What three common reasons do we have for performing a UA?

Assess kidney function and CBC/chemistry profile. Evaluate urinary tract disease (infection, inflammation, uroliths, neoplasia). Diagnose causes of polyuria/polydipsia.

Name four urine sample collection methods.

Floor or litter box. Free catch (have owner bring in). Catheterization. Cystocentesis (best when urine culture needed.

Sample Handling of urine. Why do we refrigerate?

Ideal to evaluate at body temp (w/i 30 minutes). If delay of longer than 60-90 minutes. Warm to room temperature before evaluation.

Name the four part of the Urinalysis.

Gross inspection (macroscopic). Specific gravity (refractometer). Chemical analysis (dipstick). Microscopic examination of sediment (with or without SediStain). Be consisitent (i.e. practice).

When performing the macroscopic evaluation of urine, what five characteristics are you recording?

Collection method (+date and time). Volume. Color. Turbidity. Odor.

Visual Inspection of Urine Brown/black indicates?

Methemoglobin, myoglobin, bile pigments

What does the specific gravity of urine indicate?

Density of urine relative to distilled water (urine solute concentration).

Why are refractometers the best instrument for evaluating specific gravity?

Reproducible results. Temperature compensated. Calibrated for dogs and cats. Calibrate with distilled water. (should read 1.000)

What are normal specific gravity results for dogs and cats? What does that indicate?

Dog: >1.030 Cat: >1.035 Adequate concentration (kidneys working)

What specific gravity indicates Hyposthenuria?

<1.008 (Kidneys working at diluting)

What specific gravity indicates Isosthenuria? What does that result indicate?

1.008 - 1.012 (plasma concentration). Kidney not working.

When using a Dipstick, it is important to remember these four things:

Read at time specified on bottle. Keep dipsticks clean and dry. Keep track of expiration date. Dipsticks are not accurate for: Leukocytes, Urine specific gravity, Urobilinogen, Nitrite.

Describe the process of urine sediment preparation.

Leave sediment and 1/2 mL supernatant in tube. Mix (flick) sediment and supernatant. Place drop on clean slide w/ coverslip. Phase contrast-lower light/condenser.

Why is it important to review urine sediment slide ASAP?

Cells and casts begin to lyse within two hours of collection.

Why are urine stains not used?

Due to precipitates, bacterial contamination, and variable staining.

Describe the process of urine sediment examination.

Lower condenser to increase contrast. Scan at low power (10x) assess quantity & quality, casts, crystals (scan entire prep, be consistent). Evaluate at high power (40x) at lease 10 fields for RBCs, WBCs, epithelials, organisms, lipids, casts, crystals.

When recording bacteria during UA, (bacilli) rods are found ___ or ___, and cocci in ___, ___, or ___.

Rods: single or chains. Cocci: pairs, chains, single (suspect artifact).

UA - Casts Hyaline casts can indicate:

Proteinuria. Dehydration. Post fluid therapy.

UA - Casts Granular casts can indicate:

Renal tubular degeneration/necrosis.

Significance of crystals in urine depends on:

clinical signs, amount of crystalluria, type of crystalluria, and other abnormal findings in the urine.

What are two other names for a Struvite crystal?

Triple phosphate. Magnesium Ammonium Phosphate.

Calcium Oxalate Dihydrate crystals can be found in a normal health animal's urine. What Calcium Oxalate crystal is found in urine of animals that have ingested Ethylene glycol (antifreeze)?

Calcium Oxalate Monohydrate (dumbbell or coffin lid shaped.)

To perform a bacterial culture on urine in-clinic, what three items would you need?

10 ul disposable calibrated loop. Inoculated agar plate (drop, line, and zig zag). Inoculated thioglycolate broth (one stick does the trick).

What is a Neurologic Exam?

Systematic evaluation of all parts of the neurological system by evaluating clinical responses and movements of the animal.

Why are Neurological Exams performed?

Localize abnormal areas of the neurological system. Monitor improvement or decline in neurologic function.

Name the three parts of the neurologic system:

Brain, Spinal Cord, Peripheral Nerves

Name two jobs of the Brain:

Mental Function & Control of body functions

Name two jobs of the Spine:

Local Function. Communication with the Brain.

Name the five major components of the neurological exam:

Mentation status, Gait & Posture, Cranial Nerve Exam, Postural Reactions, Spinal Reactions

Mentation Status What is QAR?

Quiet Alert Responsive.... can be normal in animals or seniors

Mentation Status Describe Dull:

Aware of environment; blunted response

Mentation Status Describe Disoriented/Stupor:

Aware of environment; inappropriate responses

Mentation Status Define Obtunded:

Will only respond to very strong stimuli.

What is included in the Cranial Nerve Exam? Why do we do it?

A series of tests to evaluate the sensory and motor functions of the 12 cranial nerves. Abnormalities can locate the problem to a very specific portion of the brain.

Examples of Cranial Nerve Exam What is the Palpebral Reflex Arc?

Light tap on the medial canthus of the eye produces a blink of the eyelids.

Help

Options

focusNode

Didn't know it?
click below

Knew it?
click below

Don't Know

Remaining cards (0)

