAIDS. Pad Feet. Corrective shoeing. Diet change. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is Navicular Disease? | A chronic progressive inflammation of the navicular bone, bursa, and DDF tendon. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What percent of forelimb lameness's are caused by Navicular Disease? | 33% or 1/3 or One out of three lameness'. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How old are horse's when they first experience Navicular disease? | 6-8 years old |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What causes Navicular disease? | Concussion. Disrupted blood flow. The onset of lameness is most commonly associated with an irregular workload or a period of enforced rest. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is Navicular Disease diagnosed? | Radiographs. Nerve blocks. hoof testers. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What are four possible treatments for Navicular Disease? | Exercise plan. Special shoes. NSAIDS. Neurectomies. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is a neurectomy? | Surgical removal of all or part of a nerve. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Subsolar Bruising is usually caused by: | trauma to the sole with subsequent hemorrhage between the sensitive and insensitive soles. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What are four possible contributing factors of Subsolar Bruising? | Exercise on hard ground. Thin flat soles. Coffin bone rotation. Not wearing shoes. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot True or false: Subsolar Bruising is often bilateral. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot True or false: Sole pain is evident with hoof testers in Subsolar Bruising. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot True or false: Subsolar bruising may cause acute or chronic low grade lameness. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is Subsolar Bruising diagnosed? | By paring the sole and finding discoloration without the presence of an abscess. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is Subsolar Bruising treated? | Treated with NSAIDS and soft surface until healed. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot If Subsolar Bruising is left untreated, it can lead to: | abscess formation |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is Thrush and what contributes to its occurrence (3)? | Bacterial infection of sulci of frog. Wet and dirty conditions and inadequate hoof care. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Name two clinical signs of Thrush: | Foul smelling black discharge found in frog sulci. Not Usually lame unless severe. Deep erosion of frog sulci. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is Thrush diagnosed? | Diagnosed by examination and characteristic appearance and smell. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is Thrush treated? | Treated by removing debris, necrotic tissue, and treating with topical astringents such as Koppertox, iodine, etc. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Is it possible to prevent Thrush? | Prevent by removing manure, keeping out of mud, and cleaning feet daily. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is "White Line" Disease? | Infection trapped in the "white line" laminae. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What causes "White Line" disease? | Puncture wounds, poor conditions, debris in foot. Essentially anaerobic conditions that bacteria enjoy and causes destruction of hoof tissue. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is a possible treatment of "White Line" disease? | Hoof wall resection to get at tissue and treat. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is Calcification of the lateral cartilages - side bone? | The normal cartilage on either side of the coffin bone becomes calcified. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot True or false: calcification of the lateral cartilages (Sidebone) is most often in the front feet of older horses. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot True or false: calcification of the lateral cartilages (Sidebone) starts as lameness, but then just becomes unsightly. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What causes calcification of the lateral cartilages (Sidebone)? | Usually caused by direct trauma to the foot |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Can calcification of the lateral cartilages (Sidebone) be seen on gross examination? How else can it be diagnosed? | Yes. Seen as a bulge near the coronary band. Seen easily on radiograph. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is the calcification of lateral cartilages (Sidebone) treated? | NSAIDs. Rest. Bar shoes. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Osteoarthritis of the interphalangeal joints is called: | Ring Bone |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Osteoarthritis of the Proximal interphalangeal joint is called: | High Ring Bone |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Osteoarthritis of the Distal interphalangeal joint is called: | Low Ring Bone |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is osteoarthritis? | Wear and tear or after injury or chip fractures. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is osteoarthritis diagnosed? | Hx. Clinical signs. Lameness exam. Nerve blocks. Intraarticular blocks. Radiographs. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is osteoarthritis treated? | Controlled exercise program. NSAIDs. Intraarticular injections of steroids. Joint supplements. Corrective shoeing. Surgical arthrodesis (joint fusion). |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Describe Sesamoid Fractures/Osteitis? | #1 cause of racetrack deaths. Fracture or inflammation of substance of the bone. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Fracture of the sesamoid bones are most commonly associated with: | stress injury, trauma |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Sesamoid Fracture/Osteitis causes: (grade of lameness) | Severe 5/5 lameness |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is Sesamoid Fracture/Osteitis diagnosed? | By clinical signs of severe pain and radiographs |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is Sesamoid Fracture/Osteitis treated? | Cast, surgical repair, euthanasia |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What exactly are "Wind Puffs"? | Synovial effusion of the fetlock joint, digital flexor sheath. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What causes "Wind Puffs"? | Cause is unknown, but may be previous low grade chronic trauma. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot True or false: "Wind Puffs" are blemishes that cause no clinical problems. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What are Bucked Shins? | Periosteal reaction of the dorsal aspect of the third metacarpal bone (cannon bone). |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot True or false: Bucked Shins is the #1 lameness of two year old race horses in training. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Bucked Shins usually affects what limbs? | Front |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What causes Bucked Shins? | Strong repeated concussion of the dorsal aspect of bone before bone has a chance to remodel appropriately. "Too much too soon." |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What are clinical signs of Bucked Shins? | Acute lameness with warm swelling of the metacarpal area (Cannon bone). May be seen on radiograph. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is Bucked Shins treated? | Rest, controlled exercise program, and NSAIDs |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is "Splints"? | Osteitis of the splint bones. Strain on interosseus ligament between splint bones and cannon bone which results in periostitis and new bone growth. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What horses are most often affected by "Splints"? | Young horses in training: forelimbs (medial aspect). |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What are the clinical signs of "Splints"? | May cause variable levels of lameness acutely. Chronic bony protuberance forms and then no pain. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How are "Splints" diagnosed? | Palpation or radiograph |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How are "Splints" treated? | Acute: rest, bandaging, NSAIDs. Chronic: usually no treatment needed. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is a Splint Bone Fracture? | Usually a distal fracture of the medial splint bone in the forelimb. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What are the usual causes of Splint Bone Fracture? | Direct trauma or suspensory ligament desmitis. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is desmitis? | inflammation of a ligament. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Are there clinical signs associated with Splint Bone Fracture? | Mild to no lameness. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How are Splint Bone Fractures diagnosed? | Palpation. Radiology. Nerve blocks. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Is there a treatment for Splint Bone Fractures? | Not really. Treatment is usually benign neglect and results in non-union fractures. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is Suspensory Ligament Desmitis? | Common cause of lameness in the athletic equine. When both legs are involved, a change in gait or gait quality is seen rather than a distinct lameness. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is a Bowed Tendon? | Inflammation (strain, sprain, tear) of one of the flexor tendons. Usually the SDF (superficial digital flexor tendons), forelimb at the level of the mid cannon bone. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What causes Bowed Tendon? | Caused by a single episode of trauma or repeated episodes weakening the tendon. Collagen fibers rip apart, exudate and blood separate fibers further and weaker collagen fibers replace it. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot When Bowed Tendon is caused by acute injury, clinical signs are usually: | pain, diagnosed by palpation and ultrasound. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot When Bowed Tendon is caused by chronic injury will result in: | scar tissue and classic appearance. Likely to recur. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is Infectious Tenosynovitis? | Cut or penetrating injury to the tendons and tendon sheath. Bacteria is introduced into the area causing infection, inflammation and potentially scarring and adhesions. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is Infectious Tenosynovitis diagnosed? | by sedation and careful exploration of lacerations to determine extent. Can be seen on ultrasound as well as evaluation of synovial fluid. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What are clinical signs of Infectious Tenosynovitis? | Lameness grade 3-5 out of 5. Pain, heat, and swelling of the area. Distention of tendon sheath. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is Infectious Tenosynovitis treated? | Involves broad spectrum antibiotics, irrigation of tendon sheath, and NSAIDs. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is a Carpal Chip Fracture? | #1 Fracture of racehorse. Caused by hyperextension at high speed. Fractures of the dorsal aspect of one of the several carpal bones. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What are the clinical signs of Carpal Chip Fracture? | Acute lameness and swelling of the joint. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is Carpal Chip Fracture diagnosed? | Palpation. Joint block. Radiographs. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is Carpal Chip Fracture treated? | Treatment of choice is surgery to remove pieces, stall rest if very small. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Are there long term consequences of Carpal Chip Fracture? | It often leads to arthritis and chronic joint changes. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is Bone Spavin? | Osteoarthritis of the medial hock (the small joints). |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot True or false: Bone Spavin is a very common cause of hind-limb lameness in performance horses, particularly > 10 years old. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot True or false: Bone Spavin is a progressive disease that may result in fusion of the joint. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What are the clinical signs of Bone Spavin? | Chronic mild to moderate lameness. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is Bone Spavin diagnosed? | Positive to hock flexion test. Joint block and radiographs are other possibilities. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is Bone Spavin treated? | Intraarticular steroids, NSAIDs, controlled exercise program. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is Bog Spavin? | Chronic distension of the tibiotarsal joint resulting in fluid pocket caused by any trauma or injury to the joint which causes inflammation. The joint capsule doesn't usually return to normal size after distension. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Are there clinical signs associated with Bog Spavin? | No lameness unless due to chronic underlying injury (OCD). Usually cosmetic only. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is Osteochondrosis Dissecans (OCD)? | Can happen to multiple joints: stifle, hock, shoulder, often bilateral. Failure in the endochondral ossification resulting in weak, thick cartilage which dissects from the normal cartilage. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What are the clinical signs of Osteochondrosis Dissecans (OCD)? | Large amount of effusion. Lameness. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is Osteochondrosis Dissecans (OCD) diagnosed? | Radiography. Arthroscopy. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is Osteochondrosis Dissecans (OCD) treated? | If no lameness can try conservative therapy: reduce nutrition. Surgical removal of flap ideal treatment if lameness or high value animal. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What are the consequences of leaving Osteochondrosis Dissecans untreated? | Can lead to significant arthritis |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is Upward Fixation of the Patella? | Medial patellar ligament "hooks over" the femoral trochlear ridge even when leg is flexed. Locks the stifle into extension. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is Upward Fixation of the Patella diagnosed? | By characteristic stance: horse takes a step but cannot flex the stifle. The patella is also easily moved medially and proximally. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is Upward Fixation of the Patella treated? | Treatment involves strengthening the quadriceps muscle: trotting up and down hills. Surgical correction of medial patellar ligament desmotomy can be performed if conservative treatment fails. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot True or false: if neurological disease is suspected, a neurological examination can be added onto the lameness exam? | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Name six means of accessing neurological health is a horse? | Tail pull/Sway. Panniculus/Skin Sensation Test. Tight Circles. Walking with head elevated. Blindfolding. Leg placement test. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is Wobbler's Disease? | Cervical Vertebral Stenotic Myelopathy. Produced by spinal cord compression at the cervical (neck) level. Stenosis may be dynamic or static. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Wobbler's Disease is characterized by: | Abnormal gait in the front and/or hind limbs. It is referred to as "wobbler" syndrome, as the horse may seem wobbly when walking or exercising. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot True or false: In Wobbler's Disease, the severity of ataxia observed signs varies among horses. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is Wobbler's Disease treated? | Possible through surgery but only specific cases will respond favorably (young and with dynamic stenosis). |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis? | Inflammation of the central nervous system due to infection with a protozoa (Sarcocystic neurona) commonly linked to opossums. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What are clinical signs of Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis? | Ataxia, spasticity, abnormal gait or lameness which worsens when going up or down slopes or when head is elevated. Muscle atrophy. Paralysis of muscles of eyes, face, mouth (drooping eyes, ears, lips) Difficulty swallowing, seizures, collapse. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis diagnosed? | Testing can be challenging. Blood tests are often falsely positive and CSF taps require deep sedation and excellent technique. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Are there treatments for Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis? | Oral medications can be helpful but lingering signs are possible. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is Polysaccharide Storage Myopathy (PSSM)? | Can show frequent episodes of muscle cramping and increased muscle enzymes. More often seen in Quarter Horses, Appaloosas, and Paints. Will exhibit very still muscles, cramping, and stilted gait. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot True or false: In Polysaccharide Storage Myopathy (PSSM), the muscles actually have an increase in total muscle glycogen but have abnormal molecules form and isn't properly utilized when needed. | True |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Is there a treatment for Polysaccharide Storage Myopathy (PSSM)? | Limit the amount of sugars in the feed and provide excellent forage. Ensure enough vitamin E for antioxidants and use fat to supplement calories if needed. Several excellent equine feeds are suitable. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot What is Equine Polysaccharide Storage Myopathy (EPSM)? | Exercise associated muscle cramping, but also poor gait, weak, flabby muscles, appear to have a neurologic lameness. Seen more often in Draft Horses and Friesans. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot Is there a treatment for Equine Polysaccharide Storage Myopathy? | Strictly limit carbs, feed fat instead and ensure vitamin E and Selenium. |
| Equine Musculoskeletal: Lameness of the Foot How is Equine Polysaccharide Storage Myopathy diagnosed? | Genetic testing is available. DVM used to perform muscle biopsies. |
| Teeth, tongue, salivary glands and act of chewing are the first portion of the ___. | GI tract |
| True or false: salivation only occurs in response to chewing (rather than just thinking about or seeing food). | True |
| Problems with teeth can cause difficulty prehending and chewing food adequately and can result in: | abnormal digestion, weight loss, colic |
| Anatomy of the Esophagus What two types of muscle is it composed of? | Striated (motor) and Smooth (parasympathetic control) |
| Anatomy of the Esophagus It is composed of three regions. Name them. | cervical, thoracic, and abdominal |
| Anatomy of the Esophagus True or false: it is a tubulomuscular organ about 50-60 inches long in an adult. | True |
| What are two major functions of the esophagus? | Transport of food bolus or other material from the pharynx to the stomach. It also prevents retrograde (backward) flow of GI contents. |
| True or false: horses CANNOT vomit. | True |
| Swallowing Oral swallowing portion is ___. It gets food or water to the back of the throat. | voluntary |
| Swallowing After oral swallowing, involuntary ___ contractions take over and move the bolus down the esophagus. | peristaltic |
| Swallowing The ___ is a smooth muscle that has intrinsic tone (stays closed naturally). | lower esophageal sphincter (LES) |
| Swallowing The lower esophageal sphincter (LES) allows food in, but stays contracted against pressure from the stomach. This prevents: | esophageal reflux |
| Swallowing Peristaltic waves down the esophagus occur in response to: | The act of swallowing and the presence of a bolus of material in the esophagus. |
| Name two reasons that horses cannot vomit. As a consequence, what can happen? | The terminal esophagus enters the stomach at a very acute angle (virtually "turns a corner"), and the LES (lower espohageal sphincter) is always tensed, but constricts further in response to distension of the stomach (a vagal reflex). Stomach rupture. |
| What is Choke? | It occurs when a bolus (chunk) of material, usually food, lodges in the esophagus. Can cause complete or partial obstruction. It is not the same as "choking" as in aspiration like when something goes down the trachea. It is an esophageal obstruction. |
| What are four possible causes of "Choke" in horses? | Food: pelleted hay or beet pulp because they tend to expand w/ moisture in the esophagus. Chunk food: whole apples, large chunks of carrots, baling twine. Drugs that decrease smooth muscle motility. xylazine: Rompun or detomidine. Strictures, neoplasia |
| Signs of choke? There are at least eight. Name at least four. | Dysphagia. Drooling. Food coming out of the nose. Swelling of the throat or in the neck. Keeping neck extended. Restlessness. Repeated attempts to swallow. Sometimes coughing. |
| Discharge of Food from Nostrils Name two reasons: | Food cannot pass down the esophagus, so it refluxes back up from the obstruction and out the nose. |
| Name three to six means of diagnosing choke. | History. Clinical signs. Palpation of a mass in the esophagus. Inability to pass nasogastric tube. Reflux of water flushed down NG tube, back out the nostrils. Radiographs could be done if equipment available. Endoscopy. |
| Treatment of Choke How is it done? | Gently pass nasogastric tube. +/- sedation w/ xylazine or detomidine. Flushing w/ large amounts of warm water in NG tube to dissolve & dislodge blockage. Possible lidocaine flush to anesthetize and relax area. Massage mass. IV fluids to improve hydration. |
| Treatment of Choke...continued True or false: In some cases general anesthesia is needed. The horse can be intubated, further protecting the airway when prolonged and high volume flushing of the esophagus is performed. | True |
| Treatment of Choke...continued Why are antibiotics sometimes given for Choke? | To prevent or treat secondary aspiration pneumonia |
| Treatment of Choke...continued ___ are also sometimes given for inflammation and discomfort. Name two in equine medicine. | NSAIDs. phenylbutazone ("bute") or flunixin meglumine (Banamine). |
| Name three possible complications of choke: | Stricture due to scar tissue forming after an esophageal impaction. Perforation of the esophagus, either by a tube or because of necrosis of the esophageal wall. Pneumonia |
| Equine Stomach Anatomy & Physiology True or false: horses have a single, relatively small, stomach. | True |
| Equine Stomach Anatomy & Physiology The gastric lining is composed of: | Squamous mucusa (white in appearance) dorsally, and Glandular mucosa (dark pink to red) ventrally with a smooth glistening appearance. |
| Equine Stomach Anatomy & Physiology What is the name of the border between the squamous mucosa and the glandular mucosa? | margo plicatus |
| Equine Stomach Anatomy & Physiology The duodenum just beyond the pylorus should be: | velvety pink |
| Gastric Ulceration Occur in what age of horse? | Any age, including foals |
| Gastric Ulceration Prevalence is estimated at __% of race horses, __% of other performance horses, and as much as __ - __% of foals. | 90% race horses. 60% performance horses. 25-50% foals. |
