Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Immunology&Pharma 1
Lecture Review Questions - GI Drugs
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What organs, glands, and cells are involved in the immune system? | Lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils, thymus, bone marrow (Lymphocytes). Monocytes/Macrophages. Neutrophils (immediate) |
| Immediate parts of the immune system consist of: | physical defenses (mucous/skin), blood-brain barrier, colostrum. |
| ___ is the protection against microorganisms or harmful antigens. | immunity |
| ___ are molecules that stimulate immune response, usually organic origin. | antigens |
| ___ are the cells and substances of the normal animal body that do not stimulate an immune response. | "Self" |
| ___ are cells or substances that are not "self." | "Foreign" |
| The Immune System Name the structures and cells involved in immune protection. | Lymph nodes, Tonsils, GALT. Thymus. Spleen. Cells in blood and tissue: lymphocytes (specific immunity), granulocytes (non-specific immunity), macrophages (specific & non-specific immunity). |
| The Immune System Describe Nonspecific (innate) immunity. | Immediate and similar no matter the antigen: physical barriers, granulocytes, macrophages. |
| The Immune System Describe Specific (acquired) immunity. | Requires identification of the antigen and then development of a defense specific to that antigen: lymphocytes, macrophages. |
| Nonspecific Immunity What is the first line of defense? | Epithelial cells. Functions within seconds of contacting a pathogen. It is a mechanical, selectively permeable barrier between the 'outside' and 'inside.' May produce mucous. Produce: cytokines and chemokines. |
| Nonspecific Immunity What is the primary role of epithelial cells (first line of defense)? | to block the entry of microorganisms |
| Nonspecific Immunity What are cytokines (produced by epithelial cells)? | Proteins that alter the behavior of other cells. Chemical messengers produced by many types of cells that regulate immune response. More than 100 cytokines have been ID. Produced during inflammation. |
| Nonspecific Immunity What are chemokines? (produced by epithelial cells)? | Proteins that attract other cells. This group of cytokines specifically attracts white cells to area of damage/infection (chemotaxis). Granulocytes and macrophages. |
| Nonspecific: Cells involved in Innate Immunity Macrophage/Monocyte function: | Phagocytosis. Presentation to lymphocytes. |
| Nonspecific: Cells involved in Innate Immunity Neutrophil function: | Phagocytic. Anti-bacterial. |
| Nonspecific: Cells involved in Innate Immunity Eosinophil function: | Anti-parasite. Immunity - Allergy |
| Nonspecific: Cells involved in Innate Immunity Basophil function: | ?Protection of mucosal surfaces? Allergy. |
| Nonspecific: Cells involved in Innate Immunity Mast cell function: | Protection of mucosal surfaces - Allergy. |
| Nonspecific: Cells involved in Innate Immunity What is Diapedesis? | The passage of blood cells through the intact walls of the capillaries, typically accompanying inflammation. |
| Nonspecific: Cells involved in Innate Immunity How do phagocytes recognize microorganisms (neutrophils and macrophages)? | They have many receptors on their exterior that bind to microorganisms. Specialized recognition of classes of molecules and structures not present in or on "self-tissue." Selective specificity for microbial "patterns." |
| What is Complement? | A group of plasma proteins that are activated by bacterial wall components. Enhances uptake by phagocytes. |
| What happens when a group of plasma proteins (Complement) are activated by bacterial wall components? | Leukocyte chemotaxis. Damage to bacterial cell walls. Histamine release from mast cells. Opsonization: optimizes bacterial engulfment by phagocytes. |
| Weapons Against Viruses What is Interferon? | A cytokine released by cells infected with virus. Interferon message to neighboring cells prevents viral replication in new cells. |
| Weapons Against Viruses What do Natural Killer Cells do? | Specific type of lymphocyte that recognizes and destroys cells infected with virus. |
| What happens when a group of plasma proteins (Complement) are activated by bacterial wall components? Step 1 - 4. | 1. Pathogen in contact with plasma proteins. 2. Complement is activated by the pathogen. 3. Complement fragments opsonise the pathogen. 4. Enhanced phagocytosis of opsonised pathogens. |
| Timing of innate immunity after infection: neutrophils, monocytes/macrophages, NK cells. | Neutrophil: rapid response/short lived (hours). Monocytes/macrophages: slower response/long-lived and connect with adaptive immune system (hours - days). NK cells: hours to days. |
| Specific (Adaptive) Immunity ___: attack is targeted against a specific antigen. | Specificity |
| Specific (Adaptive) Immunity ___ refers to the ability to have a fast, amplified response after the initial exposure to a specific antigen. It may last many years after initial exposure to specific antigen. | Memory |
| Specific (Adaptive) Immunity What Lymphocytes produce antibodies and are triggered by antigen presenting cells (macrophages: dendritic cells)? | B Lymphocytes. They produce Plasma Cells that produce antibodies. |
| Specific (Adaptive) Immunity What Lymphocytes are part of cell-mediated immunity and are triggered by antigen presenting cells (macrophages: dendritic cells)? | T Lymphocytes. Produce T Helper Cells (activate B cells and macrophages) and Cytotoxic T Lymphocytes (Kill virus-infected cells). |
| Specific (Adaptive) Immunity What does MHC stand for? What is it? | Major Histocompatibility Complex. Major Histocompatibility Complex proteins are surface antigens on every cell in the body. |
| Specific (Adaptive) Immunity Describe Major Histocompatibility Complex I (MHC I). | Surface proteins unique to that animal. MCH proteins are surface antigens on every cell in the body. |
| Specific (Adaptive) Immunity Describe Major Histocompatibility Complex II MHC II). | Surface proteins that occur after a cell has interacted with a foreign antigen (virus). MHC proteins are surface antigens on every cell in the body. |
| Specific (Adaptive) Immunity True or false: Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) proteins are "presented" to lymphocytes by macrophages to trigger the lymphocyte into action. | True |
| Immune Memory True or false: the immune system remembers each specific foreign invader, so all subsequent invasions by the same antigen result in even more rapid and more aggressive response called the Anamnestic Response. | True. This allows for rapid and effective response to an infection or trauma. A marvelous adaptation of the immune system. |
| Immune Memory What is Anamnestic Response? | a bodily defense reaction that recognizes an invading substance (an antigen: such as a virus or fungus or bacteria or transplanted organ) and produces antibodies specific against that antigen. |
| Lymphatic System ___ and ___ are the birth place of unique lymphocytes. | Bone marrow & Thymus |
| Lymphatic System ___ and ___ store naive and memory lymphocytes. They are processing centers in which antigen is presented to lymphocytes. Birth places of clone lymphocytes and plasma cells. | Lymph nodes & lymphatic tissue |
| Lymphatic System ___ vessels are lymphocyte "super highways" and mimic the venous system. | Lymphatic |
| Lymphocyte Recirculation ___ cells enter the blood, are seeded to the peripheral lymphoid organs (by the heart) via arterial circulation and return via lymphatics. | Naive |
| Lymphocyte Recirculation ___ cells and antigens from a site of infection are trapped in draining lymph node. Cells proliferate and re-enter the recirculating lymphocyte pool to re-seed the peripheral lymphoid organs. | Memory |
| Passive Immunity What is it? | temporary immunity achieved by antibody and/or T cell transfer from one animal to another. |
| Passive Immunity ___ is "first milk" containing concentrated antibodies from dam. Neonate <2 days old have unique ability to absorb ingested antibodies intact into bloodstream. Importance of ___ absorption varies with species. | Colostrum |
| Passive Immunity ___ serum contains high antibodies to specific pathogen and are collected from the blood of one animal and injected into another. | Hyperimmune serum |
| Ways to Acquire Specific Immunity ___ immunity arises when an animal receives an antigen that activates B and T lymphocytes. Creates memory. | Active |
| Ways to Acquire Specific Immunity ___ immunity arises when an animal receives antibodies from another animal. Provides immediate onset of immunity, but the animal is protected for shorter time. (no memory). | Passive |
| Ways to Acquire Specific Immunity ___ immunity is acquired during normal biological experiences. | Natural |
| Ways to Acquire Specific Immunity ___ immunity is acquired through medical procedures. | Artificial |
| Vaccination Name three Pros: | Significant reduction in disease caused by target antigen in individual and population. Required by law for certain diseases with human risk (rabies). Other health issues can be evaluated and cared for because the owner brings animal in for vaccinations. |
| Vaccination Name four Cons: | Uncommon allergic reactions and tumors to vaccines occur. Immune-mediated disease occasionally triggered by vaccines. Vaccinations may be ineffective or stress body (especially if inappropriately stored, handled, or applied. |
| Vaccinations Name four types: | Modified-live virus. Killed. Adjuvanted. Recombinant. |
| Vaccinations What is a Modified-live virus? | Virus rendered harmless, multiplies in the body. |
| Vaccinations What is a Killed vaccine? | Virus is killed, does not multiply in the body. |
| Vaccinations Describe a Adjuvanted vaccine: | Substance added to killed virus to stimulate immune response. |
| Vaccinations What is a Recombinant vaccine? | Only important antigen is in the vaccine, such as receptor protein of virus. (FeLV vaccine). |
| Vaccinations Name six routes of administration: | Oral. Intranasal. Subcutaneous. Intramuscular. Intraperitoneal. Intradermal. |
| Vaccinations True or false: manufacturers guidelines should be followed on all vaccines. | True |
| Vaccinations Name four things to remember when storing them. | Stored in center of standard size refrigerator w/thermometer next to vaccines. Stock should be rotated so that new batches of vaccine are placed in back/used last. Food should not be stored in vaccine refrigerator (OSHA regulation). Transportation. |
| Vaccinations: Handling Lyopholized (freeze dried) vaccines should only be reconstituted with: | diluent provided by manufacturer. Thoroughly mix all vaccines prior to use. Rolling works well and prevents bubbles. |
| Vaccinations: Handling Do not reconstitute Lyopholized vaccines until ready to use. They must be used: | in <30 minutes |
| Vaccinations: Handling True or false: use a new sterile needle and syringe each time a vaccination is administered. | True |
| Vaccinations: Handling True or false: it is possible and important to avoid contaminating multi-dose vials. | True |
| Vaccine Protocols True or false: no animal that is ill or possibly ill (elevated body temperature) should be vaccinated. | True |
| Vaccine Protocols Animal must have functioning immune system for vaccine to be effective, so no vaccines (3): | To neonates. If animal is on immunosuppressive medication. If hx of immune mediated disease (if administered to these animals extreme caution must be used). |
| Vaccine Protocols Live vaccines are never given to: | pregnant animals |
| Vaccine Protocols True or false: specific vaccination strategies will vary with species, geographic region, lifestyle or purpose of animal, disease exposure risk, cost:benefit | True |
| Vaccine Protocols ___ vaccines are given to protect against the most prevalent life-threatening diseases for that species. | Core |
| Vaccine Protocols ___ vaccines are not recommended for the general population of that species. Indications vary with geography, exposure risk, etc. | Non-core |
| Vaccine Protocols Name the core vaccines for Dogs: | Rabies, Parvovirus, Distemper, Hepatitis |
| Vaccine Protocols Name the core vaccines for Cats: | Rabies, Rhinotrachitis, Calicivirus, Panleukopenia, Feline Leukemia (for outdoor cats) |
| Vaccine Protocols Frequency of vaccinations in juveniles is: | given every 3-4 weeks in effort to stimulate amanestic response as passive immunity wanes. |
| Vaccine Protocols Why don't we give vaccines more frequently than every 3 weeks? | May fail due to interferon production |
| Vaccine Protocols True or false: duration of immunity will vary depending on vaccine type and immune status of individual. | True |
| Vaccine Protocols True or false: frequency of vaccination may be determined by law (rabies); for core vaccines recommended at least every 3 years. | True |
| Vaccine Protocols Titers measure the ___ content of serum to a specific antigen. | antibody |
| Vaccine Protocols True or false: a high titer does not necessarily mean an animal is protected against that disease. | True. Antibody response may be ineffective. Some viruses change protein coats frequently (influenza). |
| Vaccine Protocols True or false: a low titer does not necessarily mean an animal is not protected against disease. | True. Cell mediated immunity may be protective. |