Know

retry

shuffle

restart

0:00

Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

Normal Size Small Size show me how

ADV Clinical Lab Sci

Up to Cytology from P Lecture and PP notes

Question	Answer
What three common reasons do we have for performing a UA?	Assess kidney function and CBC/chemistry profile. Evaluate urinary tract disease (infection, inflammation, uroliths, neoplasia). Diagnose causes of polyuria/polydipsia.
Name four urine sample collection methods.	Floor or litter box. Free catch (have owner bring in). Catheterization. Cystocentesis (best when urine culture needed.
Specimen tubes Conical tubes are used for?	U/A and Sediment
Specimen tubes Sterile (clear top tube) is used for?	Culture or other testing
What is an ideal volume for UA?	5-15 mL
Sample Handling of urine. Avoid:	Freezing and heat
Sample Handling of urine. Why do we refrigerate?	Ideal to evaluate at body temp (w/i 30 minutes). If delay of longer than 60-90 minutes. Warm to room temperature before evaluation.
Urine samples should be evaluated within:	6-8 hours of collection
Name the four part of the Urinalysis.	Gross inspection (macroscopic). Specific gravity (refractometer). Chemical analysis (dipstick). Microscopic examination of sediment (with or without SediStain). Be consisitent (i.e. practice).
When performing the macroscopic evaluation of urine, what five characteristics are you recording?	Collection method (+date and time). Volume. Color. Turbidity. Odor.
Visual Inspection of Urine Dark - Light Yellow indicates a ____ color?	Normal
Visual Inspection of Urine Brown/black indicates?	Methemoglobin, myoglobin, bile pigments
Visual Inspection of Urine Red indicates?	hemo/myoglobin, blood
Visual Inspection of Urine Green indicates?	Biliverdin
Visual Inspection of Urine Yellow/orange indicates?	Bilirubin, concentrated urine
When centrifuging urine sample, after specific gravity has been measured and the dipstick has been assessed, how long do we spin it for?	5 minutes
What does the specific gravity of urine indicate?	Density of urine relative to distilled water (urine solute concentration).
When evaluating specific gravity, remember to do so before ___ and ___.	Fluid therapy and meds
True or false: dipsticks are not accurate when evaluating specific gravity.	True
Why are refractometers the best instrument for evaluating specific gravity?	Reproducible results. Temperature compensated. Calibrated for dogs and cats. Calibrate with distilled water. (should read 1.000)
What are normal specific gravity results for dogs and cats? What does that indicate?	Dog: >1.030 Cat: >1.035 Adequate concentration (kidneys working)
What specific gravity indicates Hyposthenuria?	<1.008 (Kidneys working at diluting)
What specific gravity indicates Isosthenuria? What does that result indicate?	1.008 - 1.012 (plasma concentration). Kidney not working.
When using a Dipstick, it is important to remember these four things:	Read at time specified on bottle. Keep dipsticks clean and dry. Keep track of expiration date. Dipsticks are not accurate for: Leukocytes, Urine specific gravity, Urobilinogen, Nitrite.
Describe the process of urine sediment preparation.	Leave sediment and 1/2 mL supernatant in tube. Mix (flick) sediment and supernatant. Place drop on clean slide w/ coverslip. Phase contrast-lower light/condenser.
Why is it important to review urine sediment slide ASAP?	Cells and casts begin to lyse within two hours of collection.
Why are urine stains not used?	Due to precipitates, bacterial contamination, and variable staining.
Describe the process of urine sediment examination.	Lower condenser to increase contrast. Scan at low power (10x) assess quantity & quality, casts, crystals (scan entire prep, be consistent). Evaluate at high power (40x) at lease 10 fields for RBCs, WBCs, epithelials, organisms, lipids, casts, crystals.
When recording bacteria during UA, (bacilli) rods are found ___ or ___, and cocci in ___, ___, or ___.	Rods: single or chains. Cocci: pairs, chains, single (suspect artifact).
UA - Casts Hyaline casts can indicate:	Proteinuria. Dehydration. Post fluid therapy.
UA - Casts Granular casts can indicate:	Renal tubular degeneration/necrosis.
True or false: Crystalluria is not a disease.	True
Significance of crystals in urine depends on:	clinical signs, amount of crystalluria, type of crystalluria, and other abnormal findings in the urine.
What are two other names for a Struvite crystal?	Triple phosphate. Magnesium Ammonium Phosphate.
Calcium Oxalate Dihydrate crystals can be found in a normal health animal's urine. What Calcium Oxalate crystal is found in urine of animals that have ingested Ethylene glycol (antifreeze)?	Calcium Oxalate Monohydrate (dumbbell or coffin lid shaped.)
To perform a bacterial culture on urine in-clinic, what three items would you need?	10 ul disposable calibrated loop. Inoculated agar plate (drop, line, and zig zag). Inoculated thioglycolate broth (one stick does the trick).
What is a Neurologic Exam?	Systematic evaluation of all parts of the neurological system by evaluating clinical responses and movements of the animal.
Why are Neurological Exams performed?	Localize abnormal areas of the neurological system. Monitor improvement or decline in neurologic function.
Name the three parts of the neurologic system:	Brain, Spinal Cord, Peripheral Nerves
Name two jobs of the Brain:	Mental Function & Control of body functions
Name two jobs of the Spine:	Local Function. Communication with the Brain.
Name two types of Peripheral Nerves:	Cranial Nerves & Spinal Nerves
Name the five major components of the neurological exam:	Mentation status, Gait & Posture, Cranial Nerve Exam, Postural Reactions, Spinal Reactions
Mentation Status What is BAR?	Bright Alert Responsive
Mentation Status What is QAR?	Quiet Alert Responsive.... can be normal in animals or seniors
Mentation Status Describe Dull:	Aware of environment; blunted response
Mentation Status Describe Disoriented/Stupor:	Aware of environment; inappropriate responses
Mentation Status Define Obtunded:	Will only respond to very strong stimuli.
Mentation Status Describe Coma:	Will not respond to stimuli.
What is included in the Cranial Nerve Exam? Why do we do it?	A series of tests to evaluate the sensory and motor functions of the 12 cranial nerves. Abnormalities can locate the problem to a very specific portion of the brain.
Examples of Cranial Nerve Exam What is the Palpebral Reflex Arc?	Light tap on the medial canthus of the eye produces a blink of the eyelids.
Examples of Cranial Nerve Exam What is the Pupillary Light Reflex (PLR)?	Normal response to shining light in the eye of an animal is for the pupil in both eyes to constrict. Main and secondary (which is less pronounced).
Evaluation of Gait & Posture What four pieces of anatomy are evaluated in this test?	Evaluation of: Cerebellum & Vestibular centers of the brain, Spinal Cord, musculoskeletal system.
What is the most common Gait and Posture evaluation that veterinary technicians monitor?	Conscious Proprioception (CP)
How is a Conscious Proprioception (CP) test performed? What does a Normal response look like? Abnormal? Severely abnormal?	While supporting much of the animals body weight, have them stand on a non-slippery surface. Gently place their toes of each foot with the cranial aspect on the ground.
Conscious Proprioception (CP) test What does a Normal response look like?	Normal: animal will immediately return foot to normal plantar or palmar position. Abnormal
Conscious Proprioception (CP) test What does an Abnormal response look like?	Animal is slow to correct paw placement.
Conscious Proprioception (CP) test Describe a Severely abnormal response.	Animal will not correct paw placement.
Postural Reactions are tests of the complex recognition of body location in the environment and appropriate responses to the situation. Name five of these tests:	Conscious Proprioception. Hemiwalking. Hopping. Wheelbarrowing. Postural Thrust.
Spinal Reflexes Check function of ___ ___ at a specific site. Does not evaluate if spinal messages are perceived by the brain. Name three tests.	spinal cord. Myotatic reflexes (hammer test). Withdrawal reflex (Deep pain). Cross-extensor.
Withdrawal Reflex Results in:	contraction or flexing of muscles
Endoparasites ___ ___ are a causative or contributing factor in many ___ and ___ problems. Greatest single cause of colic in horse.	Internal parasites. Respiratory, digestive.
Name four of the most common internal parasites in horses:	Bots (Gasterophilus), Pinworms, Strongyles, Ascarids.
Why are "Horse Bots" unusual?	Adult form: ectoparasite (bot fly). Larval form: endoparasite (bot). In late summer/early fall, adult botflies lay eggs on horses. Stimulated by the horse's licking, larva hatch, enter mouth, in a month: migrate to stomach and obstruct small intestine.
True or false: horses are the only species (besides humans) to get pinworms.	True
Pinworms are an annoyance to horse due to ___ ___ ___. How are they ingested?	Severe anal itching. Consumed with contaminated water, grain, hay, grass.
Describe the characteristics of a pinworm infestation in horses. How is it diagnosed?	Rubbing of the tail and anal region causing broken tail hairs and bare patches. Diagnosed: cellophane tape mount.
Equine Tapeworms: Cestodes Provide simple description of their life cycle:	An intermediate host, an orabitid or free-living mite, abundantly found in pastures, eats the tapeworm eggs (which develop for 2-4 months in the mite before reaching infective or cysticercoid stage. As a horse grazes it ingests the mites.
Equine Tapeworm: Cestodes What are some clinical signs:	Aside from usual signs of parasitism (rough haircoat), lethargy, loss of appetite, diarrhea) it is hard to diagnose because tapeworm eggs are not readily found in feces.
Equine Tapeworm: Cestodes What are segments, containing eggs, called?	proglottids
What are Strongyles?	Refers to a large group of closely related nematode species: also called blood worms.
Why are Strongyles dangerous?	The immature worms migrate through the blood vessels of the intestines. May result in fatal colic.
Clinical signs of Strongyles in horses?	Animal may lose condition, weaken, have diarrhea, and become anemic. Arterial aneurysms may occur if an artery ruptures; can cause sudden death of a otherwise health horse.
Parascaris equorum: Equine ascarid (roundworm) Found in the ___ ___, particularly young foals. Eggs can be easily recovered on ___ ___ ___.	small intestine. standard fecal float.
True or false: There are several species of nematode (round worm) found in the stomach of horses.	True
Name the Nematode affecting cattle, sheep, and goats in which adult worms are found in the bronchi.	Cattle lungworm - Dictyocaulus. Eggs are coughed up and swallowed then hatch into the intestine producing larva that can be recovered in feces.