| Gastric Ulceration What are the five most common reasons for this condition? | Confinement. High concentrate meals instead of grazing roughage. Often fed 2-3 meals daily. Lack of saliva production (horses only salivate when something is in their mouth, saliva contains bicarbonate). Constant secretion of hydrochloric acid in stomach. |
| In natural nutrition & grazing, horses graze on ___ as they wander. They aren't confined to stalls/fenced in. Allowed to graze __ - __ hrs a day. What benefit does this have? Horses also have little to no access to any grains or lush pastures. | wild grasses. 18-22 hours. Constant food in their mouth means constant saliva production and saliva contains bicarbonate to help neutralize stomach acid (hydrochloric acid). |
| Clinical Signs of Gastric Ulcers in foals There are six. Name three to six: | Colic (abdominal pain). Bruxism (grinding teeth). Interrupted nursing/poor appetite. Lying on back (dorsal recumbency). Diarrhea. Poor growth, rough hair coat, pot belly. |
| Pot belly in foals can be associated with gastric ulcers. What other condition can cause this? | Roundworm infestation in foals |
| Clinical signs of gastric ulcers in adults There are seven. Name four to seven: | Chronic low grade colic. Poor performance. Decreased appetite. Change in temperament. Loss of condition. Decreased endurance. Intermittant diarrhea. Signs can be subtle. Sometimes we know ulcers were causing a problem when they are successfully treated. |
| Diagnosis of Gastric Ulceration What is the number one means of diagnosis. How is it done? | Endoscopy. In adults, a very long scope (3 meters) is used to reach the duodenum. Horse must fast about 10-12 hours. Foals less than three weeks usually not fasted. Sedate in adults. Distend stomach with air, so lining can be observed. Water flush lens. |
| Treatment of Gastric Ulcers True or false: There should be a major focus on changing the management factors that are contributing to the problems. | True |
| Treatment of Gastric Ulcers What management factors should be changed in order to treat these animals? (3) | Increase time allowed out to graze (as many hours as possible during the day.) Feeding small frequent meals to increase the time spent chewing (and thus salivating). Increase amount of forage (hay) and decrease amount of concentrate. |
| Treatment of Gastric Ulcers: Medications Name three possible medication therapies: | Treatment: Omeprazole (Gastroguard) The ingredient in Prilosec for humans. Preventative: Omeprazole (Ulcerguard). Other medications such as sucralfate, ranitidine (antacid). |
| Equine Colic Colic is really a general term for: | abdominal discomfort or pain. |
| Equine Colic Colic has a multitude of causes ranging from fairly mild and medically treatable to life threatening and/or requiring surgical prevention. True or false: determining what is causing the colic can be very challenging. | True |
| Equine Colic The major decision to be made is: | surgical vs non-surgical colic. Most colics are not surgical and respond to medical treatment. |
| Equine Colic A exploratory laparotomy (equine) is a very ___ commitment. Some horses can recover and return to full athletic activity. Complications can occur. Some never reach full activity again. | expensive |
| Equine Colic There are 13 common clinical signs of Colic. Name six -13. | Pawing w/ front feet. Looking back @ flank. Curling upper lip & arching neck. Kicking @ abdomen. Lying down. Rolling side to side. Sweating. Stretching out as to urinate. Straining to defecate. Abdominal distension. Depression. Anorexia. Decreased BMs. |
| Equine Colic True or false: while clinical signs are reliable indicators of abdominal pain, they do not indicate what area of the GI tract is involved or whether surgery is needed. | True |
| Diagnosing Equine Colic There are nine common signs. Name four to nine. | Clinical signs. History. Abnormal mucous membranes (not normal light pink). Prolonged capillary refill time. Increased body temperature. Increased packed cell volume. Rectal examination. Abnormal gut sounds (absent or hyper). Passage of NG tube. |
| Diagnosing Equine Colic Normal TPR? | T: 99.5 - 100.5 P: 32-40 bpm R: 12 rpm |
| Major Categories or Types of Colic Name six: | Spasmodic (gassy). Impaction. Displacement/entrapment. Infectious/inflammatory. Necrotic. Gastric ulcer associated. |
| Major Categories of Colic: Spasmodic (gassy) What is it? | Accumulations of gas distend the intestines and cause pain. |
| Major Categories of Colic: Spasmodic (gassy) What is this type of colic usually associated with? | Grain ingestion (grain overload) or new green grass but can also occur seemingly without any specific reason. |
| Major Categories of Colic: Spasmodic (gassy) How is this type of colic treated? | Passage of a nasogastric tube to assess stomach gas/fluid/contents. Withhold feed. Analgesics (Banamine). Antispasmodic (Buscopan). Sometimes hand walking to encourage intestinal movement and passage of gas distally. |
| Major Categories of Colic: Impaction (S or L Intestine) Typically happens where there is an: | anatomical narrowing of the intestinal tract. |
| Major Categories of Colic: Impaction (S or L Intestine) Usually some ___ bolus of feed. | dehydrated |
| Major Categories of Colic: Impaction (S or L Intestine) What other possible causes can you think of? | Foreign body like: baling twine, piece of wood, rubber, sand, enteroliths, benzoar. |
| Major Categories of Colic: Impaction (S or L Intestine) What is a Enterolith? | mineral concretions |
| Major Categories of Colic: Impaction (S or L Intestine) What is a Bezoar? | mass of hair and or plant fiber |
| Major Categories of Colic: Impaction (S or L Intestine) Name four areas of impaction (anatomical narrowing of the intestinal tract). | pelvic flexure, body of cecum, base of cecum, junction of right dorsal colon with transverse colon. |
| Major Categories of Colic: Impaction (S or L Intestine) How is this type of colic treated? | Withhold food (basket muzzle). Rehydration via IV or oral fluids. Analgesics (banamine) not buscopan, don't want to slow down the GI tract. Sometimes passage of mineral oil via stomach tube or DSS (dioctyl sodium succinate). Impactions can require Sx. |
| Major Categories of Colic: Displacement/Entrapment True or false: can occur in the large and small intestine. | True |
| Major Categories of Colic: Displacement/Entrapment True or false: various mobile areas of the intestine can twist, slip in to narrowed areas (nephrosplenic entrapment), inguinal hernias. | True |
| Major Categories of Colic: Displacement/Entrapment May or may not actually be strangulating (killing off the tissue). | True |
| Major Categories of Colic: Displacement/Entrapment Will often require ___ to replace the offending portion of the intestine and/or repair a hernia or tear in the mesentery. | surgery |
| Major Categories of Colic: Displacement/Entrapment Pendunculated lipomas are only seen in: | horses and ponies older than 10 years. |
| Major Categories of Colic: Infectious/Inflammatory Due to pain in the abdomen from infection or inflammation of any structure within. Name five examples: | pyelonephritis (kidney infection/upper urinary tract infection), uroliths (bladder stones), pyometra (infection of the uterus), neoplasia, abscesses (a swollen area within body tissue, containing an accumulation of pus), peritonitis. |
| Major Categories of Colic: Necrotic True or false: necrosis means lack of blood supply causing cell and tissue death. | True |
| Major Categories of Colic: Necrotic Migration of ___ ___ used to be a major cause, could obstruct blood supply to intestines. | large strongyles. Regular deworming practices now make this a much less common occurrence. |
| Major Categories of Colic: Necrotic Necrosis can occur as a result of ___ and entrapment of intestines, prolonged ___ and pressure on the intestinal wall, etc. | displacement. impaction. |
| Major Categories of Colic: Necrotic What are four clinical signs of Strongylus vulgaris (most pathogenic of the large strongyles.) | pale gums, anemia (low PCV), weight loss, unthrifty or minimal signs. |
| Major Categories of Colic: Necrotic How is Strongylus vulgaris diagnosed? | fecal flotation |
| Major Categories of Colic: Necrotic How is a Strongylus vulgaris infestation treated? | variety of common dewormers and parasite control programs. |
| Major Categories of Colic: Necrotic Depending on the underlying cause, what are four possible treatments? Sometimes it can only be diagnosed by ___ | May require surgical intervention, medical management with IV or Oral fluids via NG tube, antibiotics, analgesics. exploratory abdominal surgery |
| Diarrhea - Equine What does this mean exactly? | Passage of fecal material that has increased moisture content. |
| Diarrhea - Equine True or false: not all soft manure is pathological. Softer manure can be seen in horses turned out to pasture for the first time in Spring. Or just normal in some horses. | True |
| Diarrhea - Equine What are three causes of pathological diarrhea? | Intestinal parasitism (especially foals), antibiotic induced, or infectious (can be particularly severe with massive fluid losses). |
| Diarrhea - Equine There are seven common causes of diarrhea. Name four - seven. | Salmonella (zoonotic risk), Colitis X, Potomac Horse Fever, NSAIDs, Antibiotics, Neoplasia, "Stress", Parasites. |
| Diarrhea - Equine Maintenance requirements are about: | 30 ml/kg/day |
| Diarrhea - Equine Name three important things to remember for calculations of fluid therapy plan. | Replacement of deficit. Maintenance requirement. Keeping up with ongoing losses. |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Care of IV Catheters Sterile placement is very important. Meticulous care and handling of the catheter and injections ports. Carefully monitor the catheter site for (6): | Swelling, Occlusion (won't flow, can't flush it easily), Heat, Tenderness, Moisture, Fever. All indications for removal. |
| Jugular Vein Thrombosis w/ occlusion of blood supply. True or false: swelling of head and neck can occur when blood flow from the head is obstructed. | True |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Salmonella True or false: this is the most frequently diagnosed infectious cause of diarrhea in the horse and is zoonotic. | True |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Salmonella True or false: stress (crowding, training, traveling) can make a horse more susceptible. | True |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Salmonella True or false: salmonella is commonly present in intestinal tract normally. | True |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Salmonella What is another factor that allows it to cause disease other than stress? | immunocompromised animals |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Salmonella Disease results from ___ produced by the bacteria. | toxin |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Salmonella What are the clinical signs of Salmonella (8)? Plus 2 that may develop. | Profuse foul smelling sometimes bloody diarrhea. Fever. Inappetence. Colic. Depression. Dehydration. Tachycardia. Tachypnea. Sepsis and laminitis may develop. |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Salmonella How is it treated? | Strict isolation! Usually means wearing disposable gowns, coveralls, boot covers, mask, and gloves. Protect yourself! IV fluid therapy, analgesics, antibiotics, probiotics. |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Colitis X What is the underlying cause of this disease? | Clostridium perfringens Type A (and the toxin it produces). |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Colitis X True or false: the toxin that Clostridium perfringens Type A produces damages the intestinal wall. | True |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Colitis X Sometimes the horse will ___ acutely before the diarrhea is even seen. Name five clinical signs. | die. Severe depression, pain, fever, rapid development of shock, profuse bloody diarrhea. |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Potomac Horse Fever True or false: Named this because the first cases were seen