| Vaccine Protocols Titers are currently considered a ___ tool, but not definitive. | monitoring |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Key Terms Active ingredient | Ingredient of action in a medication. Generic name of drug. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Key Terms Adverse drug reaction | Unwanted or harmful reaction experienced following the administration of a drug or combination of drugs under normal conditions of use suspected to be related to the drug. Usually requires discontinuation of the drug or dose reduction. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Key Terms Chemical name | Describes chemical composition |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Key Terms Contraindication | A specific situation in which a drug, procedure, or surgery should not be used because it may be harmful. There are two types of contraindications: Relative contraindication means that caution should be used when two drugs or procedures are used together. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Key Terms Controlled substance | Generally a drug or chemical whose manufacture, possession, or use is regulated by a government, such as illicitly used drugs or prescription medications that are designated by law. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Key Terms Dosage | is how the drug is to be administered as the total plan. Amount, route, frequency, duration |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Key Terms Dose | is the amount of drug given to patient at one treatment |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Key Terms What information does a drug package insert have on it? | Actions, or mode of action, indications and usage, Contraindications, Precautions, Warnings, Adverse reactions or side effects, Over dosage information, Dosage administration, Storage, How supplied, Extra-label use will not be provided. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Key Terms Compounded | A drug that is specifically mixed and prepared for you, based on a prescription from your doctor. Similar to when you bake a cake, creating compound medications involves mixing one or more active ingredients, each at a specified amount. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Key Terms Enteric-coated | A polymer barrier applied to oral medication that prevents its dissolution or disintegration in the gastric environment. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Key Terms Extra-label use | Any use of a drug that differs from what is described on the label: use in a species not listed on the label, for an indication (disease) not listed, a different dose, route, frequency, or deviation from label withdrawal time. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Key Terms Formulary | An official list giving details of medicines that may be prescribed |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Key Terms Generic name | Common, concise name. Usually listed as active ingredient. (i.e. amoxicillin). |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Key Terms Generic equivalent | Made with the same active ingredient at the same dosage as the brand medication. The same results can be expected with a generic as with the brand counterpart. A generic alternative works like a brand drug and may be used to treat the same condition. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Key Terms Inert ingredient | Inactive ingredients or excipients. Generally have no pharmacological effect. Examples of inactive ingredients include binding materials, dyes, preservatives, and flavoring agents. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Key Terms Off-label use | Unapproved use of an approved drug, meaning used for a disease or medical condition that it is not approved to treat, such as when a chemotherapy is approved to treat one type of cancer, but healthcare providers use it to treat a different type of cancer. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Key Terms Trade name | Trademark names of a product from a specific company. Example: Amoxitabs or Biomox.) |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Key Terms Side effect | a secondary, typically undesirable effect of a drug or medical treatment. "many anticancer drugs now in use have toxic side effects" |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Key Terms Withdrawal time | The period of time from when a drug is administered to when the drug concentration falls below the tolerance. Every approved livestock drug has one, which only applies when the drug is used according to the labeled directions. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology True or false: all drugs are poisons. | True. Dose, route, and frequency effect safe vs dangerous usage. Varies with species, age, gender, breed, and health status. Important to not become complacent, but always monitor for adverse drug reactions. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology True or false: animals on chronic medication should be kept on the same brand long term. If this is not possible, owners need to be informed of brand changes so they can monitor animal appropriately. | True. Differences in manufacturing produce difference in bio-availability. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Dosage Forms Name four solid forms: | Tablets, caplets, chewables, gel caps |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Dosage Forms What are three types of Liquid Dosage Forms: Suspensions? | Emulsion, Syrup, Elixirs. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology A ___ is a drug in oil or fat. | Emulsion |
| Introduction to Pharmacology A ___ is a drug in sugar water. | Syrup |
| Introduction to Pharmacology A ___ is a drug in alcohol. | Elixir |
| Introduction to Pharmacology What are four to seven Topical Dosage Forms? | Tincture, Liniment, Lotions, Ointments, Creams, Gels, Patches |
| Introduction to Pharmacology A ___ is an alcohol solution for topical use. | Tincture |
| Introduction to Pharmacology A ___ is an oil solution for topical use. | Liniment |
| Introduction to Pharmacology A ___ coated drug is done so to improve taste and prevent melting during administration. | Sugar |
| Introduction to Pharmacology A ___ coated drug is done so to protect the drug from stomach acid or to protect stomach from the drug. | Enteric |
| Introduction to Pharmacology True or false: an enteric coated drug should not be split. | True |
| Introduction to Pharmacology When administering injectable drugs, always read the label to determine: | Route (IV, IM, SQ). routes are not interchangable and serious complications may arise if SQ drug is given IV, etc. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology Name three ways Injectable drugs are packaged. | Single dose, multi dose, ampules |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Injectables Describe a single dose vial: | use entire contents for one dose |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Injectables Describe a multi-dose vial: | clean rubber with alcohol prior to drawing up new dose |
| Introduction to Pharmacology Describe an Ampule: | Break along score with care. Ideally use filter tip needle to prevent injecting glass into animal. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Source of Drug Info Name seven pieces of information on the drug label. | Drug names (generic and trade). Drug concentration and quantity. Name and address of manufacturer. Manufacturer's control or lot number. Expiration date. Withdrawal time. Controlled substance status. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology True or false: a package insert has the most up-to-date information regarding specific product. Extra-label use will not be provided. | True |
| Introduction to Pharmacology True or false: formularies are an excellent source of information. A new one should be purchased every 3-4 years. Careful of "digest versions" with minimal detail. | True |
| Introduction to Pharmacology True or false: expiration date is the date before which a drug meets all specifications and after which the drug can no longer be used. They are based on the stability of the drug. | True |
| Introduction to Pharmacology Expiration dates for drugs that are mixed in the clinic: | vary depending on the reconstitution and refrigeration status of the drugs. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology True or False: a veterinarian/client/patient relationship must be established before any medication is prescribed for an animal. | True |
| Introduction to Pharmacology Name four reasons that Veterinarians are allowed Extra-label use of drugs: | No approved drug exists that specifically meets the animals needs. Careful medical diagnosis has been made. Treated animal is carefully identified and an extended withdrawal time is assigned. Drug is properly labeled according to guidelines. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology What are Withdrawal Times (Withholding Time)? | Time period after a drug is discontiued when it is safe to use a product from that animal for human consumption. (milk, eggs, meat). Failure to provide correct withdrawal time info to a livestock owner: Federal crime & could result in fines & prison. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology Name "The Six Rights" of drug administration: | Right patient. Right drug. Right dose. Right route. Right time & frequency. Right documentation. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology A drug that the FDA determines its drug status: toxicity, purpose, and dosage directions and can only be dispensed upon order of a DVM is a | Rx. Prescription drug. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology A drug that might be a lower-dose version of a prescription drug and can be purchased without consulting a DVM is a: | OTC. Over the counter. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology A ___ is an order to a pharmacist, written by a licensed veterinarian, to prepare the prescribed medicine, to affix the direction, and to sell the preparation to the client. | Prescription. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology Name 12 pieces of information required on a prescription: | Name hospital & DVM w/ address & phone. Date Rx was written. Client name & Address. Patient name & Species. Rx (drug name, strength, # dispensed), Sig (treatment instructions), Cautionary statements, withdrawal time, DEA #, Refill #, Veterinary signature. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology Prescription drugs may be dispensed by ___ or trained ___ staff. | pharmacist. veterinary |
| Introduction to Pharmacology Veterinary prescription drugs should be ___ ___ when dispensed. | properly labeled |
| Introduction to Pharmacology True or false: veterinary staff members cannot refill or dispense medications without veterinarian approval. | True |
| Introduction to Pharmacology Medications must be dispensed in ___ containers or owner cautioned. | childproof |
| Introduction to Pharmacology The label on the prescription should be complete and contain (10): | Name & address of the dispenser. Client name and address. Animal's name and species. Date of order. Directions for use. Expiration date. Cautionary statements. Refill #. Withdrawal time (large animal). |
| Introduction to Pharmacology If a client requests we dispense without putting the medication in a child-proof container, we must: | have them sign a release to be placed in the chart. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Drug Storage Drugs should be discarded or returned after expiration date. Why? | Less effective. Certain drugs become unsafe: unstable structure (tetracycline). Loss of sterility (injectables). Formation of precipitates. Do not use drug with precipitate! |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Drug Storage Store at optimal temperature according to label. What are some ways to check or guarantee this? | Check indicator when unpacking items (such as vaccines). Refrigerated drugs should be stored in center of refrigerator, next to thermometer. (not on door or produce bins) Special issue for large animal DVMs. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Drug Storage ___ sensitive drugs are kept in amber containers and stored in closed cabinets. IV bags with additives like Vitamin B should be covered. | Light |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Drug Storage How can we protect drugs from moisture? | Keep silica packets in bottles. Store drugs in dry areas. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Drug Storage How can we insure sterility of our drugs? | Do not reconstitute until ready to use. Do not keep longer than label instructions (i.e. Propofol) |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Drug Storage True or False: do not use a drug with color change. | True |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Controlled Substances What is another term for these drugs? | Scheduled Drugs. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Controlled Substances What are they? | substances that have the potential for physical or psychological addiction. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Controlled Substances True or false: they have very specific requirements for prescribing and storing, monitored by the DEA. | true |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Controlled Substances Name four regulations for storage, prescription, and dispensing of these drugs. | Storage in a locked, sturdy, non-portable cabinet or safe. Log in hard-copy, unalterable form. Written prescriptions only with DEA#. Child-proof container, labeled "Federal Law Prohibits transfer of this drug. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Controlled Substances True or False: Class I drugs have extreme potential for abuse and are not kept in veterinary practices. Illegal drugs: LSD, Heroin, etc. | True |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Controlled Substances How do you know it is a controlled substance? | Original container is required to have the "C" symbol in upper right corner. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Cytotoxic Drugs ___ drugs treat cancer or severe immune disease. | antineoplastic |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Cytotoxic Drugs ___ drugs treat fungal infections. | antifungal |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Cytotoxic Drugs True or false: these drugs (cytotoxic: antifungal and antineoplastic) may have potential to cause harm to patient, veterinary personnel, or family members if exposure occurs. If so, why? | Immunosuppressive (lower WBC), Teratogenic (cause birth defects), and Carcinogenic (cause cancer). |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Chemotherapy Agents Chemotherapy agents should be stored: | away from all other drugs and clearly marked with hazard signs. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Chemotherapy Agents Chemotherapy contaminated items must be disposed of in: | special containers (different than biologic hazards) |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Chemotherapy Agents True or False: only staff specifically trained in chemotherapy should handle these drugs. | True |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Chemotherapy Agents Patients that have been given chemotherapy must be clearly ___ so that urine, feces, and IV catheters are handled appropriately. | marked |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Compounding Drugs Any manipulation of a drug form that is different than that approved by the FDA is considered a: | compound drug |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Compounding Drugs It is allowed in veterinary medicine only if that form does not already commercially exist. Give four examples of compounding drugs: | Flavored compounds. Capsules of drugs no longer available to humans (cisapride or DES), raw chemicals into capsules (KBr), and formulating different forms (tapezole transdermal). |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Compounding Drugs This should be done by: | a licensed Compounding Pharmacist. They receive special training: understanding of stability, pH, absorption rates, clearance rates, drug interactions, safety, and storage. Special equipment: Micro emulsion, precision measuring. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Drug Disposal What is the BEST option? | Incineration: return to distributor or disposal agency. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Drug Disposal What is one alternative to Incineration of drugs for disposal? | Double-seal with kitty litter for landfill. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Drug Disposal True or false: Do NOT flush drugs down drains or toilets. | True |