Name the liver fluke of cattle, sheep, and other ruminants found in bile ducts of the liver.	Fasciola hepatica
What parasite of sheep and goats produces eggs that develop in the lungs, first-stage larva coughed up, swallowed, and passed out with the feces?	"Hair lungworm" Meullerius capillaris
Haemonchus contortus (Barber Pole Worm) True or False: This GI nematode presents a great danger to goats.	True. Adult worms feed on blood, mate in stomach, produce 5,000 - 10,000 eggs per day.
What are the clinical signs of Haemonchus contortus in goats?	Anemia, low PCV, diarrhea, dehydration, reduced reproduction, death.
How are goats infected with Haemonchus contortus?	When they begin to graze. Larva burrow into the abomasum (true stomach).
Haemonchus contortus are a ___ threat but are most prevalent in __ U.S. They are cylinder shaped, tapered at both ends, and have a complete digestive system.	Worldwide, SE
Haemonchus contortus (Barber Pole Worm) causes what two obvious visual clinical signs?	White mucous membranes. Fluid accumulation in the lower jaw: "bottle jaw"
When performing a Fecal Flotation (Use Fresh Feces), what is the optimal about used to perform the test?	2 grams
Complete Blood Count (CBC) What does this test measure?	The number of cells of different types circulating in the bloodstream: RBC, WBC (Neutrophils-PMNS, Lymphocytes, Monocytes, Eosinophils, Basophils), Platelets.
Complete Blood Count (CBC) What is the name for increased red blood cells? What does it indicate?	polycythemia, dehydration
Complete Blood Count (CBC) Neutrophils can be decreased in pets with:	bone marrow disease, some viral infections. Pets receiving cancer chemotherapy drugs, as well.
Complete Blood Count (CBC) Neutrophils can be increased in pets with:	inflammation or infection of any part of the body or in animals receiving prednisone or other cortisone type drugs.
Complete Blood Count (CBC) ____ help fight infection and produce antibodies against infectious agents, such as viruses, bacteria, etc.	Lymphocytes
Complete Blood Count (CBC) Lymphocytes may be increased in puppies and kittens with:	infections
Complete Blood Count (CBC) Lymphocytes can be decreased in pet:	who are severely stressed or in cases of severe diarrhea. Certain drugs such as prednisone (a cortisone type drug) are also a possible cause.
Complete Blood Count (CBC) Monocytes may be increased in pets with:	chronic infections
Complete Blood Count (CBC) Eosinophils and basophils are increased in pets with:	allergic diseases and parasitic infections (worms, fleas, etc.)
Complete Blood Count (CBC) ___ are produced in the bone marrow and are involved in the process of making a blood clot.	platelets
Packed Cell Volume (PCV) Is another:	measure of red blood cells. It is the percent of blood that is cells, compared to the total volume of blood.
Packed Cell Volume (PCV) How is it performed?	A small amount of blood is placed in a tiny glass tube and spun in a centrifuge. Blood cells pack to the bottom and fluid floats to the top.
Packed Cell Volume (PCV) What is the normal percentage in cats and dogs?	40-50% red blood cells
___, a small protein produced by the liver, acts as a sponge holding water in blood vessels. When blood ___ is decreased, the pressure created by the heart forcing blood through the blood vessels causes leaking that accumulates in body cavities or tissue.	albumin
Albumin is decreased if:	the liver is damaged and cannot produce an adequate amount or it is lost through damaged intestines or in urine due to kidney disease.
What is indicated when an animal is found to have increased albumin?	dehydration
When alkaline phosphatase is increased, in the blood stream of a dog, the most common causes are:	liver disease, bone disease, or increased blood cortisol either from Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing's Disease) or administration of prednisone or similar drugs.
When alkaline phosphatase is increased, in the blood stream of a cat, the most common causes are:	liver and bone disease
___ is an enzyme produced by liver cells. Liver damage causes ___ to increase in the bloodstream.	ALT. Its increase does not provide information about whether or not the liver disease is reversible.
Amylase is an enzyme produced by the ___ and the ___ ___.	pancreas, intestinal tract
Amylase helps the body:	breakdown sugars
___ may be increased in the blood of animals with inflammation (pancreatitis) or cancer of the pancreas.	Amylase
True or false: some pancreatitis is difficult to diagnose and some dogs and cats with pancreatitis will have normal amounts of amylase in their blood.	True
Lipase is another ___ ___ which is responsible for the breakdown of fat and which may be increased in patients with pancreatic inflammation or cancer.	pancreatic enzyme
___ ___ are produced by the liver and are involved in fat breakdown.	Bile acids
A bile acid test is used to evaluate:	the function of the liver and blood flow to the liver.
Patients with abnormal blood flow to the liver, a condition known as ___ ___, will have abnormal levels of bile acids.	portosystemic shunt
The bile acid study measures:	a fasting blood sample and a blood sample two hours after eating.
___ is produced by the liver from old red blood cells.	Bilirubin
Bilirubin is broken down and eliminated in both:	urine and stool
Bilirubin is increased in the blood of patients with:	types of liver disease, gallbladder disease, or in patients in which their bodies are destroying red blood cells faster than normal (hemolysis).
Large amounts of bilirubin in the bloodstream will give a ___ color to non-furred parts of the body called ___.	yellow, jaundice or icterus
In what three tissues is jaundice (icterus) most commonly recognized in the body?	eyes, inside ears, gums
Name three things that influence the level of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) in the body.	the liver, kidneys, and dehydration
___ ___ ___ (___) is a waste product produced by the liver from proteins in the diet, and is eliminated from the body by the kidneys.	blood urea nitrogen
A low BUN can be seen in:	liver disease
Increased levels of BUN is seen in pets with:	kidney disease
The kidneys lose __% of their function before BUN levels increase.	75%
Why do severely dehydrated pets have increased BUN?	The kidneys of these patients don't get a normal amount of blood presented to them, so the waste products do not get to the kidneys to be eliminated.
True or false: abnormally high calcium in the blood occurs much more commonly than low calcium.	True
High blood calcium is most commonly associated with:	cancer.
Less common causes of elevated calcium are:	chronic kidney failure, primary hyperparathyroidism (over-function of the parathyroid gland), poisoning with some rat bait and bone disease
Low blood calcium many occur in dogs and cats:	just before giving birth or while they are nursing their young. This is called Eclampsia. Most common in smaller breeds of dogs.`
Eclampsia causes an animal to have rigid muscles, which is called ___.	tetany
Name two additional causes of low blood calcium (other than eclampsia):	malfunction of the parathyroid glands with produce PTH (controls blood calcium levels), animals poisoned with antifreeze (ethylene or propylene glycol)
Cholesterol is a form of:	fat
True or false: it is much less common for cats to have increased cholesterol.	True
What are some diseases that cause elevated cholesterol in dogs:	hypothyroidism, Cushing's disease, diabetes, kidney diseases that cause proteins to be lost in the urine.
High cholesterol ___ predispose dogs and cats to heart and blood vessel disease.	does not
Creatinine is a waste product that originates from ___ and is eliminated from the body by the ___.	muscles, kidneys
An elevation of creatinine is due to:	kidney disease, dehydration
Both ___ and ___ increase in the bloodstream at the same time in patients with kidney disease.	BUN, Creatinine
What is a quick test that can be perform to establish whether an elevation of glucose is transient or permanent?	UA. If the glucose is chronically elevated there will be an increased amount of glucose in the urine.
What is an iatrogenic cause of increased glucose in the dog or cat?	stress or excitement during blood draw (transient).
Phosphorus in the blood stream originates from bones, like calcium, and is also controlled by PTH (parathyroid hormone). It is increased in the bloodstream of animals with:	chronic kidney disease. Like Creatinine and BUN, this increase is not seen until after 75% of the kidneys have been damaged.
Potassium increase in the bloodstream is caused by:	acute kidney failure (can be caused by antifreeze poisoning), Addison's disease, animals with obstructed or ruptured bladder.
Potassium is lost from the body in:	vomit, diarrhea, urine. Animals that are not eating.
Low potassium can cause animals to:	feel weak and cats may develop painful muscles
Low sodium is most commonly seen with:	Addison's disease (hypoadrenocorticism)
A Total Protein test includes:	albumin and larger proteins called globulins (including antibodies: protein molecules).
Total Protein can be increased in dogs or cats if:	the animal is dehydrated or if the pet's immune system is being stimulated to produce large amounts of antibodies.
Total Protein is decreased:	in animals with abnormal immune systems and cannot produce antibodies.
___ ___ is the driving force for blood flow (perfusion). It is required to move blood through resistant capillary beds such as those in the brain, kidneys, and lungs.	Blood pressure
What is the term for arterial pressure generated during left ventricular contraction?	Systolic pressure
What is the term for arterial pressure during ventricular relaxation?	Diastolic pressure
What is Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)?	Calculation that evaluates perfusion pressure. 1/3 Systolic + 2/3 Diastolic.
A MAP of ___ mmHg is considered the minimum rate for organ perfusion.	60 mmHg
Hypertension What are some consequences of extended periods of this condition?	Retinal hemorrhage/detachment, kidney damage, increased afterload for heart, brain damage, increased risk for emboli.
Hypertension is defined as (dogs & cats) > ___ mm Hg systolic and > ___ mm Hg diastolic	>150 mm Hg systolic, >90 mm Hg diastolic. They can occur independently. Not required that they occur concurrently.
Hypotension Leads to poor organ perfusion. What are four likely consequences of this condition?	kidney failure, pancreatitis, heart arrhythmias, cognitive dysfunction. MAP <60 mm Hg