in area of Potomac River in Maryland. | True |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Potomac Horse Fever It is caused by ___ with a complicated mode of transmission including a ___ and insects feeding on secretions of the ___ or ___. | Neorickettsia risticii (Ehrlichia risticii) fluke, snail, fluke. |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Potomac Horse Fever True or false: it is similar to salmon poisoning in dogs. | True |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Potomac Horse Fever Clinical signs include inflammation of the colon with: | diarrhea, fever, and depression |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Potomac Horse Fever True or false: there is a vaccination available. | True |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Potomac Horse Fever What antibiotic is used to treat it? Route? | Oxytetracycline antibiotic IV |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Potomac Horse Fever True of false: cases have occurred in the PNW. | True |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Drug Induced ___ antibiotics can be a particular problems, but ___ antibiotics can also cause diarrhea. | Oral. IV. |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Drug Induced True or false: antibiotic associated diarrhea can be fatal. | True |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Drug Induced NSAIDs can cause GI ulceration and result in diarrhea. Name four possible NSAIDs. | Phenylbutazone (Bute), Flunixin meglumine (Banamine), Ketoprofen, Previcox. |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Drug Induced What is the treatment for NSAID induced diarrhea? | Stop NSAID immediately. Rest and pelleted feed. Psyllium. |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Drug Induced True or false: NSAID induced diarrhea results in a guarded prognosis? | True |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Parasites Intestinal parasites that encyst in or cause inflammation of the intestinal wall cause diarrhea. Name four possible culprits: | Stronglyoides westerii (foals), Large and small stronglyes, and Cryptosporidium (foals). |
| Diarrhea - Equine: Stress Usually ___ and self-limiting. Hospitalization, trailering, and showing are possible causes. Usually no treatment is needed. | mild |
| Equine: Sequela of Acute Diarrhea Name five possible complications of acute diarrhea in horses. | Jugular vein (IV catheter site) thrombosis. Endotoxemia. Laminitis (avascular necrosis of the sensitive laminae of the hoof wall), Septicemia, Death. |
| What is Endotoxemia? | technically means the presence of endotoxin within the blood. |
| What is Septicemia? | a serious bloodstream infection |
| True or false: Laminitis is not an uncommon sequela to any serious disease in equids. | True. |
| What are three clinical signs of laminitis? | Leaning back to take weight off feet. Warm hoof wall/Bounding digital pulses. Rotation and sometimes penetration of P3 through the sole. |
| Words to Know: Horses (Equine) What is a mature male? | Stallion |
| Words to Know: Horses (Equine) What is a mature female? | Mare |
| Words to Know: Horses (Equine) What is a castrated male? | Gelding |
| Words to Know: Horses (Equine) What is an immature female? | Filly |
| Words to Know: Horses (Equine) What is an immature male? | Colt |
| Equine Male Reproductive System Name three functions: | Produces male sex hormones. Develops spermatozoa. Delivers the spermatozoa to the female system at the appropriate time. |
| Mare Anatomy Name six parts: | Vulva, Vagina, Cervix, Uterus, Oviducts, Ovaries |
| Mare Anatomy The ___ is a smooth muscle sphincter between the body of the uterus and the vagina. True or false: it is normally tightly closed, except during estrus and parturition. | Cervix. True |
| Mare Anatomy The ___ is a hollow muscular organ. Usually Y shaped. Uterine body forms the base of the Y. Uterine horns form the arms. | Uterus |
| Mare Anatomy The ___ is made up of the epithelial lining and simple tubular glands. It secretes mucus and other substances. | Endometrium |
| Mare Estrous Cycle Name nine estrus signs: | Tail flagging or "winking," vocalizing, vulva discharge (swollen/red), frequent urination, general attitude change, may mount or fight others, increased activity rate, nervousness, reduced appetite. |
| Ovarian Cycle In ___ species, one mature ovum is produced per cycle (usually). Name three species. | Uniparous species. Horse, cow, human. |
| Ovarian Cycle In ___ species, multiple ova are produced per cycle. Name three species. | Multiparous species. Cat, dog, and sow (pig). |
| The ___ is a multilayered, fluid-filled, membranous sac. The outermost layer of the ___ attaches to the uterine lining in some areas. True or false: fetal and maternal blood vessels are in close proximity to each other in this area. | placenta, placenta, True: site of exchange of blood nutrients and wastes. |
| Placenta The ___ is the membranous layer immediately surrounding the fetus. | Amnion. Forms the amniotic sac. Fetus floats in amniotic fluid inside the amniotic sac. |
| Placenta The ___ layer surrounds the amniotic sac. It forms the ___ sac, which accumulates wastes. | Allantois. Allantoic. Outside of allantoic sac is covered by the chorion. |
| Placenta The ___ attaches to the lining of the uterus. It is linked to the fetus by the umbilical cord. | Chorion |
| Equine Reproduction True or false: reproduction efficiency is low. | True. 60-75%. |
| Equine Reproduction True or false: any reproductive disorder can have major economic impact for horse owner/breeders. | True |
| Equine Reproduction What are five reproductive disorders that can have major economic impact for horse owners or breeders? | Infections. Anatomic abnormalities. Toxins. Immune-mediated Disorders. Behavioral. |
| Male Breeding Soundness This consists of six basic areas of evaluation: Hx, PE, Digital exam, Semen evaluation, blood test, genital culture. What two things are evaluated in semen evaluation or blood test? | Semen evaluation: morphology, motility. Blood test: hormones, titers. |
| Male Breeding Soundness ___ is the word for when one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum by two years of age. | Cryptorchidism. |
| Male Breeding Soundness True or false: Cryptorchidism is an inherited condition and these animals should not be bred. | True. It is unethical to remove only the exterior testicle. |
| Male Breeding Soundness What is the treatment for Cryptorchidism? | Abdominal surgery to remove retained testicle(s). |
| Female Breeding Soundness This includes a Hx, PE, Vaginal exam, Blood evaluation, and ultrasound. Describe the Vaginal exam and Blood evaluation. | Vaginal exam: visual, digital, culture, uterine biopsy. Blood evaluation: hormones, titers. |
| Diseases of the Reproductive Tract ___ is a sexually transmitted disease which occurs in horses. It is caused by a bacterial organism known as Taylorella equigentialis. | Contagious Equine Metritis |
| Diseases of the Reproductive Tract True or false: Contagious Equine Metritis has been eradicated in the United States but is still a reportable disease. | True |
| Diseases of the Reproductive Tract Mares which have been diagnosed with or potentially to ___ must be quarantined for a minimum of 21 days and must undergo a treatment program. | contagious equine metritis |
| Diseases of the Reproductive Tract Stallions which have been diagnosed with or potentially exposed to ___ must be quarantined and undergo a treatment program. These stallions cannot be released from quarantine until they have tested negative for ___. | contagious equine metritis (CEM) |
| Diseases of the Reproductive Tract ___ is a chronic low grade inflammation of the uterus that can lead to scarring. It results in low reproductive efficiency. | Endometritis |
| Diseases of the Reproductive Tract What are three causes of Endometritis? | Repeated breedings. Chronic bacterial infections of the uterus particularly due to conformation. Increasing age. |
| Diseases of the Reproductive Tract What are three clinical signs of Endometritis? | Failure to conceive. Uterine discharge. Fluid in uterus. |
| Diseases of the Reproductive Tract How is Endometritis diagnosed? | Ultrasound. Culture and sensitivity. Uterine biopsy (uterine biopsies are graded in severity with percentage of likelihood of future pregnancy given with each grade). |
| Diseases of the Reproductive Tract What are two ways the Endometritis is treated? | Uterine lavage with antibiotics prior to breeding if fluid in uterus. Correct physical abnormalities (if possible): Caslick's surgery |
| Diseases of the Reproductive Tract What is Caslick's Surgery? | A surgical procedure to "seal" the proximal portion of the vulva from debris and bacteria. It must be removed prior to live breeding and foaling. |
| Equine Reproduction Expected losses due to abortion and perinatal death. Abortion: __-__% Death in 1st year of life: __%. | Abortion: 1 - 2% Death (within 1st year): 4.7% |
| Causes of Abortion What is the #1 cause of equine abortion? | Twin pregnancy |
| Causes of Abortion Why is Twin Pregnancy the #1 cause of equine abortion? | Complications due to the nature of equine placenta. |
| Causes of Abortion How is abortion prevented in a twin pregnancy? | One twin is terminated early. Most reduce to singleton within three weeks. Dystocia and retained placenta are risks if not done. |
| Bacterial Abortions What are three etiologies? Name three methods of transmission. | E. coli, Salmonella, Klebsiella. Acquired due to anatomic defect of vulva or cervix or acquired during breeding or parturition. |
| Bacterial Abortions What are three clinical signs? | Abortion. Vaginal discharge. Mare returns to estrus. |
| Bacterial Abortions How are they diagnosed? | Bacterial culture and sensitivity. Pathology on abortion tissue. |
| Bacterial Abortions Name two treatment options: | Uterus flush and uterine antibiotics. Systemic antibiotics. |
| Viral Abortions What is the #1 cause of infectious abortion in horses? At what stage of the pregnancy does this abortion commonly occur? | Equine herpes virus (EHV-1). Usually last trimester. |
| Viral Abortions How are they diagnosed? | Virus isolation/histopathology of abortion tissues. |
| Viral Abortions How are they prevented? | A killed vaccine is available to give to pregnant mares. Isolation techniques. |
| Viral Abortions What are five methods used to prevent EHV-1 Abortion? | Divide pregnant mares into groups by stage of gestation and maintain in isolation. Isolate new arrivals for 21 days. Keep first foaling mares away from older mares. If mares removed, do not reintroduce. Maintain vaccination schedule. |
| Viral Abortions True or false: it is helpful to segregate pregnant mares from weanlings and other horses, and to keep foster mares away from pregnant mares. | True |
| Mares grazing on fescue grass pastures infected with endophyte fungus (Central and Eastern US) can contract: | Fescue Toxicosis |
| What are the clinical signs of Fescue Toxicosis? | Prolonged gestation (more than 13 months). Dysmature foals. Thickened placentas. Agalactia. |
| How is Fescue Toxicosis diagnosed (2)? | Clinical signs. Analysis of feed. |
| How is Fescue Toxicosis treated (4)? | Remove mares from pasture 60-90 days prior to foaling. Have colostrum on hand. Milk replacer. Domperidone. |
| Complications of Parturition What are six possible? | Dystocia. Retained placenta (causes metritis). Tears/lacerations of the reproductive tract. Uterine artery rupture. Prolapse of the rectum, bladder, or uterus. Colic. |
| Normal Parturition: Stages of Labor Describe Stage 1: | Uterine contractions. Myometrium contracts and presses fetus down against the cervix. Sustained contractions cause the cervix to gradually dilate. Ends with rupture of Cholioallantois (water bag). 1-2 hours. |
| Normal Parturition: Stages of Labor Describe behavior of horse during Stage 1: | Mare may stand up, lie down, roll, pace, look or bite at flank, sweat, or urinate. |
| Normal Parturition: Stages of Labor Describe Stage 2: | Delivery of the newborn. Results from combination of strong uterine and abdominal muscle contractions. Rupture of amniotic and allantoic sacs of the placenta usually precedes actual delivery of the newborn. Timeline: 30 min. |
| Normal Parturition: Stages of Labor True or false: when the chest is through the vulva the foal can breathe on its own. We may go over and remove the amniotic sac. | True |
| Normal Parturition: Stages of Labor If a foal is not breathing at parturition: | rub foal, take straw and put in nose, breath into nose |
| Normal Parturition: Stages of Labor True or false: at birth, fetal changes include lungs expanding and starting to function and foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus close. | True |
| True or false: the foramen ovale is the small hole located in the septum, which is the wall between the two upper chambers of the heart (atria). | True |
| True or false: the ductus arteriosus is a fetal blood vessel that normally closes soon after birth. In a PDA, the vessel does not close, but remains patent (open), resulting in an abnormal transmission of blood from the aorta to the pulmonary artery. | True |
| Normal Parturition: Stages of Labor Dystocia is defined as: | difficult birth |
| Normal Parturition: Stages of Labor True or false: the second stage of labor (amniotic rupture to delivery) should be no more than 20 minutes (for the horse). | True |
| Normal Parturition: Stages of Labor What are three etiologies of dystocia in mares? | Mare/foal size mismatch. Malpresentation of foal. Twins. |
| Normal Parturition: Stages of Labor What are three possible treatment options for dystocia? | Correct foal presentation. C-section (rarely done in horses). Fetotomy. |
| Normal Parturition: Stages of Labor ___ is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterus. The chorioallantonic membrane (placenta) is presented at the vulva instead of the amniotic sac. Is this an emergency situation? | Red bag. Yes, due to possible restriction of blood flow/oxygen to fetus. Not common. May be due to thickened placenta from disease (bacteria, fescue toxicity). |
| Normal Parturition: Stages of Labor The entire placenta should be passed within ___ hours of parturition. Very important that placenta is inspected for completeness. | 6 hours |
| Normal Parturition: Stages of Labor What are four clinical signs of retained placentas? | Retained placenta visible at vulva. Vaginal discharge. Laminitis after parturition. Fever/illness. |
| Normal Parturition: Stages of Labor Inspection of the placenta. True or false: always wear gloves. Infectious agents possible. | True |
| Normal Parturition: Stages of Labor What are four treatments for retained placenta? | Uterine lavage. Oxytocin. "Milk jug" traction. Antibiotics. |
| Normal Parturition: Stages of Labor What are four complications of a retained placenta? | Bacterial infections. Septicemia. Laminitis. Subsequent infertility. |
| Tears of Reproductive Tract or Rectum ___ tears secondary to parturition or rectal exam (iatrogenic) are potentially fatal due to high contamination from torn rectum into vagina. | Rectal |
| Tears of Reproductive Tract or Rectum What are three clinical signs? | Blood on exam sleeve after rectal palpation. Colic. Sepsis. |
| What are foal slippers? | Soft fleshy covers on foal hooves to protect uterus during pregnancy and birth. They rapidly fall off within a few days of birth. |
| Tears of Reproductive Tract or Rectum What are two treatments available? | Surgical correction. Aggressive antibiotics, fluids, and support of major bacterial infection. |
| What is a uterine artery rupture? | Acute rupture of the uterine artery during birth. |
| Uterine Artery Rupture What are three causes? | Usually older mare. Pressure from straining or pressure from the foal. uterine prolapse can also lead to tear. |
| Uterine Artery Rupture What are four clinical signs? | Sudden collapse. Sudden onset lethargy. Pale gums. Colic signs. |
| Uterine Artery Rupture What are two ways to diagnose? | Palpation of broad ligament-feel giant hematoma. Necropsy. |
| Uterine Artery Rupture How is it treated? | Keep very quiet. Mild sedation. |
| When a placenta does not detach from the uterine walls and pulls the uterus inside out, it is called a: | uterine prolapse |
| Uterine Prolapse True or false: can cause massive hemorrhage and death. | True |
| Uterine Prolapse How is it treated? | Sedation or epidural block, through lavage and manual replacement. Often filled with sterile fluid and sutures placed across vulva. |
| Uterine Prolapse True or false: Emergency treatment is necessary. | True |
| Name six common neonatal equine conditions: | failure to passive transfer, neonatal isoerythrolysis, bladder rupture, dummy foal, urachal abnormalities, prematurity. |
| What is colostrum? | Pre-milk secretion. Contains large amounts of proteins, lipids, amino acids, and vitamins. Laxative effect helps clear meconium from newborn's intestinal tract. |
| ___ imparts "passive immunity." Transfer of preformed antibodies from dam to newborn. | Colostrum |
| Failure of Passive Transfer Foal does not receive adequate antibodies from mare colostrum. A foal must receive colostrum withing __ hours of birth or intestines will not absorb the antibodies. | 18 hours |
| Failure of Passive Transfer How is it diagnosed? | IgG test on foal serum |
| Failure of Passive Transfer What is the treatment? | Provide colostrum from another mare, or thaw frozen colostrum and give to foal within 12 hours of birth. |
| Failure of Passive Transfer True or false: plasma transfusions do not work well. | True |
| Failure of Passive Transfer A ___ failure results in a foal that is very susceptible to infection: joint infection, septicemia, pneumonia. | Complete failure. Treatment is needed. < 200 mg/dL |
| Failure of Passive Transfer A ___ failure will result in coverage with antibodies to help prevent infection. They should be closely monitored. | Partial Failure 200 - 800 mg/dL |
| Failure of Passive Transfer How many mg/dL is needed for successful transfer? | >800 mg/dL |
| The etiology of ___ is mare's antibodies attack foal red cells. | Neonatal Isoerythrolysis |
| Neonatal Isoerythrolysis Describe the pathogenesis of this disease. | Mare was bred to stallion with different blood type. Foal develops the stallion's blood type. Mare develops antibodies against this blood type. When second foal ingests colostrum, the foal RBCs are attacked. The antigens usually involved are A, C, Q. |
| Neonatal Isoerythrolysis True or false: most commonly seen in Thoroughbreds and mules. | True |
| Neonatal Isoerythrolysis Name two clinical signs: | Weak, jaundiced foal at 1-5 days |
| Describe the pathogenesis of Neonatal Isoerythrolysis: | Mare exposed to foal's blood late term or at birth. Mare forms antibodies to foal's RBCs. Minimal effect on 1st foal. Repeat breeding (same sire). Potentially lethal effect on 2nd foal. |
| Bladder rupture is termed: | Uroperitoneum (urine in abdomen) |
| Bladder Rupture What is the most likely cause? | Bladder trauma at birth or a severe urachal infection causes leakage. |
| Bladder Rupture Pathogenesis: foal appears normal at birth and for 24 to 48 hours. They then become lethargic, tachycardic, and tachypneic. What happens next? | Abdomen becomes distended. May strain to urinate and produce a small stream. Diagnosis via ultrasound and belly tap. |
| Bladder Rupture How is it treated? | Surgical correction. If caught early, excellent prognosis. If weak/sick, prognosis is poor. |
| "Dummy" Foal is another term for: | Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy (HIE). |
| Hypoxic Ischemic Encephalopathy (HIE) What are three possible etiologies? | Perinatal asphyxia, placental insufficiency, or placentitis |
| Hypoxic Ischemic Encephalopathy (HIE) What are five clinical signs? | Stuporous. Head pressing. Poorly coordinated suckle reflex. Abnormal jaw movements. Seizures. |
| Hypoxic Ischemic Encephalopathy (HIE) How is it treated? | Supportive - nutritional fluid therapy. |
| Hypoxic Ischemic Encephalopathy (HIE) Prognosis? | Usually 75% survival with full return to function. |
| Urachal abnormalities ___ is an incomplete urachal closure at birth. Risk of infection is very high. Urine from urachus as well as urethra. Diagnosis - clinical signs & ultrasound. Treatment? | Patent urachus. Treatment: usually surgical correction. |
| Urachal abnormalities ___ is known as "naval ill." Easily contaminated before drying up. Source of infection for septicemia and joint infections. | Urachal infection |
| Prematurity in foals is defined as born less than ___ days. Normal is 345 days. | 320 days |
| Unlike prematurity, ___ is defined as not fully functional when born on due date. | dysmature |
| What are four etiologies behind prematurity in foals? | Placental insufficiency. Foal congenital problem. Stress (colic). Fescue toxicity. |
| Describe seven characteristics of a premature foal: | Small, weak, floppy ears, silky hair, flexible tendons, rapid breathing, abnormal placenta |
| What kind of care do premature foals receive? (4) Intensive to manage and can be very expensive. | Oxygen due to lack of surfactant. Nutritional support. Fluid support. Splint legs due to poor bone strength. |
| ___ is a condition of Arabian and Arabian cross foals. It is a genetic condition where the foal doesn't produce B or T Lymphocytes. It is autosomal recessive. | Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome (CID) |
| Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome (CID) What are two clinical signs? | Various infections due to lack of working immune system. Signs start 2-5 months old when maternally provided colostral immunity wears off. |
| Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome (CID) True or false: there is no current treatment available. | True |
| Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome (CID) What is one preventative measure available? | DNA test mare and stallion before breeding. |
| Endometritis Chronic low grade ___ of the uterus that can lead to scarring. Results in low reproductive efficiency. | inflammation |
| Endometritis What are three possible causes? | Repeated breeding. Chronic bacterial infections of the uterus particularly due to conformation. Increasing age. |
| Endometritis Clinical signs? | Failure to conceive. Uterine discharge. Fluid in uterus. |
| Endometritis Diagnosis? | Ultrasound. Culture and Sensitivity. Uterine Biopsy: uterine biopsies are graded in severity with percentage of likelihood of future pregnancy given with each grade. |
| Endometritis Treatment? | Uterine lavage with antibiotics prior to breeding if fluid in uterus. Correct physical abnormalities (if possible: Caslick's surgery. |
| Fescue Toxicosis Mares grazing on fescue grass pastures infected with an endophyte ___. | fungus |
| Fescue Toxicosis Clinical signs? | Prolonged gestation (more than 13 months!) Dysmature foals. Thickened placentas. Agalactia. |
| Fescue Toxicosis Diagnosis? | Clinical signs. Analysis of feed. |
| Fescue Toxicosis Treatment? | Remove mares from pasture 60 - 90 days prior to foaling (preventive?) Have colostrum on hand. Milk replacer. Domperidone. |
| What are six complications of parturition? | Dystocia. Retained placenta (causes metritis). Tears/lacerations of the reproductive tract. Uterine artery rupture. Prolapse of the rectum, bladder, uterus. Colic. |
| Uterine Artery Rupture Acute rupture of the uterine artery during birth. True or false: may be fatal. | True |
| Uterine Artery Rupture Causes? | Usually older mare. Pressure from straining or pressure from the foal. Uterine prolapse can also lead to tear. |
| Uterine Artery Rupture Clinical signs? | Sudden collapse. Sudden onset lethargy. Pale gums. Colic signs. |
| Uterine Artery Rupture Diagnosis? | Palpation of broad ligament - feel giant hematoma. Necropsy. |
| Uterine Artery Rupture Treatment? | Keep very quiet, mild sedation. |
| Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome (CID) Is a genetic condition where foal doesn't produce B or T lymphocytes. What breeds? | Arabian or Arabian cross foals |
| True or false: horses are seasonally polyestrous. | True |
| Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome (CID) True or false: this condition is autosomal recessive. | True |
| Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome (CID) Clinical Signs? | Various infections due to lack of working immune system. Signs start 2-5 months old when maternal provided colostral immunity wears off. |
| Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome (CID) Treatment? | No treatment available |
| Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome (CID) How can it be prevented? | DNA test mare and stallion before breeding. |
| Esophagus is controlled by the ___ nerve and is ___ (skeletal) muscle all the way down. | vagus nerve. striated (skeletal) muscle |
| True or false: In cows, salivation is stimulated by sight, smell of food, presence of food in the mouth. | True |
| Salivation in cattle is plentiful. They can produce __ to ___ liters (10-45 gallons) per day.l | 40-150 liters |
| What are two key functions of ruminant saliva? | Keeps rumen contents a fluid consistency. Is alkaline and therefore neutralizes acids produced by microbial fermentation in the rumen. |
| True or false: Ruminants such as cattle, sheep, and goats, are forestomach fermenters (as opposed to horses and rabbits that are hindgut fermenters. | True |
| What are the three forestomachs? | Reticulum, Rumen, Omasum. |
| The ___ is the most cranial part of the rumen. | Reticulum |
| The ___ is the biggest compartment. | Rumen |
| The ___ is the round compartment caudal to the reticulum. | Omasum |
| The ___ is the glandular (acidic) stomach to the right of the rumen (leads to the small intestine. | abomasum |
| The ___ has a "honeycomb" lining. | Reticulum |
| The ___ has papillae lining it. (finger like) | Rumen |
| Hardware Disease Caused by ___ of the reticulum by any sharp object that the animal has swallowed. | puncture |
| Hardware Disease True or false: the weight of the object (often metal) means it usually falls directly in to the reticulum from the esophagus. | True |
| Hardware Disease Normal reticulorumenal ___ (like waves) cause the sharp object to puncture through the wall of the reticulum. | contractions |
| Hardware Disease: What happens? Sometimes the sharp object does not penetrate all the way through but causes local: | inflammation and infection and problems with normal flow and digestion through the rumen compartments. |
| Hardware Disease Objects can penetrate through the reticulum and puncture the (3): | Diaphragm. Heart (pericardium). Liver. |
| Hardware Disease What are some consequences of this disease? | Subtle changes in digestion, milk production, discomfort when moving, sudden death if the heart or a major blood vessel are punctured, acute or chronic liver, pericardium, chest, or abdomen infection. |
| Hardware Disease Seven possible clinical signs: | Fever, anorexia, decreased milk production, evidence of abdominal pain (hunched back, reluctance to move, grunting with upward pressure on xiphoid), vague indigestion, tachycardia, muffled heart sounds. |
| Hardware Disease What are six possible diagnostic test that could be run? | Blood work, analysis of ruminal fluid, abdominocentesis, pericardiocentesis, radiographs, sx to explore the rumen and reticulum. |
| Hardware Disease How is rumen fluid sampled? | Done by either the ororumen route or by abdominocentesis through the abdominal wall. |
| Hardware Disease How is pericardiocentesis performed? | Needle centesis through thoracic wall. Checks for fluid (pus) within the pericardial sac. |
| Treatment of "Hardware Disease"? Conservative treatment consists of (3): | A magnet. Antibiotics. Restrict activity (confine to stall or stanchion). |
| Treatment of "Hardware Disease"? What are two possible surgical interventions? | Rumenotomy to remove the object. Drainage of liver abscesses (possibly ultrasound directed). |
| Hardware Disease: Prevention What are some good management techniques? | Keep cattle areas free of construction debris/wire and monitor the feed for any abnormal objects. |
| Hardware Disease: Prevention True or false: large magnets can be used on feed handling equipment. | True. Traps any magnetizable objects that made it into the prepared feed (baled hay, silage). |
| Hardware Disease: Prevention What is a common prophylactic treatment administered at 6-8 months? | forestomach magnets are fed to animals |
| What is silage? | Forage plants: corn, legumes, grasses that have been harvested at early maturity, finely chopped, packed tightly to exclude air, and stored in tower silos, pits, bunkers, drive over piles, or bags. |
| Why is it important for silage to be properly stored? | It ferments slightly and keeps for several months. It is used as animal feed. Usually takes 3-4 months to prepare, forages are cut in late summer/early fall, fed through the winter traditionally. |
| What is Rumen tympany "bloat"? | Frothy, Free gas (intra ruminal), Free gas (extra ruminal). |
| What happens when a bovine has Rumen tympany "bloat"? | Abnormal distension of the bovine forestomach compartments with gas or ingesta. There are three etiologic causes of cattle bloat. |
| Rumen Tympany "Bloat": Etiology 1 Frothy Bloat What causes it? | Caused by diets that lead to formation of a stable froth in the rumen (lots of legumes, lush fresh pasture, grain overload). |
| Rumen Tympany "Bloat": Etiology 1 Frothy Bloat Why is it a problem? | The froth is composed of tiny bubbles of gas, don't break down easily, don't rise to the surface in rumen to be eructated. |
| Rumen Tympany "Bloat": Etiology 1 Frothy Bloat True or false: it is not relieved simply by passage of stomach tube because the gas is trapped in tiny bubbles and slime. | True |
| Rumen Tympany "Bloat": Etiology 2 Free Gas Bloat What causes it? | Due to factors inside the rumen. Caused by diets that result in excessive gas production and low pH (acidity) within the rumen. (usually concentrates which are easily digested carbs). |
| Rumen Tympany "Bloat": Etiology 2 Free Gas Bloat True or false: The low intraruminal pH inhibits the cyclic contractions of the forestomach and gas accumulates. | True |
| Rumen Tympany "Bloat": Etiology 2 Free Gas Bloat Due to factors outside the rumen. What causes? | Esophageal obstruction (choke). Postural bloat (animal gets trapped e.g. falls in to a ditch and can't roll over to get sternal. Electrolyte disorders such as hypocalcemia. Medications (xylazine). Severe inflammation and pain. |
| Rumen Tympany "Bloat": Etiology 2 Free Gas Bloat Name seven clinical signs: | Abdominal distension (can be huge). Colic (abdominal pain). Tachypnea/Dyspnea. Open mouth breathing. Cyanosis. Collapse. Death. |
| Rumen Tympany "Bloat": Etiology 2 Free Gas Bloat True or false: clinical signs can occur rapidly. | True |
| Rumen Tympany "Bloat" What are some treatments? What will passing a stomach tube do? | May be enough to solve the basic problem. Should get rumen fluid sample at the same time. Examine the tube tip for froth when it comes back out. DVM or tech administers various substances to change pH. |
| Rumen Tympany "Bloat" What are some treatments? What are some substances that can be introduced via gastric tube to change pH of rumen? | Sodium bicarb or magnesium hydroxide. |
| Rumen Tympany "Bloat" What are some treatments? What are some substances that can be introduced via gastric tube to break up the froth in rumen? | Mineral oil or poloxalene |
| Rumen Tympany "Bloat" What are some treatments? If the animal is grossly bloated and in severe distress and stomach tube either can't be passed or doesn't work, what can be done? | Emergency trocharization may be needed to relieve the gas and allow the animal to breath. Performed like an emergency "stab" in to the rumen. |
| Rumen Tympany "Bloat": Emergency Trocharization A trocar is usually placed in the ___ ___ ___. | left paralumbar fossa |
| Rumen Tympany "Bloat" True or false: In cases of frothy bloat, the trocar won't be enough and an emergency rumenotomy may need to be done to remove the ingesta and froth. | True |
| Rumen Tympany "Bloat" What is another method of relief for bloat? | A temporary rumen fistula may be placed to allow relief of bloat while the underlying issue is treated. (i.e. choke). |
| Fistulated Cows True or false: have a permanent rumenostomy opening placed in the left paralumbar fossa. | True |
| Fistulated Cows Why is this done? | Done for research purposes. Get frequent access to assess rumen contents. |
| Fistulated Cows Why is it done on farms? | Done to allow rumen contents (microbes) to be retrieved easily and given to other cattle who need "transfaunation" (new rumen microbes). |
| What are other names of grain overload? | Lactic acidosis. Carbohydrate engorgement. Rumen "impaction" |
| What happens in grain overload? | Occurs in cattle that accidentally or suddenly are introduced to large amounts of easily digestible carbohydrates, especially grain such as wheat, barley, and corn, but also apples, bread, sugar beets. |
| Describe what happens with grain overload. | Within a few hours, the rumen microbes change. Big increase in gram positive bacteria (streptococcus bovis), in lactic acid production, and big decrease in rumen pH (<5.5) |
| Rumen acidosis causes: | death of protozoa and bacteria, chemical rumenitis (damage to wall), and impairs rumen motility. |
| Clinical Signs of Grain Overload: Mild Cases Name six: | Dehydration, muscle weakness, ataxia, diarrhea, anorexia, colic |
| Clinical Signs of Grain Overload: Severe Cases Name five clinical signs: | Laminitis, shock, renal failure, cardiovascular collapse, DEATH in 24 - 72 hours |
| Grain Overload How is it diagnosed? | Hx. Clinical findings. Obtain rumen fluid samples (stomach tube or abdominocentesis): low pH (<5.5), few or no live protozoa seen via microscope. Predominantly Gram+ bacteria |
| True or false: normal rumen bacteria are mostly gram negative. | True |
| What is the treatment for Grain Overload? | Severe cases may need to be slaughtered for salvage (prognosis is poor unless aggressive Tx is started early). IV fluids. Rumen lavage via stomach tube (lots of water siphoning) if animal is still capable of standing. Transfaunation. |
| What is transfaunation? | Rumen inoculation with healthy microbes from a normal rumen (can be poured down the stomach tube, or put into rumen directly if a rumenotomy was done. |
| True or false: mild cases of Grain Overload should have water restricted for 18 to 24 hours, with access to grass hay only (no easily digestible carbs). | True |
| What are three Sequelae (aftermath/sequel) to grain overload? | Mycotic (fungal) infection of the rumen wall that may develop a few days after damage by the acidosis. Chronic laminitis. Hepatic abscesses. |
| Grain Overload Prevention (2)? | Prevent accidental access of cattle to grain concentrates, orchards with ripened fallen fruit, storage bins containing high carbohydrate substances such as sugar beets. Gradual introduction of grain concentrates, ideally over a period of several weeks. |
| Abomasal Displacement presents in what three ways? | Left sided (LDA), Right sided (RDA), Abomasal Volvulus (torsion) can occur after right displacement. |
| The abomasum is the glandular stomach of the ruminant. It produces gastric juices containing: | Water, hydrochloric acid, mucus, pepsinogen, and Rennin. |
| True or false: Low pH (around 2) kills microbes, activates pepsinogen, and starts the digestion of proteins. | True |
| True or false: The abomasum is loosely suspended by the greater and lesser omentum and is somewhat mobile. | True |
| True or false: the abomasum is located on the right ventral side of the abdomen adjacent to the rumen. | True |
| True or false: the abomasum can displace to the left or right of the rumen. | True |
| True or false: if displaced to the right, it can twist on the long axis (abomasal volvulus) (similar to GDV in some respects). | True |
| What are six factors that contribute to DA? | Anything that can cause abomasal hypomobility: milk fever (hypocalcemia- not a fever), mastitis, metritis, genetic predisposition (deep bodied cows), high concentrate/low roughage diet, increased gas in the abomasum. |
| Left Displaced Abomasum True or false: LDA is much more common than RDA. | True |
| Left Displaced Abomasum The partially gas-distended abomasum displaces across and ___ between the left of the rumen and the body wall. | upward |
| Left Displaced Abomasum True or false: usually there is only partial obstruction so effects of the displacement are relatively mild. | True |
| Right Displaced Abomasum The partially gas-distended abomasum displaces upward to the right of the rumen. Initially results in ___ obstruction, but then the abomasum can rotate on its mesenteric axis. | partial |
| Right Displaced Abomasum True or false: ischemia of the abomasum, sometimes the omasum and the duodenum. Life threatening. | True |
| What is ischemia? | an inadequate blood supply to an organ or part of the body, especially the heart muscles |
| What are six clinical signs of Displaced Abomasum? | Anorexia. Decreased milk production. A "ping" can be heard when listening with a stethoscope and percussing the abdomen. Hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic acidosis. |
| True or false: rectal examination can help rule out other problems but the abomasum cannot usually be palpated. | True |
| True or false: clinical signs are worse in abomasal volvulus than with simple displacement. | True |
| What are seven clinical signs of abomasal volvulus? | Tachycardia. Depression. Weakness. Dehydration. Shock. Ischemic abomasum may rupture. Death. |
| What are five possible treatments for abomasal volvulus? | Various surgical treatments (open-incisional, closed-percutaneious- blind techniques). Casting the cow. Fluids via stomach tube and or IV fluids. Correct electrolyte and metabolic issues. Treat any concurrent disease (i.e. metritis). |
| What does "casting the cow" mean? | Rolling her over can correct some LDA's but it usually recurs 50% of the time. |
| Name six possible causes of diarrhea in cows. | Parasites. Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD). Johne's Disease. Winter Dysentery. Salmonella. Calf Scours. |
| Controlling Ruminant Parasites "Control" = suppression of parasite burdens in the host below the level at which economic loss occurs. Describe four goals: | Prevent heavy exposure in susceptible hosts. Reduce overall levels of pasture contamination. Minimize the effects of parasite burdens. Encourage the development of immunity in the animals. |
| True or false: encouraging development of immunity in animals is less important in fattening animals than in those that are to be kept for breeding purposes. | True |
| What are two methods of control for parasites? | Pasture management: rotate pastures, rotate between species, alternate between raising crops on pasture and using it for grazing, de-worm animals before placing them on "clean" pasture. Strategic deworming. |
| Stomach Worms in Cattle Ostertagia causes ___. Trichostrongylus causes ___. Hemonchus (barber-pole worm) causes ___ which can be severe. | diarrhea. diarrhea. anemia |
| Small Intestinal parasites of Cattle Bunostomum causes ___. Toxocara spp causes ___ in calves < 6 months. | anemia. diarrhea. |
| Lower Small Intestine, Colon, Cecum What two parasitic organisms can affect these regions? | Coccidia spp. Cryptosporidium. |
| What condition causes submandibular edema (an accumulation of subcutaneous fluid under the jaw? It is caused by lack of protein in the serum (hypoproteinemia). Protein losing enteropathy or intestinal malabsorption. | Bottle Jaw |
| True or false: bovine viral diarrhea also occurs in a more severe form called Mucosal disease. | True |
| BVD Characteristics: Bovine Viral Diarrhea True or false: all ages are susceptible but cattle aged 6 months to 2 years are typically those affected. | True |
| BVD Characteristics: Bovine Viral Diarrhea True or false: there is world wide distribution of BVD virus. | True |
| BVD Characteristics: Bovine Viral Diarrhea It is easily transmitted via secretions and excretions. Name five: | Saliva, blood, semen, biting insects, wild ruminants |
| BVD Characteristics: Bovine Viral Diarrhea True or false: oral mucosal lesions are seen in this disease. | True |
| BVD Characteristics: Bovine Viral Diarrhea True or false: a mild infection will result in diarrhea and mucous membrane erosion and ulcers with recovery. | True |
| BVD Characteristics: Bovine Viral Diarrhea In urtero infection results in: | carrier status. Usually in the first 4 months of pregnancy. |
| BVD Characteristics: Bovine Viral Diarrhea Severe disease results in ___ disease, which can be chronic. | mucosal disease |
| BVD Characteristics: Bovine Viral Diarrhea Infection in later term gestation cause ___, still births, congenital deformities, and poor doers. | abortion |
| BVD Characteristics: Bovine Viral Diarrhea Acute or transient BVD can be fairly mild with ___ mortality. | low |
| BVD Characteristics: Bovine Viral Diarrhea True or false: mucosal disease is a very serious form with higher mortality rates. Can become chronic. | True |
| Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD) How is it treated? | Treatment is usually limited to primarily supportive therapy. Oral/IV fluids |
| Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD) How can it be prevented? | BVDV vaccine is commonly used in diary and beef herds. Eliminate persistently infected cattle. Test new cattle for persistent infection before entry into the herd. Quarantine new cattle for 2-4 weeks. Vaccinate new cattle before entry into the herd. |
| Johne's Disease (yo-knees) Etiological pathogen? | Mycobacterium paratuberculosis bacteria. Can affect any ruminant. Healthy looking animals can be carriers. Big Problem! |
| Johne's Disease (yo-knees) Animals are usually infected very ___ in life. BUT may not see clinical signs until 2 years old. Slowly progressive chronic granulomatous enteritis. What are three clinical signs? Can result in? | Early. Chronic diarrhea, Wasting (loss of body condition), Emaciation. Death. |
| Johne's Disease (yo-knees) Is there a treatment? | No |
| Johne's Disease (yo-knees) How is it diagnosed? How can it be prevented? | ELISA testing of animals in affected herd annually at least. Cull those affected. Good sanitation and management, especially for neonatal and juvenile animals. There is a vaccine available. |
| Johne's Disease (yo-knees): Vaccine Use is regulated by the ___. It has some issues. | USDA: United States Department of Agriculture |
| Winter Dysentery What is dysentery? | An inflammatory disorder of the lower intestinal tract, usually caused by an infectious agent resulting in pain, fever, and severe diarrhea, often accompanied by the passage of blood and mucus. |
| Winter Dysentery True or false: it is an acute, highly contagious GI disorder. Housed adult dairy cattle, primarily during winter are affected. Thought to be caused by Bovine Coronavirus (BCV). | True |
| Winter Dysentery How is it transmitted? | Virus in respiratory secretions and fecal-oral transmission. |
| Winter Dysentery True or false: it is highly contagious and easily introduced to barns by visitors, carrier animals, and fomites. | True |
| Winter Dysentery What are six clinical signs? | Explosive diarrhea. Sudden drop in milk production. Anorexia & Depression. Mild respiratory signs such as cough. High morbidity but low mortality. Spontaneous recovery within a few days. May take weeks to months for milk production to get back to normal. |
| Winter Dysentery How is it prevented? | Isolation of newly introduced cattle for 2 weeks. Isolation of any adult cow with diarrhea. In an outbreak, access to the premises should be restricted. All persons in contact with affected cattle should ensure their footwear and clothing are clean. |
| Salmonellosis Enteritis and diarrhea caused by Salmonella spp. bacteria. Considered ___, protect yourself with gloves and frequent and thorough handwashing. | zoonotic |
| Salmonellosis How is it transmitted? | Fecal-oral transmission |
| Salmonellosis Bacteria multiply in the intestines, causing severe inflammation. What are three clinical signs? | Diarrhea (may be bloody). Septicemia can result if the bacteria get into the bloodstream. Results in meningoencephalitis, abortion, ischemia, and dry gangrene of feet, tail, ears. |
| Salmonellosis True or false: survivors can be carriers and intermittently shed Salmonella in feces. | True |
| Salmonellosis What are two contributors? | Stressors: deprivation of feed and water, poor nutrition, long transport times, calving, mixing and crowding feedlots. Juveniles more susceptible: have higher gastric pH and Lack immunity |
| Salmonellosis What are some treatment options? | Fluids, oral and IV. Antibiotics may or may not be used. Concern over resistance. Used if animal shows signs of septicemia. |
| Salmonellosis How can it be prevented? | Isolate newly introduced animals for at least a week to monitor health status. Prevent fecal contamination of food and water. Ensure quality feed supply to reduce risk of salmonella contamination arriving in feed. |
| Salmonellosis Is there a vaccine? | Yes. Commercial and autogenous available. |
| What is Calf Scours? | Diarrhea in neonatal calves. |
| Calf Scours What pathogens typically cause this? | E. coli. Rotavirus. Coronavirus. Cryptosporidium. Salmonellosis. Clostridium perfringens. |
| Calf Scours True or false: more than one pathogen can be involved? | True |
| Calf Scours What are four clinical signs? | Diarrhea. Dehydration. Profound weakness. Death within one to several days of onset. Swollen joints, infected umbilicus or neurological signs suggest septicemia. |
| Calf Scours What are three pathogens that cause this disease that are also zoonotic? | E. coli (verotoxigenic). Salmonella. Cryptosporidium parvum. |
| Calf Scours What are four treatments available? | Oral electrolyte solutions may suffice if treated early. IV fluids to correct acidosis, hypoglycemia, and dehydration if calf is weak or recumbent. Re-introduce milk or milk replacer ASAP to keep up with energy requirements. Antibiotics: may or may not. |
| Remember Fluid Therapy Plan Calculation of fluid therapy plan includes: | Replacement of deficit (estimate of dehydration + maintenance requirements + keeping up with ongoing losses) |
| Calf Scours What is the main means of prevention? | Ensure that calves get colostrum. Newborn calves should consume >5% of their body weight of high-quality colostrum. Preferably within 2 hours and certainly within 6 hrs of birth. Followed by equivalent amounts at 12 hour intervals for the next 48 hrs. |
| Calf Scours Name two other ways to prevent it. | Good hygiene. Vaccination of dam before calving. |
| What is colostrum? | The first collection of a thick creamy liquid, without blood or infection, produced by the mammary gland of a post-partum cow shortly after she calves, usually within the first 6 hours. Contains large amounts of immunoglobulins to provide immunity. |
| A mature male bovine is called: | bull |
| A castrated male bovine is called: | steer |
| An immature female is called: | heifer |
| A mature female is called: | cow |
| Estrous Cycle Intervals Animals, like cattle and swine, that cycle continuously throughout the year if they are not pregnant are called ___. | polyestrous |
| Estrous Cycle Intervals Animals, like horses and sheep, have seasonal variations in estrous cycles. Their estrous cycle is called Seasonally Polyestrous. This variation is due to: | changes in daylight |
| Estrous Cycle Intervals ___ animals have two cycles per year, usually in Spring and Fall. What animal fits this description. | Diestrous. Dog. |
| Estrous Cycle Intervals ___ animals have one cycle per year. Name two animals. | Monoestrous. Fox and mink. |
| Records for Cycle Prediction: Dairy Cows Freshening dates | Date of calf delivery. Rebreeding 45 days post-partum. |
| Records for Cycle Prediction: Dairy Cows What five dates are tracked and recorded? | Freshening date, breeding date, pregnancy check dates, due dates, dry dates |
| What is a Chin Ball Marker used for? | The marker is placed on a teaser bull (a bull which has been rendered infertile but still has hormones). The marker has ink in the chin ball which marks the cow in estrus. |
| Goats & Sheep Worldwide True or false: are an important source of nutrition. | True |
| True or False: more people drink goat milk than cow milk worldwide. | True |
| True or false: goats and sheep are relatively easy to handle and are efficient converters of nutrition to milk and meat. | True |
| Health Care in Sheep and Goats It starts with Prevention. What are four to seven means of doing this? | Biosecurity. Vaccination program. Parasite control. Good nutrition. Early detection and treatment. Culling. Predator control. |
| What is biosecurity? | security from transmission of infectious diseases, parasites, and pests. |
| What are five practices that will help maintain biosecurity? | Buy from reputable breeders. Know the health status of the animals you are purchasing. Maintain a closed flock/herd. Limit showing/exhibiting. Isolate new animals for at least 30 days. |
| Sound Vaccination Program What are two common diseases goats and sheep are vaccinated for? | Clostridial diseases: clostridium perfringens type C & D (Overeating Disease/Enterotoxemia) and Clostridium tetani (Tetanus) |
| What are some other diseases goats and sheep can be vaccinated for? | Soremouth (Contagious ecthyma/Orf), Caseous lymphadentitis (CL), Foot rot, Pneumonia, E. coli (Scours), Rabies. |
| Parasite Control Program What are four effective methods? | Good management. Pasture rest/rotation. Fecal egg counts: monitor pasture contamination, test for drug resistance, selective deworming. |
| Parasite Control Program What three organisms are involved in the "HOT complex?" | Ostertagia. Haemonchus. Trichostrongylus. |
| Parasite Control Program True or false: there are card designed to allow producers to assess their animals for anemia by assessing the color of the conjunctiva. Anemia could indicate heavy parasite load. | True |
| Good Nutrition True or false: feed balanced rations. Feed according to production cycle and growth stage. Supplement pasture and forage, when necessary and economical. Provide free choice minerals. Choose proper feed for sheep or goats. | True. Sheep and goats do not eat the same feed. |
| Early Detection and Treatment What are six to twelve common signs of illness in sheep and goats to know. | Loss of body condition. Poor appetite. Lagging behind flock/herd. Lethargy. Ears or head down (tail down). Poor hair/wool coat. Teeth grinding (pain). Dirty hocks, tail, scours. Anemia (Barber Pole Worm). Fever (infection). Respiratory problems. Gait. |
| What is the normal body temperature for goats and sheep? | 102-103 |
| True or false: predation accounted for 28.1% of sheep and goat losses in 2014. | True |
| What are four options for predator control? | Fencing. Management. Livestock guardians. Predator deterrents. |
| What is a "Flerd?" | A group of livestock containing two or more species which stay together under free-ranging conditions. |
| What are four possible livestock guardians? | guardian dogs, llamas, donkeys, cattle |
| What are four major health issues of sheep and goats? | Gastrointestinal disease. Foot rot. Neonatal death. Infectious disease. |
| True or false: the #1 health problem affecting sheep and goats in warm moist climates is internal parasites. | True |
| What is the primary nematode infection in sheep and goats? | Haemonchus contortis (barber pole worm) |
| What three possible secondary nematode parasites affecting sheep and goats? | Ostertagia. Tristrongylus sp. Nematodirus. |
| Haemonchus (Barber Pole Worm) What are five clinical signs? | Anemia. Ventral edema "Bottle Jaw." Poor growth. Weight loss. Diarrhea. |
| Haemonchus (Barber Pole Worm) How is it diagnosed? | Fecal float or fecal egg count. |
| Haemonchus (Barber Pole Worm) What is the treatment? | Use the anthelminthic appropriate to diagnosis. |
| Haemonchus (Barber Pole Worm) What are three things that can be done to prevent it? | Waste management. Pasture rotation. Prevent overgrazing. |
| ___ is a single-cell protozoa that damages the lining of the small intestines, where nutrient absorption occurs. They are species specific. | Coccidiosis (Eimeria) |
| What are four clinical signs of Coccidiosis (Eimeria)? | Scouring (diarrhea). Anorexia/weight loss. Death in lambs/kids. Stress-induced clinical signs. |
| How is Coccidiosis (Eimeria) diagnosed? | Fecal centrifugation. Normal animals may have a few. |
| Coccidiosis is treated with Corid (Amprolium) and Sulfa drugs. True or false: these are extra label drug usages. | True |
| How is Coccidiosis prevented? | Good sanitation. Avoid overcrowding. Use coccidiostats in feed, mineral, or water (before hand). |
| True or false: coccidostats are toxic to equines. | True |
| Rumen Acidosis (also referred to as Grain Overload or Grain Poisoning) etiology? | Excessive consumption of concentrates and/or grains which changes the acidity of the rumen and death of microflora. |
| Rumen Acidosis (also referred to as Grain Overload or Grain Poisoning) related deaths occur due to: | dehydration, lactic acidosis, and sepsis. |
| Rumen Acidosis (also referred to as Grain Overload or Grain Poisoning) is treated with what three things? | IV fluids with sodium bicarbonate. Remove feed from rumen. Transfaunation. |
| How is Rumen Acidosis (also referred to as Grain Overload or Grain Poisoning) prevented? | With proper feed management. Introduce and increase grain slowly in diet. Buffering agents. |
| What is transfaunation? | Transfer of symbiotic fauna from one host to another. Orally or directly into the rumen during rumenotomy. Goal is to restore the normal microbial population in the rumen. |
| ___ occurs when rumen gas production is greater than rate of gas elimination. | Bloat |
| ___ bloat is caused by consumption of legumes (alfalfa and clover), lush cereal grain pastures, wet grass, or finely ground grain. | Pasture/Frothy bloat |
| ___ bloat is associated with grain feeding. | Feedlot/Free gas |
| What are three clinical signs of Feedlot/Free Gas bloat? | Abdominal distension, especially left paralumbar fossa (will ping if free gas is present). Abdominal pain. Respiratory distress. |
| How is Bloat diagnosed in goats and sheep? | Orogastric tube will release gas or froth. |
| What is the treatment for Bloat in goats and sheep? | Emergency! Orogastric tube. Anti-foaming agent: mineral or vegetable oil. Trocar or rumenotomy. |
| True or false: Enterotoxemia (Overeating Disease) causes bloody diarrhea in neonatal lambs and kids. | True |
| True or false: Enterotoxemia (Overeating Disease) is caused by the bacteria Clostridium perfringens type C & D. Predisposed by abrupt change in feed. | True |
| What are the clinical signs of Enterotoxemia (Overeating Disease) - Clostridium perfringens type C & D? | Hemorrhagic enteritis in lambs < 3 weeks. Bloody diarrhea. Neurologic signs. Sudden death. |
| What are two treatments for Enterotoxemia (Overeating Disease) - Clostridium perfringens type C & D? | Anti-toxin is usually unrewarding, but can be tried. Aggressive supportive care can be tried, but rarely works. Not uncommon to find neonates dead with no prior symptoms. |
| What are two preventions for Enterotoxemia (Overeating Disease) - Clostridium perfringens type C & D? | Vaccination of pregnant dams and offspring. Avoid sudden changes in diet. |
| What is the etiology behind Pregnancy Toxemia (Fatty Liver)? | Low blood sugar caused by an inadequate intake of energy during late gestation, especially with twins. Breakdown of fat in liver produces toxic ketone bodies. |
| What are five clinical signs of Pregnancy Toxemia (Fatty Liver)? | Lethargy. Sluggishness. Lack of appetite. Poor muscle control. Inability to rise. |
| How is Pregnancy Toxemia (Fatty Liver) treated? | Increase blood sugar by giving glucose orally or IV. C-section in extreme cases. |
| How can Pregnancy Toxemia (Fatty Liver) be prevented? | By providing enough energy in diet and providing adequate feeder space. |
| What is Copper Toxicity? | Caused by too much copper in diet or not enough molybdenum (and/or sulfur). |
| True or False: Copper Toxicity is more common in sheep. | True |
| What are four clinical signs of Copper Toxicity? | Anemia (hemolysis/icterus). Weakness. Diarrhea. Death. |
| What are three methods used to treat Copper Toxicity? | Supportive care for anemia and kidney failure. Copper binding agents (molybdate & sulfate). Treat flock with molybdenum. |
| True or false: to prevent Copper Toxicity, never feed goat feed to a sheep. | True |
| What are three infectious etiologies of Diarrhea (Scours) in Sheep and Goats? | Viral. Bacterial (E. coli and Salmonella). Protozoa (Coccidia and Cryptospordia). |
| What are three Non-infectious etiologies of Diarrhea (Scours) in goats and sheep? | Parasites....um...... Nutrition, Management, and Stress. |
| What are five possible clinical signs of Diarrhea (Scours) in goats and sheep? | Diarrhea. Dehydration. Often multiple animals if infectious. Often causes death in animals < 14 days old. Sudden death possible. |
| How is Diarrhea (Scours) treated in Sheep and Goats? | IV Fluids. Treat underlying cause. Transfaunation. |
| ___ is a major reason for culling ewes (46%). | Mastitis |
| Mastitis, in Goats and Sheep, is usually cause by the bacteria: | Streptococcus. Staphylococcus. Pasteurella. E. Coli. |
| How is mastitis treated in goats and sheep? | Systemic antibiotics or intramammary antibiotics. |
| What are three ways to prevent Mastitis in Sheep and Goats? | Good sanitation. Proper management at weaning. Cull females with "lumpy" udders. |
| What are two of the most common causes of lamb and kid mortality? | Hypothermia. Starvation. |
| How can we prevent starvation in lambs and kids? | Make sure dam has milk and lets lamb/kids nurse. Make sure lambs/kids consume adequate colostrum (check bellies). A well-fed lamb/kid stretches when it rises. |
| How can we prevent Hypothermia (<101 F) in lambs and kids? | Dry and warm up lamb/kid. Tube feed colostrum if necessary. Intraperitoneal dextrose injection. |
| True or false: Tetanus (Lock Jaw), a Clostridial bacterial disease, is found in the soil of most farms. | True |
| What are the clinical signs of Tetanus (Lock Jaw)? | Stiffness caused by muscle contractions. |
| True or false: Tetanus (Lock Jaw) is treatable in early stages with antitoxin. | True |
| How can Tetanus (Lock Jaw) be prevented? | Vaccinate ewe/doe for tetanus prior to parturition. Treat lamb/kid with tetanus antitoxin at time of docking, castrating, and debudding to provide immediate temporary immunity. |
| True or false: foot rot and foot scald are one of the most economically devastating diseases in the sheep and goat industry. | True |
| True or False: Foot Rot and Foot Scald are highly contagious. | True |
| Foot Rot and Foot Scald are caused by two ___ bacteria. | Anaerobic |
| True or false: Foot Rot (Bacteriodes nodosus) in sheep and goat's hoof (underlying tissue). Can only survive 10-14 days. Highly contagious. | True |
| True or false: Foot Scald (Fusobacterium necrophorum) is found in tissue between toes, in soil, and manure (always). | True |
| What is the key clinical sign of Foot Rot and Foot Scald? What is a characteristic clinical sign? | Lameness. Foul odor. |
| How can Foot Rot & Foot Scald be treated? | Treat with aggressive hoof trimming, foot baths/soaks, antibiotics, moving to dry area, vaccination, and culling. |
| What are three etiologies behind Wasting Disease in goats and sheep? | Viral (retroviruses)(Ovine Progressive Pneumonia-OPP and Caprine Arthritic Encephalitis - CAE). Bacterial (Caseous Lymphadentitis). Prion (Scrapie) |
| True or false: 26% of the sheep in the United States are infected with OPP virus. | True |
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