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Large Animal VetNurs

Up to Equine Medicine & Diagnostic Testing done

Question	Answer
Basic PE of Ruminants What are some things to evaluate?	History, environment, food and water sources. Visual observation: posture, behavior, body condition, alertness. TPR, Heart/Lung auscultation, assessment of rumen function, hydration status, MM, lymph nodes, udder/milk exam, rectal exam, feces/urine.
Far Exam Note and record what features of the environment?	Feed/water. Cleanliness. Feces.
Far Exam Not and record body posture and behavior to assess what five attributes?	Mentation. Gait/Lameness. Respiratory effort. BCS. ID.
Body Condition Scoring (BCS) Why is it so important to bovine medicine?	May indicate disease, quality of feed, risk for infertility, dystocia, and ketosis, or low milk production.
Body Condition Scoring (BCS) Evaluating Dairy vs Beef: How is it different?	Scoring system: Dairy (5 point). Beef (9 point).
Near Exam What to remember?	Be Systematic. Record vitals. Auscult Carefully: heart, lungs, rumen.
Bovine Normal TPR?	T: +/- 101.5 F HR: 60-80 bpm RR: 12-36 bpm
How frequent should rumen contractions be? (Rc)	1-3 per minute
Heart Auscultation - Bovine Base of the heart lies:	cranial to the elbow
Heart Auscultation - Bovine True or False: The apex of the heart lies caudal to elbow at 6th intercostal space?	True
Heart Auscultation - Bovine Left side?	LAM (Left Aortic valve (4th ICS) Mitral valve (5th ICS)
Heart Auscultation - Bovine Right side?	AV Tricuspid valve (3rd ICS)
Lung Auscultation - Bovine Name some important things to remember.	Cows have 13 ribs. Steep angled diaphragm. Lungs located from the 11th rib forward to the point of the elbow. Listen for crackles, wheezes, no sound, emphysema. Rate & Effort important.
Withers Pinch Test - Bovine What is it? How is it performed?	Check for abdominal pain. Cows in pain stand hunched w/elbows abducted. Pinch at withers. Normal cow will dorsoflex. Causes of pain: hardware disease, abomasal ulcers, SI (small intestine) gas distension.
Rumen Evaluation Which side of the cow should you evaluate the rumen contractions in the paralumbar fossa?	Left... also feel for waves
Rumen Evaluation How do you perform the far exam?	Shape of the abdomen is observed from behind. Both right and left silhouettes should be similar as asymmetry and enlargement indicate bloat.
Rumen Evaluation Gas accumulations will result in a ____ when percussing finger on the abdominal wall of a cow.	"ping"
Bovine Abdominal Shapes The pear shape is:	normal
Bovine Abdominal Shapes The apple shape is:	abnormal
Bovine Abdominal Shapes What does a "papple" shape indicate?	Abnormal: left side apple shaped and right side pear shaped.
Bovine Mammary Gland Evaluation What are we looking for?	Symmetry between quarters. Abnormal glandular consistency-edema, hardening, acute swelling. Abnormal milk consistency. Strip milk from each quarter: water, flakes, serum. Record findings for each quarter.
Bovine Urinalysis What are we evaluating?	Check for ketones. Stimulate urination. Strip in stream. Wait 15 seconds. Smaller or greater ='s ketosis. Could indicate insufficient feed intake.
Bovine Fecal Characteristics Cattle defecate __ to __ times a day.	12, 18
Bovine Fecal Characteristics True or False: Feces has a semi-solid "cow-plop" consistency without distinct form.	True
Bovine Fecal Characteristics Normal color?	Dependent on diet: green to dark brown
Bovine Fecal Characteristics Undigested roughage fibers are _______ in the feces.	Not normal. May indicate dysfunction of the rumen/reticulum.
Bovine Fecal Characteristics When performing an examination, remember to take into account:	diet, environment, cow status
Cattle Behavior True or False: do not work from behind cattle (blind spot), but work from their sides.	True
Cattle handling should be:	slow, methodical, intentional, and precise
The point of balance for cattle is the:	shoulder. Cattle will move forward when handler crosses the point of balance of each animal. If approached from behind the shoulder, they generally move forward. If approached from the front of the shoulder, they tend to move backward.
True or false: Different behaviors are exhibited according to breed, sex, age.	True
Bovine breed categories are classified as:	Dairy or Beef breed
Beef animals are ___ handled by humans, and therefore resist handling and restraint. They are highly suspicious of pens and chutes.	rarely
Dairy breeds, particularly female, are handled _____, with lactating cows being milked twice daily and receiving food in a controlled setting.	frequently
Cattle prods should only be used when ______. Apply them only to areas of ________, never the ______.	other methods have failed. large muscle mass. head.
A chute is designed to hold ____ animal at a time.	one. Danger to them and us lies in the violent throwing of their head which is their primary method of defense.
True or false: The tail should not be used to move or lift a recumbent bovine.	True. Bovine tails have smaller, easily broken vertebrae, and not as strong as horse tails.
What is a tail jack? How is it performed?	A tail hold used for short periods of restraint. Stand behind the cow, off to the side, grasp the tail at the base with both hands, lift tail directly up and over the back keeping the tail on the midline.
What is Tailing. Why is it used?	(Tail twist) Variation of the tail jack used to encourage forward movement and can also be directed off to the side. Avoid excessive pressure.
Describe tail ties and why they are used.	Tying the tail out of the way for cleanliness during some procedures. NOT a form of restraint. Tie tail over the back to the opposite forelimb or around the neck.
Cattle ___ as capable as horses in delivering hard, fast kicks with hind legs.	ARE
What is "Cow-kicking?"	The common tendency of cattle to swing the kicking leg forward, then laterally, then out behind them.
Can a cow kick straight behind them (like a horse) or with both hind legs at the same time?	YES
What are hobbles used for?	To prevent kicking. Sometimes used on dairy cows that have proven in the past to kick.
What is a flank rope?	Rope places pressure on the flanks to discourage kicking. Never place rope directly on the udder or prepuce.
What is Casting?	The method of forcing an animal to the ground, usually with ropes that apply firm, constant pressure to sensitive points on the body.
True or false: When using a Casting technique, cattle usually respond by lying down with little struggle.	True
When casting, the number one thing to remember is ___ followed by never trap the ___, ___, or the ____ in the ropes.	Control the head! Udder, prepuce, scrotum
Risk of bloat from a recumbent ruminant can be minimized by placing them in ____ ____ which positions the rumen for observation of signs of bloat.	Right lateral. Minimize time in any recumbent position.
One method in casting is using a casting harness. Pulling ____ on the free end forces the animal to lie down.	caudally
True or false: Cattle tend to resist venipuncture so should not be attempted on an unrestrained animal.	True. The body must be restricted in movement, usually in a chute or head catch gate. Placing a halter in addition, may be helpful.
When performing venipuncture on a bovine, site is cleaned with ___. What needle gauge and length is most common?	alcohol. 18 g / 1 1/2 inch
What are the most common sites of venipuncture in cattle?	Jugular, Coccygeal vein (ventral tail vein). Tech Note: Milk vein is easy to see but should not be used.
When performing coccygeal (tail) vein venipunture on cattle, the vessels are about ___ to ___ inches beneath the skin directly at ___ under the hemal arches.	1/2 - 1 inch. Midline.
When performing coccygeal (tail) vein venipunture on cattle, angle the needle ___ to ___ degrees between the vertebrae. If you hit bone, ___ retract, continue to aspirate until in the lumen.	45 - 90. slowly
When performing coccygeal (tail) vein venipunture on cattle, if an artery is accidentally entered:	Apply 60 seconds of pressure to avoid hematomas
Why are subcutaneous abdominal (milk) veins (both right and left) rarely used for venipunture?	They are prone to prolonged and pronounced bleeding.
Describe the steps to collecting urine in cattle.	In females encourage urination by "titillating," by stimulating the perineal area. The skin beneath the vulva is stroked w/ fingers/straw until urination occurs. Don't hold the tail. It is distracting to the cow. Midstream (not initial) is preferred.
Some clinicians have been successful in obtaining a voided sample from male cattle by ___ the inside of the ___ using the threads of a capped tube.	rubbing, sheath
Adult female cows can be catheterized with rigid or flexible ___ ___. A ___ to ___ diameter is suitable. They should always be ___.	urinary catheter, 12 to 20 French, sterile
Male cattle are ___ ___ to catheterize.	almost impossible
In cattle, cystocentesis can be performed on ___.	calves
Name two important reasons Mastitis diagnosis is important.	For the health of the animal and for the health/quality of the milk consumed by humans/calves.
True or False: Milk evaluation is critical in diagnosing mastitis. It is almost always caused by ___.	True, bacteria
Cattle Milk Sampling Describe the four steps in order:	Wash teat w/ sanitizing solution. Start at far teats. Dry teats thoroughly w/ individual paper towels. Grasp teat at base, pinch gently w/ thumb & finger. Slide the "pinch" distally. Release/return to base. Collect sample in strip cup or CMT paddle.
What does CMT paddle stand for? Describe the test.	California Mastitis Test paddle. The paddle has four wells. Chemical added to the milk to read the "somatic cell count" for severity of inflammation.
Withdrawal times. What is this referring?	Time period required by law in which milk from a treated animal can not be used for human consumption. The owner/dairymen must be notified of all withholding times when the veterinary team administers or prescribes medication.
Medication in feeds ___ ___ reliable.	are not (but can be done)
Balling guns are tools that:	place bolus (pills) in back of mouth of cattle
Describe the proper method for using a balling gun:	Head restrained at a natural elevation. Loaded balling gun is placed in the mouth through interdental space, over the tongue, then directed over the midline to the back of the mouth. Don't wedge instrument into pharynx or "pop" bolus.
What is "Drenching?" A ___ ___ can be used to prevent chewing on syringe or gavage tubes.	Delivery of liquids with a large oral dose syringe slowly to prevent aspiration. Frick Speculum
___ and ___ ___ do not require use of a speculum.	Goats, neonatal sheep
Intravenous Injections Jugular veins are:	most commonly used. Also the most common site for IV catheters (10-14 g, 2-3" long).
Intravenous Injections For small volumes, name three possible vein sites that can be used.	cephalic, coccygeal, auricular
Never inject in the ___ ___ of cattle.	milk vein
True or false: Only Federally Accredited Veterinarians may perform TB tests.	True
Describe the process of performing a Tuberculosis (TB) test on cattle.	Tuberculin is given ID (caudal tail fold). Wait 72 hours. Injection site evaluated for inflammatory/allergic reactions. Thickened skin or pain at injection site is suspicious 4 positive response. Further testing of the animal is needed if this occurs.