What are three possible means of measuring blood pressure?	Oscillometric (Dinamap): quick, easy. Least accurate. Doppler: more accurate than oscillometric, especially in cats and small dogs. Central Venous Pressure: need jugular catheter in place.
Blood Pressure Measurement For accurate readings, the cuff size is important. The width should be __% of the circumference of the leg at measurement location.	40%.
If the cuff is too small for the animal having its blood pressure checked, the results will be artificially too ___, if it is too large, the results will be artificially too ___.	high, low
After checking the blood pressure of the animal, it is important to ___, in order for comparable results in the future.	record the size of the cuff used in the record
True or false: evaluating blood pressure in right lateral recumbent with front leg parallel to the heart is most accurate.	True
Describe the procedure for performing oscillometric blood pressure evaluation.	Choose correct cuff size. Place over artery (carpal or tarsal). May need to tape cuff on if velcro not sticking. Press “start." Ideally 3 readings are checked within a few minutes to verify accuracy.
NIBP (Non-invasive Blood Pressure) monitoring can be done at what three sites?	In right lateral recumbency: front left carpal artery, left rear tarsal artery, base of tail
Describe the procedure for performing Doppler blood pressure evaluation. Note: a quiet location is ideal.	Choose correct cuff size. Shave animal over pulse point. Place cuff proximal to pulse point w/ attached sphygmomanometer. Animal in lateral recumbency. Use ultrasound gel for ideal contact of doppler probe on pulse point. Listen for flow of blood.
How do you determine systolic and diastolic pressure with a Doppler machine?	Pump sphygmomanometer until sound is silent. Slowly release cuff pressure watching gauge. First return of sound is systolic pressure. Return of full sound is diastolic pressure. Repeat 3x for accurate reading.
Cardiac Anatomy The heart has four chambers (name them), as wells as one ___, and two ___ valves.	2 atria, 2 ventricles, 1 septum, 2 AV valves
What are two reasons that it is important that the cardiac cycle perform its functions in an efficient, synchronous manner?	To move oxygenated blood from lungs to tissues. To move de-oxygenated blood from tissues to lungs.
Cardia Cycle Heart muscle is relaxed and all chambers fill with blood, this is called:	diastole
Heart muscle contraction wave beginning at atria and then through ventricles moves blood from the heart chambers into the great vessels, this is called	systole
Blood Flow Through the Heart Veins collect ___ blood from the tissues.	deoxygenated
Blood Flow Through the Heart The vena cava empty into the ___ ___.	right atrium
Blood Flow Through the Heart Blood passes through right atrioventricular valve (tricuspid valve) into ___ ___ of the heart.	right ventricle
Blood Flow Through the Heart During systole, right ventricle constricts and tricuspid valve ___.	closes. Blood is ejected from the right ventricle through the pulmonary valve into the pulmonary arteries.
Cardia Output can be defined as the amount of blood that:	leaves the heart
Cardiac Output depends on two factors. What are they? Describe them.	Stroke volume: amount of blood ejected with each cardiac contraction. Heart rate: frequency of heart contraction.
What is the equation for finding CO (Cardiac Output)?	SV (Stroke Volume) x HR (Heart Rate)
True or false: vigorous exercise results in increased contractility, increasing stroke volume, and increased heart rate.	True
Cardiac Output Influence of autonomic nervous system: “fight or flight” response - sympathetic nervous system releases ___. This results in:	epinephrine. stroke volume and heart rate increase.
Cardiac Output General anesthesia - parasympathetic nervous system releases ___ which results in:	acetylcholine. stroke volume and heart rate decrease.
Heart Sounds What causes the "Lub"?	First heart sound. It is the AV valves closing at the beginning of diastole.
Heart Sounds What causes the "Dub"?	Second heart sound. It is the Pulmonic and aortic valves closing at the the end of systole.
The Immune System Is made up of all ___ and ___ involved in immune protection. It is present in all body tissues. List five locations.	structure and cells. Lymph nodes, tonsils, GALT (Gut Associated Lymphoid Tissue), Thymus, and Spleen.
What three types of cells are associated with the immune system?	Lymphocytes, Granulocytes (Neutrophils, Eosinophils, and Basophils), and Macrophages
Lymphocytes are associated with ___ immunity.	specific
Granulocytes are associated with ___ immunity.	non-specific
Macrophages are involved in ___ and ___ immunity.	specific and non-specific
___ (___) immunity requires identification of the antigen and then development of a defense specific to that antigen. (Lymphocytes and Macrophages)	Specific (acquired)
Specific Adaptive Immunity Attack is targeted against a specific antigen.	Specificity
Specific Adaptive Immunity Ability to have a fast, amplified response after the initial exposure to a specific antigen.	Memory
Specific Adaptive Immunity ___ ___ produce antibodies and are triggered by antigen presenting cells (macrophages).	B Lymphocytes
___ ___ are involved in cell-mediated immunity. They are triggered by antigen presenting cells.	T Lymphocytes
What is the study of the interaction between antibodies and antigens?	Serology
Identical antibodies all produced from one lymphocyte clone line against a specific antigen.	Monoclonal antibodies
Different Types of Antibodies Produced by the Body Neutralizes microbes and toxins. Long term protection.	IgG
Different Types of Antibodies Produced by the Body Mucosal Immunity	IgA
Different Types of Antibodies Produced by the Body Activation of complement. Immediate response.	IgM
Different Types of Antibodies Produced by the Body Parasitic infections and allergic reactions.	IgE
___ are proteins that recognize and bind to a particular antigen with very high specificity. They are made in response to exposure to the antigen.	Antibodies
One virus or microbe may have ___ antigenic determinant sites, to which different antibodies may bind.	several
How are antibodies made? Part 1 Clonal Selection: When a B cell encounters an antigen it recognizes, it is stimulated and divides into many clones called ___ ___, which actively secrete antibodies.	plasma cells
How are antibodies made? Part 2 Each B cell produces antibodies that will recognize only one ___ ___.	antigenic determinant
Formed when an antibody binds to an antigen it recognizes.	Antigen-Antibody Complex
Antibodies cause antigens (microbes) to clump together.	Agglutination
Antigen (microbe) is covered with antibodies that enhances its ingestion and lysis by phagocytic cells. What is this called?	Opsonization
Immune System Memory The amount of antibody in the serum.	Antibody titer
Immune System Memory: Pattern of Antibody Levels During Infection After initial exposure to antigen, no antibodies are found in serum for several days. After which you will see a ___ increase in titer, first ___ and then ___ is observed.	gradual. IgM. IgG.
Immune System Memory: Pattern of Antibody Levels During Infection After gradual increase in titer (IgM and IgG), Most B cells become ___ ___, but some B cells become long living ___ ___.	plasma cells. memory cells.
Immune System Memory: Pattern of Antibody Levels During Infection After initial gradual increase in antibodies, and the B cells become plasma cells or memory cells, there will be a gradual decline of ___.	antibodies
Immune System Memory Subsequent exposure to the same antigen displays a ___ and more ___ antibody response. Increased antibody response is due tot the existence of ___ ___, which rapidly produce ___ ___ upon antigen stimulation.	faster. intense. memory cells. plasma cells.
True or false: features of the specific immune response can be utilized to identify infection diseases.	True
Immunologic Lab Tests:
What is the rapid reappearance of antibody in the blood following introduction of an antigen to which the subject had previously developed a primary immune response called?	Anamnestic Response
___-___ immunity is an immune response that does not involve antibodies. Rather, cell-mediated immunity is the activation of phagocytes, antigen-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocytes, and the release of various cytokines in response to an antigen.	Cell mediated
Tests of Humoral Immunity include:	Serology. Manufactured monoclonal antibodies.
True or false: the only reason to run a test, is to use the results to adjust patient care or prognosis. Therefore, the ideal test would be both ___ and ___.	True. sensitive. specific.
Refers to the test's ability to correctly detect patients who DO have the condition.	Sensitivity
Refers to a test's ability to correctly detect patients WITHOUT a condition.	Specificity
___ refers to using antigen-antibody reactions in the laboratory for diagnostic purposes.	Serology
Uses antibodies in the test, called antiserum, to identify an antigen in the patient.	Direct Serology
Detects antibodies being made by the patient against a specific antigen.	Indirect Serology
Indirect Serology ___ measures an animal's antibody level against a specific disease. In order for the test to confirm an active infection, a ___ rise must occur in a ___ week period.	Titer. 4x. 2.
General Test Principles: Humoral Immunity Most tests are run on ___ or ___.	serum or plasma
General Test Principles: Humoral Immunity Samples may need to be ___ or ___ for transport.	chilled or frozen
General Test Principles: Humoral Immunity True or false: follow instructions for specific tests carefully, because principles may be similar, but incorrectly done will yield incorrect results. ___ steps are usually critical to prevent "false positives."	True. Wash.
ELISA stands for:	Enzyme-linked Immunosorbent Assay
ELISA tests use an ___ to recognize a specific protein (___).	antibody. antigen. An enzyme bound to the antibody causes a color change in a substrate.
True or false: the MORE color in an ELISA, the more Ab-enzyme complex is bound to target protein (antigen), indicating a higher (antigen) present.	True
What test has small latex spheres coated with antigen in it?	Latex Agglutination
Latex Agglutination If the patient serum contains ___ to the specific ___, the spheres will:	antibodies. antigen. Stick together. If the test is negative, the latex mixture will remain evenly dispersed.
In what type of test do containers hold colloidal gold attached to antibodies?	Immunochromatography
How is an Immunochromatography test performed?	Patient serum is added to a container containing colloidal gold attached to antibodies. If the patient's serum contains antigens that match antibodies in the test kit, antibody-antigen complexes form and a color change occurs.
