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Sm Animal Medicine 2

Up to Diseases of the Blood done

QuestionAnswer
What are neurons? List two general attributes. They are the basic functional units of the nervous system. Cannot reproduce but can regenerate cell processes if the cell body remains intact. They have a high oxygen requirement.
Neuron - Cell Processes What do dendrites do? They receive stimuli.
Neuron - Cell Processes What do axons do? They conduct nerve impulses away.
Axons Describe an attribute of myelinated axons. Conduct impulses faster than unmyelinated ones.
Axons Describe a myelin sheath. Cell membrane of glial cells tightly wrapped around the axon.
Organization of the Nervous System - Anatomical What two structures make up the Central Nervous System (CNS)? Brain and spinal cord
Organization of the Nervous System - Anatomical Describe the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS). Extends outward from the central axis toward the periphery of the body. Cranial nerves originate directly from the brain. Spinal nerves emerge from the spinal cord.
Organization of the Nervous System - Functional Describe the Somatic nervous system. Actions under voluntary control.
Organization of the Nervous System - Functional Describe the Autonomic nervous system. Controls automatic functions.
Describe the process of Depolarization. Neuron receives external stimulus. Sodium channel opens on neuron cell membrane, and the sodium ions flow into the cell by passive diffusion.
Depolarization What is Action Potential? During depolarization, inside of the neuron goes from a negatively charged resting membrane potential to a net positive charge due to inflow of sodium ions. Creates large change in electrical charge from negative to positive.
Describe Repolarization. Sodium channels close. K+ channels open. K+ diffuses out of the cell. Resting state is restored.
Describe a neuron at Resting Potential. Opposite charges on opposite sides of the cell membrane resulting in a polarized membrane. (Negative inside/Positive outside).
Synaptic Transmission What do neurotransmitters do? Diffuse across the synaptic cleft toward the postsynaptic membrane.
Synaptic Transmission What do receptors on the postsynaptic membrane do? Bind the neurotransmitter
Types of Neurotransmitters Describe Acetylcholine: Can be either excitatory or inhibitory depending on its location in the body.
Types of Neurotransmitters Describe Catecholamines: Consisting of norepinephrine and epinephrine. They are associated with "fight or flight" reactions of the sympathetic nervous system.
Types of Neurotransmitters What function does Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) perform? Inhibitory in the CNS.
Central Nervous System Name three parts of the brain and one additional component of the CNS. Cerebrum, Cerebellum, and Brain stem. Spinal Cord.
Describe the functions of the Cerebrum. Area of the brain responsible for higher-order behaviors (learning, intelligence, awareness, etc.)
What is Gray Matter in the brain. Cerebral cortex. Outer layer of the brain. Myelinated.
What is White Matter in the brain. Fibers beneath the cortex. Non-Myelinated.
What are three responsibilities of the Cerebellum? Area of the brain responsible for coordinated movement, balance, posture.
Describe the Brain Stem. What is it responsible for? Many ___ ___ originate from this area of the brain. It is the connection between the brain and the spinal cord. Area of the brain responsible for basic support functions of the body. Cranial Nerves.
What is cerebrospinal fluid? Fluid between layers of the meninges and in ventricles inside the brain and central canal of the spinal cord.
What is the Blood Brain Barrier? Capillary walls in the brain have no fenestrations; covered by cell membranes of glial cells. Prevents many drugs, proteins, ions, and other molecules from readily passing from the blood into the brain.
What are three examples of things that the Blood Brain Barrier allows to pass? Water, Oxygen, Glucose
What is the function of the spinal cord? Conducts sensory information and motor instructions between the brain and the peripheral nerves. It can also modify nerve impulses.
What function does the autonomic nervous system serve? Controls automatic functions at the subconscious level.
Name the two segments of the autonomic nervous system, and what they do. Sympathetic nervous system: "Fight or Flight" Response. Parasympathetic Nervous System: "Rest & Restore" System.
What is the withdrawal reflex? Results in contraction or flexing of muscles. Initial movement instigated by the spinal cord.
What is the Palpebral Reflex arc? Light tap on the medial canthus of the eye produces a blink of the eyelid.
Describe the Pupillary Light Reflex (PLR): In normal response to shining light in the eye of an animal the iris, in both eyes, will constrict.
Diseases of the Neurologic System: CNS Name four signs in the brain: Mentation, Behavior, Seizures, Balance
Diseases of the Neurologic System: CNS Name two signs in the spinal cord: Gait, Pain perception
Diseases of the Neurologic System: PNS Describe and name three signs. Nerve or muscle function of the body not due to CNS. Weakness, Tremors, Stiffness
Neurologic Signs Define Primary Neurologic: Etiology is within the neurologic system.
Neurologic Signs Describe Secondary Neurologic: Etiology is due to organ or electrolyte dysfunction. Neurologic system simply showing signs.
Neurologic Signs Name seven means of evaluation. Neurologic exam, Blood evaluation, Blood pressure, Imaging (Myelogram, CT, MRI), Biopsy/CSF analysis, Electromyography (EMG), and EEG.
Neurologic Signs List three specific blood tests run to evaluate the neurologic system. CBC, Chemistry (Glucose, Calcium), Bile acid study (especially neonates)
Brain Trauma Name two components of a Primary event, and describe possible consequence. Initial event & Contrecoup (damage by inertia). Can result in cell damage and disruption of the fiber tracts.
Brain Trauma Define Secondary events. Increased intracranial pressure (hemorrhage/edema), Hypoxia, Seizures
Brain Trauma What are five clinical signs? Blood from ears, nose, mouth. Ocular hemorrhage/abnormal pupils. Loss of consciousness/alertness. Seizures. Shock: altered heart or respiratory patterns.
Brain Trauma What are five possible supportive care methods? Elevate head (beware of neck injury/be gentle). Oxygen. IV fluids (to treat shock or electrolytes). Medication to control seizures. Medication to decrease brain edema.
What is Vestibular Syndrome? Abnormality of inner ear or brain stem resulting in balance abnormalities, ataxia, and nystagmus.
Describe the basic etiology of Vestibular Syndrome (4). Idiopathic (common in senior dogs, does occur in cats: suspected of having viral origin). Inner ear infections. Tumors. Thromboemboli ("stroke")
What are four supportive care methods for Vestibular Syndrome? Treat underlying disease, if determined. Protect animal from self-trauma (falling). Treat symptoms (nausea). Provide fluid and nutritional support!
Describe three attributes of Vestibular Syndrome. Usually self-limiting in 2-3 weeks. Rarely do animals have a second episode. May have a permanent "head tilt."
What are seizures? Name four common attributes of a seizure. Transitory disturbances in brain function: Loss or change in consciousness. Change in muscle tone or movement. Behavior change. Change of autonomic function.
Name the three components of a seizure: Aura (preictal period). Ictus (seizure activity). Postical period.
Seizure Classification Partial and Petit mal: Abnormal focus in cerebrum. One body part shows seizure or behavior abnormality such as "gum chewing" or "fly biting."
Seizure Classification: Generalized (Grand mal?) Most common type. Symmetrical whole body involvement. Loss of consciousness may occur. Tonic or paddling.
Define Epilepsy: Repeated events of seizures.
Describe the etiology of Epilepsy: Idiopathic (Congenital or inherited: German Shepards, Poodles, Golden Retrievers). Trauma. Brain tumors. Meningitis. Thromboembolism (stroke). Metabolic (liver disease, hypoglycemia, etc).
Epilepsy Instructions to owners (first time events)? First time events should be evaluated in all animals: Neurological Exam. CBC/Chemistry. Bile acid study. Seizure events should be timed. Seizures >5 minutes are a concern. Seizures >15 minutes may cause brain damage.
Epilepsy Instructions to owners (supportive care)? Protect animal from trauma. DO NOT stimulate the animal (rubbing, shouting, etc). DO NOT put anything in the animal's mouth! Seizures occurring more than 1x month or more than 1x in 24 hours need medication.
What is Status Epilepticus? It is a medical emergency consisting of seizures lasting continuously >15 minutes, cerebral edema, coma, and can lead to death.
Intervertebral Disc Disease What is it? Name three clinical signs: Herniation of one or more intervertebral discs impinging the spinal cord. (Back pain-often severe. Paresis or paralysis of limbs caudal to lesion. Altered pain sensation caudal to the lesion.)
Define metabolic: Relating to metabolism, the whole range of biochemical processes that occur within living organisms. It consists of anabolism (the buildup of substances) and catabolism (the breakdown of substances).
Define paresis: A condition of muscular weakness caused by nerve damage or disease; partial paralysis
Intervertebral Disc Disease Describe the Etiology of Type I: Acute rupture of disc. Usually young, chondrodysplastic dogs due to defect in disc and abnormal wear. Trauma. Disc material enters neural canal and causes pressure on spinal cord (edema & hemorrhage).
Define chondrodysplastic: The name given to a group of multi-system, metabolic disorders of skeletal development, primarily characterized by mild to moderate growth deficiency, short stature, and bilateral or asymmetric shortening and/or bowing of the legs.
Intervertebral Disc Disease Describe the Etiology of Type II: Chronic, slow herniation of disc. Common in older, large breed dogs.
Intervertebral Disc Disease How is it diagnosed? Clinical signs. Neurologic exam. Plain radiographs (Possible calcified disc. Narrowed disc space consistent with signs.) Myelogram. CT scan or MRI.
What is a Myelogram? Fluoroscopy with injection of contrast material to evaluate the spinal cord, nerve roots and spinal lining (meninges). It is useful for assessing the spine post-surgery and assessing disc abnormalities in patients who cannot undergo MRI.
Intervertebral Disc Disease What are treatment options? Pain relief. Corticosteroids (decrease swelling and on-going cord trauma). DMSO. Emergency Surgery (Remove abnormal disc material to decrease pressure on the spinal cord.)
What is DMSO? Dimethylsulfoxide: it is used topically to decrease pain and speed the healing of wounds, burns, and muscle and skeletal injuries.
Intervertebral Disc Disease Information for clients: Maintain ideal weight in breeds at risk (Dachshund, Basset, Lhasa apso). Avoid having dogs stand on back legs or jumping up onto furniture. Once an animal has had an IVDD, increased risk for another episode at a different site.
Cervical Instability Describe C1-2 & C5-7. What are the clinical signs? C1-2: malformation in young toy breeds. C5-7: malformation in young Great Danes and Dobermans (Wobblers). Clinical signs are: possible neck pain. Abnormal gait due to spinal cord compression.
Cervical Instability How is it diagnosed? Neurologic exam. Radiographs (tech note: use extreme caution when manipulating their necks for radiographs, especially under anesthetic, because it can cause spinal cord trauma.) Myelogram. CT or MRI.
Discospondylitis What is it? A bacterial or fungal infection of the vertebral bones, most obvious of endplates.
Discospondylitis Etiology: Wounds or migrating foreign bodies. Hematogenous most common (urinary tract infections and dental disease).
What does hematogenous mean? Originating in or carried by the blood.
Discospondylitis Name three clinical signs: Back pain, Fever, Neurologic signs
Discospondylitis How is it diagnosed? Radiographs: Lysis of endplates or osteophytes. Disc space collapse. Culture: blood, urine, CSF. Brucellosis titer (zoonotic disease).
What is Brucellosis? A highly contagious zoonosis caused by: ingestion of unpasteurized milk, under cooked meat from infected animals, close contact with their secretions. It is also known as undulant fever, Malta fever, and Mediterranean fever.
Peripheral Nerve Disease What is Metabolic Neuropathy: Multiple muscles showing weakness, atrophy, and decreased reflexes secondary to a metabolic disease (any species). Example Diseases: Hypothyroid, Diabetes mellitus. Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushings)
Peripheral Nerve Disease What is the treatment for Metabolic Neuropathy? Aggressive treatment and control of primary disease usually leads to reversal of neurologic signs.
Peripheral Nerve Disease What is Laryngeal Paralysis? Nerve disorder causing paralysis of one or both arytenoids.
Peripheral Nerve Disease Describe the etiology of Laryngeal Paralysis. Hereditary. Rabies. Tumor/inflammation of region. Lead poisoning. Idiopathic (most common) <- senior large breed dogs
Peripheral Nerve Disease Laryngeal Paralysis: What are the clinical signs? Inspiratory stridor, especially with exercise. Change of voice. Exercise intolerance. Respiratory distress/collapse. Hyperthermia.
Peripheral Nerve Disease Laryngeal Paralysis: How is distress treated? Aggressive cool air in animal's face. Mild sedation to treat anxiety. Oxygen. Emergency tracheostomy. Steroid to decrease swelling.
Peripheral Nerve Disease Laryngeal Paralysis: Name two types of surgical correction. Tie-back. Arytenoidectomy.
Peripheral Nerve Disease What is megaesophagus? Neurologic disorder causing ineffective peristalsis of esophagus, dilation of esophagus, and regurgitation.
Peripheral Nerve Disease Describe the etiology of Megaesophagus: Congenital. Metabolic (Addisons). Lead poisoning. Myasthenia gravis & Other polymyopathies. Idiopathic.
Peripheral Nerve Disease How is megaesophagus treated? Feed upright (Bailey chair). Meatballs of food usually best. Treat any secondary pneumonia. Treat any specific causes.
Peripheral Nerve Disease What is Myasthenia Gravis? Immune-mediated disease attacking the acetylcholine receptors in the neuromuscular junction. Affected animals develop muscle paralysis (especially with exercise), megaesophagus, and even respiratory paralysis.
What is acetylcholine? The chief neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system, the part of the autonomic nervous system (a branch of the peripheral nervous system) that contracts smooth muscles, dilates blood vessels, increases bodily secretions, and slows heart rate.
Peripheral Nerve Disease How is Myasthenia Gravis diagnosed? ACh receptor antibody test
Peripheral Nerve Disease Are there treatments for Myasthenia Gravis? Neostigmine. Immune-suppression (if pneumonia is present).
Peripheral Nerve Disease What is Horner's Syndrome? Disorder affecting the sympathetic nervous input to one or both sides of the face. Can occur in dogs or cats.
Peripheral Nerve Disease Describe the etiology of Horner's Syndrome. Idiopathic (most common) will slowly recover over two months without specific treatment. Trauma to head or neck. Tumor of the nerve.
Peripheral Nerve Disease What are the clinical signs of Horner's Syndrome? Small pupil on affected side(s). Prominent nictitans. Eyelid droop (due to glove retraction). Increased pinkness to eye & nose on affected side.
Bone is the ___ hardest substance in the body. second
Bone is composed of cells embedded in a ___. matrix
What type of tissue is bone? connective tissue
Functions of Bone Name five and briefly describe. Support: body framework. Protection: vital organs. Leverage: enables locomotion. Storage: calcium and other minerals. Blood cell formation: RBC, WBC, Platelets.
Musculoskeletal Terminology Bone Anatomy - Parts. Name four: Cortical or Compact Bone. Cancellous or Spongy Bone. Medullary Cavity (contains bone marrow). Periosteum.
___ ___ has tiny "spicules" of bone that appear randomly arranged. Spaces between the spicules contain ___ ___. Cancellous Bone. bone marrow.
Compact bone are shafts of ___ ___ and the ___ layer of all bones. They are composed of haversian systems that run lengthwise with the bone. long bones. outside.
What is a haversian system? The basic unit of structure of compact bone, comprising a haversian canal and its concentrically arranged lamellae, of which there may be 4 to 20, each 3 to 7 microns thick, in a single system.
Bone Structure What is the periosteum? Briefly describe. Membrane that covers outer surfaces of bone. Outer layer is composed of fibrous tissue. Inner layer contains osteoblasts. Not present on articular surfaces.
Blood Supply to Bone The ___ ___ are channels in many large bones. They contain large blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerves. Nutrient foramina
True or false: Nutrient foramina can sometimes be seen on radiographs. True
Components of ___ ___ consist of articular surfaces of bones. Articular cartilage (hyaline) covering articular surfaces. ___-filled joint cavity enclosed by a joint capsule (synovial membrane, synovial fluid). ___ are made of fibrous connective tissue. Synovial joints. Fluid. Ligaments.
Name six clinical signs of musculoskeletal disease: pain, gait change or lameness, swelling or increased joint fluid, muscle atrophy, weakness, lethargy
What are four means of evaluation of skeletal disease? Radiographs, bone biopsy, gait study, scintigraphy
How can joint disease be assessed? Radiographs, Serology, Arthrocentesis (cytology or culture), arthroscopy
What is another name for Degenerative Joint Disease (DJD)? Osteoarthritis or arthritis
What are some characteristics of Degenerative Joint Disease? Loss of the smooth cartilage that covers and protects the end of the bones in a movable (synovial) joint.
Pathophysiology of DJD The cartilage has no nerves, so when it touches the cartilage of another bone, there is not pain. When cartilage wears away, the bone is ___ and this results in ___ and ___. exposed. pain and inflammation
Small bony projections called ___, form on the bone that is close to the joint. This add to the ___. This type of arthritis is ___, meaning it will get worse over time. osteophytes. pain. progressive.
DJD: Etiology Any cause of abnormal wear or inflammation in the joint, such as: Anatomic defect. Trauma. Immune-mediated. Infection. Advanced age.
DJD: Diagnosis What are four diagnostic signs? Bone hypertrophy and/or remodeling. Increased joint fluid. Osteophytes or "joint mice" and "bone spurs." Joint pain.
DJD: Treatment Underlying causes to be treated can be: anatomic defects, infections, immune-mediated
DJD: Treatment How can we decrease joint stress? weight loss or modify exercise to low stress
DJD: Treatment How can we improve joint fluid quality? Glucosamine/Chondroitin
DJD: Treatment What two main clinical signs are we trying to reduce? Pain and inflammation
What are Patellar Luxations? Abnormal anatomy of the stifle related to the function of the patella leading to gait abnormalities, lameness, and ligament rupture
Describe the etiology of Patellar Luxations. Most are due to congenital abnormalities (especially toy breeds), but traumatic causes also occur.
Patellar Luxations What are five clinical signs and how is it treated? (Often young dogs) Abnormal rear leg stance. "Lock out" gait. Lameness. Palpable patellar luxation. DJD. Treatment: surgical correction.
What is a Cranial Cruciate Rupture? Rupture of one of the two ligaments within the knee that hold the femur and the tibia in proximity (Cranial Cruciate Ligament also known as the Anterior Cruciate and Caudal Cruciate Ligament or Posterior Cruciate).
What are some causes of Cruciate Injury? Overweight. Out of condition and then asked to perform athletic feats that are beyond their abilities (weekend warrior syndrome). Animal jumps, twists, turns or lands wrong (slippery surface) Cushing's Disease.
Cruciate Injury most often occurs in ___ ___ ___. But it is important to note, what? large breed dogs. It can occur in any dog or cat.
Cranial Cruciate Ligament injury, also called "football player knee," usually occurs with: hyperextension or severe internal rotation of the joint
Clinical signs of Cruciate Injury include: Acute lameness (especially toe-touching) in rear leg. Stifle swelling. Difficulty rising from sitting or jumping. DJD. Muscle Atrophy.
What are three ways to diagnose Cruciate injury? A "Drawer Sign" in sedated dog. Radiographs and/or MRI. Arthroscopy.
Name three surgery for Cruciate Repair. Intracapsular Repair. Extracapsular Repair. TPLO.
Describe a Intracapsular Repair: Replace the ligament with suture, patellar tendon or fascia lata inside joint. Anchored to the tibia.
Describe a Extracapsular Repair: Suture material outside joint replaces function of ligament. Anchored to the tibia.
What is a TPLO surgery? (tibial-plateau-leveling osteotomy) Surgical resection of the tibia to change the mechanics of the stifle. Requires certification.
What is hip dysplasia? An abnormal formation of the hip socket which causes laxity in the joint. It can eventually cause lameness and painful arthritis of the joints.
What are two common abnormalities seen in animals with hip dysplasia? Shallow acetabulum (the femoral head does not fit snugly). Misshapen femoral head.
Name and briefly describe the etiology of hip dysplasia. Genetic predisposition: complex mode of inheritance. Environmental: overweight condition, injury or overexertion at a young age.
Name some clinical signs of hip dysplasia. (3 - 6) "Bunny hop" gait. Narrow-base, forward rear leg stance. Reluctance to go upstairs. Pain on extension of the hip. Slow in rising to stand. Stifle or back pain.
How is Hip Dysplasia diagnosed? Radiographs: Orthopedic Foundation for Animals (OFA) technique is essential for grading dysplasia & DJD of hips.
How is Hip Dysplasia treated? Medical (same as DJD): get animal to healthy weight, low stress exercise, supplements, reduce pain and inflammation. Surgery.
Hip Dysplasia DJD of hips is characterized by: Thickening of femoral neck. Irregularity of femoral head. Irregularity of acetabulum.
Client Education: Hip Dysplasia Dogs intended for breeding should have OFA radiographs after ___ years old. (prior to breeding). Two years old
Client Education: Hip Dysplasia It is a ___ disease throughout the animal's life. progressive
Client Education: Hip Dysplasia "Excellent" hips in parents ___ ___ mean puppy can not develop dysplasia. does not
Client Education: Hip Dysplasia It is most common in: large breed dogs
What is Osteochondrosis Dissecans (OCD)? Abnormal growth of joint cartilage in which cartilage lifts off of the bone resulting in flap or "joint mouse."
What does the acronym "OCD" stand for? Osteochondrosis Dissecans
OCD commonly occurs in the ___, ___, ___, and ___ of large breed dogs. shoulder, stifle, hock, and elbow
Describe the etiology of OCD. Rapid growth. Calcium: Phosphorus imbalance. Heredity (esp. German Shepherds). Trauma.
What is the treatment for OCD? Exercise restriction. Weight control. Surgery. Stem cell therapy.
What is Panosteitis? Painful, inflammatory disease of the medullary bone. Occurs in young (6-8 month old) large breed dogs. Especially German Shepherds.
Is the etiology of Panosteitis well understood? No. Unknown or there is suspicion that a viral infection causes it.
What are the clinical signs seen in Panosteitis? Shifting leg lameness (some dogs refuse to walk). Fever. Pain on palpation of long bones.
How is Panosteitis treated? Pain and inflammatory control.
Panosteitis is a ___ ___. It resolves by ___ ___ old. There is no permanent damage and does not recur. self-limiting disease. 1 year old.
Muscle is made up of cells that can ___ or ___. shorten or contract
Name the three types of muscle: Skeletal muscle. Cardiac muscle. Smooth muscle.
___ muscle cells are very large, multinucleated, with numerous myofibrils (muscle cells) composed of actin and myosin. Skeletal Muscle Cells
Mechanics of Muscle Contraction ___ muscle fibers have actin and myosin filaments that slightly overlap. Relaxed muscle fibers
Mechanics of Muscle Contraction When stimulated to contract, crossbridges on myosin filaments slide ___ and ___. back and forth
At the Neuromuscular Junction ___ and ___ are separated by the synaptic space. Nerves and muscles
At the Neuromuscular Junction ___ ___ are sacs at the end of a nerve fiber; contain ___. Synaptic vesicles. acetylcholine
Nerve impulse reaches the end bulb of the motor nerve fiber at ___. ___, a neurochemical that triggers the release of calcium, is released into the synaptic space. Ca++ diffuses into the myofibrils and starts the contraction process. contraction. acetylcholine.
Disease that affects the muscles is called ___. myopathy
There are four types of myopathy, name them: Inflammatory. Immune-mediated. Congenital. Metabolic.
Due to unique types of muscle, a myopathy usually affects ____ type. (i.e. skeletal) one
Inflammatory Myopathies Name two etiologies. Infections (especially bite wounds). Trauma.
Inflammatory Myopathies What are three clinical signs? Pain. Swelling of muscle. Fever.
Inflammatory Myopathies How is it diagnosed? Clinical signs. Culture. Serology (Toxoplasmosis, Clostridia).
Inflammatory Myopathies How are they treated? Treat the specific disease. NSAIDS (analgesia & anti-inflammatory).
Immune-mediated Myopathies ___ is an immune-mediated myopathy of skeletal muscle. Clinical signs are: multiple painful muscles ("eggshell" walking), weakness and exercise intolerance, fever, and muscle atrophy. Polymyositis
Immune-mediated Myopathies Polymyositis is diagnosed by elevated creatinine kinase (CK), and ___ ___. muscle biopsy
Immune-mediated Myopathies Treatment for Polymyositis is: Immune suppression. (Prednisone, Azathioprine).
Immune-mediated Myopathies ___ ___ is an immune-mediated myositis confined to the ___ muscles of the face. Masticatory Myositis. masticatory
Immune-mediated Myopathies Dogs with Masticatory Myositis are unable to ___ ___. Can not be done under anesthesia either. open mouths
Immune-mediated Myopathies If left untreated, Masticatory Myositis may lead to muscle ___ and ___ "lock jaw. scarring. permanent.
Immune-mediated Myopathies How is Masticatory Myositis diagnosed? 2M antibody test. Muscle biopsy.
Immune-mediated Myopathies How is Masticatory Myositis treated? Immune suppression. Nutritional support (liquid diets or feeding tubes).
An Immune-mediated Myopathy, called ___ ___, causes profound muscle weakness and possible pain due to ___ (low potassium). Feline Polymyopathy. Hypokalemia.
Immune-mediated Myopathies True or false: vomiting and constipation may occur in cats with Feline Polymyopathy. True
Immune-mediated Myopathies Describe the etiology of Feline Polymyopathy. Most common cause is chronic kidney disease, along with malnutrition, insulin therapy, hereditary.
Immune-mediated Myopathies What are treatment options for Feline Polymyopathy? Aggressive potassium supplementation. Treat the underlying cause. Will completely resolve with appropriate treatment, but life-long supplementation is usually needed to prevent recurrence.
Hematopoeitic System Whole blood is made up of ___, the liquid component (water, proteins, sugars, lipids, electrolytes), and ___, Erythrocytes, Leukocytes, and Thrombocytes. Plasma, Cells
Hematopoeitic System ___ is the % of spun blood that is red cells. PCV- Packed Cell Volume
Hematopoeitic System Layer of white cells in spun blood. Buffy coat
Hematopoeitic System ___ is a measurement of solids dissolved in plasma. Determined by a ___. Total protein, Refractometer
Hematopoeitic System: Cells of Blood ___ carry oxygen. ___ initiate blood clotting. ____ are part of the immune system. Erythrocytes: Red cells. Thrombocytes: Platelets. Leukocytes: White cells.
Hematopoeitic System: Leukocytes ___ and ___ are responsible for direct attack, while ___ creates antibodies. Granulocytes and Monocytes. Lymphocytes.
Hematopoeitic System ___ is the production of new blood. It occurs mainly in the ___ ___, but the ___ makes red cells when need is high. Hematopoiesis. Bone marrow. Spleen.
Hematopoeitic System A mature red cell is called an ___. It has no nucleus and carries oxygen on hemoglobin. Erythrocyte.
Hematopoeitic System An immature red cell is called a ___. It is released when demand is high for red cells. You can enhance ID of these cells with ___. Reticulocyte. Special Stains (new methylene blue).
Hematopoeitic System Platelets are called ___. They are pieces of ___ from ___ in bone marrow. Their function is to initiate ___. Thrombocytes. Cytoplasm. Megakaryocytes. Clotting.
Hematopoeitic System What term refers to "maintaining blood?" Hemostasis ("To maintain blood")
Hematopoeitic System True or false: all granulocytes originate from the same pleuripotent stem cell in the bone marrow. True
Hematopoeitic System: Granulocytes Neutrophils: ___ granule staining. Eosinophils: ___ granule staining. Basophils: ___ granule staining. Neutral. Red. Blue.
Hematopoeitic System: Agranulocytes ___ have three main functions: phagocytosis/migrate to tissue to become macrophages, antigen presenting , and secrete numerous cytokines to regulate immune response. ___ originate from the lymph nodes or thymus. Monocytes. Lymphocytes.
Hematopoeitic System Formation of lymph is called ___. ___ is a plasma-like fluid rich in lymphocytes. ___ are mainly produced in the lymph nodes. The Thymus produces ___ in neonates. Lymphopoiesis can occur in the ___ when the body is stressed. Lymphopoieses. Lymph. B Lymphocytes. T Lymphocytes. Spleen.
Hematopoeitic System Where is the Thymus? Upper front part of the chest. (Thoracic Inlet). Behind the sternum. In front of the heart.
Hematopoeitic System To properly evaluate the hemolymphatic system you always need (3): Complete History. PE including Lymph node palpation. CBC (Complete Blood Count).
Hematopoeitic System What test gives us an exact number of red cells, white cells, and platelets? CBC - Complete Blood Count
Hematopoeitic System ___ is the evaluation of Erythrocytes, Leukocytes, and Thrombocytes for normal vs abnormal appearance. This is accomplished through ___ or ___. Morphology. Cytology, Bone marrow aspirate, and biopsy (Histology)
Hematopoeitic System: Diseases of Red Cells ___ is a red blood cell count (RBC) below normal. Anemia
Hematopoeitic System: Diseases of Red Cells When there is evidence of new blood formation such as the presence of ___ and/or ___ the anemia is called ___ ___. Polychromasia and/or Reticulocytes. Regenerative Anemia.
Hematopoeitic System: Diseases of Red Cells ___ ___ occurs when there is inadequate new red cell production. Non-regenerative anemia
Hematopoeitic System: Diseases of Red Cells Etiologies of Regenerative anemia are ___ and ___. Blood loss (caused by trauma, clotting disorders, parasites -internal gi or external-, ulcers, or tumor rupture) and Hemolysis (caused by toxins, immune-mediated, blood parasites)
Hematopoeitic System: Diseases of Red Cells Name 3 - 5 etiologies of non-regenerative anemia. Bone Marrow Disease, Renal Failure, Endocrine disease, Iron or other malnutrition, Chronic Illness.
Hematopoeitic System: Diseases of Red Cells Name four to six clinical signs of anemia. Pulse ox will be normal. Pale mucous membrane color, Tachycardia, Tachypnea, Weakness/Exercise Intolerance, Weak Pulse Quality, Prolonged CRT.
Hematopoeitic System: Diseases of Red Cells What seven general care methods would you implement in an anemic patient? Minimize blood sample size, Cage rest/reduce stress, Keep warm, Oxygen Support, High Nutritional Plane, Blood transfusion (HCT <15), Treat specific cause.
Hematopoeitic System: Diseases of Red Cells When blood is lost to the outside of the body, sufficient iron must be in the diet for new blood production or ___ ___ ___ will occur. This type of blood loss can be caused by ___ and ___. Iron Deficiency Anemia. Fleas, GI Ulcers.
Hematopoeitic System: Diseases of Red Cells True or false: red cell destruction within the body does not result in iron deficiency. True
Hematopoeitic System: Diseases of Red Cells Name four RBC morphology irregularities found in Iron Deficiency Anemia. Microcytosis (unusually small cell size), Hypochromasia (hemoglobin percentage in red cells is less than normal), Increased central pallor, Low MCHC (Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration).
Hematopoeitic System: Blood Parasites A common blood parasite in cats. It was previously named Hemobartonella: ___ ___. This parasite is transmitted by ___. It responds well to ___ and ___. Clinical signs appear in stressed animal. Name two stresses. Mycoplasma Hemofelis. Fleas. Doxycycline and Enrofloxacin. FeLV + or Spleen Removed (Splenectomy)
Hematopoeitic System: Blood Parasites Name two protozoan parasites transmitted by ticks. They are common in the Southern USA, especially in ___. ___ does occur in Washington. Treatment is ___. Babesia and Ehrlichia. Greyhounds. Ehrlichia. Doxycycline.
Hematopoeitic System: Toxins Causing Anemia Hemolysis can be caused by a ___, due to ___. Hemoglobin precipitation is seen in ___ ___ ___. This type of anemia can be caused by ____ and ___, ___ ___, and ___. Penny. Zinc Toxicity. Heinz body anemia. Garlic and Onion, lead poisoning, propylene glycol.
Hematopoeitic System Disease in which the body does not recognize RBCs as "self" and are destroyed by the immune system. Destruction is facilitated through ___ and ___ ___ ___ ___. Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA). Hemolysis (rupture in circulation). Increased removal by spleen. Also called Immune-mediated Hemolytic Anemia (IMHA)
Hematopoeitic System There are six triggers for AIHA (Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia) Name at least three: Being female. Blood Parasites. Drug allergic reactions (antibiotics, vaccines). Viral Infection. Breed Risk (Cocker Spaniel, Irish Setter). Blood transfusions.
Hematopoeitic System Name three to six clinical signs of AIHA (Auto-immune Hemolytic Anemia): Very pale mucous membranes, fever, weakness, tachypnea/tachycardia, possible port wine urine, possible icterus.
Hematopoeitic System What five ways can AIHA be diagnosed? Auto-agglutination, Hemolysis, Coombs +, Spherocytes, Regenerative anemia with high bilirubin.
Created by: Raevyn1