| Intro to Pharmacology: Systems of Measurement ___ system: lacks standardization; not accurate for measuring medicine. | Household |
| Intro to Pharmacology: Systems of Measurement ___ system: developed in late 18th century to standardize measures and weights for European countries. | Metric |
| Intro to Pharmacology: Systems of Measurement ___ system: system of liquid units of measure used chiefly by pharmacists. | Apothecary |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Metric System Units are based on factors of ___. | 10 |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Metric System Base units are ___ (length), ___ (volume), and ___ (weight). | meter. liter. gram. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Metric System Prefix commonly used: Micro = | one millionth of a unit = 0.000001 |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Metric System Prefix commonly used: Milli | one thousandth of a unit = 0.001 |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Metric System Prefix commonly used: Centi | one hundredth of a unit = 0.01 |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Metric System Prefix commonly used: Deci | on tenth of a unit = 0.1 |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Metric System Prefix commonly used: Kilo | one thousand units = 1,000 = K |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Metric System Shortcut Method: Kg to g = | move decimal point 3 places to the right. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Metric System Shortcut Method: g to Kg = | move decimal point 3 places to the left. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Metric System Shortcut Method: l to ml = | move decimal point 3 places to the right. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Metric System Shortcut Method: ml to l = | move decimal point 3 places to the left. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Metric System Remember: when converting from larger units to smaller units, the quantity gets ___. When converting to smaller units to larger units, the quantity gets ___. | larger. smaller. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Apothecary System System of liquid measure used by pharmacists; also called the: | common system |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Apothecary System true or false: It was derived from the British apothecary system of measures. | true |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Apothecary System Units in the apothecary system: a ___ is a liquid volume of a drop of water from a standard medicine dropper. | minim. 60 minims = 1 fluid dram |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Apothecary System Units in the apothecary system: a ___ is a basic unit of weight measurement. 1 grain = 64.7989 mg. | grain. 1 grain = 64.7989 mg |
| Intro to Pharmacology: Temperature Conversion Fahrenheit system: water freezes at __ degrees; water boils at ___ degrees. | 32. 212. |
| Intro to Pharmacology: Temperature Conversion Celsius system: water freezes at __ degrees; water boils at ___ degrees. | 0, 100. |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Working w/ Solutions The amount of solute dissolved in solvent is known at the ___. | Concentration |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Working w/ Solutions True or false: Concentration may be expressed as parts (per some amount), weight per volume, volume per volume, and weight per weight. | true |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Working w/ Solutions Usually reported out as percents or percentage solution. Percentage solution is: | number of grams of drug in 100 ml of liquid. |
| Intro to Pharmacology: Reconstitution Problems Drug is in powder form because: | it is not stable when suspended in solution. Such a drug must be reconstituted (liquid must be added to it). |
| Intro to Pharmacology: Reconstitution Problems True or false: the label should state how much liquid to add. | True |
| Intro to Pharmacology: Reconstitution Problems Label the reconstituted drug with: | date prepared, the concentration, and your initials |
| Introduction to Pharmacology: Dosages True or False: Medical orders are supposed to be written in medication dose form: 100 mg Amoxicillin (not 1 Amoxitab) | True |
| How are titers used in veterinary medicine? | A high or low titer might affect decisions to vaccinate a specific patient, but would need specific information on that specific disease as to the correct antigen and correct level that defines "protective immunity." |
| What is the function of a T-Lymphocyte? | T-lymphocytes are not phagocytic and don't directly destroy pathogens. Cell-mediated immunity (NK cells) destroy virus infected cells or cells mutated (i.e. cancer) via cytokines. T-cells contribute to immune memory. Helper T-cells call B-lymphocytes. |
| Define Titer: | It is a measure of the level of antibodies to a specific antigen in a patient's body. |
| ___ is the study of how drugs interact with the body to produce effect. | Pharmacodynamics |
| Pharmacodynamics Drugs work in a variety of ways. Describe three: | Drugs alter existing cellular functions: hormones effect DNA expression. Drugs alter the chemical composition of body fluids: Chelators bind ions such as lead. Drugs can form a chemical bond with receptors on target cells within the animal's body. |
| Pharmacodynamics What is a Chelators? | Small molecules that bind tightly to metal ions. Used to bind metal ions forming compounds. Naturally occurring biological versions help carry iron & oxygen in physiological systems. Chemical versions can be used to separate metal ions from solution. |
| Pharmacodynamics ___ is a drug that binds to a cell receptor and causes action. | agonist |
| Pharmacodynamics ___ is a drug that inhibits or blocks the response of a cell when the drug is bound to the receptors (antidote). | antagonist |
| ___ is the physiological movement of drugs into, within, and out of the body. | pharmacokinetics |
| Pharmacokinetics Name the four steps involved: | Absorption. Distribution. Biotransformation (metabolism). Excretion. |
| Pharmacokinetics: Absorption ___ ___ is the movement of drug from the site of administration into the fluids of the body that will carry it to its site(s) of action. | Drug absorption |
| Pharmacokinetics: Absorption Drug factors included drug (3): | solubility, pH, molecular size. |
| Pharmacokinetics: Absorption Patient factors include animals (2): | Age and health status |
| Pharmacokinetics: Absorption ___ is the percent of drug administered that actually enters the systemic circulation. | Bioavailability |
| Pharmacokinetics: Absorption True or false: in regard to bioavailability, drug form is important. Oral drugs must have different properties than parenteral drugs. | True |
| Pharmacokinetics: Absorption ___ ___ refers to the drug concentration amount in the body that achieves desired treatment effect. | Therapeutic range |
| Pharmacokinetics: Absorption To maintain therapeutic concentration in the body, a drug must: | be given at the same rate as it is eliminated (steady state). |
| Pharmacokinetics: Absorption ___ refers to the practice of administering a drug below the goal for treatment effect. Is this a good practice? | Subtherapeutic. No, this should be avoided. Antibiotic resistance usually develops. Failure of dose may be incorrectly interpreted as failure of the drug. |
| Pharmacokinetics: Therapeutic Range Drugs with ___ therapeutic range are very safe. | wide |
| Pharmacokinetics: Therapeutic Range Drugs with ___ therapeutic range are potentially dangerous. | narrow |
| Therapeutic Drug Administration ___ is the amount of drug administered at one time. It should be written as units of mass (mg, grams, grains). | Dose |
| Therapeutic Drug Administration True or false: dose in record should not be written as tablets or ml. | True |
| Therapeutic Drug Administration True or false: directions to owners can be written as tabs or ml as long as concentration is clearly indicted. | True |
| ___ ___ is the initial dose that is larger than maintenance dose. What is the purpose of doing this? | loading dose. To rapidly raise serum concentrations into a therapeutic range. |
| ___ is the dose given to maintain drug at therapeutic levels in serum. | maintenance |
| ___ ___ is the time between administration of separate drug doses. The pharmacokinetics of each drug determines the dosage interval. | dosage interval |
| Common Abbreviations for Dosage Interval sid = | once daily |
| Common Abbreviations for Dosage Interval bid= | twice daily |
| Common Abbreviations for Dosage Interval tid= | three times daily |
| Common Abbreviations for Dosage Interval qid= | four times daily |
| Common Abbreviations for Dosage Interval prn= | as needed |
| Routes of Administration Refers to the means by which a drug is given. ___ is a drug given by injection (IM, IV, SQ). | parenteral |
| Intravenous (IV) ___ is a drug administered IV at one time (seconds to hours). | bolus |
| Intravenous (IV) Constant-rate infusion (CRI): a drug placed into intravenous fluids and given ___. | continuously |
| Routes of Administration ___ or ___ is an injection of a drug outside of the vein (that was intended to be into the vein). | Extra-vascular injection or extravasation |
| Routes of Administration True or false: some extravasations are uncomfortable to the patient and interrupt intended therapy but will not damage tissues (such as LRS). | True |
| Routes of Administration True or false: some drugs (such as certain chemotherapy agents) will cause dramatic tissue damage if extravasation occurs. | True |
| Intraarterial (IA) injections True or false: should be carefully avoided due to drug being delivered to the nearest tissue and drug not mixing into blood of general circulation. | True |
| Intraarterial (IA) injections True or false: it is difficult to give IA injections. | True. Will see bright red blood stream into syringe when pulled back (may actually self fill). Can feel bounce of pulse in needle tip. |
| ___ injections are delivered under the skin. | Subcutaneous (SC or SQ) |
| ___ injections are delivered within the skin (rarely used for tx). Used for tuberculosis (TB testing). | Intradermal (ID) |
| ___ injections are delivered within the abdominal cavity. Used in neonates and wildlife medicine. | Intraperitoneal (IP) |
| ___ injections are delivered within the vein. | Intravenous (IV) |
| ___ injections are delivered within the muscle. | Intramuscular (IM) |
| Per os (PO) means? | Orally: by mouth. |
| ___ drug administration is delivered through the skin. Describe two forms. | Transdermal (TDS). Patches and ointments applied to the skin in which the medication has the ability to pass through the skin and into the body. |
| True or false: n regard to Transdermal (TDS) drugs: effective dosing only occurs with a limited number of drugs. | True |
| ___ is an inhaled therapy. | Aerosol |
| ___ includes the movement of substances across cell membranes. | Pharmacokinetics |
| What are the four basic mechanisms for pharmacokinetic movement of substances across cell membranes. | Passive diffusion. Facilitated diffusion. Active transport. Pinocytosis/phagocytosis. |
| Pharmacokinetics ___ diffusion refers to the movement of particles from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. Good for small, lipophilic, nonionic particles. | Passive diffusion |
| Pharmacokinetics ___ diffusion refers to passive diffusion that uses a special carrier molecule. Good for bigger molecules that are not lipid soluble. | Facilitated diffusion |
| Pharmacokinetics ___ transport occurs when molecules move against the concentration gradient from areas of low concentration of molecules to areas of high concentration of molecules; involves both a carrier molecule and energy (ATP). This is good for? | Active transport. Good for accumulation of drugs within a cell. |
| Pharmacokinetics ___ refers to when molecules are physically taken in or engulfed (liquid). | pinocytosis |
| Pharmacokinetics ___ molecules are physically taken in or engulfed (solid particles). | phagocytosis |
| Factors that Affect Rate of Drug Transport True or false: in facilitated diffusion and active transport rate of transport is limited by the number of available carrier molecules. | True |
| Factors that Affect Rate of Drug Transport Name six factors that affect passive diffusion: | concentration gradient on either side of membrane. drug molecule size. drug's lipophilic character. cell temperature. membrane thickness. ionic charge of drug or molecule. |
| ___ describes the percentage of drug that is absorbed into blood after drug administration. | Bioavailability |
| True or false: intravenous drugs have 100% bioavailability. | True |
| True or false: most topical drugs have 0% bioavailability. | True |
| Bioavailability of oral and SQ drugs is dependent on multiple factors. Name four. | pH, Lipophilic character. Molecule size. GI motility. |
| ___: molecule size must be small enough to pass through mucous membranes of small intestine. | Dissolution |