True or false: Immunochromatography tests can be used for many antigens (such as hormones), not just infectious agents.	True
Name the very sensitive technique used to measure concentrations of antigens (for example: hormone levels) that requires specialized equipment and is costly. Special precautions must be used due to radioactive substances used in the test.	Radioimmunoassay
What testing technique labels antibodies or antigens with fluorescent dyes. The test is often used to visualize the sub-cellular distribution of bio-molecules of interest. Labeled tissue sections or cultures are studied using a ___ ___.	Immunofluorescence. fluorescence microscope.
What type of testing tests for antibodies against "self RBCs"?	Coombs Testing
In a ___ test, RBCs from the patient are mixed with antiserum. This antiserum contains antibodies to antibodies. If RBCs are coated with antibodies, they will agglutinate with antiserum.	Coombs Test. Usually antiserum is produced in another species specifically for testing purposes.
Blood Typing in Dogs What does DEA stand for?	Dog Erythrocyte Antigen
Blood Typing in Dogs DEA 1(group).1(subgroup) has the most potential for ___ reactions and is synonymous with ___ and ___ for dogs.	antigen. A+ and A-
Blood Typing in Dogs: Transfusions ___ blood can be given to any dog that has never before received a transfusion (universal donor).	A-
Blood Typing in Dogs: Transfusions If ___ blood is given to an A- dog, life-threatening anaphylaxis can occur within 45 minutes.	A+
Blood Typing: Cats Their blood can be designated as: ___, ___, or ___.	A, B, AB
Blood Typing Most cats are type:	A
Blood Typing: Cats Devon Rex, British Short-hair, Persian, and other purebreds may be ___ type. 15% of DSH cats in California are also this blood type.	B
True or false: there is no universal donor in cats.	True
True or false: AB cats are extremely rare, but can receive either A or B blood.	True
Describe the process of blood typing:	Whole blood is collected, spun, and separated. Red cells are washed 3x to prevent false positives. They are then mixed with an antiserum to specific blood types. Mixture is evaluated for agglutination.
Tests of Cell-Mediated Immunity: Tuberculin Skin Test Tuberculosis is caused by infections with ___ spp. To identify if an animal (or human) is a carrier, a TB test is performed.	Mycobacterium.
Describe the process of performing a TB test:	Purified tuberculin (Mycobacterium spp) is injected into the skin and the site is evaluated 72 hours later for an allergic reaction.
Purified tuberculin (Mycobacterium spp) is injected into the skin and the site is evaluated 72 hours later for an allergic reaction. This delayed allergic reaction is mediated by ___ ___ and is consistent with a carrier animal.	T-cells
What are some barriers of the innate immune system?	skin, physical and biochemical components of the nasopharynx, gut, lungs, and genitourinary tract. The commensal bacteria
Describe a commensal relationship:	neither benefits from the other or provokes any harm.
Technician Note: Total protein is estimated with a ___ or measured chemically with the ___ ___.	refractometer. biuret method.
Technician Note: Globulin concentration is estimated by calculating the difference between the ___ ___ and ___ ___.	total protein. albumin concentrations.
Technician Note: Increases in the unconjugated bilirubin population indicate problems with uptake from ___ ___. Increases in conjugated bilirubin indicate ___ ___ obstruction.	hepatic damage. bile duct.
Technician Note: The common enzyme tests of liver function that are performed in small animal veterinary practices are:	AST (Aspartate Transaminase) and ALT (Alanine Transaminase).
___ ___ can be used to evaluate cholestasis in small animals.	Alkaline phosphatase (AP)
What is cholestasis?	A liver disease. It occurs when the flow of bile from your liver is reduced or blocked.
Key Points Total plasma protein measurements include ___ values, whereas total serum protein determinations measure all of the protein fractions except ___.	fibrinogen
Key Points Total protein concentrations are especially valuable for determining an animal's state of ___.	hydration.
___ comprises 35% to 50% of the total plasma protein in most animals.	Albumin
True or false: Serum amyloid is an acute-phase protein that is correlated to specific diseases in some species.	True
Some liver function tests are designed to measure substances that are ___ and ___ by the liver or released when hepatocytes are damaged. Other liver function tests measure ___that have altered serum concentrations due to cholestatsis.	produced or modified. enzymes
Key Points In most animals, unconjugated bilirubin comprises approximately ___ of the total bilirubin in the serum.	2/3
Bile acids aid in ___ ___ and modulate cholesterol levels via bile acid synthesis.	fat absorption
Elevated SBA (serum bile acid?) levels usually indicate ___ disease. Name 3 - 5 of these diseases.	liver. congenital portosystemic shunts, chronic hepatitis, hepatic cirrhosis, cholestasis, neoplasms.
The "leakage enzymes" include ___, ___, ___, and ___.	alanine transaminase, aspartate transaminase, iditol dehydrogenase, glutamate dehydrogenase
ALT and AST are the most commonly performed ___ function tests for small animals.	liver
Alkaline phosphatases are derived from ___ organs.	many
Technician Note: The primary serum chemistry tests for kidney function are ___ ___ and ___.	urea nitrogen, creatinine
Elevated levels of urea and other nitrogen compounds in the blood.	Azotemia
Technician Note: True or false: Dehydration usually results in azotemia.	True
Technician Note: The total amount of creatinine is a function of the animal's total ___ ___.	muscle mass
Technician Note: ___ acid is the primary end product of nitrogen metabolism in birds. It is also seen in the urine of Dalmatian dogs.	Uric acid
Muscle contraction of the heart is carefully orchestrated by an electrical system which can be recorded by a:	electrocardiograph (ECG)
Electrical activity moves across the heart from the ___ node to the ___ node.	Sinoatrial node (SA node), Atrioventricular node (AV node
The Sinoatrial node (SA node) is also called the:	pacemaker
The Atrioventricular node (AV node) is also called the:	signal booster
What is the specialized area of cardiac muscle cells located in the right atrium called?	Sinoatrial node (SA node)
True or false: The Sinoatrial node generates electrical impulses that trigger repeated beating of the the heart.	True
Cardiac Cycle Impulses generated at the SA node travels from one muscle cell to the next in a ___ pattern. This causes ___ atria to contract. This contraction pushes blood through the ___ valves into the ___.	wave. both. AV valves. ventricles. This electrical impulse also travels quickly down the muscle fibers to the Atrioventricular node (AV node).
Cardiac Cycle From the AV node, the electrical impulse then spreads through the muscle cells in the ____.	ventricles. Travels down the interventricular septum to the bottom of the ventricles.
Cardiac Cycle Purkinje fibers carry impulses from the ___ ___ __ up into the ___ myocardium	Bundle of His. Ventricular.
A ___ is an instrument with graph paper that moves under a stylus.	electrocardiograph. Electrical currents cause the stylus to move up or down as the paper unrolls beneath it.
ECG Each electrical wave is related to heart muscle contraction. __ wave indicates ___ ___. QRS wave indicates when ___ ___, and the T wave indicates ___ ___.	atria contract. ventricles contract. muscle relaxation.
The process of generating electrical impulses is ___. This results from movement of cations (Na+, K+, or Ca++) INTO heart muscle cells. Systole results.	Depolarization.
In ___ cations are pumped out of the cell. This results in the outside of the cell having a more positive charge than the inside of the cell. Diastole results.	Repolarization.
Electrocardiogram (ECG) Depolarization of the atria is indicated by:	P wave
Electrocardiogram (ECG) Waves created by ventricular depolarization are indicated by:	QRS complex
Electrocardiogram (ECG) Repolarization of the ventricles is visualized by the:	T wave
Electrocardiograph A series of body surface ___ are placed at specific points on the legs and thorax that sense and record the heart's electrical activity.	electrodes
Electrocardiogram (ECG) Lead I	Right arm to Left arm
Electrocardiogram (ECG) Lead II	Right arm to Right leg
Electrocardiogram (ECG) Lead III	Left arm to Left leg
Electrocardiogram (ECG) The electrode we care about the most is the ___ electrode, which is always given a ___ polarity. Hence, we call it the ___ ___ ___.	Sensing. Positive. Positive Sensing Electrode.
Electrocardiogram (ECG) If the wave of depolarization is generally moving toward the positive sensing electrode, that electrode will record a ___ ___ above the isoelectric line on the ECG paper.	positive deflection
Electrocardiogram (ECG) If the wave of depolarization is generally moving away from the positive sensing electrode, then the electrode will record a ___ ___ below the isoelectric line on the ECG paper.	negative deflection
Electrocardiogram (ECG) If the depolarization is running perpendicular to the + lead then the result is at the base line, called the:	Isoelectric line
ECG Paper The smallest division on the paper is a one ___ box.	millimeter
ECG Paper The largest division on the paper is a ___ millimeter box @ 25 mm/second.	five
ECG Paper Each 1mm square on the paper in traversed in ___ seconds when the paper speed is set to 25 mm/second.	0.04
ECG Paper Each 5mm square on the paper traversed in ___ seconds when the speed is set to 25 mm/second.	0.20
ECG Paper Speed By international convention, the speed of the paper is ___ millimeters per second. This is the speed that makes all the tracings look appropriate for any lead that is being viewed.	25 millimeters per second
ECG Paper 1 mm box =	0.04 seconds
ECG Paper 5 mm box =	0.20
Heart Rate Determination from ECG Paper True or false: Because of the predictable ECG speed, we can count the number of boxes traversed over a period of time between heart beats to determine heart rate.	True
Obtain a six second tracing, ___ ___ mm boxes, and count the number of __ waves and multiple by ___ to obtain the HR/min.	30 (five mm), R, 10
ECG Recording Technique Step 1 Place the patient on a clean floor or ___ table. Attach ECG electrodes, moisten with ___ or ___ ___. Record in ___ lateral or ___ position. Keep patient as still and calm as possible.	non-metal, alcohol or electrode gel, right lateral or standing position.
ECG Recording Technique Step 2 Record lead II for __ - __ seconds @ __ mm/sec. Record brief tracing at __ mm/sec. If adjust you adjust to other than 1 cm=1mV hit the ___ key.	30 -60 second, 25mm/sec, 50mm/sec, marker