Intramammary Infusion True or False: Medications (especially antibiotics) are often infused into the teat to treat diseases of the udder.	True. Remember milk withholding times apply.
Intramammary Infusion Describe the process of performing this treatment.	Milk udder prior to treatment, dispose of contaminated milk (not on the ground). Hands should be washed (new exam gloves). Each teat cleaned and dried with separate towel. The teat is dipped in germicide starting on furthest teat. Infuse near to far.
Handling Sheep They are timid animals that do best in small groups. Avoid trying to grab them by their ___ or ___.	legs or wool
Handling Sheep What is the best technique for restraining a sheep while remaining standing?	Trap against a wall or in a corner and grasp around neck, can grab flank skin for additional security. Move slowly, don't chase them around the pen.
What is the best way to "sit sheep up?" "Sitting Up" Sheep.	Hold sheep against your braced knees w/ one hand under its chin & one on its rump. Turn head to rear w/ one hand while forcing the rump down against your leg with the other. When they are no longer standing, lift front leg & sit them securely on rump.
Blood Sampling (Sheep) What is the most common vein used? What are two other possibilities?	Jugular vein. Cephalic & Femoral.
Blood Sampling (Sheep) What needle is most commonly used? Name two positions to attempt the draw.	20 gauge/1" Sheep can be in a standing position or in "set up" position
Urine Collection (Sheep) In ___ sheep, you can hold their nostrils and mouth shut for ___ seconds to induce urination.	Female. 45 seconds.
IM injection (Sheep) Part wool/hair. Avoid ___. Preferred site is the ___.	gluteals. Lateral cervical "mm"
SC Injections (Sheep) Preferred needle gauge and length? Name three possible sites.	18 g/1/4" Lateral neck, Axilla, Flank fold
Describe the steps to trim the hoof in sheep and goats.	Toe should be cleaned out. Outer hoof wall cut to remove overgrowth. Bring the wall down to the sole. Make the outer wall parallel with the coronary band. The inner hoof wall is then cut with more inside wall than outside wall being removed.
Hoof trim in goats and sheep The ___ should not be cut unless it is badly overgrown.	heel
What are some reasons that tail docking is performed on sheep?	Reduce accumulation of feces. “Fly Strike.”
If performing a tail dock on a sheep, what vaccination must be given or already on board before performing the procedure?	Tetanus vaccine
When performing a tail dock on a sheep, what is the proper area to remove at?	Mid to distal extent of caudal tail fold. Vulva and anus should not be exposed.
Name four methods of performing a tail amputation (tail docking).	Emasculator, Heat cautery, sharp excision, Elastrator band (controversial due to ischemic necrosis).
True or false: The AVMA opposes routine tail docking of cattle. When medically necessary, tail amputation must be performed by a licensed veterinarian.	True
Handling Goats Curious, independent animals. Can become aggressive. What might you watch for in this situation? What are two methods to gain cooperation from goats?	head butting. Use feed or leader goat to move.
Goat Restraint True or false: by the beard or horns can be held near the base.	True
Goat Restraint What position is best?	Lateral recumbency (a lot like a dog)
Goat Restraint For nail trimming, what is one effective technique?	Simply restrain the goat by pressing the goat against your legs with your arms. Left hand holds the foot while trimming with the right hand.
Sheep and goats are more sensitive to ___. Toxicity signs can include:	lidocaine. Muscular tremors, severe depression, hypotension, occasionally convulsions.
A Cornual Nerve Block is used for:	Used for desensitization of the horn & horn base for dehorning surgery. The block is performed differently for cattle and goats, since the innervation (distribution of nerves to a body part) is different.
True or false: sheep are rarely dehorned.	True
Why are there commonly overlapping cautery circles created with a disbudding iron when used to disbud a kid?	To de-scent them at the same time. Scent glands are just caudal to the horns.
When castrating a small ruminant, the procedure is normally performed within ___ ___. Although, pets are common done at ___ ___.	1st week. 5-6 months.
True or false: early castration of small ruminants may retard penile urethra (narrowing).	true
When penile urethra narrowing occurs in small ruminants that were castrated when young, what condition can occur?	They are prone to blockage with urinary calculi.
When performing a castration on a small ruminant, what vaccination should be given or confirmed to be current?	tetanus antitoxin or toxoid
What are three methods used to castrate small ruminants?	Knife castration. Elastrator. Emasculatome (Burdizzo)
___ flank approach to C-section in small ruminants, the ___ ___ block anesthetic approach is used.	Left, inverted L
True or false: Llamas and alpacas are the oldest domestic animals in the world (domesticated around 6000 years ago).	True
Llamas are mainly used as ___ and ___ animals.	pack and guard
Alpacas are generally meant for ___ and ___ production.	meat and wool
Reproduction Camelid females are ___ ___ and breed throughout their life.	induced ovulators
Reproduction Camelid females have ___ teats.	four
Reproduction Gestation period for llama and alpaca?	llama: 350 days and alpaca 335 days
Reproduction Newborn camelids are called:	Cria
True or false: twins are rare in camelids. They usually produce one offspring per parturition.	True
Handling Camelids What are best practices?	Moved into a position aligned w/ the side of a pen w/ head in a corner. Move your hand smoothly & steadily from behind the eye to the lower neck, then slide the hand up to behind the ears while stepping in to bring the other hand under the chin.
Handling Camelids What is a “bracelet” hold? Why is it used?	Place the forefinger & thumb into the groove of the lower jaw. Helps to steady the animal.
What does the term "Cushing" (Kushing) mean, in reference to camelids? What are some reasons this occurs?	Lying down with all four legs underneath. Some camelids will do this when stressed (just work with this position). It is also the breeding position.
When performing an Ear Squeeze "Ear Twitch" on a camelid, remember:	Grasp only at the base of the ear and squeeze.
Where is the jugular vein accessed on a camelid?	Location of the jugular vein within the jugular groove, lying between the transverse processes of the cervical vertebrae laterally and the trachea medially.
Hoof Trimming (Toenail trimming) How is this performed on a camelid?	The first cut, is along the point of the nail, this will bring the nail down to the length you want it. The second and third cuts will be down the sides, again keeping in line with your alpaca’s pad.
When performing jugular venipuncture on a camelid, what size needle is commonly used?	18 g/1 1/2"
What does it mean when a horse is licking and chewing?	When they are coming down out of a sympathetic nervous system (SNS) or stress response back into parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) relaxation range. They were worried about a problem but then felt relief because they figured it out.
What is one way that a horse might show they are apprehensive?	lean away from you
True or false: The family dog can reassure the horse.	true
Horses are designed by nature to eat ___ hours per day.	16
Veterinarians often schedule at feeding or turn-out time.	Not ideal
True or false: horses are herd animals.	True
Untie head ___ when backing out	1st
Horses ___ look up.	rarely
People retain less than ___ of what they are told.	20%
Horses are very ___ but have a good memory.	forgiving. This is why making their first training experience a positive one.
The horse, is a prey animal, and depends on ___ as its primary means of survival.	flight. Natural predators are cougars, wolves, and bears.
A horses "spookiness" or bad behavior is actually usually caused by:	their advanced perception. Stimuli that remains undetected by humans will be picked up by a horse.
A horse has a very ___ response time.	fast
Horses can be ___ from frightening stimuli.	desensitized
True or false: horses categorize most experiences in one of two ways: a) something not to fear, so ignore it or explore it, or b) something to fear, so flee.	True
Horse are easily dominated. If done correctly, human dominance can easily be established during training without causing the horse to ___ ___ ___.	become excessively fearful
Horses exert dominance by controlling the ___ of their peers. This is the key to training/working with them.	movement
Horses communicate through both ___ and ___ ___.	vocalization and body language
What does it mean when a species is precocial?	Their newborns are neurologically mature at birth.
A horse's ___ is its primary detector of danger.	vision
True or false: horses have very bad depth perception when using only one eye.	True. Their perception increases x5 when they are using both eyes. Binocular vision.
True or false: horses have fairly good night vision, although their contrast sensitivity is not as keen as a cats.	True.
Horses have an acute ability to detect movement. How can this affect their behavior.	They are more flighty on windy days.
Horses have an almost ____ field of vision. Where are their blind spots?	panoramic. Directly in front and behind them.
True or false: a horse can see two things at once , one from each eye. Each side of each brain works independently, so they need to be taught something twice. Once on each side.	True. Always make sure a horse knows you are there by approaching from the side. Left shoulder is usually how the horses are trained.
The expression in a horse's eye is thought to indicate their behavior. For example, wide open with white showing (and not an Appaloosa) may indicate they are ___, but half closed could indicate that they are ___.	scared. sleepy.
Horses have keen hearing (superior to ours) that they use for three primary functions: to detect ___, to determine the ___ of the sound, and to provide sensory information that allows the horse to recognize the identity of these sources.	sound, location
Horses' tactile sensation or touch is extremely ___. Their entire body is as sensitive as our ___.	sensitive. fingertips.
Horse Body Language: Body Signals If a horse's tail is: High	They are alert or excited
Horse Body Language: Body Signals If a horse's tail is: Low	It is a sign of exhaustion, fear, pain, or submission.
Horse Body Language: Body Signals If a horse's tail is: Held high over the back (seen in most foals)	They are playful or are very alarmed
Horse Body Language: Body Signals If a horse's tail is: Swishing	They are irritated
Horse Body Language: Body Signals If a horse's legs are: Pawing	They are frustrated
Horse Body Language: Body Signals If a horse's legs are: One front-leg lifted	Can be a mild threat (or a normal stance sometimes when eating).
Horse Body Language: Body Signals If a horse's legs are: A back-leg lifted	Is often a more defensive threat
Horse Body Language: Body Signals If a horse's legs are: Stamping	Indicates a mild threat or protest (or they may be getting rid of insects or flies biting their legs.
Horse Body Language: Body Signals Interpreting facial expressions: Snapping	This is seen in foals showing submission to an older horse. They will open their mouths and draw back the corners, then open and shut their jaws.
Horse Body Language: Body Signals Interpreting facial expressions: Jaws open with teeth exposed	this shows aggression or possible attack
Horse Body Language: Body Signals Interpreting facial expressions: Flehmen response	This is caused by an intense or unusual smell, usually in stallions when they sense a mare in heat. They stick their nose in the air and curl the upper lip over their nose.
Horse Body Language: Body Signals Interpreting facial expressions: Flared nostrils	usually means they are excited or alert
Horse Body Language: Body Signals Interpreting facial expressions: showing white around the eyes	usually means they are angry or scared. Note: White around the eyes is also a normal characteristic of the Appaloosa breed.
Horse Body Language: Body Signals Interpreting ears: Neutral	When the ears are held loosely upward, opening facing forward or outward.
Horse Body Language: Body Signals Interpreting ears: Pricked	Ears held stiff with openings pointed directly forward means the horse is alert.
Horse Body Language: Body Signals Interpreting ears: Airplane ears	The ears flop out laterally with openings facing down, usually meaning the horse is tired or depressed.
Horse Body Language: Body Signals Interpreting ears: Drooped ears	Hang down loosely to the side, usually meaning tiredness or pain.
Horse Body Language: Body Signals Interpreting ears: Ears angled backward with openings directly back towards the rider.	usually means attentiveness to the rider or listening to commands.
Horse Body Language: Body Signals Interpreting ears: ears pinned flat against the neck	This means watch out! The horse is angry and aggressive.
Interpreting vocalizations in the horse When a horse squeals or screams, this usually denotes:	a threat by the stallion or mare
Interpreting vocalizations in the horse Nickers are low-pitched and quiet. A stallion will nicker when ___. A mare and foal nicker to each other. Domestic horses nicker for ___.	courting a mare. food.
Interpreting vocalizations in the horse Neighs or whinnies, the most familiar, are high pitched, drawn out sounds that can carry over distances.	To locate a herd mate
Interpreting vocalizations in the horse Blowing: A strong rapid expulsion of air resulting in a high pitched "whooshing" sound, is a sign of	alarm used to warn others
Interpreting vocalizations in the horse Snorting is a more passive, shorter lower pitched version of blowing and is usually just a result of	objects entering the nasal passage
Interpreting vocalizations in the horse What are some signs of friendship in horses?	Mares and foals nudging or nuzzling each other during nursing or to comfort. Mutual grooming. Two horses nibbling each other.
Age & Sex Terminology: Equine Young, weaning to 1 year	Weaning
Age & Sex Terminology: Equine 1 year to 1 1/2 years	Yearling
Age & Sex Terminology: Equine Intact male between 2 and 3 years	Colt
Age & Sex Terminology: Equine 1 1/2 years to 2nd birthday	Long Yearling
Age & Sex Terminology: Equine Female between 2 and 3 years	Filly
Age & Sex Terminology: Equine Intact male after 3rd birthday	Stallion
Age & Sex Terminology: Equine Female after 3rd birthday	Mare
Age & Sex Terminology: Equine Castrated male of any age	Gelding
Physical Exams: Equine Required by insurance companies before horse can receive coverage.	Insurance exam
Physical Exams: Equine Conducted before completion of sale.	Pre-purchase exam
Physical Exams: Equine May be simple or in-depth exams. To avoid potential lawsuits and the sensitive nature of information obtain from these exam, they must be:	thorough, accurate, private. Don't post result, client info, or payment information on stall, etc.
Physical Exams: Equine Temperatures should be taken ___ with a well ___, large animal standard mercury or digital thermometer.	rectally. lubricated
What type of thermometer allows for attachment of a string to avoid aspiration into the rectum, and pushing thermometer out of the rectum?	ring-top thermometers
True or false: in response to rectal thermometer insertion, some horses pull the anus inward. Others may defecate.	True
When inserting rectal thermometer in a horse's anus, stand facing ___ and maintain ___. Grasp the tail at the ___ and move it gently to the ___.	caudally. contact. base. side.
Normal temp for horses vary with age, breed, and environment, but the lowest temp is in the ___.	AM
A normal horse has a rectal temperature of:	99-101.5. Remember to take into account exertion and environmental temperatures
True or false: rectal exams and procedures may allow air to enter the rectum which will falsely lower the temperature. Take temperature first.	True
Pulse rate is taking by palpating ___.	arteries
True or false: veins do not have palpable pulses.	True
___ ___ refers to # of heart beats per minute (bpm). ___ ___ refers to # of palpable arterial pulse waves/minute.	Heart rate. pulse rate.
True or false: in normal animals, the pulse rate and heart rate will be equal.	True
Some heart abnormalities produce an audible heart sound that are not always accompanied by an ___ ___.	arterial pulse
Physical Exams: Equine Pulse quality is subjective and described as (4):	strong, bounding, weak, thready
Physical Exams: Equine Rhythm is recorded as ___ or ___ (usually caused by heart arrhythmia).	regular or irregular
Physical Exams: Equine Respiratory rates are defined as: (four)	shallow, deep, labored, gasping
True or False: Horses use a combination of thoracic and abdominal muscles to breathe. This is called:	costoabdominal breathing
Physical Exams: Equine Painful chest conditions may increase use of ___ muscles.	abdominal. Increased abdominal component to the respiratory pattern.
True or false: normal horses cannot breathe through their mouths.	True. If observed, it is abnormal.
Physical Exams: Equine Respiratory noises are not ___ but may be ___.	uncommon. significant.
Physical Exams: Equine What are some descriptive words used for respiratory sounds in horses?	wheezing, whistling, honking, snoring, fluttering. Make note of the horse's activity at the time and whether it occurs on inspiration or expiration.
True or false: a horses heart can be as big as a basketball.	True
Physical Exams: Equine Most of the heart valves and sounds are best heard on the ___ side, but many murmurs are heard from the ___.	Left. Right.
Heart rate in large animals is ___, sounds are ___ and ___.	slow. loud. distinct.
Murmurs are not ___ in horses.	uncommon (most are physiological) The result of large volumes of blood moving at high speeds through the valves.
Physiologically heart murmurs in horses are called:	ejection murmurs. large volumes of blood moving at high speed.
True cardiac disease is ___ in horses and is usually accompanied by murmurs and other abnormal sounds.	unusual
Abdominal Auscultation in horses is usually performed at the ___, the area between the pelvis and the caudal margin of the rib cage.	flank. On both sides. Upper and lower. 3 per minute is normal.
Horses may be sensitive in the flank and abdominal area so approach ___ and ___.	slowly. gently.
Intestinal motility sounds are called:	borborygmi
Complete absence of borborygmi is equated to:	intestinal standstill (ileus)
What anatomical landmarks can be used to evaluate mucous membranes? (4)	gums (gingiva), conjunctiva of the eye, lining of nostrils, inner surface of the vulva in females.
Mucous Membrane Color Normal:	light to dark pink
Mucous Membrane Color Cyanosis (low O2 in tissue)	blue
Mucous Membrane Color Bacterial septicemia & septic shock	brick red
Mucous Membrane Color Endotoxic shock	purple (along gum line: called toxic line)
Mucous Membrane Color Icterus	yellow
Mucous Membrane Color Anemia or poor perfusion	Pale (some horses are normally pale pink)
Mucous Membrane Color Clotting disorder	reddish spotting
Assessment of mucous membranes includes:	color, moisture (tacky, moist, dry), CRT <2.5 seconds in horses.
How do you assess Hydration status in horses?	Skin tugor = skin pinch test. Lift skin over the lateral aspect of the neck and allow to retract. Normal is <1 second. Less reliable in obese animals.
Height and weight tape is marked in ___. One ___ is equal to ___ inches. What is the appropriate location on the horses body to evaluate this?	hands. hand. 4. Highest point of the withers.
In horses, weight can be estimated with ___, but it is more accurate to use a ___ ___.	tape. livestock scale.
When using tape to estimate a horse's weight, where do you place the tape?	Positioned around the thorax (base of withers?)
Equine Patient Identification What are five natural means of identifying a patient?	Breed, sex, age, coat color, markings
Equine Patient Identification What are three artificial means of identifying a patient?	lip tattoos, microchip (SQ in neck area), branding (freeze: which destroys hair pigment found (usually) under the mane or hot: kills follicles producing a hairless scar.
Natural ID Markings: Equine Points are usually ___ or ___. ___ is most distinguishing.	black. white. white.
Natural ID Markings: Equine What are two addition options to keep on record for consistent ID of horses?	Photo ID's & Accurate drawings.
Stall Maintenance and Care Two basic approaches are ___ which removes soiled areas only sparing as much bedding as possible, and ___ which removes all bedding soiled or not.	picking. stripping. Dependent on patient: diarrhea, neat patient that uses the same location, or patient that goes all over the place and walks in it.
Stall flooring Cement flooring and walls is easiest to clean, disinfect, and steam. This is helpful when dealing with contagious patients, but what are some disadvantages?	cost to install, decreased patient comfort, compromised drainage. Rubber mats and extra deep bedding should be used.
Stall flooring Dirt floors are hard to disinfect. They may need to be isolated for ___ or even ___ post contagious patient.	days. weeks.
Daily Patient Care True or false: Patient records must have a place to record food consumption, water intake, defecation & urination, even in healthy patients.	True
Daily Patient Care When admitting a patient's regular diet should be recorded. This includes ___, ___, ___, and ___.	types, amounts, supplements, feeding schedule
Daily Equine Patient Care True or false: Radical changes in type and volumes of food can cause GI problems.	True
Horses ___ eat from the ground in a hospital setting due to ___ and ___ contamination.	should not. fecal. urine.
Hay racks and nets should be ___ than shoulder level to prevent leg entanglement.	Higher
Horses should have access to supplemental ___ and/ trace ___.	salt. minerals.
Record the type and ___ of feed given. Also, record what the horse does or does not eat.	amount
True or false: fresh water daily is a necessity.	True
Manual watering in (5 gallon) rubber buckets from a hose should be checked ___.	more than once a day and filled as needed.
Automatic waterers are convenient for humans but may ___ horses. They are ___ to disinfect. It is ___ to measure intake amounts.	startle. difficult. difficult.
Place water buckets ___ shoulder level to avoid leg activity.	above
True or false: ammonia vapor created by urine is a respiratory irritant.	True. Proper ventilation and stall cleaning is crucial.
What are three standard horse grooming activities?	curry combing, brushing, hoof cleaning
___ ___ used on fleshy parts of the equine body only. (not face and lower legs)	curry comb. Used in a circular motion, firmly. Bring loose dirt to the surface to be brushed off.
___ ___ brush used only on fleshy body parts.	stiff bristles (brush)
True or false: soft bristle brushes can be used anywhere on the body, as long as you use special care on the face.	true. Short strokes. Flicking the brush up and away from the coat at the end of the stroke (flicking the dirt off horse). Always brush in the direction of the hair.
Hoof Cleaning Elevate the hoof to thoroughly clean the bottom recesses (critical). The lateral ___ of the ___ and the central ___ of the ___ should be well picked to help prevent ___ and ___ infections.	sulci (shallow groove). frog. sulcus. frog. bacterial. fungal.
True or false: firm pressure should be used with the hoof pick and brush when cleaning equine hooves.	True. Unless sensitive tissue has been exposed.
Although contagious equine disease may affect a variety of body systems, the majority seen in hospitals affect ___ and ___ systems	respiratory. GI.
___ disease is usually spread by direct contact with secretions. Name four sources.	Respiratory. coughing, sneezing, nose to nose, fomites.
True or false: an entire barn of horses can be infected by one coughing horse, it is estimated that respiratory droplets can be propelled as far as 30 yards.	True
GI disease typically causes ___.	Diarrhea. Horses with diarrhea can produce gallons of fecal water in 24 hours that contains many infectious organisms.
True or false: it is best to overreact to a potentially contagious disease than to underestimate the potential of spreading.	True
Large facilities have dedicated ___ ___ to prevent the spread of infectious disease.	isolation barns. An isolation area can be improvised in smaller facilities.
What are the requirements for an isolation barn?	low "traffic" area, flooring and walls easily disinfected, access from o/s barn, and clearly defined "hot" zone.
Isolation Protocol: Equine Medicine As some diseases may be zoonotic, PPE is crucial. Name four examples:	footwear, gloves, clothing, hand wash stations
Traffic in the hot zone should be ___ and waste/trash should be treated as potentially contagious.	limited
Recumbent equine cases require intensive intervention. What are some problems associated with these cases?	decubital ulcers, compartment syndrome (caused by collapsed vessels within a muscle compartment due to the heavy body weight), eye trauma, limb trauma, respiratory disease, bladder dysfunction, GI dysfunction.
How can decubital ulcers be prevented in equine patients?	reposition q 2 hours with 3 point system of ropes. Heavy sedation may be needed. Warm mashes and fresh grasses (highly digestible) will help with fecal voiding. Cleanse perineal area to avoid urine and fecal scald.
Usually described as the 1st five days of life.... critical period for foal to "get a good start." Risk for mortality during this time.	Neonatal Foal
Routine Care of Neonate: Foal (8)	Oxygenation/Ventilation. Temperature regulation, umbilical care, nutrition, bonding of mare & foal, passage of meconium, adequate passive transfer, physical exam
Routine Care of Foal: Oxygenation/Ventilation First priority after parturition is to:	establish a clear airway.
Routine Care of Foal: Oxygenation/Ventilation What are three ways we can assist with this?	Clear placenta from nostrils. Bulb syringe to aspirate nostrils. Vigorous stimulation by rubbing body.
Routine Care of Foal: Oxygenation/Ventilation If foal is not breathing within one minute what should be done?	Resuscitate 20-30 breaths per minute. Mouth to snout. Nasotracheal intubation.
Routine Care of Foal: Temperature Regulation Foals are very sensitive to ___.	hypothermia
Routine Care of Foal: Oxygenation/Ventilation What is our goal temperature and what four supportive care measures can we employ?	Rectal temperature of 100 - 101.5. Dry foal with a towel. Utilize heat lamps (at least 4 feet away). Deep & Clean bedding in place. Hot water bottles.
What should a normal foal do? Activity level of foal. Foal should breath & sit sternal ___, should stand within __ __, should nurse within ___ ___, and should pass meconium within ___ ___.	immediately. one hour. two hours. three hours.
The ___ ___ is the most common source of septic infection in foals.	Umbilical stump
Placenta separates within a minutes & umbilicus should stop bleeding quickly after the mare stands up and snaps the cord (don't cut if possible). Umbilical dips of ___ diluted 1:4 best. A tincture of iodine is the ___. ___% to ___% iodine is acceptable.	Novalsan. worst. 2 - 3
The umbilical stump should be "dipped" with antiseptic ___ to ___ times a day for ___ to ___ days of life.	2 - 3, 7 - 10
Why do we dip umbilical stumps in antiseptic 2-3x a day for 7 - 10 days of life?	Cauterizes stump. Minimizes bacterial population.
When checking the umbilical stump for omphalophlebitis and abscess formation, what are we looking for?	Moisture, redness, swelling, pain, and exudate (indicate an infection). Common complications: persistent patent urachus and umbilical hernia.
Importance of Early Nursing Foals have very ___ energy stores.	poor. Provide energy for a few hours at best. Hypoglycemia puts foals at risk of death. Supplementation is required @ <90 mg/dl.
Importance of Early Nursing It is critical that foals nurse shortly after birth. They have a strong suckly reflex within __ minutes after birth.	20
Importance of Early Nursing Colostrum is a very energy ___ food. It has ___ the calories of regular mare's milk.	dense. 2X.
True or false: foals must stand to nurse.	True
True or false: foals should be nursing 1 - 2.5 hours after parturition.	True
Why is it important to watch the mare and foal carefully during nursing?	To make sure the mare is allowing nursing, and that the foal can successfully swallow the milk.
Mare-Foal Bonding Why is it important to interfere with the mare & foal as little as possible post parturition?	Mare may reject foal if environment is too stressful and noisy. Mares become protective and possibly aggressive. If the foal must be handled, two people should be present (one for mare and one for foal), and the foal should be kept where the mare can see.
Normal Foal Behavior A foal should nurse ___ to ___ times an hour for 1-2 minutes.	5-8
Normal Foal Behavior The foal should be ___ aroused, and almost always nurse and urinate shortly after rising.	easily
Normal Foal Urination A normal foal should urinate within ___ to ___ hours. The urine should be very clear, light yellow. The foal should urinate frequently.	6-12
True or false: If a foal is posturing to urinate without production, this is a problem.	True. Ruptured bladder or obstruction
True or false: foals are commonly given enemas if they are having difficulty passing meconium. It should be passed withing ____ hours of birth.	True. 24 hours.
Passive Transfer The foal is completely dependent on colostrum for acquiring antibodies and protecting the foal for the first ___ weeks of life.	eight
Passive Transfer Blood samples from foals should be collected in first ___ to ___ hours of life to test for adequate IgG levels.	18-24
Passive Transfer Up to ___ ml of colostrum can be collected from donor mares and frozen.	250 mL
Passive Transfer Foals can be fed donor colostrum up to __ hours old.	18
Antibody levels >1200 is considered ___ and the foal is at ___ risk of neonatal septicemia.	Excellent. minimal.
Antibody levels Goal Ab level is ___ - ___ mg/dL for a ___ risk of neonatal septicemia.	400 - 800 mg/dL Ab level. low
Colostrum can be test with a ___ ___ to determine if it is of poor, fair, good, or very good quality.	Brix Refractometer
PE of Foal TPR: temp of ___ is goal. Upon auscultation a "machine murmur" is ___ in foals for first four days of life. (PDA) Lung sounds will be ___. Evaluate ___ and ___, and access for ___ deformities.	100 degrees F. normal. wet. palate & umbilicus. Musculoskeletal
What are "Foal Slippers" Eponychium (hoof capsule)?	The soft capsule that protects the mother's uterus and birth canal from the sharp edges of the foal's hooves during pregnancy and birth.
Foals "At Risk" What are they? (4)	Mare health and history, premature foals, asphyxia syndrome (Dummy Foals), septic foals.
What are three to six clinical signs of a premature foal (upon physical examination)?	Tendon laxity. Fine, silky hair coat. Domed forehead. Floppy ears. Small body size. May be weak/unable to stand.
True or false: maternity pens should be in a clean and dry area, not overcrowded, with proper ventilation and lighting. Bedding should be removed and area disinfected regularly. Tools like lube, sleeves, chains, etc should be near at hand.	True
During delivery, what does the calf need?	Wipe nose and mouth clean. Then rub over chest and ribs briskly with towel or straw, stimulating breathing. Straw can be placed in nostril to instigate breathing. Sit sternal.
During delivery, ___ hand calves by rear legs.	don't. 66% of farms still do this.
Newborn care of Calf Dip navel in 2% ___. Back in the day they used 7% ___. What does "3 peat" refer to?	chlorhexiderm. iodine. "3 peat:" repeat at birth, 2nd colostrum (6-12 hours post), and next feeding.
When assessing colostrum, there are four parameters to evaluate.	Quickness, quality, quantity, cleanliness
Passive Transfer in Bovines True or false: there is no transplacental transfer of IgGs.	True
What three factors are passive transfer dependent on?	Time post birth the calf is fed. Mass of IgG's fed. Amount of colostrum fed.
Failure of passive transfer increases the rist of neonatal disease in calves. < __ mg/mL IgG.	10
True or false: colostrum must be given to calves as soon after birth as possible.	True. Ideally within one hour but no later than six hours.
___ colostrum is best.	Warm
Dairy cows generally stand ___ to ___ hours after birth. They first suckle in ___ to ___ after birth.	3/4 to 1 1/4. 2 1/2 to 6 hours,
When are the calves at greatest risk post parturition?	Between standing and suckling. When they are actively searching their environment for the teat but have not ingested colostrum. There is a risk of ingestion of feces.
What other good things are present in colostrum, besides antibodies?	Leukocytes (not found in frozen or pasteurized colostrum). Growth factors, hormones, protein.
What is a colostrometer?	A hydrometer that uses the correlation between colostrum density and IgG concentration to give us a measure of colostrum quality.
If no colostrometer is available, and reliant on visual evaluation, do not use colostrum if:	It is from a heifer. Bloody, Thin/Watery, Clots (indicate mastitis), and if you can not feed it within four hours of birth.
Colostrum should be discarded if (list three reasons):	Cow has mastitis. Colostrum is bloody. Cow is Johne's Suspect.
What are the negative effects of the practice of feeding dairy calves colostrum contaminated with bacteria?	Interfere with IgG absorption. Increase rate of closure. Direct transfer of disease from cow to calf. (Johne's, Mycoplasma, salmonella, etc.)
What is the leading cause of death in preweaned dairy heifers?	Diarrhea (56.6%)
What are four things we can do to reduce incidence of diarrhea in cows?	Clean milk, clean equipment, clean bedding, clean facilities.
True or false: scours is a management disease?	True. Fecal-oral transmission. Sanitation/Hygiene failure.
As a calf gets older, what is the likely progression of causes of scours (calf diarrhea)?	Bacteria, Virus, then protozoa infection.
___ is the cause of ___% of preweaned calf mortality, and ___% of post weaned heifer deaths.	Pneumonia. 21.3%. 50.4%.
Pneumonia in cows is of economical importance because (5):	cost, labor, reproductive performance, milk production, survival.
What is key when dealing with pneumonia in cattle (4)?	Early detection, effective treatment, calf housing. Do not let uncured calves enter weaning pens.
Why is group housing of calves beneficial?	Improved weight gains. Smoother weaning transitions. "Stronger" calves (muscle development through play). Expressions of normal social behavior. More efficient for labor.
Powder, Tablet, or Liquid: Equine True or false: oral meds may be given as feed additives (usually grain).	True.
Powder, Tablet, or Liquid: Equine Tablets must be ___, never added ___, if added to grain.	crushed. whole.
Powder, Tablet, or Liquid: Equine What advantages or disadvantages are there to adding oral medication to grain?	Advantage: convenience. Disadvantages: objectionable taste. Taste disquised (molasses, syrup, applesauce) but may still be detected. Powders & crushed pills "fall through" the feed. Many horses spill grain when eating. Highly unreliable method of dosing.
Dosing Syringes: Equine Meds must be in ___ or ___ form.	liquid or paste form. Powders can be mixed with liquids to form a thick paste.
Dosing Syringes: Equine __, __, __ mL catheter syringes for small doses, up to 500 mL syringes available.	20, 35, 60 mL
Dosing Syringes: Equine Describe the process of dosing a horse.	Use fingers to open horse's lips before introducing syringe to avoid alarming or injuring the horse. Aim for the interdental space, directly caudally between cheek and cheek teeth.
Dosing Syringes: Equine ___ delivering meds across interdental space or over incisors.	AVOID
Dosing Syringes: Equine Why should we avoid aiming syringe over base of tongue when administering medications orally?	To avoid entering the trachea.
Dosing Syringes: Equine True or False: most horses will try to spit out meds.	True
Dosing Syringes: Equine After dispensing med into the horse's mouth, you should then:	elevate chin to encourage swallowing. Always observe horses after delivering meds.
Dosing Syringes: Equine Why is using a balling gun to administer medication to a horse a poor choice?	It must be placed deep into the mouth over the base of the tongue. Horses resist by throwing their heads which can lead to lacerations and wound to larynx and pharynx.
Nasogastric Intubation: Equine A variation of oral dosing, involving a long, plastic ___ from the nostril to the pharynx. It enters the esophagus and advances into the stomach.	hose
Nasogastric Intubation: Equine What are two advantages of using Nasogastric Intubation?	reliable delivery of entire dose. They can also be used as a diagnostic tool and medication tool.
Nasogastric Intubation: Equine What are some disadvantages? (2)	Trauma to nasal turbinates, larynx, or pharynx. This can lead to nosebleeds (epistaxis), abscesses, inflammation, or swelling.
Nasogastric Intubation: Equine T or F: nasal turbinates are fragile, not uncommon for a nosebleed (epistaxis) especially if horse throws its head during procedure. Volume of blood can be alarming but small compared to total blood volume in a horse.	True
Nasogastric Intubation: Equine Care must be taken if tube enters ___ instead of ___. If a ___ is elicited remove tube immediately so meds are not delivered to the lungs.	trachea. esophagus. cough
Nasogastric Intubation: Equine Another difficulty is resentment of the procedure. What is often necessary in order to successfully place tube?	Chemical restraint
Nasogastric Intubation: Equine Once the tube is in the stomach it can not be allowed to:	slide in and out
Nasogastric Intubation: Equine Delivery of meds via tube can be accomplished by using a large ___ (a slow and cumbersome method).	funnel
Nasogastric Intubation: Equine A ___ ___ can be attached to the tube and meds delivered by pushing the plunger.	dose syringe
Nasogastric Intubation: Equine Regardless of method, never ___ against back pressure. A horse's stomach capacity is 4-5 gallons, typically __ gallon of fluid given at one dosing, and repeated at intervals.	force. 1 gallon.
Nasogastric Intubation: Equine The most common method is to use a ___ ___ and deliver contents from a bucket or plastic jug.	stomach pump
Nasogastric Intubation: Equine The tubes are made of clear plastic and are available in several diameters. Those with multiple ___ ___ make blockage less likely.	side ports. Single opening tubes have a tendency to plug with debris.
Nasogastric Intubation: Equine True or false: always lubricate tube (water is sufficient) avoid mineral oil as it is irritating to mucous membranes and can be inhaled into lungs.	True. KY jelly is a good lubricant for this procedure.
Nasogastric Intubation: Equine Tubes are sensitive to ___. They will stiffen with ___. What can be done to correct this?	temperature. cold. You can warm them in water to soften them.
Nasogastric Intubation: Equine How long can tubes be left in place, as long as they are secured in place?	24 - 48 hours. They can be secure to the horse's halter.
Nasogastric Intubation: Equine How can they be secured to prevent them from moving in and out? What is one method of marking the tube at nostril level to ensure easy visualization to confirm that the tube is remaining in position?	They can be secure to the horse's halter. Mark the tube with adhesive tape at nostril level.
Nasogastric Intubation: Equine When removing the tube keep hands close to the nostril, retrieve a __-inch section with one hand, re-grasp with other hand and withdraw another __ inches, and repeat.	12-inch. 12 inches.
Nasogastric Intubation: Equine Maintain control of the tube at all times to avoid? (2)	nosebleeds and minimize horse's head whipping back in response.
Nasogastric Intubation: Equine Be sure to do what to prevent any inside material from being inhaled into the lungs?	crimp the tube or occlude the external opening of tube.
Parenteral Injection Techniques: Equine The most common routes are (4):	IM, IV, SC/SQ, ID
Parenteral Injection Techniques: Equine Route selected depends on what? (4)	drug label protocol. patient cooperation. toxicities of meds. technician capability.
Parenteral Injection Techniques: Equine All sites should be aseptically prepared, but sterile prep for ___ and ___ catheterization.	joint. IV catheterization.
Parenteral Injection Techniques: Equine Vigorously wipe with ___ and allow it to thoroughly soak skin.	alcohol
Parenteral Injection Techniques: Equine True or false: multiple injection sites might be needed for repeated or large doses.	True
Intramuscular Injections: Equine Muscles do not have unlimited capacity for injection. __ mL maximum recommended, but in small muscle areas __-__ mL maximum is recommended.	15 mL. 5-10 mL.
Intramuscular Injections: Equine Some meds require larger volumes. What can be done about this?	Several injection sites can be used or withdraw bevel partially and redirect at a 45 degree angle to re-inject.
Intramuscular Injections: Equine To avoid lumen blood vessel entry, what must always be done before completing an injection?	aspirate for blood first
Intramuscular Injections: Equine True or false: injection abscesses are a potential complication of IM injection (especially vaccines).	True
Intramuscular Injections: Equine The most common site is ___ ___. This in contraindicated in foals.	lateral cervical
Intramuscular Injections: Equine Describe find appropriate lateral cervical IM injection placement.	Hand width ventral to crest of neck; hand width dorsal to jugular groove; hand width cranial to the cranial border of scapula; this forms a large triangle.
Intramuscular Injections: Equine Describe the process of administering a lateral cervical IM injection.	Stand to the side of forequarters where kicks are less likely. Cleanse skin, insert needle perpendicular to skin insert to full depth. Stabilize needle, aspirate and administer. Pinch skin (loose in this area) and insert caudal to pinch is recommended.
Intramuscular Injections: Equine Why is the pinch method recommended when administering lateral cervical IM injection?	The pinch distracts from pain and allows skin fold to cover needle track.
Intramuscular Injections: Equine The pectoral muscle is suitable for ___ volume injections of < __ mL to __ mL in a larger horse.	small. 5 mL up to 10 mL in a large horse
Intramuscular Injections: Equine What length needle is usually used?	1 inch
Intramuscular Injections: Equine True or false: the pectoral muscle is slightly movable so stabilize with one hand, while standing to the side of forequarters, and insert at a 90 degree angle.	True
Intramuscular Injections: Equine Pectorals have good ___, which is an advantage if an abscess develops.	drainage
Intramuscular Injections: Equine ___ muscle is only used when all other sites have been exhausted. Not suitable for large volumes. Avoided in performance animals due to creating soreness and scarring and it is the main muscle that propels the forelimb.	Triceps
Intramuscular Injections: Equine The ___ muscle consists of several muscles in the rump area. Skin is thick and tight, greater force is required to penetrate. Stand behind flank, the further cranial you stand the less likely you'll be kicked. Needle g.?	gluteal. 18-20 gauge.
Intramuscular Injections: Equine When administering an IM injection into the gluteal muscle give warning to the thrust of the needle by:	thumping the skin several times or firmly rub the area.
Intramuscular Injections: Equine To prevent laceration to muscle fibers and vessel, if a horse responds unfavorable to a gluteal IM injection, what can be done?	insert only the needle to its full depth. One hand remains on hub during the entire procedure. Attach syringe, aspirate, deliver meds.
Intramuscular Injections: Equine Gluteal muscles should be avoided in race and performance horses to avoid ___ and muscle ___.	scarring. soreness.
Intramuscular Injections: Equine What are the landmarks used to find the appropriate injections site for gluteal muscle IM injection?	A hand's width lateral to spine. A hand's width caudal to tuber coxae (point of hip). A hand's width dorsal to greater trochanter of femur.
Intramuscular Injections: Equine Semitendinosus muscles are well suited for ___ injections.	small injections < 10 mL.
Intramuscular Injections: Equine The sciatic nerve lies in the visible groove on ___ aspect of thigh.	caudolateral
Intravenous Injection Sites: Equine What vein is used for most IV injections in large animals?	Jugular vein
Intravenous Injection Sites: Equine What are three reasons the jugular vein make a good site for IV injection?	Most accessible, easy to position away from hoof strike and kicks. Largest diameter peripheral vein. Lies just below the skin in the jugular groove.
Intravenous Injection Sites: Equine What are three consequences of "carotid stick?"	Large hematomas, slow to resolve. Carries drug rapidly to the brain, the horse can collapse, have seizures, display dementia, possible death form cardiac or respiratory arrest. If they recover, neurologic signs can be permanent.
Intravenous Injection Sites: Equine How can we minimize the risk of carotid injections?	Use the cranial half of the jugular groove. When inserting just the needle the blood will flow not pump/squirt. Apply pressure and elevate horse's head.
Intravenous Injection Sites: Equine True or false: both leg veins are difficult to access in standing horses. More useful in sedated patients or horses and foals in lateral recumbency while anesthetized or sedated.
Intravenous Injection Sites: Equine Why is use of the coccygeal vein restricted to small non-irritating substances?	Any swelling or scarring could occlude artery, main (and only) blood supply to the tail. This will cause sloughing of the tail.
Subcutaneous Injections: Equine Where is the most common site in horses?	lateral aspect of the neck
Subcutaneous Injections: Equine True or false: the lateral aspect of the neck is not suitable for large volumes of fluid and is not used to administer SQ fluids (as in small animals).	True
Intradermal Injection: Equine True or false: ID is rarely used to administer meds, mainly used for TB (cattle) and allergy testing.	True
Intradermal Injection: Equine True or false: No blood should enter upon aspiration of an ID injection. A small bleb should appear if correctly done.	True
Adverse Reactions: Equine Reactions can be related to:	Rate of IV medication given (bolus). Inadvertent IV injection of med not intended for IV. An improper injection technique creating chemical damage to tissue. Procaine Penicillin G: reaction if given in blood stream. Approved for IM injection.
Thrombophlebitis: Equine What is it? What can it cause?	Inflammation of vein with thrombus formation. May begin on catheter or damaged area of vein. May grow enough to completely occlude blood flow, may become septic, or create an ascending infection.
Thrombophlebitis: Equine What are some causes (3). Solution?	Poor insertion technique. Lack of cleanliness. Excessive motion of the catheter. If confirmed, catheter must be removed and cultured. All use of the affected vein must stop.
Thrombophlebitis: Equine Can it be palpated?	Yes, the area will have a solid feel when palpated. A rope-like or cord-like swelling in the vein may be felt.
What is the second choice for IV catheter placement in the horse (after the jugular).	Lateral thoracic
True or false: median, cephalic, and saphenous veins are available for IV catheter placement, but are difficult to enter and have a tendency to collapse in the horse.	True
True or false: using IV catheters to obtain blood samples increases the risk of clotting.	True
Abdmoninocentesis: Equine Procedure is usually indicated for abdominal disease (GI or non-GI origin), chronic weight loss. It is performed with adults ___ and foals ___.	standing. lateral recumbency.
Abdmoninocentesis: Equine Where is the procedure usually performed on the animal? What are they aiming for as an insertion point?	lowest point on ventral midline or slightly to the right of ventral midline. Linea alba.
Arthrocentesis (joint tap): Equine True or false: performed when suspected or confirmed joint disease, or tendon sheath or bursal disease.	True
Arthrocentesis (joint tap): Equine Patient positioning? Is restraint necessary?	Patient positioning dependent on location of structure. Restrain is required as the patient must remain motionless. Local anesthetic is usually used.
Standing Surgeries: Equine True or false: most large animal sx procedures are performed on standing, awake patients.	True
Standing Surgeries: Equine ___ common procedures are puncture wounds, lacerations, castration, female reproductive sx, laser and endoscopic sx of upper respiratory tract, minor hoof and leg.	Most
Standing Surgeries: Equine ___ common procedures are abdominal, thoracic, ophthalmic, sinus, and dental procedures.	Less
Standing Surgeries: Equine What are the benefits of standing surgeries? (6)	Compartment syndrome from recumbency under anesthesia, anesthesia for stressed/traumatized patients & those w/ hx of difficult recovery. Beneficial for ill, debilitated, elderly patients who cannot undergo anesthesia. Can be done on farm.
Standing Surgeries: Equine Standing procedures are generally ___ costly, and require ___ drugs, personnel, and monitoring.	less. fewer.
Standing Surgeries: Equine What are four drawbacks for this type of procedure?	Surgeon comfort compromised. Surgeon's visualization (poor lighting). Difficult to drape & maintain sterile field & control sterile instrument. An awake patient who can move, even under sedation, presents a danger to themselves, personnel, equipment.
Standing Surgery Prep: Equine What are some things that are procedure dependent?	food intake restrictions, some form of chemical restraint (most will affect GI motility), and physical restraint.
Standing Surgery Prep: Equine What are four things that must be in place used?	Clean, dry, dust-free area, w/o drafts. Noise and motion must be minimized. Instruments must be elevated off the ground. Analgesia is required to minimize patient discomfort. Local anesthetic may be applied via nerve blocks, skin blocks, caudal epiderals.
General Anesthesia: Equine What are three patient risk factors to keep in mind?	size, weight, temperament
General Anesthesia Preparation Principles: Equine Horses are prone to ___ problems under general anesthesia.	ventilation
General Anesthesia Preparation Principles: Equine Anticholinergic drugs not routinely used in horses because? (2)	Depresses GI motility. Increases risk of colic.
General Anesthesia Preparation Principles: Equine General anesthetic risks increase with ___ factors.	time
General Anesthesia Preparation Principles: Equine True or false: a patient must be thoroughly groomed to decrease contamination of Sx room.	True
General Anesthesia Preparation Principles: Equine What are two anatomical structures that must be protected during induction and recovery.	Lower legs and eyes
True or false: Pre-op exam and lab evaluations should be performed.	True
General Anesthesia Preparation Principles: Equine Fluid and electrolyte imbalances should be corrected when?	Before the procedure begins.
Methods of Induction & Maintenance for General Anesthesia in Equines Injectable drugs are ___ common for procedures < 1 hour. Induction must be rapid to prevent wandering or slow fall backwards.	Most
Methods of Induction & Maintenance Why is it better to use induction techniques with injectable/maintenance with gas? Are there limitations with this technique in horses?	It will provide oxygen and assisted ventilation. Yes. usually only suitable for foals as gas cannot be administered quickly enough for adults.
Methods of Induction & Maintenance True or false: foals are usually induced with mare by its side. Then she is sedated and returned to her stall where her foal will be returned to her for recovery.	True
Routes of tracheal intubation: Equine ___ intubation, most common method used. Performed in either lateral or sternal recumbency. It is performed blind with a well lubricated tube.	Orotracheal
Routes of tracheal intubation: Equine ___ intubation is used primarily for foals and small horses after induction with injectable drugs.	Nasotracheal
Routes of tracheal intubation: Equine ___ tracheal intubation is not commonly performed unless procedure is on larynx or pharynx.	Direct
Routes of tracheal intubation: Equine ___ intubation is accomplished by passing a tube through a mouth speculum made of PVC pipe.	Orotracheal
Routes of tracheal intubation: Equine ___ intubation of trachea though a tracheostomy (creation of an opening directly into trachea)	Direct tracheal intubation
Essential Patient Monitoring: Equine True or false: you must maintain anesthetic records regardless of procedure length.	True
Essential Patient Monitoring: Equine What are four primary concerns of equine patients?	hypothermia, hypoventilation, hypotension, and bradycardia
Essential Patient Monitoring: Equine What are seven parameters that should always be monitored?	Temperature, pulse rate, pulse rhythm, respiratory rate, respiratory rate, CRT, and MM color.
Essential Patient Monitoring: Equine True or false: electrocardiogram monitoring is desirable.	True
Essential Patient Monitoring: Equine True or false: BP monitoring is recommended.	True
Essential Patient Monitoring: Equine How should oxygenation and ventilation be assessed?	Blood gases
Essential Patient Monitoring: Equine Describe the difference between Ventilation and Oxygenation.	Ventilation refers to the patient's ability to take in oxygen and remove carbon dioxide. Oxygenation (perfusion) refers to the patient's ability to take in oxygen from the lungs and distribute it to the tissues and organs of the body.
Essential Patient Monitoring: Equine How can we assess depth of anesthesia?	eye position & reflexes
Essential Patient Monitoring: Equine Direct measure of blood pressure can be measured with a ___-___ catheter in the ___ ___ artery. The catheter is connected to a pressure transducer and tubing is filled with hep-saline.	intra-arterial. transverse facial
Essential Patient Monitoring: Equine Indirect measure of blood pressure can be obtained using a ___ with a ___ cuff.	Doppler. tail (coccygeal artery).
Oxygenation/Ventilation: Equine Adult horses should maintain a respiratory rate between __ and ___ per minute. In foals it is > 20.	8 and 12
Oxygenation/Ventilation: Equine A respiratory rate of < __ needs immediate assistance.	6
Oxygenation/Ventilation: Equine Each breath must exchange a sufficient tidal volume of air. What is considered ideal?	10 mL/kg
Control of Bleeding during Sx: Equine What are two reasons that this is important?	patient's health and surgeon's visualization
Control of Bleeding during Sx: Equine Blood flow can be controlled on procedures on distal limbs with a ___ bandage or tourniquet.	Esmarch
Control of Bleeding during Sx: Equine Tourniquet is applied proximal to the surgical area, with ___ underneath.	padding
Control of Bleeding during Sx: Equine Esmarch bandage is then applied: wrapping with ___ and ___ layers.	tension. overlapping. This forces blood proximally/out of the distal limb. The tourniquet is not activated and bandage is removed.
Control of Bleeding during Sx: Equine Why is it important that tourniquets be used during surgical plane of anesthesia and removed as soon as possible.	They are painful. Cutting off circulation to the limb for a long period of time will damage nerves and tissue. Not time in patient record.
Patient Recovery: Equine True or false: recovery poses more risk in large animals than induction or maintenance. Why?	True. Prey animal by instinct will attempt to stand NOW. Brain says YES, but body still metabolizing drugs says NO.
Control of Bleeding during Sx: Equine What drug combination, used in short procedures, is an exception to poor recovery in horses, in which most horses will stand with minimum difficulty?	Xylazine and Ketamine
Control of Bleeding during Sx: Equine What should be readily available in the event that a patient has a rough recovery from general anesthesia?	Emergency drugs and equipment
Recommendations for Safe Recovery: Equine Recover horses in ___ recumbency.	lateral
Recommendations for Safe Recovery: Equine True or false: Do not encourage patient to stand, but allow them to rest quietly avoiding any sensory stimulus.	True
Recommendations for Safe Recovery: Equine ___ leave patients unattended or unobserved.	Never
Recommendations for Safe Recovery: Equine What should you watch for before removing ET tube?	swallowing
Recommendations for Safe Recovery: Equine True or false: Foals should be closely attended during recovery, one person with the head and one person holding the tail. assistance with standing.	True
Recommendations for Safe Recovery: Equine Immediate food and water ___ be allowed.	shouldn't
Recommendations for Safe Recovery: Equine How long is it desirable to provide supplemental oxygen for any procedure?	> one hour
Nasal Turbinate Edema: Equine How is it recognized?	rattling or snorting noises
Nasal Turbinate Edema: Equine When do they occur? Why is it a problem?	May occur after extubation. It severely compromises breathing and warrants immediate treatment.
Nasal Turbinate Edema: Equine How can they be prevented?	Head should never be positioned lower than the heart during anesthesia.
Nasal Turbinate Edema: Equine What should be done if this occurs?	Elevate head with nose slightly higher. Large canine ET tube can be used as a nasotracheal tube. Secure tube to halter or muzzle to prevent aspiration or tube. Tube should be removed once horse is standing.
External Coaptation: Bandages, Splints, Casts What are four indications?	Compress dead space to prevent hematomas and seromas. Reduce skin motion at a surgical site or wound. Minimize wound contamination. Hold medications on wound.
External Coaptation: Bandages, Splints, Casts Name several more indications.	Prevent further injury to area. Compress open wound to prevent development of exuberant granulation tissue. ("proud flesh"). Prevent self-mutilation. Immobilize a joint or limb. Supplemental support to joint/limb. Protect limbs during transport of horse.
Padding Padding Padding: Equine External Coaptation ...is the basis for good bandaging. Failure to apply adequate padding can lead to:	strangulation of the blood supply resulting in pressure sores, pressure necrosis, inflammation of tendons and ligaments, and tendonitis.
Padding Padding Padding: Equine External Coaptation Too much padding can result it:	slipping and bunching of the bandage material
True or false: bandaging is both an art and science: snug, firm fit (not too tight or too loose). Even pressure throughout the length of the bandage. All layers applied in the same direction.	True
Monitoring External Coaptation: Equine Depending on the bandage and the patient, monitoring should be done how often?	several times a day
Monitoring External Coaptation: Equine What should we be looking for?	tightness, soiling, strike-through (oozing), swelling, unraveling, patient tampering, increased lameness.
Monitoring External Coaptation: Equine Limiting access to the bandage material by the patient can be accomplished with what device?	A wooden slatted "neck cradle" similar to an Elizabethan collar.
Monitoring External Coaptation: Equine What should we keep in mind when picking the correct bandaging material?	anatomical location of the bandage, materials available, patient temperament, confinement, training of patient, experience of the person applying the bandage, and the purpose of the bandage.
Exercise bandages/wraps for equine patients are used to:	Protect and support lower legs during turnout and exercise. Protection of the hoof and heel bulbs (accomplished with "bell boots". These can be added to a limb wrap.
Describe the process of applying a quilted cotton wrap for metacarpus/metatarsus (canon bone).	Establish the correct size to fit between hook/knee and pastern. Bandage should be started on medial aspect of the limb and unrolled cranially. Unwrap evenly without wrinkles. Complete wrap. Then move on to the securing layer.
Describe the process of applying a securing layer for metacarpus/metatarsus (canon bone).	Start layer in the middle of the padding beginning on medial aspect of limb and unroll cranially. Free hand should stabilize bandage so it doesn't spin on leg. Finished bandage should leave 1" of padding exposed at both top and bottom.
A bell boot can be added to external coaptation of equine patients to protect?	heel, heel bulbs, and coronary band
What are shipping bandages used for?	Essential protection of the legs of a horse during transportation.
True or false: shipping bandages can be created but commercially available wraps cover the entire leg and coronary band. They are padded and washable and come in full leg or lower leg.	True
What position should commercial shipping wrap velco fasteners be placed?	lateral aspect of the leg to prevent catching.
Why are hoof bandages generally placed?	To cover open surgical or traumatic hoof wounds.
What must be done before securing hoof bandages? What do we want to avoid while placing them?	Thorough cleaning and treating of wounds. Pressure to the coronary band or heel bulbs that constricts blood flow to the hoof with elastic or non-elastic material.
What are treatment plates (boiler plates)?	Metal plates that are fixed to a horse shoe with screws to protect open sole wounds.
Wound Dressing: Equine What is a "Dry-dry" dressing?	4x4 gauze squares for absorbing exudate or bleeding.
Wound Dressing: Equine What is a Telfa pad used for?	They are non-stick so they will not adhere to the wound.
Wound Dressing: Equine True or false: petroleum jelly can be placed over the wound to prevent bandage sticking to wound.	True
Wound Dressing: Equine Gauze rolls can be applied to:	lay passively on suture or to prevent pressure
Wound Dressing: Equine If a wound dressing is used, it must be held in place against the wound, but?	not used to apply pressure to the wound.
Wound Dressing: Equine "Full limb" bandages are applied how?	in two parts. "Double-decker" bandage. Distal limb should be wrapped before the proximal limb.
Wound Dressing: Equine What can be done to relieve pressure on a bony prominence?	small vertical relief incision (careful not to lacerate the skin) of the bandage
Limb Casts: Equine Casting material is usually a combination of:	fiberglass with resin
Limb Casts: Equine There are several kinds of limb casts, name three.	Foot casts & lower limb cases (encases the hoof), and a tube or sleeve cast (does not enclose the hoof).
Limb Casts: Equine The top of a foot cast should be finished with:	elastic adhesive tape to form a seal prevent debris from getting inside the cast
Limb Casts: Equine True or false: acrylic can be spread across the bottom of the cast for protection.	True
Limb Casts: Equine Hands should be kept in an ___ position when assisting in cast application to avoid leaving finger indentations.	open
Limb Casts: Equine Adhesive tape at the top of a cast forms a:	seal and prevents debris from getting inside the cast
Limb Casts: Equine Patient Monitoring Patients with casts are a ___ priority with regard to monitoring after care.	high
Limb Casts: Equine Patient Monitoring The "cast check" should include:	TPR, areas of heat, odor, exudate, swelling, excessive wear at bottom of cast, integrity of cast, monitor all hooves for laminitis most important confirm that the animal is weight bearing.
Limb Casts: Equine How are they removed?	With the use of a Stryker saw to split both medial land lateral surfaces. Once the cast is open the two halves can be separated with cast spreaders.
Head and Face Bandages: Equine ___ compression can be used as a wound protection. What can be compromised?	Circulation, breathing, and vision
Head and Face Bandages: Equine What is the best choice of material?	an orthopedic stockinette to create a head sleeve
Head and Face Bandages: Equine Describe the process of applying an Orthopedic stockinette:	Orthopedic stockinette is measured for length, the measured length is doubled, the stockinette is then doughnut rolled and placed over the horse's head and rolled rostrally. Ear and eye holes are created. The bandage it held in place with elastic tape
Abdominal "belly band" wraps and Thoracic "chest" wraps are applied how?	Cover the skin with roll gauze to miniminze tape contact with skin. Start cranially and spiral caudally around the patient's body. Completely cover the gauze with elastic adhesive tape and anchor onto adjacent skin.
True or false: application of abdominal belly band and thoracic chest wraps require two people.	True
Tail Bandages/Wraps: Equine What are they used for:	to protect: tails during shipping of horse, from feces, urine, or fetal fluids. to prevent contamination of vulva and perineum during a medical/surgical reproductive procedure.
Tail Bandages/Wrap What do you want to avoid when applying these bandages.	Circling the "living" portion of the tail with non-elastic material so that the coccygeal artery (sole blood supply) is not strangulated.
Tail Bandages/Wraps: Equine Describe the process of applying this type of bandage:	Begin with two to three rounds with gauze roll just pasted the base of the tail. Loop small amount of tail hair pulled proximal and over the gauze. If wrap is for reproductive procedures, the wrap should extend to the several inches below the vulva.
Tail Bandages/Wraps: Equine The tail can be moved out of the way for a procedure by?	Supporting the tail as gauze is passed cranially around the neck then secured with a quick-release knot.
Tail Bandages/Wraps: Equine What is a danger to keep in mind if these are secured to a horse's neck?	Partial blood flow obstruction through the jugulars. This can be alleviated by lifting the gauze away from the neck every few minutes.
Tail Bandages/Wraps: Equine How do you remove the tail wrap?	grasp the gauze at the base of the tail and pull gauze distally and slide it off the tail.
Tail Bags What are they?	Used to protect the tail from diarrhea, impending foal, or tail paralysis.
Tail Bags In cases of infectious diarrhea, such as ___, it reduces our risk of exposure.	Salmonella
Tail Bag How do you apply one?	Cut off/knot hand portion from a standard rectal sleeve. Braid or tape the lower portion of the tail (loop before applying tape). Place tail inside the sleeve. Sleeve can be held in place with elastic tape at base of tail (avoid strangulation of artery).
Fluid Therapy and Colic: Equine In the natural state, an animal has only one body system for intake of fluids and electrolytes, what is it?	the GI tract
Fluid Therapy and Colic: Equine Calculations for replacing fluids is different than calculating for electrolytes and nutrients. What is the basic formula to determine Fluid Need?	Maintenance fluids + ongoing losses + deficit replacement
Maintenance Fluids: Equine Volume of water necessary to maintain life. What is the minimum amount?	2 mL/kg/hr. An average 500 kg (1100 pound) horse requires a minimum of 1 L/hr = 24 L a day.
Fluid Therapy and Colic: Equine Ongoing Losses If an animal is healthy the factor is zero. Once primary disease is under control ongoing loss should end. What are most ongoing losses from?	diarrhea, kidney disease, sweating, edema, hemorrhage can not be strictly measured. Although urine output can be accurately measured.
Fluid Therapy and Colic: Equine Deficit Replacement Deficit replacement applies only to a dehydrated animal. Mild to moderate deficits are replaced over __ to __ hours.	12 to 24 hours
Fluid Therapy and Colic: Equine Deficit Replacement Deficit replacement applies only to a dehydrated animal. It is necessary to replace fluids within __ to __ hours for survival.	1 to 2 hours. Cardiovascular shock will be evident.
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Substance Calculations Electrolytes? (3)	sodium, potassium, chloride
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Substance Calculations Minerals?	especially calcium and phosphorous
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Substance Calculations Nutrients?	primarily glucose and protein
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Substance Calculations pH buffers:	such as bicarbonate
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Substance Calculations All must electrolytes, minerals, nutrients, and pH buffers must be evaluated for substance excess (normal value) or substance deficit. Describe formula:	Normal value - patient's value x extracellular fluid (ECF) factor X body weight (kg) = amount to replace.
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Substance Calculations True or false: the percentage of an animal's total body water that is extracellular fluid is age dependent. Adults? Older foals? Neonates?	True. 0.3 adults, 0.4 older foals, 0.5 neonates.
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Substance Calculations What are the three most common substances replaced in horses?	potassium, calcium, and bicarbonate
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Substance Calculations Herbivores are highly dependent on ___ from feed sources. Horses off feed more than 24 hours need supplementation.	potassium
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Substance Calculations Potassium replacement added to IV fluids should not exceed:	1 mEq/kg/hour
What is a mEq exactly?	1 mEq is represented by 1 mg of hydrogen (1 mole) or 23 mg of Na+, 39 mg of K+, etc.
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Substance Calculations Maintenance doses added to IV fluids equals?	20 mEq KCl/Liter
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Substance Calculations What is KCl?	Potassium chloride (also known as Sylvite or potassium salt). It is composed of potassium and chlorine.
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Animals off feed, lactating, or sweating profusely may experience ___ loss.	calcium
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine True or false: some calcium supplemental calcium formulas can be given IV.	True
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine If administering supplemental calcium IV, it is key to remember:	never give at a fast rate. It can cause cardiac arrhythmias. Monitor closely, administer gradually.
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Calcium solutions should not be allowed to mix with ___ solutions.	bicarbonate
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine What can result from rapid administration of sodium bicarbonate IV?	central nervous system dysfunction. Should be given gradually. Usually given when an animal is experiencing pH imbalances.
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine What is the general rule for IV Sodium Bicarbonate administration?	Half the calculated deficit given over several hours. The second half given over a 12 to 24 hour period.
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine What is a normal equine pH? What value indicates Acidemia? Life-threatening acidemia?	Normal: 7.32 - 7.44. Acidemia: 7.2 - 7.31. Life-threatening acidemia: <7.2
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine What is Acidemia?	A condition in which the acidity of the blood is much higher than is usual and desirable.
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Routes and Methods Equine If GI tract is functional and patient is not critical, substances can be added to what? What should also be made available?	a bucket of water. Regular water and monitored for consumption.
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Routes and Methods Equine The GI tract can be used via ___ intubation. However, stomach capacity limitations and speed with which it empties, if exceeded it may cause?	nasogastric. colic.
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Routes and Methods Equine SQ route is ___ used to replace fluid deficits in large animals.	not
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Routes and Methods Equine Occasionally, amounts <500 are given SQ, but this is more often the case with?	ruminants
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Routes and Methods Equine For short-term administration a 14 - 18 gauge needle with tubing attached can be inserted directly into the vein. These fluids should be less than ___.	1 L.
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Routes and Methods Equine For long term administration an IV catheter must be placed. Horses must be monitored carefully to prevent ___ or ___. It may be necessary to place them in stocks or head tie.	kinking or disconnection
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Routes and Methods Equine Why is it so important that horses be closely monitored for tube disconnect of IV catheter?	Death can result as catheter can allow aspiration of air into the bloodstream (air embolism), or massive hemorrhage from the catheter.
Enteral (GI) Feeding: Equine True or false: Patients can be partially or totally nutritionally supported when GI tract is incapable of direct intake.	True
Enteral (GI) Feeding: Equine GI tract must be capable of ___ and ___ for enteral feeding.	digestion and absorption
Enteral (GI) Feeding: Equine Why must patients with indwelling nasogastric tubes not be allowed to eat around the tube?	It can interfere with swallowing and aspiration could result.
Parenteral Routes for Feeding: Equine Large animal parenteral route is usually __.	IV
Parenteral Routes for Feeding: Equine Based on patient disease, physical condition, and length of time support will be needed TPN or PPN can be performed. What is TPN and PPN?	Total parenteral nutrition. Partial Parenteral Nutrition Sterile solutions are commercially available for IV use.
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Blood and Plasma ___ ___ is used to treat life-threatening blood loss, RBC deficit, or platelet loss.	Whole blood
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Blood and Plasma True or false: whole blood is not commercially available for large animals due to inability to freeze or store under refrigeration for longer than several days.	True
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Blood and Plasma Fresh, whole blood, is collected from donor horses that are confirmed negative for ___ and current on ___. Donors are used on a "as needed" basis.	equine infectious anemia. vaccines.
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Blood and Plasma True or false: there is no "universal donor" blood type among horses.	True
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Blood and Plasma What should always be done to confirm a compatible donor?	major and minor cross matching
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Blood and Plasma True or false: Unmatched transfusions may be performed in emergency situations, although there are risks.	True
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Blood and Plasma How much blood can a healthy adult horse donate?	15% - 20% of its total blood volume (5-10 L at one collection, or up to 20 mL/kg every 3 to 4 weeks.)
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Blood and Plasma True or false: strict sterile and aseptic techniques are used.	True
What is the difference between aseptic and sterile?	Aseptic means something has been made contamination-free. That it will not reproduce or create any kind of harmful living microorganisms (bacteria, viruses and others). Sterile describes a product that is entirely free of all germs.
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Blood and Plasma What is one suggested formula for calculating transfusion volumes?	Liters required = bodyweight (kg) x blood volume factor (mL/kg) x (PCV desired - PCV measured) ÷ PCV of donor
Fluid Therapy & Colic: Equine Blood and Plasma How is blood volume factored? Neonate < 4 weeks old? neonate 4-12 weeks old? foal 12 weeks to 6 months? 6 months to adult?	neonate < 4 weeks: 151 mL/kg. neonate 4-12 weeks old: 93/mL. foal 12 weeks to 6 months: 82 mL. 6 months to adult: 72 mL/kg
Colic: Equine What does it mean?	"abdominal pain"
Colic: Equine True or False: Majority of cases are caused by GI system, although urinary and reproductive tracts (also located in the abdominal region) can cause colic when diseased. Some musculoskeletal conditions mimic colic.	True
Colic: Equine True or false: Most horses will show obvious signs of colic, but these may be missed by inexperienced horse owners, or the signs of colic discomfort may not be shown by stoic horses.	True
Colic: Equine Name 5 behavioral signs of colic pain.	Sweating. Pawing w/front feet (can be persistant enough to cause hoof wall damage). Frequent urination posturing but expelling little to none. Looking back at their own flanks. Crouching as though they were preparing to lie down.
Colic: Equine Name 6 behavioral signs of colic pain.	Lying down for prolonged periods of time. Rolling on the ground. Grinding teeth (bruxism). Quivering upper lip. Groaning. Lying on their back.
Colic: Equine Name 6 behavioral signs of colic pain.	Self-trauma from thrashing their head against the ground (accompanying painful conditions). increased respiratory rate. Kicking their own abdomen with hind feet. "Playing" with water. Standing with their back hunched. Sitting like a dog.
Colic: Equine Name 6 clinical signs of colic pain. Is Colic considered an emergency situation?	Dehydration. Cardiovascular shock. Abdominal distension. Abnormal MM color. Abnormal feces or absence of feces. Abnormal rectal temperature. Yes.
Colic: Equine True or false: a specific diagnosis of the causes of colic is often difficult despite palpation, radiographs, ultrasound, and laparoscopy.	True
Colic: Equine Successful treatment of colic is usually achieved by categorizing colic based on (2):	lab tests and clinical signs.
Colic: Equine What is included in a colic exam (8)?	Observation. Obtain History. Basic Physical Exam. Nasogastric Intubation. Rectal Exam. Diagnostic Sampling. Fecal Specimen. Diagnostic Imaging.
Colic: Equine Describe Observation on Colic Exam.	Pain, attitude, environmental surroundings
Colic: Equine Describe Obtain History on Colic Exam.	Husbandry and management practices. History of current colic episode.
Colic: Equine Describe Basic Physical on Colic Exam.	TPR/physical condition, self-trauma, MM, CRT
Colic: Equine Describe Diagnostic Sampling on Colic Exam.	Abdominocentesis/blood work
Colic: Equine Describe Fecal Specimen on Colic Exam.	Parasite evaluation, presence of sand, fecal culture
Colic: Equine Describe Diagnostic Imaging on Colic Exam.	Abdominal radiographs, diagnostic ultrasound, gastroscopy, thermography, laparoscopy.
Nasogastric Intubation: diagnostic/treatment tool True or False: Horses can not vomit and an overly distended stomach can cause gastric rupture, a fatal condition with or without surgery.	True
Nasogastric Intubation: diagnostic/treatment tool ___ is the term for the stomach contents voided through a nasogastric tube (NGT).	Reflux
Nasogastric Intubation: diagnostic/treatment tool Reflux may be ___ or ___ or ___. The type and amount of liquid reflux is helpful diagnostic information.	liquid, gas, both
Nasogastric Intubation: diagnostic/treatment tool True or false: The NGT can also be used to directly administer meds into the stomach of a horse that does not have gastric reflux.	True
Nasogastric Intubation: diagnostic/treatment tool While collecting gastric reflux into a bucket one hand should stabilize the ___.	tube near the nostril
Rectal Exam: Equine Commonly performed in the diagnosis of colic. Potentially hazardous to:	both the clinician and patient
Rectal Exam: Equine Equine rectum is ___ torn and these can be ___.	easily. life-threatening.
Rectal Exam: Equine Effective physical and ___ restraint is imperative.	chemical
Rectal Exam: Equine It is a blind procedure but also an opportunity to collect fresh feces. It must be examined for:	consistency, color, odor, blood, mucous strands, and parasites. Mixed with water and allowed to settle it can be felt for grittiness (if sand-related colic is suspected).
Equine Colic: Radiographs True or false: Very useful tool used on foals due to their size and lack of solid intestinal contents.	True
Equine Colic: Radiographs Adult horse radiographs are limited to ___ projections of dorsal abdomen only as limited strength portable machines are used.	lateral
Equine Colic: Radiographs True or False: Very few diseases can be diagnosed in an adult horse through abdominal radiographs.	True
Equine Colic: Abdominal Ultrasound Useful in all sizes of equines, but limited in its ability to penetrate ___ into the abdomen. Best used to diagnose problems located close to the abdominal wall.	deep
Equine Colic: From Exam to a Treatment Plan Recommendations may be:	surgery, intensive care, further diagnostics
Equine Colic: From Exam to a Treatment Plan Treatment plan will depend on:	diagnosis, patient variables, available staff and facilities, and economic considerations
Equine Colic: From Exam to a Treatment Plan Treatment for mild to moderate cases include:	restricted oral intake of both food and water, fluid therapy, pain control, NSAIDS, hand-walking. Patients are usually placed on colic watch for frequent monitoring of pain and vital signs.
Equine Colic: From Exam to a Treatment Plan Surgical exploration may be indicated for patients:	with severe pain

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