| True or false: liquid drugs do not need to dissolve. | True |
| Tablets, granules and powders must dissolve completely before leaving the ___ ___. | small intestines |
| Sustained-release medications generally are ___ in small animal medicine because they are unable to dissolve fast enough to reach therapeutic blood levels. | ineffective |
| __ __ effect: all blood leaving the small intestines first passes through the liver to have toxins removed prior to joining the general blood circulation. | First-pass effect |
| A drug that is almost completely removed by the liver prior to reaching the circulation experiences: __ __ effect. | First-pass effect |
| True or false: the first- pass effect is the reason why some drugs will work IV, but not PO (this may vary with species). | True |
| True or false: drug distribution is the physiological movement of drugs from the systemic circulation to the tissues. | True |
| What is the goal of Drug Distribution? | To reach the target tissue or intended site of action |
| Name four factors affecting drug distribution: | Membrane permeability. Tissue Perfusion. Protein Binding. Volume of Distribution. |
| Drugs must pass through the "windows" in the capillaries to enter the tissues. This is affected by __ __. | Membrane Permeability. Fenestrations = windows? |
| Certain capillary beds are "tight" and do not allow drugs to leave into tissues. Name four: | Blood-brain barrier. Placenta. Cornea. Prostate. |
| Perfusion Effect Drugs give SQ and IM must diffuse through tissue and enter capillaries to enter general circulation. The better the blood supply of the tissue, the more rapid the uptake. Which has better blood supply: SQ or IM? | IM - Intramuscular |
| True or false: animals that are in shock or dehydrated are poorly profusing peripheral tissues, therefore the SQ route does not work very well (the IV route is best for poor perfusion states). | True |
| Certain drugs attach to albumin and other proteins in the plasma. This is referred to as: | Protein binding. |
| Protein binding complex is too large to pass through the capillaries windows. How this be compensated for? | Higher dosage must be administered to achieve adequate distribution. |
| ___ of ___ represents the number of tissues the drug gets into or the % of the drug that leaves the blood to enter tissues. | Volume of Distribution |
| Volume of Distribution is an important concept to understand because in obese vs lean animals of the same body weight have a smaller volume of distribution so ___ drug should be given based on body weight. | less |
| Biotransformation is also called drug ___, drug inactivation, and drug detoxification. | drug metabolism |
| True or false: biotransformation is the chemical alteration of a drug molecule by the body to a metabolite that is an active form, an inactivated form, and/or a toxic form. | True |
| What is the primary site of biotransformation? | liver |
| Biotransformation of the same drug may vary greatly with what three factors? | Species. Age. Health (organ function) |
| ___ ___ is the movement of drugs out of the body. | Drug elimination |
| What are two major routes of drug elimination? What are three alternative routes? | Liver (bile into feces). Kidneys (urine). Other routes: Lungs, skin (sweat), milk. |
| ___ ___ is the period of time after drug administration during which the animal cannot be sent to market for slaughter and the eggs and milk must be discarded because of the potential for drug residues. | Withdrawal time |
| ___ is the time required for the amount of drug in the body to reduce by half its original level. Must occur five times to be fully eliminated. | Half-life |
| ___ is the point at which the drug accumulation and elimination are balanced. | steady state |
| Arachidonic acid pathway | |
| Autoimmune reactions | |
| Catabolic effects | |
| Cyclooxygenases | |
| Eicosanoids | |
| Glucocorticoids | |
| Leukotrienes | |
| Lipoxygensase | |
| Prostaglandins | |
| Renal papillary necrosis | |
| Thromboxanes | |
| Anabolic | |
| Corticosteroid | |
| What are the five key clinical signs of inflammation? | pain, swelling, redness, heat, loss of function |
| What is inflammation good for (4)? | First step of the healing process. Increases blood supply to an injured area. Increases migration of leukocytes to area. Increases activity of phagocytes. Pain causes animal to protect area of injury. |
| Inflammation - The Dark Side Name two problems associated with inflammation. | Pain affects quality of life and causes activation of sympathetic nervous system. May cause progression of disease and loss of function. |
| Anti-Inflammatory Drugs Name two major categories: | Steroids (glucocorticoids), Non-steroidal Anti-inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) |
| ___ are a group of related compounds named from the discovery in semen (fluids from the prostate). What are four actions of prostaglandins? | Prostaglandins: stimulate contraction of uterine smooth muscle. "pump" sperm up. Potentiate pain in inflammation. Chemotaxis for leukocytes. |
| What is chemotaxis? | It is the attraction and movement of macrophages to a chemical signal. It uses cytokines and chemokines to attract macrophages and neutrophils to the site of infection, ensuring that pathogens in the area will be destroyed. |
| ___ is a polyunsaturated fatty acid covalently bound in the cell membranes of most body cells. Following irritation or injury, it is released & oxygenated by enzyme systems leading to formation of an important group of inflammatory mediators: eicosanoids. | Arachidonic acid |
| Anti-inflammatory Drug: Two Main Groups Steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs block the action of ___. Therefore they are superior for treatment of allergic reactions. | phospholipase |
| Anti-inflammatory Drug: Two Main Groups Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) block the action of ___. | cyclooxygenase |
| What is a Cytokine? | They are a group of proteins secreted by cells of the immune system that act as chemical messengers. When released from one cell affect the actions of other cells by binding to receptors on their surface. They help regulate the immune response. |
| Name five types of cytokines: | chemokines, interferons, interleukins, lymphokines, tumor necrosis factor |
| Cytokines What is the function of Chemokines? | They call in cells to the site of infection. The ability to call in other cells using a chemical message is referred to as chemotaxis. |
| Cytokines Name two types of Prostaglandins: | COX-1 and COX-2 |
| Cytokines What is a function of Leukotrienes. How are they indicated? | Regulate allergies and inflammation. Indicated by letters A, B, C, D, and E. |
| Cytokines What is the function of Thromboxane? | Platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction. |
| What is aggregation? | A cluster of things that have come or been brought together. |
| Cytokines COX-1 prostagladins are ___ to homeostasis of kidneys, gastric mucosa, platelet function, and macrophage function. | protective |
| Cytokines COX-2 prostaglandins are ___ mediators of swelling, pain, and chemotaxis. | inflammatory |
| NSAIDs - COX-1 & COX-2 Aspirin, Tepoxalin (Zubrin), Phenylbutazone, Flunixin (Banamine), Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-bismal, Kaopectate) are ___. | nonspecific non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. |
| NSAIDs - COX-1 & COX-2 Carprofen (Rimadyl), Etodolac (Etogesic), Deracoxib (Deramaxx), Meloxicam (Metacam), and Firocoxib (Previcox) are all ___. | COX-2 inhibitor non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. |
| NSAIDs - Side Effects & Contra-indications Name three possible: | GI ulcers (especially with corticosteroid use), Renal damage (especially with hypotension, renal insufficiency, cats at higher risk), liver damage (special risk for Rimadyl in Labs) |
| What are three clinical signs of GI ulcers: | black tarry stool, loss of appetite, vomiting blood. Rarely seen in dogs, although micro-ulcers are seen in 75% of dogs administered NSAIDs. |
| How should we monitor long term NSAID use (2)? | Blood chemistries before initiation, 2 weeks after start, and then periodically (q 3-6 months). Taper use to lowest effective dose (daily or EOD much more effective than prn). |
| What should we be watching for with long term NSAID use (3)? | Decreased appetite, vomiting, melena reasons to stop drugs immediately and reevaluate pet. |
| What is melena? | dark sticky feces containing partly digested blood. |
| Types of NSAIDs: Salicylates Potent inhibitors of ___ synthesis; include drugs such as aspirin. | prostaglandin |
| Types of NSAIDs: Salicylates True or False: Aspirin is an analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory. It blocks ___. | True. thromboxane. |
| Types of NSAIDs: Salicylates Side effects include: | gastrointestinal problems |
| Types of NSAIDs: Salicylates Use in dogs should be ___ or ___. | buffered or enteric-coated |
| Types of NSAIDs: Pyrazolone derivatives Inhibit ___ synthesis. | prostaglandin |
| Types of NSAIDs: Pyrazolone derivatives True or false: Phenylbutazone is an analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory. | True |
| Types of NSAIDs: Pyrazolone derivatives Phenylbutazone is used in equine medicine for ___ pain. | musculoskeletal pain |
| Types of NSAIDs: Pyrazolone derivatives Phenylbutazone is often referred to as: | "Bute" |
| Define inflammation: | a localized physical condition in which part of the body becomes reddened, swollen, hot, and often painful, especially as a reaction to injury or infection. |
| Types of NSAIDs: Propionic acid derivatives True or false: block both cyclooxygenase and lipoxygenase. | True |
| Types of NSAIDs: Propionic acid derivatives True or false: examples of this type of drug are: ketoprofen, carprofen (Rimadyl), and naproxen (the -fen drugs). | True |
| Types of NSAIDs: Propionic acid derivatives True or false: Side effects include gastrointestinal problems and possible liver toxicities (dogs & cats). | True |
| Types of NSAIDs: Propionic acid derivatives OTC, human medications, such as Aleve, Advil, Motrin, Naproxen should ___ be used in dogs and cats! | not |
| Types of NSAIDs: Glunixin meglumine (Banamine) True or false: inhibits cyclooxygenase. | True |
| Types of NSAIDs: Glunixin meglumine (Banamine) Used in ___ and ___ for musculoskeletal and colic pain. | cattle and horses |
| Types of NSAIDs: Flunixin meglumine (Banamine) Is a potent analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory. It also blocks ___. | endotoxins |
| Types of NSAIDs: Flunixin meglumine (Banamine) There is a marked risk of ___ in dogs. | GI ulcers |
| Types of NSAIDs: Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) Inactivates superoxide radicals produced by ___. | inflammation |
| Types of NSAIDs: Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) True or false: it is able to penetrate skin and serve as a carrier of other drugs (may cause burning). | True. |
| Types of NSAIDs: Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) True or false: must use caution when applying. | True. Interesting fact: it has a really strong smell of garlic. |
| Types of NSAIDs: COX-2 Inhibitors Inhibit cyclooxygenase-2 without interfering with the protects ___. | cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1). Examples include: deracoxib and meloxicam. |
| Types of NSAIDs: COX-2 Inhibitors Name one pro and one con. | Most GI protection. Expensive. Examples: Meloxicam, EtoGesic, Deramaxx. |
| Steroids: Glucocorticoids Name three groups of steroids. | Sex (Anabolic Steroid): Testosterone derivatives. Sugar (Catabolic Steroid) Glucocorticoids. Salt: Mineralcorticoids. |
| ___ centers around growth and building. The organization of molecules. Small, simple molecules are built up into larger, more complex ones. Example: gluconeogenesis. This is when the liver and kidneys produce glucose from noncarbohydrate sources. | Anabolism |
| ___ is what happens when you digest food & the molecules break down in the body for use as energy. Large, complex molecules in the body are broken down into smaller, simple ones. Example: glycolysis. This process is almost the reverse of gluconeogenesis. | Catabolism |
| Steroids: Glucocorticoids What two benefits do these drugs have? | Anti-inflammatory and anti-allergic properties. |
| Steroidal Anti-inflammatories ___ are hormones produced by the adrenal cortex. | corticosteroids |
| Steroidal Anti-inflammatories Name three groups of corticosteroids used in veterinary medicine as therapy. | Glucocorticoids. Mineralcorticoids. Sex hormones. |
| Steroids: Glucocorticoids True or false: have anti-inflammatory effects due to their inhibition of phospholipase. | True |
| Steroids: Glucocorticoids True or false: they raise the concentration of liver glycogen and increase blood glucose levels. | True |
| Steroids: Glucocorticoids They are regulated by the ___. | negative feedback loop |
| Steroids: Glucocorticoids Affect ___, ___, and ___ metabolism. | carbohydrate, protein, fat metabolism |
| Glucocorticoids: Three Different Durations of Action Short-acting Glucocorticoids have a duration of action of < ___? Name two: | <12 hours. Cortisone and hydrocortisone. |
| Glucocorticoids: Three Different Durations of Action Intermediate-acting Glucocorticoids have a duration of action of __-__ hours. Name three examples: | 12-36 hours. Prednisone, prednisolone, triamcinolone |
| Glucocorticoids: Three Different Durations of Action Long-acting Glucocorticoids have a duration of action of > ___. Name three: | >36 hours. Dexamethasone, betamethasone, fluocinolone |
| Glucocorticoids: Three Different Durations of Action What are three routes of administration? | Orally, parenterally, topically |
| Glucocorticoid Use What are four benefits? | Reduce inflammation, relieve pruritis, reduce scarring by delaying wound healing, and reducing tissue damage. |
| Glucocorticoid Use What are five drawbacks of their use? | Delay wound healing. Increase risk of infection. may cause GI ulceration and bleeding. Increase the risk of corneal ulceration if corneal damage exists. May induce abortion in some species. |
| Glucocorticoid Treatment: Key Points True or false: glucocorticoids do not cure disease. | True |
| Glucocorticoid Treatment: Key Points True or false: they may help disseminate infectious microorganisms. | True |
| What does disseminate mean? | spread (for instance throughout an organ or body). |
| Glucocorticoid Treatment: Key Points True or false: use caution when giving high dosages of glucocorticoids to pregnant animals. | True. May induce abortion. (premature birth). |
| Glucocorticoid Treatment: Key Points What is the purpose of alternate-day dosing at the lowest possible doses? | To prevent iatrogenic Cushing's disease. |
| Glucocorticoid Treatment: Key Points Why should an animal be tapered off glucocorticoids? | To prevent iatrogenic Addison's disease. Because the negative feedback loop has been affected and the body is not producing the glucocorticoid naturally due to treatment. |
| Glucocorticoid Treatment: Key Points Do not use glucocorticoids in animals that have: | corneal ulcers |
| Controlled Substances: Regulations & Records What are controlled substances? | Drugs which are regulated by federal and state law. The production, possession, importation, and distribution of these drugs is strictly regulated or outlawed, although many may be dispensed by prescription only. |
| Controlled Substances: Regulations & Records What is the basis for these regulations? | To control the danger of addiction, abuse, physical and mental harm, the trafficking by illegal means, and the dangers from actions of those who have used these substances. |
| Controlled Substances: Regulations & Records What agency is responsible for controlled substances? | These laws are enforced by the Department of Justice, Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA). Violations of controlled substance laws carry heavy penalties. DEA agents frequently carry weapons, even for routine inspections. |
| Controlled Substances: Regulations & Records True or false: These substances are segregated into DEA Schedules I, II, III, IV, and V. What is are these schedules based on? | True. Abuse potential. Medical value. Danger of serious physical effects to the user. |
| Controlled Substances: Regulations & Records These substances are labeled with a large ___ with their schedule within the ___. | "C" |
| Controlled Substances: Regulations & Records Schedule __ have a high potential for abuse. They have no currently accepted medical use in treatment in the U.S. Name three examples: | Schedule I. heroin, LSD, "ecstasy" |
| Controlled Substances: Regulations & Records Schedule __ drugs or other substances have currently accepted medical use in treatment in the U.S. or a currently accepted medical use with severe restrictions. | Schedule II |
| Controlled Substances: Regulations & Records Abuse of Schedule __ drugs or other substances may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence. Name examples of these drugs: | Schedule II. cocaine, amphetamines, pentobarbital, etorphine, fentanyl, codeine, other opioids. |
| Controlled Substances: Regulations & Records Schedule __ drugs or other substances have currently accepted medical use in treatment in the U.S. Abuse of the drug may lead to moderate to low physical dependence or high psychological dependence. | Schedule III |
| Controlled Substances: Regulations & Records Name three examples of Schedule III drugs: | barbiturates, hydrocodone, ketamine |
| Controlled Substances: Regulations & Records Schedule __ drugs or other substances have currently accepted medical use in treatment in the U.S. and abuse of the drug may lead to limited physical or psychological dependence. Name four examples: | Schedule IV. diazepam, phenobarbital, butorphanol, phenobarbital |
| Controlled Substances: Regulations & Records Schedule __ drugs have currently accepted medical use in treatment in the U.S. and abuse of these drugs may lead to limited physical or psychological dependence. Name three examples: | Schedule V. buprenorphine, diphenoxylate, codeine cough syrup |
| Storage of Controlled Substances True or false: must be stored in a double locked, secured container. | True |
| Storage of Controlled Substances True or false: the storage box must be bolted or otherwise secured to an immovable object. | True |
| Storage of Controlled Substances True or false: do not label the cabinet on the outside (making it easier for would be thieves to to locate the drugs). | True |
| Controlled Substances Logs A log book must be maintained for each drug. Each log contains what three things? | Authorized users signature log. Unopened container log. Opened container log. |
| Controlled Substances Logs True or false: one biennial inventory log book must be maintained for all drugs. | True |
| Controlled Substances Logs Ideally, the drug logs should be kept where? | in the drug cabinet. If this is not possible, they should be kept near a secure location near the controlled substance cabinet. |
| The Authorized Users Signature Log The signatures and initials of the DEA license holder and all authorized personnel under the direct supervision of the license holder record their information in this section at the ___ of the log book. | beginning |
| An ___ is a chemical substance that has the ability to kill or inhibit the growth of microbes. | antimicrobial |
| Antimicrobial Name five classifications: | Antibiotics, Antifungals, Antivirals, Antiprotozoals, Antiparasitics. |
| Antimicrobial True or false: antibiotics work only on bacteria. | True |
| Antimicrobial A ___-spectrum antibiotic works only on either gram-positive or gram-negative bacteria (not both). | Narrow |
| Antimicrobial A ___-spectrum antibiotic works on both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria (but not necessarily all). | Broad |
| Antimicrobial Antibiotics can be classified as ___ or ___. | bacteriostatic or bactericidal |
| Antimicrobial ___ kill the bacteria. | bactericidals |
| Antimicrobial ___ inhibit the growth or replication of bacteria. | bacteriostatics |
| Goals of Antimicrobial Therapy The goal is to ___ or disable pathogen without ___ the host. | kill or disable. injuring. |
| Goals of Antimicrobial Therapy Successful use requires: | Micro-organism is susceptible to the drug. Drug must reach the site of infection at an effective concentration. Drug must not cause serious injury to the animal treated. |
| How Do Antibiotics Work? Antibiotics work by one of a variety of mechanisms. Name three to six: | Inhibition of cell wall synthesis. Damage to the cell membrane. Inhibition of protein synthesis. Interference with metabolism. Impairment of nucleic acids. Interference with bacterial attachment. |
| How Do Antibiotics Work? Interfere w/ Cell Function Beta lactam antibiotics, Glycopeptides, and Bacitracin target: | Cell wall |
| How Do Antibiotics Work? Interfere w/ Cell Function Fluoroquinolones, Novobiocin, Nitroimidazoles, and Nitrofurans target: | DNA |
| How Do Antibiotics Work? Interfere w/ Cell Function Tetracyclines, Aminoglycosides, Lincosamides, Macrolides, Streptogramins, and Chloramphenicol target: | Ribosomes |
| Cell Membrane Damage How does it work? | Antibiotic inhibits cell wall processes or the cell wall directly, water enters, cell deteriorates, and cell is destroyed. |
| What is the difference between antimicrobial and antibiotic? | Antibiotic kills/slows bacteria. Antimicrobial kills/slows a pathogen. |
| Goals of Antimicrobial Therapy True or false: micro-organism must be susceptible to the drug. Drug must reach the site of infection at an effective concentration. Drug must not cause serious injury to the animal treated. | True. The goal is to kill or disable the pathogen without injuring the host. |
| Micro-organism is Susceptible to the Drug Innately susceptible due to mechanism of action. Name three attributes: | Gram + or Gram -, Aerobe vs Anaerobe, Certain groups of bacteria are naturally susceptible or resistant to drug. |
| Steps in Isolation & Identification of Bacteria What step involves streaking the culture plates: colonies on incubation (e.g. 24hrs), size/texture/color/hemolysis, oxygen requirement. | Step 1 |
| Steps in Isolation & Identification of Bacteria What step involves colony gram staining? Cells observed microscopically. Description of gram reaction. Shape of individual bacteria. Arrangement on slide. | Step 2 |
| Steps in Isolation & Identification of Bacteria Describe the six steps of gram staining: | Inoculate slide with sample of bacterial colony. Heat/Dry. Crystal Violet Stain. Iodine Fix. Alcohol de-stain. Safranin stain. |
| Steps in Isolation & Identification of Bacteria In what step are isolated bacteria speciated? | Step 3. Generally using physiological tests. |
| Steps in Isolation & Identification of Bacteria In Step 4, bacteria can be tested for antibiotic susceptibility. Describe two methods: | Agar gel diffusion (Kirby-Bauer method). Zone of inhibition around antibiotic on culture plate. Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC) is established through serial dilutions of antibiotic. The lowest concentration that inhibits growth is the MIC. |
| Antibiotic Susceptibility Testing If the bacteria is ___, the bacteria is ___ to the antibiotic and will be killed or inhibited. | sensitive |
| Antibiotic Susceptibility Testing A finding of ___ shows the bacteria is damaged by the antibiotic but some growth can occur. | Intermediate |
| Antibiotic Susceptibility Testing ___ means the bacteria resists the action of the antibiotic and is able to effectively multiply. | Resistant |
| Antibiotic at Therapeutic Levels Antibiotic chosen must be able to reach the site of infection and achieve therapeutic levels. What seven tissues are difficult to penetrate? | Keratin of skin. Brain/Spinal fluid. Bone. Inner ear. Eye. Prostate. Uterus. Any "Pocket of pus!" |
| Antibiotic at Therapeutic Levels True or false: antibiotics may accumulate at certain sites to produce levels higher at site than in serum. Name three: | Urine accumulation in urinary bladder. GI or liver (first pass metabolism). "Topical" therapy. |
| Empiric Antibiotic Use True or false: ideally started while awaiting culture results. The antibiotic is chosen based on "guess" of common pathogens causing a clinical syndrome. | True |
| Antibiotic Resistance This means that the bacteria ___ and continue to ___ after administration of the antibiotic. | survive. multiply. |
| Antibiotic Resistance Name three ways this can develop. | When bacteria change in some way that reduces or eliminates the effectiveness of the agent used to cure or prevent the infection. Develop through bacterial mutation, bacteria acquire genes that code for resistance. Can be natural resistance. G- or G+ |
| Antibiotic Resistance True or false: chronic exposure to low-dose antibiotics greatly increases the risk of antibiotic resistance. | True. Avoid sub-therapeutic doses of antibiotics. Clinical use. Feeding herds/flocks antibiotics. Avoid contamination of water supply and food products. |
| An ___ is the presence of a chemical or its metabolites in animal tissue or food products. | antibiotic residue |
| Antibiotic Residue True or false: this can cause allergic reactions in people or can produce resistant bacteria that can be transferred to people who consume these products. | True |
| Antibiotic Residue True or false: withdrawal times for antibiotics are aimed at eliminating antibiotic residue in food-producing animals. | True |
| General Cautions of Antibiotic Use Antibiotics should be given at sufficient dosage to maintain: | therapeutic levels and clear infection |
| General Cautions of Antibiotic Use ___ is a common side-effect. It may lessen if drug is given with food. | Inappetance |
| General Cautions of Antibiotic Use ___ and ___ may also occur, and would be reasons to change drugs. | vomiting and diarrhea |
| General Cautions of Antibiotic Use True or false: toxicity of kidneys or liver or other systems are occasionally a concern. | True |
| General Cautions of Antibiotic Use True or false: allergic reactions occasionally occur. | True |
| Classes of Antimicrobials Name seven: | Penicillins. Cephalosporins. Aminoglycosides. Quinolones. Tetracyclines. Sulfonamides. Macrolides. |
| Classes of Antimicrobials: Mechanism of Action Name two Cell Wall Agents: | Penicillin, Cephalosporin |
| Classes of Antimicrobials: Mechanism of Action Name three Protein Synthesis Agents: | Macrolides, Aminoglycosides, Tetracyclines |
| Classes of Antimicrobials: Mechanism of Action Antimetabolites: | Sulfonamides |
| Classes of Antimicrobials: Mechanism of Action Nucleic acid Agents: | Quinolones |
| Classes of Antimicrobials: Mechanism of Action Anti-fungal Agents: | Azoles, Polyenes. |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Cell Wall Agents ___ have beta-lactam structure that interferes with bacterial cell wall synthesis. They are identified by the ___ ending in the drug name. True or false: spectrum of activity depends on the type. | Penicillins. -cillin. True. |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Cell Wall Agents Name four drugs in the Penicillin Group: | Penicillin, cephalosporin, imipenem, clavulanate. |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Cell Wall Agents: Penicillins ___ resistant penicillins or potentiated penicillins are more resistant to ___ (an enzyme produced by some bacteria that destroys the beta-lactam structure of penicillin). | Beta-lactamase. |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Cell Wall Agents: Penicillins ___ and ___ acid (which binds to beta-lactamase to prevent the beta-lactam ring from being destroyed) are beta-lactamase resistant penicillins or potentiated penicillins. | amoxicillin. clavulanic acid. |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Cell Wall Agents ___ are semi-synthetic, broad-spectrum antibiotics that are structurally related to the penicillins. | Cephalosporins |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Cell Wall Agents: Cephalosporins - True or false: they have the beta-lactam ring and can be identified by the ceph- or cef- prefix in the drug name. | True |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Cell Wall Agents: Cephalosporins - Classified into four generations. True or false: in general, as the number of generations increases, the spectrum of activity broadens, but becomes less effective against gram-positive bacteria. | True |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Cell Wall Agents: Precautions True or false: generally safe group because they work against cell walls and animal cells do not have walls (only membranes). | True |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Cell Wall Agents: Precautions True or false: allergic reactions and triggers to immune-mediated reactions are biggest concern. | True. If such a reaction occurs, then all drugs in this class should be avoided. |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Cell Wall Agents: Precautions True or false: this class should not be used in hind-gut fermenters such as guinea pigs or rabbits due to the destruction of normal bacterial flora. | True |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Protein Synthesis Agents ___ interfere with the production of protein in bacterial cells. | Aminoglycosides |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Protein Synthesis Agents Aminoglycosideds are specialized group of antibiotics with a broad spectrum of activity, used for gram-___ bacteria. | negative |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Protein Synthesis Agents Aminoglycosides are not absorbed well from the GI tract, so are given ___. | parenterally |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Protein Synthesis Agents What are two possible side effects of Aminoglycoside use? | nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Protein Synthesis Agents Name three examples of Aminoglycosides: | gentamicin, neomycin, amikacin |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Protein Synthesis Agents How can we monitor for Aminoglycoside Nephrotoxicosis? | BUN, Sp. Gr., Urine sediment for cellular casts |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Protein Synthesis Agents How often should monitoring of BUN, Sp. Gr., and Urine sediment for cellular casts be performed when using Aminoglycosides with concern for Nephrotoxicosis? | Monitoring should begin on day 3 of therapy and be repeated daily while on this class of drugs. |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Protein Synthesis Agents True or false: Aminoglycosides therapy should be avoided if renal damage is present prior to therapy. | True |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Protein Synthesis Agents ___ interfere with the production of protein in bacterial cells, and are a group of antibiotics with broad spectrum of activity, including rickettsial agents. | Tetracyclines |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Protein Synthesis Agents True or false: Tetracyclines can bind to calcium and be deposited in growing bones and teeth, or bind components of antacids and other mineral-containing compounds. | True |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Protein Synthesis Agents Name four examples of Tetracycline drugs. | tetracycline, oxytetracycline, doxycycline, and minocycline. |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Protein Synthesis Agents True or false: Tetracyclines should not be given to neonates before permanent teeth have erupted. | True |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Protein Synthesis Agents True or false: Doxycycline, a Tetracycline drug, can cause esophageal damage in cats. Water by syringe or feeding should occur immediately after giving pills (not dairy). | True |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Protein Synthesis Agents True or false: Tetracycline drugs may cause sudden death if given IV to horses. | True |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Protein Synthesis Agents True or false: Tetracyclines should be avoided in pregnant animals. | True |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Protein Synthesis Agents Chloramphenicol interferes with the production of protein in bacterial cells. It is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that penetrates tissues and fluids well. This includes what two hard to reach areas? | Eyes and CNS |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Protein Synthesis Agents Chloramphenicol is effective against ___. | Toxoplasmosis |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Protein Synthesis Agents Chloramphenicol has toxic side effects that extremely limit use. Name one toxic side effect and what a technician can do to stay safe and should tell the client to keep them safe. | bone marrow depression. Wear gloves to administer. |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Protein Synthesis Agents ___ interfere with the production of protein in bacterial cells, and are broad-spectrum antibiotics that have large molecular structure. | Macrolides |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Protein Synthesis Agents Macrolides are used to treat ___-resistant infections or in animals that have allergic reactions to ___. | penicillin. penicillins. |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Protein Synthesis Agents Name three examples of Macrolides: | erythromycin, tylosin, and tilmicosin. |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Antimetabolites ___ are broad-spectrum antibiotics that inhibit the synthesis of folic acid (needed for the growth of many bacteria). | Sulfonamides |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Antimetabolites Name four side effects of Sulfonamide therapy: | crystalluria, KCS (keratoconjunctivitis sicca "dry eye"), platelet disorders, and skin rashes (especially in Cocker Spaniels and Dobermans). |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Antimetabolites Sulfonamides may be potentiated with ___. | trimethoprim |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Antimetabolites - Sulfonamides Name three examples of these drugs: | sulfadiazine/trimethoprim, sulfadimethoxine, and sulfadimethoxine/ormetoprim. |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Nucleic Acid Agents ___ are broad-spectrum antibiotics. They can be recognized by -floxicin ending in drug name. Side effects include development of bubble-like cartilage lesions in growing dogs, and crystalluria. | Fluoroquinolones |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Nucleic Acid Agents Fluoroquinolones can cause vision damage in cats receiving high dose therapy. Name five examples of these drugs. | enrofloxacin, ciprofloxacin, orbifloxacin, difloxacin, marbofloxacin. |
| Classes of Antibiotics: Metronidazole Mechanism of action: Unknown. It is effective against ___ and anaerobic bacteria. Also has anti-inflammatory effect in intestines. What is one precaution with this therapy? | protozoa (Giardia). Can cause neurologic signs (nystagmus) if used at high doses or for long periods of time. |
| Anti-fungal Agents Antifungals are chemicals used to treat diseases caused by ___. | fungi (mold or yeast). |
| Anti-fungal Agents Some fungal diseases are ___ (ringworm); others are ___ (blastomycosis). | superficial. systemic. |
| Anti-fungal Agents Categories of antifungals include (4): | Polyene antifungal agents. Imidazole antifungal agents. Anti-metabolic antifungal agents. Superficial antifungal agents. |
| Anti-fungal Agents ___ antifungals work by binding to the fungal cell membrane. | Polyene antifungals |
| Anti-fungal Agents Name two examples of Polyene antifungals and what they are used for. | Nystatin: used orally for Candida albicans infections. Amphotericin B: used IV for systemic mycoses. |
| Anti-fungal Agents: Polyenes ___ is extremely nephrotoxic, is light sensitive, and can precipitate out of solution. | Amphotericin B. It is only used for life-threatening systemic fungal infections. |
| Anti-fungal Agents: Imidazole True or False: work by causing leakage of the fungal cell membrane. | True. Examples: Ketoconazole, Itraconazole, Fluconazole. |
| Anti-fungal Agents: Imidazole Precaution: ___ or ___ damage is a major concern with this class of drugs, especially because they are usually given for months to years. | liver and kidney |
| Anti-fungal Agents: Anti-metabolic ___ is a systemic drug usually given to treat dermatophytes (ringworm); accumulates in keratin; prevents fungal mitosis. | Griseofulvin |
| Anti-fungal Agents: Anti-metabolic: Griseofulvin It is a anti-metabolic systemic drug with the potential for liver and/or bone marrow damage, especially in ___. | cats |
| Anti-fungal Agents: Anti-metabolic: Griseofulvin It is ___ so should not be used in pregnant animals. | Teratogenic |
| Anti-fungal Agents: Anti-metabolic: Griseofulvin Best absorption of this drug is accomplished when given with a ___ meal. | fatty |
| Anti-fungal Agents: Superficial Agents ___ is given orally to treat yeast infections of the mouth or GI tract (Thrush-Candidias). It is not absorbed systemically. | Nystatin |
| Anti-fungal Agents: Superficial Agents Topical Ointments - name some common antifungal ingredients. | ketoconazole, clotrimazole (in Otomax); nystatin (Panalog); thiabendazole (Tresaderm). |
| Anti-viral Agents ___ are intracellular invaders that alter the host cell's metabolic pathways. | Viruses |
| Anti-viral Agents Antiviral drugs act by preventing viral ___ of the host cell or by inhibiting the virus' production of ___ or ___. | penetration. RNA or DNA. |
| Antiviral Drugs used in Veterinary Practice ___, which interferes with the virus's synthesis of DNA; used to treat ocular feline herpes virus infections. | Acyclovir |
| Antiviral Drugs used in Veterinary Practice ___, which protects host cells from a number of different viruses; used to treat ocular feline herpes virus infection & FeLV; canine papilloma virus. An immunomodulator can also be used for certain neoplasia. | Interferon |
| Antiviral Drugs used in Veterinary Practice ___ is an amino acid that may help in suppressing feline herpesvirus; competes with arginine in virus structure building (recently controversial). | Lysine |
| Antiviral Drugs used in Veterinary Practice True or false: Oseltamivir (Tamiflu): used in human influenza, prevents infected cells from releasing virus, possible use in canine and equine influenza. | True |
| Antiviral Drugs used in Veterinary Practice True or false: Zidovudine (AZT) - most commonly used in cats, may be helpful in FIV, probably not helpful with FeLV. | True |
| Antiviral Drugs used in Veterinary Practice True or false: in general, anti-viral drugs are expensive, toxic in cats, and illegal to use in poultry. | True |
| Chapter 12 Review Questions 1 Different types of bacteria can be distinguished with the use of a ___ stain. | Gram |
| Chapter 12 Review Questions 2 Gram-positive bacteria will stain what color? | dark blue or purple |
| Chapter 12 Review Questions 3 Gram-negative bacteria will stain what color? | pink or red |
| Chapter 12 Review Questions 4 ___ is approved for use in lactating dairy animals. | Naxcel (antibiotic) |
| Chapter 12 Review Questions 5 ___ can cause staining of teeth in young animals. | Tetracyclines |
| Chapter 12 Review Questions 6 ___ should never be given intravenously to horses. | Tetracycline |
| Chapter 12 Review Questions 7 Some aminoglycosides may be ___-toxic and/or ___-toxic. | ototoxic or nephrotoxic |
| Chapter 12 Review Questions 8 Griseofulvin is used to treat: | dermatophytosis |
| Chapter 12 Review Questions 9 A drug's ___ of activity is the range of bacteria affected by its action. | spectrum |
| Chapter 12 Review Questions 10 True or false: Aerobes are bacteria that require oxygen to live. | True |
| Chapter 12 Review Questions 11 True or False: A fungicidal agent inhibits the growth of fungi. | False |
| Chapter 12 Review Questions 12 True or False: A bacteriostatic agent inhibits the growth of bacteria. | True |
| Chapter 12 Review Questions 13 True or False: Penicillin-G benzathine is a long-acting antibiotic that is approved for use in dairy animals. | False |
| Chapter 12 Review Questions 14 All the following drugs are classified as penicillins, except (cephalexin, amoxicillin, ampicillin, cloxacillin). | cephalexin |
| Chapter 12 Review Questions 15 Naxcel is not approved for use in lactating dairy animals. | False |
| Chapter 12 Review Questions 16 Clindamycin is classified as a: | tetracycline |
| Chapter 12 Review Questions 17 True or False: Veterinarians commonly dispense aminoglycosides to patients with renal insufficiency. | False |
| Chapter 12 Review Questions 18 Enrofloxacin is a: | fluoroquinolone |
| Chapter 12 Review Questions 19 True or false: Amphotericin B may be used in the treatment of mycotic fungal infections. | True |
| Parasitology Terminology ___ is a parasite that infects internal organs including: stomach, intestines, heart, lung, kidney, liver, and muscle. | Endoparasite |
| Parasitology Terminology A ___ is a parasite that infects the hosts in or on the skin. | Ectoparasite |
| Parasitology Terminology A ___ is an infection that can be transmitted between animals and people. | Zoonoses |
| Parasitology Terminology A ___ is a unicellular organism. These parasites include: Giardia, Coccidia, and Toxoplasma. | Protozoa |
| Parasitology Nematodes are ___. They include Ascarids, Hookworms, and Heartworm. Name one of each. | Roundworms. Ascarids: Toxocara. Hookworms: Ancyclostoma. Heartworm: Dirofilaria. |
| Parasitology Trematodes are also called: | Flukes |
| Parasitology: Trematodes (Flukes) Fasciola hepatica is common to ___, infecting the bile ducts. It causes weight loss, anemia, liver failure, and death. Does it have zoonotic potential? Describe two methods of prevention. | ruminants. Yes. Control intermediate host: snails. Treat sheep and cattle to prevent environmental contamination. |
| Parasitology Cestodes are also called: | tapeworm |
| Parasitology: Cestode (Tapeworms) Echinococcus zoonosis presents due to hydatid cyst. True or false: tumor that can contain parasite cysts, common locations include liver & lung, must be surgically removed? | True |
| Parasitology: Cestode (Tapeworms) Echinococcus zoonosis: What are three preventative measures? | Treat dogs for Echinococcus to prevent contamination. Do not feed raw meat to dogs. Good hygiene after working with dogs or soil. (Echinococcus is immediately infective). |
| The Ideal Parasiticide Name five: | Selective toxicity: Kills parasite, but does not injure patient or personnel. Does not induce resistance in parasite. Economical. Effective against all parasite stages with one application. Easy to use. |
| Chapter 13 Review Questions Name five types of symbiotic relationships: | Predator-prey, Commensalism, Mutualism, phoresis, parasitism |
| Chapter 13 Review Questions What is parasitiasis? | Occurs when an animal is infected with parasites but not clinical signs can be observed. |
| Chapter 13 Review Questions What is parasitosis? | Occurs when an animal is infected with parasites and clinical signs can be observed. |
| Chapter 13 Review Questions What are ectoparasites? | Infest the outside of the body. |
| Chapter 13 Review Questions What are endoparasites? | Infect the inside of the body. |
| Chapter 13 Review Questions An animal with endoparasites is said to be ___, and an animal with ectoparasites is said to be ___. | infected, infested |
| Chapter 13 Review Questions ___ dips should never be used on cats. | organophosphate |
| Chapter 13 Review Questions Praziquantel is a drug that is used to rid the body of ___. | tapeworm |
| Chapter 13 Review Questions IGR is an acronym for ___. | Insect Growth Regulator |
| Chapter 13 Review Questions An example of ___ is the bacterium Moraxella bovis, etiologic agent of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis (pink eye) mechanically carried from eyes of one cow to anothers on the sticky feet of face fly Musca autumnalis. | phoresis |
| Chapter 13 Review Questions Ivermectin, moxidectin, and doramectin are in the ___ class. | Avermectin |
| Chapter 13 Review Questions All of the following are monthly heartworm preventatives, except ____. (milbemycin oxime, selamectin, heartgard plus, diethylcarbamazine) | diethylcarbamazine |
| Chapter 13 Review Questions ___ is the commonly used formamidine in veterinary medicine. | Amitraz |
| Chapter 13 Review Questions ___ is a topical solution that controls ascarids, hookworms, and tapeworms in felines. | Emodepside/praziquantel (Profender) |
| Chapter 13 Review Questions An arsenic compound administered by deep intramuscular injection in the lumbar region is: | melarsomine dihydrochloride |
| Chapter 13 Review Questions Albendazole is the active ingredient found in ___. | Valbazen |
| Chapter 13 Review Questions An organophosphate is a substance that can interfere with the function of the nervous system by inhibiting the enzyme: | Cholinesterase |
| Chapter 13 Review Questions Advantage has greater efficacy against ___, and Frontline has greater efficacy against ____. | fleas, ticks. |
| Chapter 13 Review Questions ___ are parasitic worms, including intestinal roundworms, filarial worms, lung worms, kidney worms, heart worms, etc. | Nematodes |
| ___ (macrocyclic lactones) gind to glutamate chloride channels in the parasite nerve and muscle cells, causing paralysis and death of the parasite. | Avermectins |
| What drug is the representative of the Avermectin group of drugs used for a wide variety of endo- and ectoparasites. (nematodes, ear mites). | Ivermectin |
| True or false: Ivermectin is not effective against cestodes (tapeworm) and trematodes (flukes). | True |
| Ivermectin Toxicosis What breed is most susceptible? | Collie Breeds |
| Ivermectin Toxicosis What causes Collie Breeds to be most susceptible to Ivermectin Toxicosis? | Inherited abnormality of the blood-brain barrier. |
| Ivermectin Toxicosis What are four clinical signs? | Sedation. Ataxia. Dilated pupils. Coma possible (puppies). |
| Ivermectin Toxicosis What can be done to prevent this from happening? | Ivermectin Susceptibility Testing -Test of MDR1 gene. Cheek cells. Or EDTA blood sample. Cost $60. Washington State University (confirmed 1/2021) |
| Antinematodals ___ work by interfering with cell division (energy metabolism) at a protein unique to worms. | Benzimidazoles |
| Antinematodals: Benzimidazoles Are effective against ___ and ___. | Ascarids & Strongyles |
| Antinematodals: Benzimidazoles True or false: they are generally safe when used as directed in many species. | True |
| Antinematodals: Benzimidazoles True or false: they are recognized by the -azole ending in the drug name. | True |
| Antinematodals: Benzimidazoles ___ has a wide spectrum of activity; given for three consecutive days. | Fenbendazole |
| Antinematodals: Benzimidazoles ___ is used in topical products. | Thiabendazole |
| Antinematodals ___ mimics the action of acetylcholine on nicotinic receptors, causing muscle paralysis of parasite. | Pyrantel |
| Antinematodals Pyrantel is effective against ___ and ___. | roundworms and hookworms |
| Antinematodals True or false: Pyrantel is considered very safe in many species. | True |
| Heartworm Disease First published description of heartworm in the dog in US was in ___ in the Journal of Medicine & Science. | 1847 |
| Heartworm Disease The etiological agent of this disease is: | Dirofilaria immitis |
| Heartworm Disease Dirofilaria immitis is a ___ that occurs throughout the world. | Nematode |
| Heartworm Disease True or false: it has been reported in all 50 states. | True |
| Heartworm Life Cycle Host with ___ is bitten by mosquito. | microfilaria |
| Heartworm Life Cycle Microfilaria develop through L_, L_, L_ stages in mosquito over __ weeks. | L1-3, 2 weeks. |
| Heartworm Life Cycle Mosquito bites new host and transmits ___. | L3 microfilaria |
| Heartworm Life Cycle ___ travel to vessels of lung and heart to develop into adults. How long does this take generally? | L3 (6 months) |
| Heartworm Life Cycle True or false: Adults breed and shed microfilaria into blood. | True |
| Heartworm Disease in Dogs How is it diagnosed? (4) | Clinical signs. Radiographs of lungs & heart. Ultrasound of heart. Blood tests: direct smear, Modified Knott's Test. Filter Technique. ELISA (Antibody/Antigen) |
| Heartworm Disease: Key Points True or false: both dogs and cats get heartworm in endemic areas. | True |
| Heartworm Disease: Key Points Dogs tend to get ___ disease. Cats tend to get ___ disease. | heart, lung. |
| Heartworm Disease: Key Points True or false: monthly preventative is recommended year round in dogs and cats in endemic areas (including indoor animals). | True |
| Heartworm Disease: Key Points True or false: it only takes one mosquito bite to transfer disease. | True |
| Prevention of Heartworm Disease Preventing third-stage larvae from reaching maturity. ___ is a daily oral preventative given during mosquito season and two months after. Patient must be heartworm negative. | Diethylcarbamzine (DEC) |
| Prevention of Heartworm Disease Preventing third-stage larvae from reaching maturity. Name two once-monthly oral preventatives: | Ivermectin (Heartguard) Milbemycin (Sentinel, Trifexis, Interceptor) |
| Prevention of Heartworm Disease Preventing third-stage larvae from reaching maturity. Name one once-monthly topical preventative: | Selamectin (Revolution) |
| Treatment of Heartworm Disease: Adulticide Therapy Name one. It is given in the epaxial muscles. Less toxic than former drug (thiacetarsamide). Side effects include nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxicity. | Melarsomine |
| Treatment of Heartworm Disease After Melarsomine is administered for adulticide therapy, what is done to eradicate circulating microfilariae after infection? | Ivermectin (given at higher dose as a microfilaricide), Milbemycin |
| Anticestodals/Antitrematodal The combo ___/___ causes increased permeability of calcium. This causes parasite paralysis. Weakens tapeworm cuticle exposing it to host antibodies. Droncit, Drontal, Cestex. | Praziquantel & Epsiprantel |
| Anticestodals/Antitrematodal What needs to be done to prevent rapid reinfection of tapeworms/flukes after Praziquantel & Epsiprantel treatment? | Effective flea control |
| Antiprotozoals ___ is a protozoal disease caused by the parasite Giardia. | Giardiosis |
| Antiprotozoals What are three drugs used to treat Giardiosis? Is there a vaccine available? | Metronidazole (enters the protozoal cell and interferes with its ability to function and replicate). Fenbendazole. Albendazole. Yes, Giardia Vax |
| Antiprotozoals True or false: blood protozoan Babesia sp. is transmitted by ticks. | True |
| Antiprotozoals What are two methods of treatment? | Imidocarb has cholinergic effects on the protozoan. Tick prevention. |
| Anticoccidials Coccidiosis is a protozoal infection that causes ___ disorder. | intestinal |
| Anticoccidials These drugs are coccidiostats. What exactly does that mean? | They do not actually kill the parasite, so hygiene is crucial. |
| Anticoccidials ___ (Albon) reduces the number of oocysts shed, thus reducing spread of the disease. | Sulfadimethoxine |
| Anticoccidials Some of these drugs work mainly by affecting the protozoan's metabolism. Name one: | Amprolium. Similar to thiamine causing thiamine antagonism. Toxicity in animals is a result of thiamine deficiency. |
| Ectoparasite Treatment True or false: they can be controlled using a variety of drugs and formulations. Name 4-9. | Sprays, Dips, Pour-ons, shampoos, dusts or powders, foggers, oral products, spot-ons, injectables. |
| Ectoparasite Treatment Name three chemicals used for treatment. | Pyrethrins and pyrethroids. Insect growth regulators. Chitin synthesis inhibitors. |
| Chemicals Used for Ectoparasite Treatment Describe five precautions. | Always read product labels to determine what safety procedures to follow. May need protective clothing. May need special disposal techniques. Proper ventilation is crucial. Keep and refer to MSDS prior to use and if signs of toxicity occur in the animal. |
| Chemicals Used for Ectoparasite Treatment What is the origin of Pyrethrins? | Derivative of chrysanthemum flowers |
| Chemicals Used for Ectoparasite Treatment What is the mode of action of Pyrethrins? | They affect the nervous system of insects and result in repeated and extended firings of the nerves. They do this by affecting the flow of sodium out of nerve cells. They stun insects, but are able to recover. |
| Chemicals Used for Ectoparasite Treatment How are Pyrethrins used? | They are mainly found in products applied directly on the pet. Household products generally contain either pyrethrins, a combination of pyrethrin and permethrin pyrethrins plus a synergist. |
| Chemicals Used for Ectoparasite Treatment How can Pyrethrins be used safely? | All pyrethrins are easily hydrolyzed and degraded by stomach acid, so toxicity following ingestion by pets is very low. A cat or dog with pyrethrin toxicosis generally will salivate, tremor, vomit, and may seizure. |
| Chemicals Used for Ectoparasite Treatment ___ inhibit cholinesterase activity, causing ACh to remain active in the neuromuscular junction of the parasite. | organophosphates |
| Chemicals Used for Ectoparasite Treatment True or false: organophosphates are neurotoxic to parasites; some cause neurologic side effects in the host. | True |
| Chemicals Used for Ectoparasite Treatment True or false: organophosphates are both endoparasitic and ectoparasitic. | True |
| Chemicals Used for Ectoparasite Treatment Organophosphates have a ___ range of safety; not for use in heartworm-positive dogs. | narrow |
| Clinical Signs of OP (Organophosphate) toxicity What does the acronym SLUDDE or SLUDGE stand for? What does it indicate? | Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, Dyspnea, Emesis or Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, GI distress, and Emesis |
| Amitraz Use? | Treat demodectic mange (dip) or ticks (collar) |
| Amitraz Mode of action? | a2 agonist |
| Amitraz What are two side effects. What is one caution? | Sedation and incoordination are common up to 72 hours. Never used in cats due to toxicity. |
| Insect Development Regulators Mode of Action? | The IDIs inhibit the synthesis of a substance called chitin. Chitin is necessary for the formation of the hard outer skin (cuticle) of the flea. No chitin, no adult flea. |
| Insect Development Regulators Use? | Many IDIs are used in the environment as ingredients in foggers and sprays. They are also applied topically to cats and dogs, given orally, or by injection. |
| Insect Development Regulators Safety? | Because IDIs alter a unique insect process (the making of chitin, which mammals do not make), they are extremely safe. |
| Insect Development Regulators Name three examples: | Fipronil (Frontline). Imidacloprid (Advantage, Advantix), Lufenuron* (Program, Setinel) *also works against ringworm |
| Nitenpyram (Capstar) is approved in cats and dogs to kill ___. | adult fleas |
| Nitenpyram (Capstar) Mode of Action? | Interferes with the nerve conduction system of insects, blocking the nicotinic nerve receptors. |
| Nitenpyram (Capstar) Use? | Starts killing adult fleas that are on the pet within 30 minutes. Any fleas on the pet will be dead within several hours. It will not work for on-going control as the medication is out of the pet's system within 24 hours. |
| Nitenpyram (Capstar) Safety? | Appears to be safe. It is safe for kittens and puppies 4 weeks and older, weighing 2 pounds or more, as well as for pregnant or nursing cats and dogs. |
| Clinical Signs of GI Disease What are possible GI signs that we might wish to treat (6)? | Vomiting, nausea (decreased appetite), diarrhea, acid reflux, motility abnormality, gas accumulation |
| Monogastric Stomach Name five parts: | Cardia, fundus, body, pyloric antrum, pyloris |
| Gastric Motility Each area of the stomach has different motor functions: the Fundus and Body.... | relax with swallowing of food |
| Gastric Motility Each area of the stomach has different motor functions: the Body of the stomach.... | contracts to help mix food |
| Gastric Motility Each area of the stomach has different motor functions: the pyloric antrum... | increases contractions in response to swallowing; stimulates mixing, grinding, and propulsive contractions that move food toward the pylorus. |
| Gastric Motility Smooth muscle in stomach wall responds to ___, ___, and ____ system controls. | hormones, peptides, nervous system controls |
| Gastric Motility ___ stimulation causes fundus to relax and increases contractions in the antrum. | Parasympathetic stimulation |
| Gastric Motility ___ stimulation causes a decrease in motility - gastric atony. | Sympathetic stimulation |
| The Vomiting Reflex The __ __ __ (CTZ) and __ __ (VC) are regions within the brain. | Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone. Vomiting Center |
| The Vomiting Reflex When the Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ) and Vomiting Center (VC) are stimulated these regions initiate the: | vomiting reflex |
| The Vomiting Reflex True or false: different causes of nausea and vomiting stimulate the Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone and Vomiting Center in different ways. | True |
| The Vomiting Reflex: Triggers of Vomiting Nerve stimulation in the ___ center. | emetic |
| The Vomiting Reflex: Triggers of Vomiting Chemical stimulation in the ___ CTZ. | Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone |
| The Vomiting Reflex: Triggers of Vomiting True or false: distension or irritation of any part of the GI tract, peritoneum, kidney, gallbladder or uterus. | True |
| Emetics Are drugs that induce ___. | vomiting |
| Emetics True or false: are used in the treatment of poisoning and drug overdose. | True |
| What are four instances in which vomiting should not be induced. | If a caustic substance has been ingested. If the animal has decreased consciousness. If esophagus or stomach is at risk for rupture. In species incapable of vomiting (horse, rabbit, rodents). |
| Emetics True or false: can be centrally acting (working on the CRTZ)(Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone) or locally acting (irritating the GI tract). | True |
| Emetics What are two examples of Centrally acting substances? | Apomorphine and Xylazine (cats) |
| Emetics What are two locally acting substances? | Hydrogen peroxide (3%) and concentrated salt solutions |
| Antiemetics True or false: Are drugs that control vomiting by helping alleviate discomfort and help control electrolyte balance. | True |
| Antiemetics What route are they normally administered? Why? | Parenterally. The patient may vomit the medication before it can be absorbed through the GI tract. |
| Antiemetics Name six classifications. | Phenothiazine derivatives. Antihistamines. Anticholinergics. Prokinetic drugs. Serotonin receptor antagonists. NK-1 Receptor Antagonists. |
| Antiemetics: Phenothiazine derivatives How do they work? Name two possible side effects. What are four medications? | Inhibit dopamine in the Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ), thus decreasing the stimulation to vomit. Hypotension/sedation. Acepromazine, Chlorpromazine. Prochlorperzine. Perphenazine. |
| Antiemetics: Antihistamines How do they work? What is a common side effect? Name two drugs. | Controls vomiting when the vomiting is due to motion sickness, vaccine reactions, or inner ear problems by blocking input from the vestibular system to the CRTZ (Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone). Sedation. Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine), Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) |
| Antiemetics: Anticholinergics How do they work? | They block acetylcholine peripherally, which decreases intestinal motility and secretions. |
| Antiemetics: Anticholinergics The may decrease gastric ___ (which may increase the tendency to vomit)(not commonly used). | emptying |
| Antiemetics: Anticholinergics What are four side effects of these drugs? Name three examples of these drugs. | Dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, tachycardia. Aminopentamide, Atropine, and Propantheline. |
| Antiemetics: Prokinetic Drugs How do they work? | They work peripherally by speeding gastric emptying, strengthening cardiac sphincter tone, and increasing the force of gastric contractions. |
| Antiemetics: Prokinetic Drugs They should not be used in animals with GI (3): | obstructions, perforation, hemorrhage |
| Antiemetics: Prokinetic Drugs What are two example of these drugs? | Metoclopramide, cisapride |
| Antiemetics: Serotonin Receptor Antagonists How do they work? | On 5-HT3 (serotonin) receptors which are located peripherally and centrally. They work on the theory that some chemicals cause vomiting because they increase serotonin release from small intestinal cells. |
| Antiemetics: Serotonin Receptor Antagonists Name two drugs: | Ondansetron (Zofran), Dolasetron |
| Antiemetics: Cerenia (Maropitant citrate) True or false: This drug is a neurokinin (NK1) receptor antagonist that blocks the pharmacological actions of substance P in the central nervous system. | True |
| Mediators of GI Function ___ is produced by the G cells in the antrum of the stomach in response to protein, stretch, or parasympathetic nervous system. | Gastrin |
| Mediators of GI Function What does Gastrin do? | Increases production of hydrochloric acid. Inhibits muscle activity of the fundus (causes relaxation). |
| Mediators of GI Function ___ increase fluid and mucous in the GI system, decrease gastric acid, increase bicarbonate buffers, and increase blood flow to the region. | Prostaglandins |
| Mediators of GI Function: Hydrochloric Acid True or false: it is made up of Hydrogen (H+) and chloride (Cl-) ions secreted by parietal cells in the gastric glands combine in the stomach to produce it. | True |
| Mediators of GI Function: Hydrochloric Acid True or false: receptors on parietal cells for gastrin, histamine, and acetylcholine are involved in the regulation of H+ (Hydrogen) and Cl- (Chloride) secretion. | True |
| Mediators of GI Function: Hydrochloric Acid Selective blocking of one of these receptors ___ the production of stomach acid. | decreases |
| Mediators of GI Function: Ulcer Therapy Drugs Name five types: | Antacids, Histamine-2 receptor antagonist, Mucosal protective drugs, Prostaglandin analogs, Proton pump inhibitors. |
| Ulcer Therapy Drugs: Nonsystemic Antacids They are given ___ to directly neutralize acid. There are three forms. Name them and examples of medications. | Orally. Calcium base (Tums or Rolaids), Magnesium base (Mylanta or Maalox), and Aluminum base (Amphojel or Maalox) |
| Ulcer Therapy Drugs: Nonsystemic Antacids There is little use in veterinary medicine. Describe three reasons this is the case. | They are short-acting and difficult to administer. Possible electrolyte imbalances. Rebound increase in acid of calcium type. |
| Ulcer Therapy Drugs: Systemic Antacids Histamine-2 receptor antagonists must be absorbed into the blood stream to exert effect. How do they work? Name three drugs. | Prevent acid reflux by competitively blocking the H2 (histamine) receptors of the parietal cells in the stomach, thus reducing gastric acid secretions. Cimetidine, Ranitidine, and Famotidine. |
| Ulcer Therapy Drugs: Systemic Antacids How do Mucosal protective drugs work? | Combine with protein to form an adherent substance that covers the ulcer and protects it from stomach acid and pepsin. |
| Ulcer Therapy Drugs: Systemic Antacids Thought of as a "gastric bandaid". It is excellent for esophagus erosions. Name an example of this type of drug. | Sucralfate (Carafate) |
| Ulcer Therapy Drugs: Systemic Antacids Prostaglandin analogs work by: | suppressing gastric secretions and increasing mucous production in the GI tract. |
| Ulcer Therapy Drugs: Systemic Antacids Name an example of a Prostaglandin Analog which is usually given to animals taking NSAIDs or high dose steroids for spinal emergencies. | Misoprostol (Cytotec) |
| Ulcer Therapy Drugs: Systemic Antacids True or false: Misoprostol (Cytotec) is the only drug (specifically a Prostaglandin Analog) that can "prevent ulcers." What are two contraindications? | True. Expensive and a common side effect is diarrhea. |
| Ulcer Therapy Drugs: Systemic Antacids How do Proton pump inhibitors work? | They bind irreversibly to the H+-K+-ATPase enzyme on the surface of parietal cells of the stomach. This inhibits hydrogen ion transport into the stomach so that it cannot secrete HCl. |
| Ulcer Therapy Drugs: Systemic Antacids What are two examples of Proton Pump Inhibitors? | Omeprazole. Lansoprazole. |
| Peristalsis True or false: consist of circular muscle contractions and wavelike movement along the tract that propel digestive tract contents along the tube ahead of them. | True |
| Peristalsis: Segmental Contractions True or false: consists of periodic circular muscle contractions that occur in different adjacent sites. This mixes digestive tract contents and slows their movement through the tract. | True |
| Small Intestine Digestion True or false: electrolytes, water, and vitamins are absorbed intact across the small intestine wall. | True |
| Small Intestine Digestion Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats are ___ digested. This chemical digestion involves enzymes associated with the microvilli in the lumen of the intestines. | chemical |
| Large Intestine What are three components? What are their primary functions? | Cecum (blind sac at ileocecal junction), Colon (some microbial digestion) and Rectum. Functions: recover fluids and electrolytes and store feces until they can be eliminated. |
| ___ is caused because the balance between fluid secretions and fluid reabsorption by the intestines is disturbed. What are six possible causes? | Diarrhea. Secretory diarrhea (enterotoxin or IBD), Malabsorption diarrhea (parvovirus), Exudate diarrhea, Osmotic diarrhea, Increased peristalsis, and a combination of above mechanisms. |
| Antidiarrheals They are drugs that either promote ___ or decrease ___ into the intestinal lumen. | reabsorption. secretion. |
| Antidiarrheals What are five types of drugs used for this purpose? | Anticholinergics. Protectants/adsorbents. Opiate-related agents. Probiotics. Metronidazole. |
| Antidiarrheals True or false: Protectants/adsorbents coat inflamed intestinal mucosa with a protective layer (protectants) or bind bacteria and/or digestive enzymes and/or toxins to protect intestinal mucosa from damaging effects (adsorbents). | True |
| Antidiarrheals: Protectants and Adsorbents Name three examples. What is a common side effect? | Bismuth subsalicylate (turns feces black)(avoid in cats), Kaolin/pectin, Activated charcoal. Constipation |
| Antidiarrheals: Anticholinergics They are used to treat ___ and ___. | tenesmus, vomiting. |
| Antidiarrheals: Anticholinergics Name five drugs: | Atropine, Aminopentamide (Centrine), Isopropamide, Propantheline, and Methscopolamine. |
| Antidiarrheals: Anticholinergics What are four common side effects of these drugs? | Dry mucous membranes, urine retention, tachycardia, constipation |
| Antidiarrheals: Opiate-related These are agents that control diarrhea by ___ both intestinal secretions and the flow of feces and ___ segmental contractions. | decreasing. increasing. |
| Antidiarrheals: Opiate-related Name three drugs: | Diphenoxylate (Lomotil), Loperamide (Imodium), and Paregoric. |
| Antidiarrheals: Opiate-related What are five side effects and one caution? | CNS depression, ileus, urine retention, bloat, constipation. Use less than 3 days. |
| Antidiarrheals True or false: a theory regarding the development of diarrhea is that anaerobic bacteria may increase due to disruption of normal GI flora. | True |
| Antidiarrheals What is one way to treat this (especially in the colon)? | use an antibiotic effective against the particular anaerobic bacteria |
| Antidiarrheals What are two antibiotics used to treat diarrhea that also have anti-inflammatory properties? | Metronidazole and sulfasalazine |
| Probiotics & Prebiotics True or false: the theory is that beneficial live microbes compete with pathogen bacteria. | True |
| A ___ must be given in a form that makes it to distal GI and is able to colonize the species treated. | Probiotic |
| A ___ is a non-digestible food that feeds beneficial GI microbes. | Prebiotic |
| Laxatives What do they do? What are two types? | Soften stool to prevent or treat constipation or to prevent tenesmus. Emollient laxatives and Bulk laxatives. |
| Laxatives: Emollients __ __ reduce stool surface tension and reduce water absorption through the colon, and ___ facilitate the passage of fecal material, increasing water retention in stool. | stool softeners. lubricants. |
| Laxatives: Emollients What are three examples? | Docusate sodium succinate (DSS), petroleum products, and mineral oil |
| Laxatives: Bulk-forming True or false: these are substances that absorb water into the intestine, increase fecal bulk, and stimulate peristalsis, resulting in large, soft stool production (which tends to look normal). | True |
| Laxatives: Bulk-forming True or false: they are not systemically absorbed, so side effects are rare. | True |
| Laxatives: Bulk-forming What are three examples? | Soluble fibers: psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid, polycarbophil, and bran |
| A ___ is given to induce aggressive emptying of intestinal tract, usually to prevent toxin absorption. What two forms are available? | Cathartics. Osmotic cathartics and Irritant cathartics. |
| Cathartics: Osmotic They pull water into the colon and increase water content in the feces, thereby increasing bulk and stimulating ___. | Peristalsis |
| Cathartics: Osmotic True or false: are salts or saline products that may cause electrolyte imbalances if absorbed systemically. | True |
| Cathartics: Osmotic What are three examples? | Lactulose, magnesium sulfate, and sodium phosphate (never used in cats). |
| Cathartics: Stimulant How do they work? | They increase peristalsis by chemically irritating sensory nerve endings in the intestinal mucosa. |
| Cathartics: Stimulant True or false: many are absorbed systemically and cause a variety of side effects. | True |
| Cathartics: Stimulant What are three examples? | bisacodyl, phenolphthalein, and castor oil |
| Appetite Stimulants ___ can be given IV to cats. | Diazepam |
| Appetite Stimulants ___ is a antihistamine that can be given on a chronic basis. | Cyproheptadene |
| Appetite Stimulants ___ is an antidepressant in people that increases serotonin levels. | Mirtazapine |
| Appetite Stimulants True or false: anabolic steroids like testosterone, Ghrelin Agonists (Entyce for dogs), and CBD from hemp can be used. | True |
| Ruminants The ___ is the true stomach. | Abomasum |
| Ruminants Name the forestomachs. | Reticulum, rumen, omasum |
| Rumen Stasis Normal rumen motility is decreased or stopped. What are three things that will result from this? | Results in decreased nutrient absorption. Gas accumulation. Change in rumen pH and microbe balance. |
| True or false: a Ruminatoric stimulates parasympathetic nervous system. | True. Neostigmine is an example. It prolongs acetylcholine action on synapse. |
| Anti-bloat Drugs ___ drugs work by reducing or preventing the formation of foam. They make this foam less stable, breaking it up to promote gas release through belching (eructation). | Anti-foaming drugs |
| Anti-bloat Drugs How are anti-foaming drugs administered? | They are solutions administered directly by stomach tube into the forestomach. |
| Anti-bloat Drugs What are three examples of Anti-foaming drugs? | poloxalene, polymerized methyl silicone, and DSS |
Created by:
Raevyn1
Popular Veterinary sets