A ___ results from any abnormality in the rate, rhythm, or electrical generation of the heart beat.	Arrhythmia
Arrhythmias Abnormal impulse formation can be caused by (4):	Low oxygen, Hypocalcemia/Hypercalcemia, Cardiomyopathy, Heart tissue trauma/injury.
Arrhythmias Abnormal impulse conduction is caused by:	anatomic defect of electrical conduction system
Pathology Arrhythmias cause abnormal hemodynamics in body blood flow. Blood flow to the brain may be decreased by:	8-80%
A ___ ___ demonstrates altered hemodynamics. A heart beat does not generate matching pulse wave. Important for Vet Techs to monitor for.	pulse deficit
Heart Rhythms A ___ rhythm is a normal, steady rhythm.	Sinus rhythm
Heart Rhythms A ___ is a abnormal rhythm.	Arrhythmia
Bradycardia: ___ heart. Tachycardia: ___ heart. No contraction indicates: ___.	slow. fast. Asystole.
In a canine, bradycardia is less than ___ bpm.	60
In a canine, tachycardia is generally defined as greater than ___ bpm. In giant breeds it is greater than ___ bpm.	180. 160.
An arrhythmia with no organized atrial contraction, but "quivering" muscle tissue with decreased cardiac output due to poor ventricular filling of blood (ventricular contraction is relatively normal) is called ___ ___.	Atrial Fibrillation
Diagnosis of the arrhythmia, Atrial Fibrillation, is done with observation of a __ __ __ __ __ auscultation. An ECG evaluation will show a lack of a __ wave.	Tennis shoe in the dryer auscultation. P wave.
An arrhythmia characterized by a heart beat that is spontaneously generated from the Bundle of His independent of the SA node is called __ __ __. Individual ___s may not cause a problem, but groups of 7 or 80% ___s will cause hemodynamic problems.	Premature Ventricular Contractions (PVCs), PVCs, PVCs.
What are some causes of Premature Ventricular Contractions (PVCs)?	Hypoxia or heart trauma, anesthesia or toxins, heart disease (myocarditis, heart failure, heart tumor), electrolyte abnormalities (hyperkalemia)(excess blood potassium)(can indicate kidney function problems)
How are Premature Ventricular Contractions (PVCs) diagnosed?	Pulse deficit or ECG
Describe Ventricular Tachycardia. What does a ECG recording look like?	is a fast, abnormal heart rate. >130 bpm due to PVCs. Sudden death may occur. Must be treated. "Ghosts Holding Hands"
Chaotic electrical activity in the ventricles that may be reversed with electrical shock of a defibrillator is called __ __.	Ventricular fibrillation. Blood is not moved effectively. It is a rapidly fatal rhythm.
___ ___ ___ is a common small animal arrhythmia (especially with anesthesia). A ECG pattern is visible, but no pulse, no heart contraction.	Pulse-less Electrical Activity
Pulse-less Electrical Activity is fatal within ___, if not resuscitated.	minutes
A __ __ is a variation in rhythm associated with the breathing cycle. It is normal in certain species (canine, human). Most common in young, athletic animals.	Sinus Arrhythmia
What are five clinical signs of Endocrine Alopecia?	Bilateral symmetric flank alopecia, "rat tail," hyperpigmentation, dry coat/excess shedding, loss of curl (poodles)
General principles of Endocrine Testing True or false: Always follow laboratory sampling and handling directions exactly.	True
General principles of Endocrine Testing These test tend to be ____ and ___.	costly and time-consuming
General principles of Endocrine Testing Interpretation requires extreme test ___.	accuracy
General principles of Endocrine Testing Most samples can be frozen for ___ without artifact.	months
General principles of Endocrine Testing Medications may interfere with results. What is one thing you can do to assist laboratories?	Always list medications on lab forms.
General principles of Endocrine Testing True or false: more than one endocrinopathy in the same patient is common.	True
Function Tests What is the normal function of the Exocrine pancreas?	Production of digestive enzymes such as amylase and lipase.
Function Tests What is the normal function of the Endocrine pancreas?	Production of hormones to regulate carbohydrate metabolism such as insulin.
Persistent hyperglycemia is called:	Diabetes mellitus
Diabetes mellitus If "stress" artifact concern, elevated serum ___ is confirmatory.	fructosamine
As an animal's blood glucose becomes higher, more of the animal's hemoglobin becomes ____.	glycosylated. There is a Glycosylated hemoglobin test.
True or false: when trying to determine if an animal has Diabetes mellitus, blood insulin level is not usually helpful.	true
If an animal has glucosuria, but has normal serum glucose level, this indicates?	kidney disease
With Diabetes Mellitus, you will see serum glucose levels greater than ___ mg/dl in dogs, and ___ mg/dl in cats.	225 mg/dl in dogs, 280 mg/dl in cats
Diabetes mellitus Evaluation Prolonged hyperglycemia causes ___ of proteins.	glycosylation
Diabetes mellitus Evaluation True or false: transient, stress-induced hyperglycemia does not change proteins.	True
Diabetes mellitus Evaluation What test reflects blood glucose concentration over a three to four month period?	Glycosylated hemoglobin
Diabetes mellitus Evaluation What test reflects glucose levels over the previous 7 to 14 days?	Fructosamine
Glucose Curve In an ___ diabetic, glucose is monitored for safety only.	unstable
Glucose Curve In a ___ diabetic, a glucose curve is performed to ___ ___ insulin therapy.	stable (hydrated, eating). fine tune.
Diabetes mellitus What is the blood glucose goal?	300> BG >150
Glucose Curve Goals Determine duration of ___ of insulin. Establish ___ glucose and ___ glucose level. Determine ___ low glucose occurs.	action. high and low. when.
Describe the general approach to glucose curve generation.	Owner feeds animal and gives insulin in usual manner and schedule at home. Animal is brought to DVM and blood glucose is checked every 2-4 hrs. Ideally glucose is monitored for 12 hrs in dogs and 24 hrs in cats.
Glucose Curves help the DVM evaluate information and adjust: (4)	Insulin type, insulin dose, insulin frequency, feeding schedule.
Blood Insulin Levels True or false: measuring insulin for suspected diabetes is not helpful.	true
Insulin levels are measured to diagnose ___-___ ___. Blood glucose should be <50 at time of blood insulin level test.	insulin-secreting tumors
Insulinoma is a functional tumor of ___ ___ leading to excess secretion of insulin and chronic, severe hypoglycemia.	pancreatic cells
Clinical signs of insulinoma are ___, ___, ___, and ___.	weakness, collapse, disorientation, seizures
What is the treatment for insulinoma?	surgical removal or medical support.
Are insulinoma tumors malignant?	yes
Adrenal glands are located cranial to each ___.	kidney
Adrenal glands consist of an adrenal ___ and a adrenal ___.	medulla. cortex.
The adrenal ___ secrets corticosteriods (cortisol), ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic hormone: signal from the pituitary gland), and Mineralcorticoids (aldosterone).	cortex
What are the pros and cons of ACTH (signaled from the pituitary gland)?	Pro: anti-inflammatory, chronic stress (i.e. starvation) Con: decreased immune system function and muscle mass. Polyuria/Polydipsia (PU/PD)
Aldosterone, a mineralocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex, conserves ___ and ___ in kidney to maintain blood pressure. It is signaled by renin release by the kidney as part of a hormone cascade.	Na+ (sodium) and water
The adrenal cortex secretes small amounts of __ __.	sex hormones: Estrogens, Progesterones, Testosterones.
Adrenal Cortex Evaluation Tumors of adrenal cortex may cause ___ secretion of any of the hormones produced there. Aldosterone test should be run prior to administration of ___ or ___ ___ medication.	excess. fluids. blood pressure medication.
Low Dose Dexamethasone Suppression Tests (LDDS) are most sensitive in evaluating for ___.	Hyperadrenocorticism. Cushing's Disease.
How is the LDDS test performed?	Baseline blood is drawn. Pet is given IV dexamethasone. Blood is drawn again @ 4 hrs & 8 hrs. later. All blood is submitted for cortisol level.
True or false: an LDDS (low dose dexamethasone suppression) test can provide false positives if the animal is ill with another disease.	True
What is the test of choice for hypoadrenocorticism?	ACTH Stimulation Test
How is the ACTH test performed?	Blood is drawn. ACTH is given IV or IM. Blood drawn 30 min- 2hrs post (depends on species). Blood evaluated for cortisol and possible aldosterone and sex hormone.
Where is the thyroid located and what does it produce? How many lobes does it have?	Ventrolateral to the trachea. Caudal to the larynx. There are two lobes. It secretes: Thyroxine (T4) and Calcitonin.
___ is T3 and T4, the only ___-containing hormones. It is responsible for adjusting ___ rate in response to TSH from the ___.	Thyroxine. iodine. metabolic. pituitary gland.
Diseases of the Thyroid Insufficient production of T3/T4 in dogs, horses, pigs, and ruminants is called ___.	Hypothyroidism
Diseases of the Thyroid What disease is characterized by excess T4 production caused by tumors in thyroid. Usually benign but still a serious metabolic disease. What animal species is this commonly seen in? Is there an age component?	Hyperthyroidism. Cats. > 14 years old.
___ ___ is a normal response of thyroid glands to disease. Lowering of metabolic rate to protect from weight loss and cell death. Low T4 will be seen on blood evaluation. Care must be taken to not mistake this for hypothyroidism.	Euthyroid (YouThyroid) Sick
Evaluation of Thyroid Multiple aspects of thyroid axis may need to be evaluated together. Name four:	T4, fT4, TSH, Thyroglobulin antibodies
___ evaluation is best for diagnosing Hyperthyroidism.	T4
What three drug therapies will artificially lower serum T4 levels?	Sulfa drugs, phenobarbital, glucocorticoids
True or false: monitoring medication for hypothyroidism is important. Timing of last dose of medication is very important and must be known and recorded.	True
Free T4 is called ___. If run by equilibrium dialysis technique, it is the test of choice for diagnosing ___.	fT4. Hypothyroidism.
What three drug therapies will artificially lower T4 levels?	Sulfa drugs, phenobarbital, glucocorticoids
TSH stands for ___ ___ ___. It is secreted by the pituitary gland in a negative ___ loop. Elevations of TSH with low fT4 diagnose ___. TSH levels should normalize with appropriate treatment.	Thyroid Stimulating Hormone. feedback. Hypothyroidism.
What can interfere with T4 immunoassays, causing false elevations? This occurs in what percent of hypothyroid dogs? It does not affect fT4 results.	T4 antibodies. 10%.
___ ___ is the "Master Gland." It gives directions to the other ___ glands. It is also called the ___. Where is it located?	Pituitary Gland. Endocrine. Hypophysis. Ventromidline of the brain.
Pituitary Hormones Hormones of the Adenohypophysis are (6):	Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH), Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH), Growth Hormone (GH), Luteinizing Hormone (LH), Prolactin (PRL), and Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH).
Pituitary Hormones Hormones of the Neurohypophysis are (2):	Oxytocin, Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
Growth Hormone Excess GH, not uncommon in cats, is called ___. Clinical signs are (4):	Acromegaly. Diabetes mellitus, obesity, heart enlargement, bone abnormalities. If GH assay is unavailable (IGF-1 can be done instead).
Growth Hormone A pituitary dwarf has ___ GH, especially German Shepherds. They experience stunted growth and poor hair coat.	insufficient.
Parathyroid Evaluation Hyperparathyroidism caused by excess production of PTH leads to ____. What are three clinical signs and two possible causes of excess PTH?	Hypercalcemia. Kidney failure, neurologic signs, muscle weakness/tremors. Both benign and malignant tumors.
Parathyroid glands through the hormone PTH keep the right balance of ___ and ___ in normal function.	calcium and phosphorous
Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) Should be measured simultaneously with ___ level.	iCa (ionized Calcium)
iCa (ionized calcium) is the most accurate evaluation of blood ___ levels.	calcium
PTH-RP What does this stand for?	PTH (Parathyroid Hormone) Related Protein
PTH-RP Parathyroid Hormone-Related Protein is produced by ___ ___ that mimic PTH in the body.	malignant tumors
Elevated PTH-RP (Parathyroid Hormone Related Protein) is consistent with ___.	Malignancy
Technician Note Ch 54 Peritoneal and pleural fluid are evaluated for ___, ___, ___, and TNCC. What does TNCC stand for?	color, turbidity (transparency), odor, TNCC. Total Nucleated Cell Count.
Key Terms Ch 54 Squamous epithelial cells in vertebrate animals that have developed into tough protective layers. They are large, non-nucleated, and irregular in shape.	Cornified cell
Key Terms Ch 54 These are microscopic findings in the sputum of asthmatics. They are mucus plugs from subepithelial mucous gland ducts of bronchi. May occur in several different lung diseases.	Curschmann's spirals
Key Terms Ch 54 Fluid with increased cellularity and protein concentration as a result of inflammation.	Exudate
Key Terms Ch 54 Primary neoplasia of the lymph nodes.	Lymphoma
Key Terms Ch 54 Characterized by relatively low to moderate TNCCs, predominantly as a result of the leakage of lymphatics. This leakage is responsible for the high total protein concentration of ___ ___.	Modified transudate
Key Terms Ch 54 These are the smallest epithelial cells seen on a typical vaginal smear. They are round or nearly round and have a high nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio. ___ cells are conspicuously absent during estrus.	Parabasal
Key Terms Ch 54 A liquid made in the abdominal cavity which lubricates the surface of tissue that lines the abdominal wall and pelvic cavity. It covers most of the organs in the abdomen. An increased volume of this fluid is called ascites.	Peritoneal fluid
Key Terms Ch 54 A liquid that is located between the layers of the pleura. The pleura is a two-layer membrane that covers the lungs and lines the chest cavity.	Pleural fluid
Key Terms Ch 54 Lymph nodes that are responding to antigenic stimulation contain predominantly small, mature lymphocytes and are referred to as ___ ___ ___. They may also contain plasma cells, lymphoblasts, and intermediate lymphocytes.	Reactive Lymph Nodes
Key Terms Ch 54 Also called synovia, it is a viscous, non-Newtonian fluid found in the cavities of synovial joints. Egg white–like consistency. Principle role of __ __ is to reduce friction between the articular cartilage of __ joints during movement.	Synovial Fluid. synovial
Key Terms Ch 54 Typically have low protein concentrations and low TNCCs (less than 500/uL), with fairly normal differential counts or possibly an increase in the percentage of large mononuclear cells. (predominantly Mesothelial cells)	Transudate (Ascitic Effusions) Often secondary to congestive heart failure and seen in animals with low blood albumin concentrations.
Key Terms Ch 54 ?	Wave motion
To form or discharge pus.	Suppurate
Type of cells that line the pleura, the thin, double-layered lining covering lungs, chest wall, and diaphragm. They are know as ___ cells. These cells also form a lining around the heart (pericardium) and the internal surface of the abdomen (peritoneum).	Mesothelial cell
Epithelium derived from mesoderm that lines the body cavity of a vertebrate embryo and gives rise to epithelia (as of the peritoneum, pericardium, and pleura), striated muscle, heart muscle, and several minor structures.	Mesothelium
Red blood cells (RBCs) that are unequal in size. Normally RBCs should all be roughly the same size. This is usually caused by a condition called anemia.	anisocytosis
A larger than normal variation in the size of the nuclei of cells.	anisokaryosis
In histology & cytopathology, it describes variability in the size, shape and staining of cells and/or their nuclei. This can often be seen in animals with tumors.	pleomorphic
A smear has a mixture of mature lymphocytes, neutrophils, and an eosinophil. This is characteristic of a ___ transudate.	Modified transudate
Technician Note Ch 54 The evaluation of the cellular elements of fluid samples allows the samples to be classified as ___, ___, or ___.	exudates, transudates, modified transudates
True or False: hyperplasia, metaplasia, and dysplasia are reversible because they are results of a stimulus. Neoplasia is irreversible because it is autonomous.	True
___ is increased cell production in a normal tissue or organ. ___ may be a sign of abnormal or precancerous changes. This is called pathologic ___.	Hyperplasia
Also called, plasma B cells, they are white blood cells that originate in the bone marrow and secrete large quantities of proteins called antibodies in response to being presented specific substances called antigens.	Plasma cell
Technician Note Ch 54 ___ lymph nodes are characterized by a predominance of small, mature lymphocytes.	Normal
Key Points Ch 54 Peritoneal and pleural fluids are evaluated for ___, ___, ___, and TNCC.	color, turbidity (transparency), odor, and TNCC
Key Points Ch 54 Cells are ___ and ___ from samples of peritoneal and pleural fluids.	count, classified
Key Points Ch 54 The evaluation of cellular elements in fluid samples allows the samples to be classified as ___, ___, or ___.	exudates, transudates, modified transudates
Key Points Ch 54 In a normal lymph node, the predominant cell type is the ___, ___ lymphocyte.	small, mature
Key Points Ch 54 ___ ___ ___ contain predominantly small, mature lymphocytes as well as plasma cells, lymphoblasts, and intermediate lymphocytes.	reactive lymph nodes
Key Points Ch 54 Evaluations performed on ___ ___ include the assessment of fluid color, and turbidity; the cytologic examination of a direct smear; the subjective assessment of viscosity; and a TNCC, mucin test, and refractometric protein measurement.	synovial fluid
Key Points Ch 54 Abnormal tracheal washes are generally ___.	exudates
Key Points Ch 54 Yeasts, squamous cells, and Malassezia organisms are commonly isolated from ___ ___ and may not indicate pathology.	ear swabs
Key Points Ch 54 ___ ___ may contain a variety of epithelial cells in addition to neutrophils and erythrocytes.	Vaginal swabs
Key Points Ch 54 Epithelial cells that are present in ___ cytology samples may include small basal cells, slightly larger parabasal epithelial cells, noncornified squamous epithelial cells (intermediate cells), and cornified epithelial cells.	Vaginal
Add Chapter 54 Review Questions
Female Reproductive System Produces oocytes. Produces hormones.	Ovary
Female Reproductive System Transports oocytes.	Oviduct
Female Reproductive System Fetal development happens here. Produces hormones.	Uterus
Female Reproductive System Production of colostrum and milk occurs here.	Mammary Glands
Female Reproductive System: Stages of Estrous Cycle Female is receptive and can conceive.	Estrus
Female Reproductive System: Stages of Estrous Cycle Pregnancy or post-estrus period.	Diestrus
Female Reproductive System: Stages of Estrous Cycle Reproduction system resting	Anestrus
Female Reproductive System: Stages of Estrous Cycle Gestation refers to:	The length of pregnancy
Female Reproductive System: Stages of Estrous Cycle Gestation period is how long in the bitch and queen?	63 days
In order to establish female breeding soundness, what six evaluations must happen? What other three parameters can be looked at?	History, PE, Vaginal exam, Visual, Digital, Cytology. A blood evaluation, hormone check, and test for Brucellosis as well.
Why is female breeding soundness necessary? Why not just let nature take its course?	To establish why breeding didn't occur, such as the fertile period was missed. Incompatibility of the male and female (physical problems). Physicological or behavioral problems. Constraints on breeding time(s). Management of cycle due to shipping semen.
Female Reproductive System: Stages of Estrous Cycle When to Breed?	Behavior: such as flagging the tail or standing to be mounted. Physical: vulvar swelling, bloody discharge, vaginal cytology, ultrasound (ovarian follicular activity), hormone assay (progesterone or LH).
Female Reproductive System: Stages of Estrous Cycle What is the best way to determine the fertile period?	Hormone assay
Describe the procedure for Vaginal cytology collection.	Moisten a cotton swab with 1-2 drops of sterile saline. Open the vulvar lips, pull the vulva dorsally, insert the swab dorsally and posterior, then up and over the pelvic brim and into anterior vagina. About 2 inches in the dog.
Cytology Interpretation When no estrogen is present (anestrus/diestrus) the vaginal wall is very ___ and is comprised of ___ cells. In anestrus there will be very few cells and what you see will be debris and ___ cells.	thin, non-cornified, non-cornified
Vaginal cytology is an ___ assay. If ___ is low, the epithelium is thin and very few cell, non-cornified cell can be obtained.	estrogen
When estrogen rises during ___, the vaginal epithelium becomes hyperplastic and more cornified. During ___ the percent of cornified cells increases by about 10% a day until you see about 85% - 100% cornification during estrus.	proestrus
Vaginal cytology is an ___ assay. If ___ is high, the epithelium is thick and many cornified cells can be obtained.	estrogen
Vaginal Cytology Characteristics of Proestrus(3):	Red cells, Basal/Parabasal cells, begin to cornify.
Vaginal Cytology Characteristics of Estrus (3):	All squamous epithelial cells are cornified. Nuclei are rare. No PMNs (polymorphonuclear leukocyte)(Having a lobed nucleus. Used especially of neutrophil white blood cells.)
Vaginal Cytology Characteristics of Diestrus:	1st day of diestrus cells in swab abruptly change to around 50% non-cornified. When the smear changes from 100% -> 50% non-cornified cells = the 1st day of cytologic diestrus. There may also be an influx of PMNs to help clean up all the cellular debris.
Vaginal Cytology Characteristics of Diestrus (3):	Non-cornified epithelial cells reappear. PMNs present. This usually lasts from day 3 to 10 of diestrus.
Vaginal Cytology Characteristics of Anestrus (3):	No vulvar swelling. No vaginal discharge. Immature parabasal cells predominate.
Anuclear cell morphology	Cells have an angular cytoplasm and NO VISIBLE nucleus. Classified as cornified.
Superficial cell morphology	Cells have an angular cytoplasm and a NON-STIPPLED or PYKNOTIC nucleus. Classified as Cornified.
What is a pyknotic nucleus?	The irreversible condensation of chromatin in the nucleus of a cell undergoing necrosis or apoptosis. It is followed by karyorrhexis, or fragmentation of the nucleus.
Intermediate (basal cell) cell morphology?	Cells have more angular cytoplasm and a stippled nucleus. Classified as non-cornified.
Parabasal cell morphology?	Cells have round cytoplasm and a stippled nucleus. Classified as non-cornified.
When interpreting a Progesterone Assay, at what level do you want this hormone at to initiate breeding?	progesterone > 5ng/ml
Determines day of ovulation. Dog ova must capacitate 24 hours before they can be fertilized.	Luteinizing hormone
What happens during capacitation?	Undergo changes inside the female reproductive tract enabling them to penetrate and fertilize an ovum.
Male Reproductive System: Testes Sperm is made in the ___ ___.	seminiferous tubules
Male Reproductive System: Testes The ____ stores sperm.	epididymis
Male Reproductive System: Testes This reproductive organ secretes what hormone?	testosterone
Male Reproductive System: Testes Sperm travels through the ___ ___.	spermatic cord
Male Reproductive System: Testes The spermatic cord enters the body through the ___ ___.	inguinal ring
Male Reproductive System: Prostate Accessory gland that adds ___ to semen.	secretions
Male Reproductive System: Penis Passageway and ___ organ.	copulatory
Male Reproductive System: Ejaculate ___ is the clear, first portion seen during the initial thrusts.	pre-sperm
Male Reproductive System: Ejaculate ___ ___ is the white portion seen during thrusts.	sperm rich
Male Reproductive System: Ejaculate ___ ___ is the clear portion seen when thrusting is done. The ___ ___ is not needed for fertility. It can be collected to evaluate the prostate.	prostatic portion
Spermatozoa Anatomy The ___ contains enzymes to penetrate the oocyte.	acrosome
Spermatozoa Anatomy The ___ contains DNA.	head
Spermatozoa Anatomy The ___ contains mitochondria.	neck
Spermatozoa Anatomy The ___ provides locomotion.	tail
Testing done to establish male breeding soundness? (9 possible)	History, PE, Digital exam, Semen evaluation, Morphology, Motility, Blood test, Hormones, Brucellosis
Collection: Semen Evaluation What are five criteria for which this is evaluated?	volume, color, sperm motility (on warm slide), live/dead ratio, sperm morphology.
Sperm Morphology: Head Abnormalities Describe three:	Detached, Elongated, Double Head
Sperm Morphology: Tail Abnormalities Describe three:	Coiled, Bent, Droplet
What are three hormone test that can be run?	Thyroid (T4 & fT4), Testosterone, Estrogen.
Athrocentesis What is the purpose?	Evaluation of swollen joints or patient lameness
Athrocentesis What supplies are need to perform this test?	Surgical scrub prep. 25g or 22g needles. 3 cc syringe. EDTA collection tube (purple top). Sterile gloves. Glass slides. +/- culture medium
Athrocentesis: Patient Prep Describe two important points:	Sedation may be utilized. Shave and surgically scrub joints to be evaluated.
Athrocentesis: Tech Procedures Describe three responsibilities:	Equipment and patient prep. Patient positioning: chosen joint may need to be held in flexed position for sample collection. Sample handling and submission.
Thoracocentesis What is the purpose of this procedure?	Diagnostic: cytology and/or culture. Therapeutic: remove excess pleural fluid or air to enable lung expansion.
Thoracocentesis: Equipment What are eight items needed to perform this procedure (besides: sterile gloves, purple and red top vacutainers, and culture medium)?	Surgical scrub prep, 21 g butterfly needle or for large dogs 1 1/2" 22g needle on a sterile extension set. 3-way stopcock. Syringe (6 cc - 35cc) small volume in chest should be collected with low pressure (6cc). 2% lidocaine (9:1) with sodium bicarbonate.
Thoracocentesis: Patient Prep Effusion (pleural):	Sternal patient. Shaved on effected side(s) 7-10th rib space at costalchondral junction. Surgical scrub.
Thoracocentesis: Patient Prep Air (Pneumothorax):	Lateral, effected side up. Shaved at highest point of chest 7th rib space midpoint. Surgical scrub.
Abdominocentesis: Purpose Diagnostic?	Cytology or chemistry evaluation of abdominal effusion (ascites). Culture collection.
Abdominocentesis: Purpose Therapeutic?	Decrease abdominal pressure of excess fluid which can inhibit breathing and venous return.
Abdominocentesis: Equipment What seven items are needed?	Surgical scrub prep. 21 g butterfly needle or for large dogs 1 1/2" 22 g needle on sterile extension set. 3-way stopcock. Sterile gloves. Purple and red top vacutainers. +/- culture medium. Large volumes can be gravity collected into an empty IV fluid bag
Abdominocentesis: Patient Prep What three steps should be taken?	Shave lowest point of ventral abdomen cranial to urinary bladder. Surgical scrub. Restrain standing or if lying can spread across two tables with space between to access lowest point.
Transtracheal Wash: Purpose Evaluation of disease process inside lungs through what three tests?	Cytology. Culture. Occasionally parasitology.
Transtracheal Wash: Equipment What eight items are needed?	Surgical prep. Sterile gloves. Sterile saline. Sterile syringes 12-20cc. 12" sterile IV or Urinary Catheter. 2% lidocaine (buffered w/ Sodium Bicarbonate). Red and purple top vacutainers. Culture medium. Post procedure ointment and bandage material.
Transtracheal Wash: Patient Prep What six steps need to be taken?	Shave from larynx to 5 tracheal rings ventrally. Surgical scrub. Maintain patient in sternal position. Lidocaine block. Sterile gloves. Aseptically load syringes 1/2 with sterile saline.
Transtracheal Wash: Technician Tasks Generally, it requires __ techs in addition to DVM to perform procedure. Describe:	two. 1 tech to maintain patient in sternal with nose extended toward the ceiling. 1 tech to coupage once fluid is injected into trachea.
Transtracheal Wash: Technician Tasks Post procedure: place occlusive antibiotic ointment, telfa pad and a very light neck wrap. Why?	To prevent air from entering procedure wound.
Transtracheal Wash: Technician Tasks Monitor patient carefully for ___ for at least __ hours after the procedure. If no problems, neck wrap can be removed and patient can be discharged.	dyspnea. 2 hours
Cerebrospinal Fluid Collection: Purpose Evaluation of patients with neurologic signs (brain or spinal cord) through (4):	Cytology, glucose, protein evaluation, serology of CSF, Culture of CSF
Cerebrospinal Fluid Collection: Collection Sites Name two:	Cisterna magna: between skull and Atlas (C1), Lumbar (L5-6 spaces)
Cerebrospinal Fluid Collection: Equipment What five items are needed:	General anesthetic with stiff endotracheal tube in place. Surgical prep. CSF needles. Sterile gloves. Purple and red top vacutainers.
Cerebrospinal Fluid Collection: Patient Prep Describe the process for Cisterna magna procedure.	Lateral recumbency with spine at table edge. Neck and spine must be perfectly parallel to table (foam wedges may be needed) Wide shave from point of skull to C3) Surgical prep.
Cerebrospinal Fluid Collection: Technician Tasks Name two.	Anesthesia monitoring. Hyperventilate to lower CSF pressure.
Cerebrospinal Fluid Collection: Technician Tasks Head must be maintained in perfect alignment for procedure. Describe positioning:	Neck flexed (nose toward chest) with ears pulled ventrally to tighten skin. The animal should be placed in lateral recumbency with the nose flexed an ears pulled ventrally. The dorsum should be close to the edge of the table.
Cerebrospinal Fluid Collection: Lumbar Patient Prep:	Lateral recumbency with spine at table edge; general anesthesia. Trunk is flexed and rolled towels placed between limbs and under lumbar spine to achieve spine parallel to the table. Wide shave from L3 to sacrum; surgical prep.
Cerebrospinal Fluid Collection: Technician Tasks For lumbar site:	Stand on sternal side of patient and flex spine by bringing rear legs forward to front legs (position is held throughout procedure). Monitor anesthesia.
Bone Marrow Collection Why sample bone marrow?	Evaluation of cause of abnormal blood cell numbers or of abnormal cell types in blood.
Bone Marrow Collection Evaluation of cause of abnormal blood cell numbers:	Leukopenia, Polycythemia, Non-regenerative anemia
Bone Marrow Collection Evaluation of abnormal cell types in blood:	Immature forms. Blast cells. Mast cells.
Bone Marrow Collection What equipment is needed?	Sedation/Anesthesia. Sterile prep of collection site. Bone marrow needle. Scalpel blade. EDTA. Slides. Petri dish. Sterile gloves.
Bone Marrow Collection What are three sites available for collection?	Point of ileum of pelvis (easiest in thin animals). Head of Humerus (important to rotate limb outward to avoid radial nerve). Head of Femur.
Bone Marrow Collection: Iliac crest What does this look like?	Sedation with lidocaine local or anesthesia. Clip dorsal pelvis. Patient in sternal or lateral recumbency (DVM preference). Surgical scrub. In this position, the technician will need to hold the patient on table and push against DVM movements.

Created by: Raevyn1

Popular Veterinary sets

Veterinary Medical Terminology Chapter 1

Anatomy VTNE Review

Penn Foster Vet Tech

Penn Foster- Intro to Anatomy and Physiology

Vet Tech - Penn Foster History & Physical Examination

Penn Foster - Intro to Vet Tech

Chapter 5 Anatomy & Physiology Vet Tech

Veterinary Medical Terminology Chapter 2

Veterinary drugs

Penn Foster Vet Tech Behavior

Veterinary Terminology VTNE Review

Penn Foster: Intro to Vet Tech: Medical Terminology

"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
Retries: