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Sm Animal Medicine 2
Up to Pansystemic Disease done
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What are neurons? List two general attributes. | They are the basic functional units of the nervous system. Cannot reproduce but can regenerate cell processes if the cell body remains intact. They have a high oxygen requirement. |
| Neuron - Cell Processes What do dendrites do? | They receive stimuli. |
| Neuron - Cell Processes What do axons do? | They conduct nerve impulses away. |
| Axons Describe an attribute of myelinated axons. | Conduct impulses faster than unmyelinated ones. |
| Axons Describe a myelin sheath. | Cell membrane of glial cells tightly wrapped around the axon. |
| Organization of the Nervous System - Anatomical What two structures make up the Central Nervous System (CNS)? | Brain and spinal cord |
| Organization of the Nervous System - Anatomical Describe the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS). | Extends outward from the central axis toward the periphery of the body. Cranial nerves originate directly from the brain. Spinal nerves emerge from the spinal cord. |
| Organization of the Nervous System - Functional Describe the Somatic nervous system. | Actions under voluntary control. |
| Organization of the Nervous System - Functional Describe the Autonomic nervous system. | Controls automatic functions. |
| Describe the process of Depolarization. | Neuron receives external stimulus. Sodium channel opens on neuron cell membrane, and the sodium ions flow into the cell by passive diffusion. |
| Depolarization What is Action Potential? | During depolarization, inside of the neuron goes from a negatively charged resting membrane potential to a net positive charge due to inflow of sodium ions. Creates large change in electrical charge from negative to positive. |
| Describe Repolarization. | Sodium channels close. K+ channels open. K+ diffuses out of the cell. Resting state is restored. |
| Describe a neuron at Resting Potential. | Opposite charges on opposite sides of the cell membrane resulting in a polarized membrane. (Negative inside/Positive outside). |
| Synaptic Transmission What do neurotransmitters do? | Diffuse across the synaptic cleft toward the postsynaptic membrane. |
| Synaptic Transmission What do receptors on the postsynaptic membrane do? | Bind the neurotransmitter |
| Types of Neurotransmitters Describe Acetylcholine: | Can be either excitatory or inhibitory depending on its location in the body. |
| Types of Neurotransmitters Describe Catecholamines: | Consisting of norepinephrine and epinephrine. They are associated with "fight or flight" reactions of the sympathetic nervous system. |
| Types of Neurotransmitters What function does Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) perform? | Inhibitory in the CNS. |
| Central Nervous System Name three parts of the brain and one additional component of the CNS. | Cerebrum, Cerebellum, and Brain stem. Spinal Cord. |
| Describe the functions of the Cerebrum. | Area of the brain responsible for higher-order behaviors (learning, intelligence, awareness, etc.) |
| What is Gray Matter in the brain. | Cerebral cortex. Outer layer of the brain. Myelinated. |
| What is White Matter in the brain. | Fibers beneath the cortex. Non-Myelinated. |
| What are three responsibilities of the Cerebellum? | Area of the brain responsible for coordinated movement, balance, posture. |
| Describe the Brain Stem. What is it responsible for? Many ___ ___ originate from this area of the brain. | It is the connection between the brain and the spinal cord. Area of the brain responsible for basic support functions of the body. Cranial Nerves. |
| What is cerebrospinal fluid? | Fluid between layers of the meninges and in ventricles inside the brain and central canal of the spinal cord. |
| What is the Blood Brain Barrier? | Capillary walls in the brain have no fenestrations; covered by cell membranes of glial cells. Prevents many drugs, proteins, ions, and other molecules from readily passing from the blood into the brain. |
| What are three examples of things that the Blood Brain Barrier allows to pass? | Water, Oxygen, Glucose |
| What is the function of the spinal cord? | Conducts sensory information and motor instructions between the brain and the peripheral nerves. It can also modify nerve impulses. |
| What function does the autonomic nervous system serve? | Controls automatic functions at the subconscious level. |
| Name the two segments of the autonomic nervous system, and what they do. | Sympathetic nervous system: "Fight or Flight" Response. Parasympathetic Nervous System: "Rest & Restore" System. |
| What is the withdrawal reflex? | Results in contraction or flexing of muscles. Initial movement instigated by the spinal cord. |
| What is the Palpebral Reflex arc? | Light tap on the medial canthus of the eye produces a blink of the eyelid. |
| Describe the Pupillary Light Reflex (PLR): | In normal response to shining light in the eye of an animal the iris, in both eyes, will constrict. |
| Diseases of the Neurologic System: CNS Name four signs in the brain: | Mentation, Behavior, Seizures, Balance |
| Diseases of the Neurologic System: CNS Name two signs in the spinal cord: | Gait, Pain perception |
| Diseases of the Neurologic System: PNS Describe and name three signs. | Nerve or muscle function of the body not due to CNS. Weakness, Tremors, Stiffness |
| Neurologic Signs Define Primary Neurologic: | Etiology is within the neurologic system. |
| Neurologic Signs Describe Secondary Neurologic: | Etiology is due to organ or electrolyte dysfunction. Neurologic system simply showing signs. |
| Neurologic Signs Name seven means of evaluation. | Neurologic exam, Blood evaluation, Blood pressure, Imaging (Myelogram, CT, MRI), Biopsy/CSF analysis, Electromyography (EMG), and EEG. |
| Neurologic Signs List three specific blood tests run to evaluate the neurologic system. | CBC, Chemistry (Glucose, Calcium), Bile acid study (especially neonates) |
| Brain Trauma Name two components of a Primary event, and describe possible consequence. | Initial event & Contrecoup (damage by inertia). Can result in cell damage and disruption of the fiber tracts. |
| Brain Trauma Define Secondary events. | Increased intracranial pressure (hemorrhage/edema), Hypoxia, Seizures |
| Brain Trauma What are five clinical signs? | Blood from ears, nose, mouth. Ocular hemorrhage/abnormal pupils. Loss of consciousness/alertness. Seizures. Shock: altered heart or respiratory patterns. |
| Brain Trauma What are five possible supportive care methods? | Elevate head (beware of neck injury/be gentle). Oxygen. IV fluids (to treat shock or electrolytes). Medication to control seizures. Medication to decrease brain edema. |
| What is Vestibular Syndrome? | Abnormality of inner ear or brain stem resulting in balance abnormalities, ataxia, and nystagmus. |
| Describe the basic etiology of Vestibular Syndrome (4). | Idiopathic (common in senior dogs, does occur in cats: suspected of having viral origin). Inner ear infections. Tumors. Thromboemboli ("stroke") |
| What are four supportive care methods for Vestibular Syndrome? | Treat underlying disease, if determined. Protect animal from self-trauma (falling). Treat symptoms (nausea). Provide fluid and nutritional support! |
| Describe three attributes of Vestibular Syndrome. | Usually self-limiting in 2-3 weeks. Rarely do animals have a second episode. May have a permanent "head tilt." |
| What are seizures? Name four common attributes of a seizure. | Transitory disturbances in brain function: Loss or change in consciousness. Change in muscle tone or movement. Behavior change. Change of autonomic function. |
| Name the three components of a seizure: | Aura (preictal period). Ictus (seizure activity). Postical period. |
| Seizure Classification Partial and Petit mal: | Abnormal focus in cerebrum. One body part shows seizure or behavior abnormality such as "gum chewing" or "fly biting." |
| Seizure Classification: Generalized (Grand mal?) | Most common type. Symmetrical whole body involvement. Loss of consciousness may occur. Tonic or paddling. |
| Define Epilepsy: | Repeated events of seizures. |
| Describe the etiology of Epilepsy: | Idiopathic (Congenital or inherited: German Shepards, Poodles, Golden Retrievers). Trauma. Brain tumors. Meningitis. Thromboembolism (stroke). Metabolic (liver disease, hypoglycemia, etc). |
| Epilepsy Instructions to owners (first time events)? | First time events should be evaluated in all animals: Neurological Exam. CBC/Chemistry. Bile acid study. Seizure events should be timed. Seizures >5 minutes are a concern. Seizures >15 minutes may cause brain damage. |
| Epilepsy Instructions to owners (supportive care)? | Protect animal from trauma. DO NOT stimulate the animal (rubbing, shouting, etc). DO NOT put anything in the animal's mouth! Seizures occurring more than 1x month or more than 1x in 24 hours need medication. |
| What is Status Epilepticus? | It is a medical emergency consisting of seizures lasting continuously >15 minutes, cerebral edema, coma, and can lead to death. |
| Intervertebral Disc Disease What is it? Name three clinical signs: | Herniation of one or more intervertebral discs impinging the spinal cord. (Back pain-often severe. Paresis or paralysis of limbs caudal to lesion. Altered pain sensation caudal to the lesion.) |
| Define metabolic: | Relating to metabolism, the whole range of biochemical processes that occur within living organisms. It consists of anabolism (the buildup of substances) and catabolism (the breakdown of substances). |
| Define paresis: | A condition of muscular weakness caused by nerve damage or disease; partial paralysis |
| Intervertebral Disc Disease Describe the Etiology of Type I: | Acute rupture of disc. Usually young, chondrodysplastic dogs due to defect in disc and abnormal wear. Trauma. Disc material enters neural canal and causes pressure on spinal cord (edema & hemorrhage). |
| Define chondrodysplastic: | The name given to a group of multi-system, metabolic disorders of skeletal development, primarily characterized by mild to moderate growth deficiency, short stature, and bilateral or asymmetric shortening and/or bowing of the legs. |
| Intervertebral Disc Disease Describe the Etiology of Type II: | Chronic, slow herniation of disc. Common in older, large breed dogs. |
| Intervertebral Disc Disease How is it diagnosed? | Clinical signs. Neurologic exam. Plain radiographs (Possible calcified disc. Narrowed disc space consistent with signs.) Myelogram. CT scan or MRI. |
| What is a Myelogram? | Fluoroscopy with injection of contrast material to evaluate the spinal cord, nerve roots and spinal lining (meninges). It is useful for assessing the spine post-surgery and assessing disc abnormalities in patients who cannot undergo MRI. |
| Intervertebral Disc Disease What are treatment options? | Pain relief. Corticosteroids (decrease swelling and on-going cord trauma). DMSO. Emergency Surgery (Remove abnormal disc material to decrease pressure on the spinal cord.) |
| What is DMSO? | Dimethylsulfoxide: it is used topically to decrease pain and speed the healing of wounds, burns, and muscle and skeletal injuries. |
| Intervertebral Disc Disease Information for clients: | Maintain ideal weight in breeds at risk (Dachshund, Basset, Lhasa apso). Avoid having dogs stand on back legs or jumping up onto furniture. Once an animal has had an IVDD, increased risk for another episode at a different site. |
| Cervical Instability Describe C1-2 & C5-7. What are the clinical signs? | C1-2: malformation in young toy breeds. C5-7: malformation in young Great Danes and Dobermans (Wobblers). Clinical signs are: possible neck pain. Abnormal gait due to spinal cord compression. |
| Cervical Instability How is it diagnosed? | Neurologic exam. Radiographs (tech note: use extreme caution when manipulating their necks for radiographs, especially under anesthetic, because it can cause spinal cord trauma.) Myelogram. CT or MRI. |
| Discospondylitis What is it? | A bacterial or fungal infection of the vertebral bones, most obvious of endplates. |
| Discospondylitis Etiology: | Wounds or migrating foreign bodies. Hematogenous most common (urinary tract infections and dental disease). |
| What does hematogenous mean? | Originating in or carried by the blood. |
| Discospondylitis Name three clinical signs: | Back pain, Fever, Neurologic signs |
| Discospondylitis How is it diagnosed? | Radiographs: Lysis of endplates or osteophytes. Disc space collapse. Culture: blood, urine, CSF. Brucellosis titer (zoonotic disease). |
| What is Brucellosis? | A highly contagious zoonosis caused by: ingestion of unpasteurized milk, under cooked meat from infected animals, close contact with their secretions. It is also known as undulant fever, Malta fever, and Mediterranean fever. |
| Peripheral Nerve Disease What is Metabolic Neuropathy: | Multiple muscles showing weakness, atrophy, and decreased reflexes secondary to a metabolic disease (any species). Example Diseases: Hypothyroid, Diabetes mellitus. Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushings) |
| Peripheral Nerve Disease What is the treatment for Metabolic Neuropathy? | Aggressive treatment and control of primary disease usually leads to reversal of neurologic signs. |
| Peripheral Nerve Disease What is Laryngeal Paralysis? | Nerve disorder causing paralysis of one or both arytenoids. |
| Peripheral Nerve Disease Describe the etiology of Laryngeal Paralysis. | Hereditary. Rabies. Tumor/inflammation of region. Lead poisoning. Idiopathic (most common) <- senior large breed dogs |
| Peripheral Nerve Disease Laryngeal Paralysis: What are the clinical signs? | Inspiratory stridor, especially with exercise. Change of voice. Exercise intolerance. Respiratory distress/collapse. Hyperthermia. |
| Peripheral Nerve Disease Laryngeal Paralysis: How is distress treated? | Aggressive cool air in animal's face. Mild sedation to treat anxiety. Oxygen. Emergency tracheostomy. Steroid to decrease swelling. |
| Peripheral Nerve Disease Laryngeal Paralysis: Name two types of surgical correction. | Tie-back. Arytenoidectomy. |
| Peripheral Nerve Disease What is megaesophagus? | Neurologic disorder causing ineffective peristalsis of esophagus, dilation of esophagus, and regurgitation. |
| Peripheral Nerve Disease Describe the etiology of Megaesophagus: | Congenital. Metabolic (Addisons). Lead poisoning. Myasthenia gravis & Other polymyopathies. Idiopathic. |
| Peripheral Nerve Disease How is megaesophagus treated? | Feed upright (Bailey chair). Meatballs of food usually best. Treat any secondary pneumonia. Treat any specific causes. |
| Peripheral Nerve Disease What is Myasthenia Gravis? | Immune-mediated disease attacking the acetylcholine receptors in the neuromuscular junction. Affected animals develop muscle paralysis (especially with exercise), megaesophagus, and even respiratory paralysis. |
| What is acetylcholine? | The chief neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system, the part of the autonomic nervous system (a branch of the peripheral nervous system) that contracts smooth muscles, dilates blood vessels, increases bodily secretions, and slows heart rate. |
| Peripheral Nerve Disease How is Myasthenia Gravis diagnosed? | ACh receptor antibody test |
| Peripheral Nerve Disease Are there treatments for Myasthenia Gravis? | Neostigmine. Immune-suppression (if pneumonia is present). |
| Peripheral Nerve Disease What is Horner's Syndrome? | Disorder affecting the sympathetic nervous input to one or both sides of the face. Can occur in dogs or cats. |
| Peripheral Nerve Disease Describe the etiology of Horner's Syndrome. | Idiopathic (most common) will slowly recover over two months without specific treatment. Trauma to head or neck. Tumor of the nerve. |
| Peripheral Nerve Disease What are the clinical signs of Horner's Syndrome? | Small pupil on affected side(s). Prominent nictitans. Eyelid droop (due to glove retraction). Increased pinkness to eye & nose on affected side. |
| Bone is the ___ hardest substance in the body. | second |
| Bone is composed of cells embedded in a ___. | matrix |
| What type of tissue is bone? | connective tissue |
| Functions of Bone Name five and briefly describe. | Support: body framework. Protection: vital organs. Leverage: enables locomotion. Storage: calcium and other minerals. Blood cell formation: RBC, WBC, Platelets. |
| Musculoskeletal Terminology Bone Anatomy - Parts. Name four: | Cortical or Compact Bone. Cancellous or Spongy Bone. Medullary Cavity (contains bone marrow). Periosteum. |
| ___ ___ has tiny "spicules" of bone that appear randomly arranged. Spaces between the spicules contain ___ ___. | Cancellous Bone. bone marrow. |
| Compact bone are shafts of ___ ___ and the ___ layer of all bones. They are composed of haversian systems that run lengthwise with the bone. | long bones. outside. |
| What is a haversian system? | The basic unit of structure of compact bone, comprising a haversian canal and its concentrically arranged lamellae, of which there may be 4 to 20, each 3 to 7 microns thick, in a single system. |
| Bone Structure What is the periosteum? Briefly describe. | Membrane that covers outer surfaces of bone. Outer layer is composed of fibrous tissue. Inner layer contains osteoblasts. Not present on articular surfaces. |
| Blood Supply to Bone The ___ ___ are channels in many large bones. They contain large blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerves. | Nutrient foramina |
| True or false: Nutrient foramina can sometimes be seen on radiographs. | True |
| Components of ___ ___ consist of articular surfaces of bones. Articular cartilage (hyaline) covering articular surfaces. ___-filled joint cavity enclosed by a joint capsule (synovial membrane, synovial fluid). ___ are made of fibrous connective tissue. | Synovial joints. Fluid. Ligaments. |
| Name six clinical signs of musculoskeletal disease: | pain, gait change or lameness, swelling or increased joint fluid, muscle atrophy, weakness, lethargy |
| What are four means of evaluation of skeletal disease? | Radiographs, bone biopsy, gait study, scintigraphy |
| How can joint disease be assessed? | Radiographs, Serology, Arthrocentesis (cytology or culture), arthroscopy |
| What is another name for Degenerative Joint Disease (DJD)? | Osteoarthritis or arthritis |
| What are some characteristics of Degenerative Joint Disease? | Loss of the smooth cartilage that covers and protects the end of the bones in a movable (synovial) joint. |
| Pathophysiology of DJD The cartilage has no nerves, so when it touches the cartilage of another bone, there is not pain. When cartilage wears away, the bone is ___ and this results in ___ and ___. | exposed. pain and inflammation |
| Small bony projections called ___, form on the bone that is close to the joint. This add to the ___. This type of arthritis is ___, meaning it will get worse over time. | osteophytes. pain. progressive. |
| DJD: Etiology Any cause of abnormal wear or inflammation in the joint, such as: | Anatomic defect. Trauma. Immune-mediated. Infection. Advanced age. |
| DJD: Diagnosis What are four diagnostic signs? | Bone hypertrophy and/or remodeling. Increased joint fluid. Osteophytes or "joint mice" and "bone spurs." Joint pain. |
| DJD: Treatment Underlying causes to be treated can be: | anatomic defects, infections, immune-mediated |
| DJD: Treatment How can we decrease joint stress? | weight loss or modify exercise to low stress |
| DJD: Treatment How can we improve joint fluid quality? | Glucosamine/Chondroitin |
| DJD: Treatment What two main clinical signs are we trying to reduce? | Pain and inflammation |
| What are Patellar Luxations? | Abnormal anatomy of the stifle related to the function of the patella leading to gait abnormalities, lameness, and ligament rupture |
| Describe the etiology of Patellar Luxations. | Most are due to congenital abnormalities (especially toy breeds), but traumatic causes also occur. |
| Patellar Luxations What are five clinical signs and how is it treated? | (Often young dogs) Abnormal rear leg stance. "Lock out" gait. Lameness. Palpable patellar luxation. DJD. Treatment: surgical correction. |
| What is a Cranial Cruciate Rupture? | Rupture of one of the two ligaments within the knee that hold the femur and the tibia in proximity (Cranial Cruciate Ligament also known as the Anterior Cruciate and Caudal Cruciate Ligament or Posterior Cruciate). |
| What are some causes of Cruciate Injury? | Overweight. Out of condition and then asked to perform athletic feats that are beyond their abilities (weekend warrior syndrome). Animal jumps, twists, turns or lands wrong (slippery surface) Cushing's Disease. |
| Cruciate Injury most often occurs in ___ ___ ___. But it is important to note, what? | large breed dogs. It can occur in any dog or cat. |
| Cranial Cruciate Ligament injury, also called "football player knee," usually occurs with: | hyperextension or severe internal rotation of the joint |
| Clinical signs of Cruciate Injury include: | Acute lameness (especially toe-touching) in rear leg. Stifle swelling. Difficulty rising from sitting or jumping. DJD. Muscle Atrophy. |
| What are three ways to diagnose Cruciate injury? | A "Drawer Sign" in sedated dog. Radiographs and/or MRI. Arthroscopy. |
| Name three surgery for Cruciate Repair. | Intracapsular Repair. Extracapsular Repair. TPLO. |
| Describe a Intracapsular Repair: | Replace the ligament with suture, patellar tendon or fascia lata inside joint. Anchored to the tibia. |
| Describe a Extracapsular Repair: | Suture material outside joint replaces function of ligament. Anchored to the tibia. |
| What is a TPLO surgery? | (tibial-plateau-leveling osteotomy) Surgical resection of the tibia to change the mechanics of the stifle. Requires certification. |
| What is hip dysplasia? | An abnormal formation of the hip socket which causes laxity in the joint. It can eventually cause lameness and painful arthritis of the joints. |
| What are two common abnormalities seen in animals with hip dysplasia? | Shallow acetabulum (the femoral head does not fit snugly). Misshapen femoral head. |
| Name and briefly describe the etiology of hip dysplasia. | Genetic predisposition: complex mode of inheritance. Environmental: overweight condition, injury or overexertion at a young age. |
| Name some clinical signs of hip dysplasia. (3 - 6) | "Bunny hop" gait. Narrow-base, forward rear leg stance. Reluctance to go upstairs. Pain on extension of the hip. Slow in rising to stand. Stifle or back pain. |
| How is Hip Dysplasia diagnosed? | Radiographs: Orthopedic Foundation for Animals (OFA) technique is essential for grading dysplasia & DJD of hips. |
| How is Hip Dysplasia treated? | Medical (same as DJD): get animal to healthy weight, low stress exercise, supplements, reduce pain and inflammation. Surgery. |
| Hip Dysplasia DJD of hips is characterized by: | Thickening of femoral neck. Irregularity of femoral head. Irregularity of acetabulum. |
| Client Education: Hip Dysplasia Dogs intended for breeding should have OFA radiographs after ___ years old. (prior to breeding). | Two years old |
| Client Education: Hip Dysplasia It is a ___ disease throughout the animal's life. | progressive |
| Client Education: Hip Dysplasia "Excellent" hips in parents ___ ___ mean puppy can not develop dysplasia. | does not |
| Client Education: Hip Dysplasia It is most common in: | large breed dogs |
| What is Osteochondrosis Dissecans (OCD)? | Abnormal growth of joint cartilage in which cartilage lifts off of the bone resulting in flap or "joint mouse." |
| What does the acronym "OCD" stand for? | Osteochondrosis Dissecans |
| OCD commonly occurs in the ___, ___, ___, and ___ of large breed dogs. | shoulder, stifle, hock, and elbow |
| Describe the etiology of OCD. | Rapid growth. Calcium: Phosphorus imbalance. Heredity (esp. German Shepherds). Trauma. |
| What is the treatment for OCD? | Exercise restriction. Weight control. Surgery. Stem cell therapy. |
| What is Panosteitis? | Painful, inflammatory disease of the medullary bone. Occurs in young (6-8 month old) large breed dogs. Especially German Shepherds. |
| Is the etiology of Panosteitis well understood? | No. Unknown or there is suspicion that a viral infection causes it. |
| What are the clinical signs seen in Panosteitis? | Shifting leg lameness (some dogs refuse to walk). Fever. Pain on palpation of long bones. |
| How is Panosteitis treated? | Pain and inflammatory control. |
| Panosteitis is a ___ ___. It resolves by ___ ___ old. There is no permanent damage and does not recur. | self-limiting disease. 1 year old. |
| Muscle is made up of cells that can ___ or ___. | shorten or contract |
| Name the three types of muscle: | Skeletal muscle. Cardiac muscle. Smooth muscle. |
| ___ muscle cells are very large, multinucleated, with numerous myofibrils (muscle cells) composed of actin and myosin. | Skeletal Muscle Cells |
| Mechanics of Muscle Contraction ___ muscle fibers have actin and myosin filaments that slightly overlap. | Relaxed muscle fibers |
| Mechanics of Muscle Contraction When stimulated to contract, crossbridges on myosin filaments slide ___ and ___. | back and forth |
| At the Neuromuscular Junction ___ and ___ are separated by the synaptic space. | Nerves and muscles |
| At the Neuromuscular Junction ___ ___ are sacs at the end of a nerve fiber; contain ___. | Synaptic vesicles. acetylcholine |
| Nerve impulse reaches the end bulb of the motor nerve fiber at ___. ___, a neurochemical that triggers the release of calcium, is released into the synaptic space. Ca++ diffuses into the myofibrils and starts the contraction process. | contraction. acetylcholine. |
| Disease that affects the muscles is called ___. | myopathy |
| There are four types of myopathy, name them: | Inflammatory. Immune-mediated. Congenital. Metabolic. |
| Due to unique types of muscle, a myopathy usually affects ____ type. (i.e. skeletal) | one |
| Inflammatory Myopathies Name two etiologies. | Infections (especially bite wounds). Trauma. |
| Inflammatory Myopathies What are three clinical signs? | Pain. Swelling of muscle. Fever. |
| Inflammatory Myopathies How is it diagnosed? | Clinical signs. Culture. Serology (Toxoplasmosis, Clostridia). |
| Inflammatory Myopathies How are they treated? | Treat the specific disease. NSAIDS (analgesia & anti-inflammatory). |
| Immune-mediated Myopathies ___ is an immune-mediated myopathy of skeletal muscle. Clinical signs are: multiple painful muscles ("eggshell" walking), weakness and exercise intolerance, fever, and muscle atrophy. | Polymyositis |
| Immune-mediated Myopathies Polymyositis is diagnosed by elevated creatinine kinase (CK), and ___ ___. | muscle biopsy |
| Immune-mediated Myopathies Treatment for Polymyositis is: | Immune suppression. (Prednisone, Azathioprine). |
| Immune-mediated Myopathies ___ ___ is an immune-mediated myositis confined to the ___ muscles of the face. | Masticatory Myositis. masticatory |
| Immune-mediated Myopathies Dogs with Masticatory Myositis are unable to ___ ___. Can not be done under anesthesia either. | open mouths |
| Immune-mediated Myopathies If left untreated, Masticatory Myositis may lead to muscle ___ and ___ "lock jaw. | scarring. permanent. |
| Immune-mediated Myopathies How is Masticatory Myositis diagnosed? | 2M antibody test. Muscle biopsy. |
| Immune-mediated Myopathies How is Masticatory Myositis treated? | Immune suppression. Nutritional support (liquid diets or feeding tubes). |
| An Immune-mediated Myopathy, called ___ ___, causes profound muscle weakness and possible pain due to ___ (low potassium). | Feline Polymyopathy. Hypokalemia. |
| Immune-mediated Myopathies True or false: vomiting and constipation may occur in cats with Feline Polymyopathy. | True |
| Immune-mediated Myopathies Describe the etiology of Feline Polymyopathy. | Most common cause is chronic kidney disease, along with malnutrition, insulin therapy, hereditary. |
| Immune-mediated Myopathies What are treatment options for Feline Polymyopathy? | Aggressive potassium supplementation. Treat the underlying cause. Will completely resolve with appropriate treatment, but life-long supplementation is usually needed to prevent recurrence. |
| Hematopoeitic System Whole blood is made up of ___, the liquid component (water, proteins, sugars, lipids, electrolytes), and ___, Erythrocytes, Leukocytes, and Thrombocytes. | Plasma, Cells |
| Hematopoeitic System ___ is the % of spun blood that is red cells. | PCV- Packed Cell Volume |
| Hematopoeitic System Layer of white cells in spun blood. | Buffy coat |
| Hematopoeitic System ___ is a measurement of solids dissolved in plasma. Determined by a ___. | Total protein, Refractometer |
| Hematopoeitic System: Cells of Blood ___ carry oxygen. ___ initiate blood clotting. ____ are part of the immune system. | Erythrocytes: Red cells. Thrombocytes: Platelets. Leukocytes: White cells. |
| Hematopoeitic System: Leukocytes ___ and ___ are responsible for direct attack, while ___ creates antibodies. | Granulocytes and Monocytes. Lymphocytes. |
| Hematopoeitic System ___ is the production of new blood. It occurs mainly in the ___ ___, but the ___ makes red cells when need is high. | Hematopoiesis. Bone marrow. Spleen. |
| Hematopoeitic System A mature red cell is called an ___. It has no nucleus and carries oxygen on hemoglobin. | Erythrocyte. |
| Hematopoeitic System An immature red cell is called a ___. It is released when demand is high for red cells. You can enhance ID of these cells with ___. | Reticulocyte. Special Stains (new methylene blue). |
| Hematopoeitic System Platelets are called ___. They are pieces of ___ from ___ in bone marrow. Their function is to initiate ___. | Thrombocytes. Cytoplasm. Megakaryocytes. Clotting. |
| Hematopoeitic System What term refers to "maintaining blood?" | Hemostasis ("To maintain blood") |
| Hematopoeitic System True or false: all granulocytes originate from the same pleuripotent stem cell in the bone marrow. | True |
| Hematopoeitic System: Granulocytes Neutrophils: ___ granule staining. Eosinophils: ___ granule staining. Basophils: ___ granule staining. | Neutral. Red. Blue. |
| Hematopoeitic System: Agranulocytes ___ have three main functions: phagocytosis/migrate to tissue to become macrophages, antigen presenting , and secrete numerous cytokines to regulate immune response. ___ originate from the lymph nodes or thymus. | Monocytes. Lymphocytes. |
| Hematopoeitic System Formation of lymph is called ___. ___ is a plasma-like fluid rich in lymphocytes. ___ are mainly produced in the lymph nodes. The Thymus produces ___ in neonates. Lymphopoiesis can occur in the ___ when the body is stressed. | Lymphopoieses. Lymph. B Lymphocytes. T Lymphocytes. Spleen. |
| Hematopoeitic System Where is the Thymus? | Upper front part of the chest. (Thoracic Inlet). Behind the sternum. In front of the heart. |
| Hematopoeitic System To properly evaluate the hemolymphatic system you always need (3): | Complete History. PE including Lymph node palpation. CBC (Complete Blood Count). |
| Hematopoeitic System What test gives us an exact number of red cells, white cells, and platelets? | CBC - Complete Blood Count |
| Hematopoeitic System ___ is the evaluation of Erythrocytes, Leukocytes, and Thrombocytes for normal vs abnormal appearance. This is accomplished through ___ or ___. | Morphology. Cytology, Bone marrow aspirate, and biopsy (Histology) |
| Hematopoeitic System: Diseases of Red Cells ___ is a red blood cell count (RBC) below normal. | Anemia |
| Hematopoeitic System: Diseases of Red Cells When there is evidence of new blood formation such as the presence of ___ and/or ___ the anemia is called ___ ___. | Polychromasia and/or Reticulocytes. Regenerative Anemia. |
| Hematopoeitic System: Diseases of Red Cells ___ ___ occurs when there is inadequate new red cell production. | Non-regenerative anemia |
| Hematopoeitic System: Diseases of Red Cells Etiologies of Regenerative anemia are ___ and ___. | Blood loss (caused by trauma, clotting disorders, parasites -internal gi or external-, ulcers, or tumor rupture) and Hemolysis (caused by toxins, immune-mediated, blood parasites) |
| Hematopoeitic System: Diseases of Red Cells Name 3 - 5 etiologies of non-regenerative anemia. | Bone Marrow Disease, Renal Failure, Endocrine disease, Iron or other malnutrition, Chronic Illness. |
| Hematopoeitic System: Diseases of Red Cells Name four to six clinical signs of anemia. Pulse ox will be normal. | Pale mucous membrane color, Tachycardia, Tachypnea, Weakness/Exercise Intolerance, Weak Pulse Quality, Prolonged CRT. |
| Hematopoeitic System: Diseases of Red Cells What seven general care methods would you implement in an anemic patient? | Minimize blood sample size, Cage rest/reduce stress, Keep warm, Oxygen Support, High Nutritional Plane, Blood transfusion (HCT <15), Treat specific cause. |
| Hematopoeitic System: Diseases of Red Cells When blood is lost to the outside of the body, sufficient iron must be in the diet for new blood production or ___ ___ ___ will occur. This type of blood loss can be caused by ___ and ___. | Iron Deficiency Anemia. Fleas, GI Ulcers. |
| Hematopoeitic System: Diseases of Red Cells True or false: red cell destruction within the body does not result in iron deficiency. | True |
| Hematopoeitic System: Diseases of Red Cells Name four RBC morphology irregularities found in Iron Deficiency Anemia. | Microcytosis (unusually small cell size), Hypochromasia (hemoglobin percentage in red cells is less than normal), Increased central pallor, Low MCHC (Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration). |
| Hematopoeitic System: Blood Parasites A common blood parasite in cats. It was previously named Hemobartonella: ___ ___. This parasite is transmitted by ___. It responds well to ___ and ___. Clinical signs appear in stressed animal. Name two stresses. | Mycoplasma Hemofelis. Fleas. Doxycycline and Enrofloxacin. FeLV + or Spleen Removed (Splenectomy) |
| Hematopoeitic System: Blood Parasites Name two protozoan parasites transmitted by ticks. They are common in the Southern USA, especially in ___. ___ does occur in Washington. Treatment is ___. | Babesia and Ehrlichia. Greyhounds. Ehrlichia. Doxycycline. |
| Hematopoeitic System: Toxins Causing Anemia Hemolysis can be caused by a ___, due to ___. Hemoglobin precipitation is seen in ___ ___ ___. This type of anemia can be caused by ____ and ___, ___ ___, and ___. | Penny. Zinc Toxicity. Heinz body anemia. Garlic and Onion, lead poisoning, propylene glycol. |
| Hematopoeitic System Disease in which the body does not recognize RBCs as "self" and are destroyed by the immune system. Destruction is facilitated through ___ and ___ ___ ___ ___. | Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA). Hemolysis (rupture in circulation). Increased removal by spleen. Also called Immune-mediated Hemolytic Anemia (IMHA) |
| Hematopoeitic System There are six triggers for AIHA (Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia) Name at least three: | Being female. Blood Parasites. Drug allergic reactions (antibiotics, vaccines). Viral Infection. Breed Risk (Cocker Spaniel, Irish Setter). Blood transfusions. |
| Hematopoeitic System Name three to six clinical signs of AIHA (Auto-immune Hemolytic Anemia): | Very pale mucous membranes, fever, weakness, tachypnea/tachycardia, possible port wine urine, possible icterus. |
| Hematopoeitic System What five ways can AIHA be diagnosed? | Auto-agglutination, Hemolysis, Coombs +, Spherocytes, Regenerative anemia with high bilirubin. |
| What is the #1 cause of dog/cat euthanasia in the USA? | behavior problems |
| What is the number one priority for the veterinary team when dealing with an animal with behavioral problems? | Training the owners |
| Behavior Problems: Treatment Modalities What types of health problems might we need to treat? | PU/PD, Cognitive dysfunction, painful conditions |
| What types of environmental issues (problems) might contribute to behavioral problems in animals? | Prolonged confinement, dirty litter boxes |
| True or false: a trainer is not the same as a behaviorist? | True |
| Name two types of medication sometimes used to treat behavioral problems. | Buspirone and Clomicalm |
| Name a pheromone therapy available for cats. | Feliway |
| What are some common behavior problems seen in dogs? | Digging, jumping on people, noise phobia, chewing, house soiling, separation anxiety, fear biting, and biting/aggression. |
| What are some common behavior problems seen in cats? | Scratching furniture, inappropriate elimination, spraying/marking, aggression |
| If a dog is placing themselves in the corner of a cage or kennel. They also have their ears down, body small, lips pulled back and are shivering, snapping, or avoiding eye contact. These animals are demonstrating what? What is a major concern? | Fear. Fear biting. |
| What are some hospital techiniques that can be used when dealing with a fearful dog or one who may bite out of fear? | Take straight to exam room. Change setting (for example outside). Use muzzles. Cover cage or run for privacy. Avoid aggressive or baby talk voice, remain calm and patient, chemical restraint, mark cage and record |
| Name two diseases and one other factor that can undermine bladder and bowel control. | Cushing's disease and Diabetes mellitus. Some prescription drugs. |
| What is the most common non-medical reason for housesoiling? | improper or incomplete housetraining |
| Name three common behavioral reasons that housesoiling in dogs occurs. | extreme submissiveness, indoor territorial marking, and separation anxiety |
| How can you "dedominate" your body language and assist a dog affected by submissive urination (most common in young female dogs)? | crouch down, avert eyes, and speak in a soft voice when talking with them. Show affection with chest scratches instead of head pats. |
| True or false: unneutered male dogs may exhibit territorial marking indoors and environmental stressors like interaction with a new owner, environment, house mate or even having a intact female canine neighbor go into heat increases the possibility. | True |
| Castration stops indoor urine marking almost ___% of the time, in male dogs. | 90% |
| What are some possible reasons for destructive chewing? | As a puppy, they weren't taught what to chew and what not to chew. Boredom. Separation anxiety. Fear-related issues. Attention seeking. |
| What are some things you can tell a client to help them teach their puppy what things are okay to chew and which are not? | Take responsibility for items (not where the dog can get to it). Supervise the dog until it learns house rules. Give your dog toys easily distinguishable from household items. Physical/mental exercise. Plenty of attention (people time). |
| What do "guilty looks" in dogs actually mean? | They are canine submissive postures that dogs show when they are threatened. |
| The confident cat has it's tail held ___, pupils are ___, and they walk purposefully and upright. | upright, moderate |
| The confident cat at ease carries it's head and ears ___, pupils are ___ sized, whiskers are held ___, paws may flex in kneading motion, body is ___ ___ with stomach semi-to completely ___. | up, medium, to the side, stretched out, exposed. |
| The act of rubbing against a person's hand or another cat (scent marking) to distribute glandular facial pheromones from the forehead, chin, and whisker bed is ___ and seems to guarantee ___ interactions immediately afterward. | calming, friendly (Distance reducing behaviors) |
| Cats exhibiting distance-increasing behaviors will attempt to warn off others by ___ their backs, ___ their tails, and standing ___ and as tall as possible. | arching, swishing, sideways. Fear and arousal causes their fur to stand on end (pilo-erection) and pupils to dilate. |
| An anxious cat crouches into a ball, making themselves appear ___ than usual. Muscles are ___ and the cat is poised to ___ if necessary. The tail is held ___ to the body, sometimes wrapped ___ ___ ___. The head is held ___ pulled into the ___. | smaller, tensed, flee, close, around the feet, down, shoulders |
| If a cat determines that it cannot escape from an unwanted interaction, they will prepare to ___ ___. The ears are ___ ___, nearly ___ for protection. The head and neck are pulled tight against the body. Facial muscles are ___: displaying ___ ___. | defend themselves. pulled back, flat. tense. the teeth (a weapon). They will also roll slight to expose their claws ready to defend themselves. |
| True or false: all issues of dog aggression at home should be handled by a DVM. | True |
| Cat Behavioral Problems: Scratching Furniture Is a ___ behavior. What can we suggest to the owner to reduce this behavior? | normal. Scratching posts, cardboard pads w/catnip, tree stumps, repellent spray, sticky tape, soft paws (vinyl nail caps), of last resort (declaw surgery: called Onychectomy) |
| Inappropriate Elimination: Cats Differentiate between ___ and failure to use the ___ ___. | spraying. litter box |
| What medical problems can we evaluate for that can contribute to inappropriate elimination in cats? | PU/PD, FLUTD (feline lower urinary tract disease), Arthritis |
| When evaluating for litter box aversion, what three attributes can we ask the owner to help us help them? | Location (poor), Litter choice, and cleanliness |
| How many litter boxes does a kitty household need? | One for each cat plus one more |
| True or false: spraying is a normal territorial marking behavior in cats. | True |
| When a cat is demonstrating territorial marking behavior, they will be in a ___ posture with backs up to ___ surfaces. | Standing. Vertical. |
| What are three treatments used to treat cats that spray (territorial marking behavior)? | Neuter animals (female and male), cover windows so that outdoor cats can not be seen, behavior modification: pheromones, Buspirone |
| Cats with a ___ behavioral issue, assume a low, squatting position and void a sizable amount (a puddle) of urine or feces either close to the box or on another selected horizontal surface they prefer. | litter-box aversion |
| Cats with a ___ behavioral issue, stand or squat and deposit a small amounts of urine in various strategic location. | urine-marking (spraying) |
| True or false: the longer a client waits to have a cats inappropriate urination problem evaluated, the more likely the medical condition will worsen or the behavioral patter will become established. | True |
| What are the four basic steps of treating a cat with elimination problems? | Establish the cause. Remove the cause (if you can). Relieve the cats anxiety (if that is a contributor). Retrain the cat to use the litter box. |
| True or false: progestins, once widely prescribed for anxiety related urine marking problems, are now recognized by the veterinary profession as having serious side effects in cats are are rarely used. | True. Diazepam (Valium) can also have serious side effects. |
| True or false: buspirone, a more targeted anxiety relieving drug, has virtually no side effects and does not cause withdrawal problems in cats. | True |
| What are seven reasons a cat my avoid the litter box? | Medical conditions (arthritis), filthy litter box, recent litter brand change, undesirable litter box location, too few litter boxes, preference for non-litter texture (carpet), change in environment (anxiety) |
| What is fluorescein used for in feline elimination problems. | It stains a cats urine "day glo" yellow. Can be given orally or DVM can administer it SQ. Lasts up to 24 hrs. Woods lamp can help visualize the stained urine. Can stain. It is normally used to check for corneal abrasions. |
| Hematopoetic System: Bleeding Disorders There are three major systems involved. Name them. | Vessel wall (Endothelium, Basement membrane), Platelets, Coagulation Cascade (Coagulation factors-proteins). |
| Hematopoetic System: Bleeding Disorders Name three common coagulopathies: | Congenital, Acquired, Platelet disorders |
| Hematopoetic System: Common Coagulopathies Congenital ___, and ___. Acquired ___, ___, ___, ___, snake bite. Platelet disorders: <50,000/ul or present but not working. | Congenital: Von Willebrands. Acquired: Rodenticides, Thrombocytopenia, Liver Failure, DIC. |
| Hematopoeitic System: Name the disease. A disease causing excessive activation of hemostasis w/ subsequent generation of excess thrombin & formation of microvascular thrombi. Hemorrhage can occur. | DIC - Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation |
| Hematopoeitic System A disease in which the immune system destroys platelets. | Immune-Mediated Thrombocytopenia (ITP) |
| Hematopoeitic System Triggers of Immune-mediated Thrombocytopenia might include (4): | Drugs, Ehrlichia, Viral Infection, Being Female |
| Hematopoetic System Describe three to six clinical signs of Immune-mediated Thrombocytopenia (ITP). | Petechia (polka dot bruises). Ecchymosis (large bruises), Epistaxis (acute hemorrhage from the nostrils, nasal cavity, or nasopharynx. Inappropriate bleeding, Regenerative anemia, Fever. |
| Hematopoeitic System What are some therapies we can perform to aid an animal affected by Immune-mediated Thrombocytopenia? | Treat underlying cause. Immunosuppressive drugs. Protect animal from trauma: soft foods, no playing, rarely: splenectomy. |
| Hematopoeitic System What is Von Willebrand's Disease? | Inherited disorder of platelet function affecting Dobermans and Border Collies. (54 breeds) |
| Hematopoeitic System Name two clinical signs of Von Willebrand's Disease and one caution. | Inappropriate bleeding, Prolonged bleeding. Surgery risk. |
| Hematopoeitic System: Platelet Count Accurate counts are not possible if platelets are ___ or ___ is present in purple top tube. | clumping. clot. |
| Hematopoetic System Platelet function can be evaluated using what two tests? | Buccal Mucosal Bleeding Time (BMBT), Von Willebrand's Factor (vWb factor) |
| Hematopoetic System: Coagulation Cascase Test for Coagulation Factors: Test that evaluates all clotting factors except VII (Extrinsic Pathway -tissue factor). | ACT (Activated Clotting Time) |
| Hematopoeitic System What test evaluates Extrinsic and Common Pathways and is very sensitive to Vitamin K antagonists? | PT (Prothrombin Time) |
| What are Vitamin K antagonists? | A group of substances that reduce blood clotting by reducing action of Vitamin K. |
| Hematopoeitic System What test evaluates Intrinsic pathway and is sensitive to Vitamin K antagonists and Hemophilia? | PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Test) |
| Hematopoeitic System The most common cause of bleeding disorders in dogs and cats is: ___. Poisoning by rodent ingestion is possible. | Ingestion of Warfarin or Coumadin poisons. Rodenticide Toxicity. |
| Hematopoeitic System True or False: Rodenticides are stable in the environment for years. | True |
| Hematopoeitic System Name three clinical signs of Rodenticide Toxicity. | Occasionally: aqua-blue-green material in feces. Sudden severe anemia three days to six weeks after toxin ingested. Hemorrhage may/may not be clinical. Owners usually are not aware of toxin ingestion. |
| Hematopoeitic System: Pathophysiology ___ blocks ___ ___ production by the liver resulting in failure of the ___ ___ after store Vitamin K is exhausted (3 days). What pathways are affected? | Coumadin. Vitamin K. Clotting Cascade. Intrinsic and Extrinsic pathways. |
| Hematopoeitic System How is Rodenticide Toxicity diagnosed? | Severely prolonged ACT, PT, and PTT. Response to Vitamin K therapy within 24 hours. |
| Hematopoeitic System Describe Vitamin K therapy for Rodenticide toxicity. What additional supportive care can we offer, if necessary. | Vitamin K therapy 2-3 times per day for 6 weeks. Blood and/or Plasma transfusions. |
| Hematopoeitic System A rare inherited clotting disorder in dogs and cats that affects a specific branch of the clotting cascade. There may or may not be clinical signs. Testing will reveal prolonged PT or PTT. | Hemophilia |
| Hematopoeitic System: Leukocyte Disorders ___ refers to elevated white cell count. It usually involves an immune response to: ___, ___, ___, ___, or neoplasia. Name two neoplasia involved in Leukocytosis and briefly describe. | Leukocytosis. Infection. Inflammation. Steriods. Stress. Leukemia (neoplasia of bone marrow). Lymphoma (neoplasia of lymphocytes-lymph nodes, spleen, liver, bone marrow.) |
| Hematopoeitic System: Leukopenia ___ involves all white cells (low count). ___ or ___ specific line has low count. | Panleukopenia. Neutropenia or Lymphopenia |
| Hematopoeitic System The etiology of Leukopenia can involve viral infection (name five diseases), ___, or bone marrow disease (name four types). | FeLV, FIV, Feline Panleukopenia, Canine Distemper, Canine Parvovirus. Sepsis. Neoplasia, Toxin Mediated, Dysplasia (abnormal development of cells, or per-cancerous cells. |
| Hematopoeitic System Neoplasia of lymphocytes common in dogs, but also not uncommon in cats. | Lymphoma |
| Hematopoeitic System What are five clinical signs seen in animals suffering from Lymphoma? | Lymph node enlargement. Fever. Lethargy. Inappetance/weight loss. Rapidly progressive decline. |
| Hematopoeitic System Diagnosis of Lymphoma is done by observing ___ ___ in cytology or biopsy. Cats are often ___ positive. Why is it extremely important to confirm diagnosis? | Malignant lymphocytes. FeLV. Many diseases will cause lymph node enlargement. |
| Hematopoeitic System: Therapy Lymphoma is very responsive to ___, but ___ ___ work best. Also, responds to radiation therapy. Goal is usually ___ ___ (or more) without clinical signs. | chemotherapy. combination protocols. 1 year. |
| Hematopoeitic System Commonly called FIV or Feline AIDS, it is a Lentivirus most common in outdoor male cats. Transmitted through ___ ___ typically, may be asymptomatic. | Feline Immunodeficiency Virus. Bite Wounds. |
| Hematopoeitic System Clinical signs of FIV AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome) include: (5) | Episodic fevers, gingivitis, weight loss, anemia, persistent or recurring infections. |
| Hematopoeitic System: FIV AIDS Supportive care includes treating: ___ and ___. Antiviral agents such as ___ and ___ can be effective. | Infections and Inappentance. AZT (Zidovudine) and Interferon (Immunomodulator and antiviral). |
| Hematopoeitic System What is the best prevention method and why is the FIV vaccination not routine? | Regular testing and isolation of positive animals. Current testing methods can not differentiate between a vaccinated animal and one that is infected. |
| Reproductive System Estrous Cycle: Attracts males but will not breed. | Proestrus |
| Reproductive System Fertile period will accept males. | Estrus |
| Reproductive System Does not attract males or accept males. | Diestrus |
| Reproductive System Cycle rest - Estrous cycle | Anestrus |
| Reproductive System Vaginal Cytology is an ___, ___ tool for staging estrous cycle for breeding (especially dogs). | valuable, inexpensive |
| Reproductive System Vaginal Cytology is best utilized in combination with history and physical exam. What other three things can you look out for? | Onset & character of discharge, vulva swelling, female and male behaviors |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System Clinical signs of ___ include mucoid vaginal discharge and possible genital grooming. | Vaginitis |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System Etiology of ___: common in juveniles (hormone related). Many PMN on cytology. No organisms. Rarely infectious. Bacteria, yeast, mycoplasma, virus. Urine leakage, tumor, stricture, pyometra, obesity. Self-trauma. | Vaginitis |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System Treatment of ___ includes: treating the primary problem. Betadine flush or oral antibiotics for secondary bacterial overgrowth. Prevent self-trauma. If juvenile cause, allow to go through one estrous cycle prior to sx. | Vaginitis |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System Clinical signs of ___ include swollen, painful mammary glands, abnormal milk from that gland, and diarrhea or illness in puppies. | Mastitis |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System Etiology of ___ includes infectious ___ which is uncommon in dogs and cats. Mammary tumors: may present as mastitis. 50% dogs malignant/98% cats malignant. In dogs, it is related to # of estrous cycles animal had. | Mastitis. Prognosis is poor in cats. Surgery in dogs may cure. |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System ___ is infection in the lumen of the uterus. Closed ___: cervix closed does not drain to outside, rapidly fatal due to sepsis. Open___: cervix open, may present as chronic vaginal discharge or UTI. | Pyometra |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System How is Pyometra diagnosed? | Estrous history. Imaging. |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System What is the treatment for Pyometra? | Emergency ovariohysterectomy. Open pyometra could be treated medically, but not recommended (relapse, infertility). |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System ___ is an infection of the uterine wall. It may be related to endometriosis (hyperplasia related to age of dog). Post-partum (especially bad practices or difficulties) | Metritis |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System Clinical signs of ___ may be vague or include: fever, UTI, vaginal discharge, infertility. | Metritis |
| Treatment for Metritis includes (2): | Ovariohysterectomy. Long-term antibiotics. |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System Etiology of Infertility? (seven categories)(13 reasons) | Degenerative: endometriosis. Anomalous: anatomic abnormalities (upper or lower), behavior abnormality. Metabolic: Endocrinopathy (pituitary, ovary, testicle), Hypothyroidism, system disease. Nutritional. Infectious: Bacterial (Brucellosis), Viral (Herpes) |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System What are some clinical signs of pseudopregnancy? | 6-12 weeks after estrus: weight gain, mammary develepment with or without lactation. Vaginal discharge. "Mothering" behaviors. Usually self limiting 1-3 weeks. Probably recurrence if intact. |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System Etiology of pseudopregnancy? | Decreasing progesterone/rising prolactin in normal dog estrous cycle. |
| The Reproductive System: Stages of Labor What does Stage 1 look like? | Uterine contractions (6-36 hrs). Myometrium contracts and presses fetus down against the cervix. Sustained contractions cause the cervix to gradually dilate. |
| The Reproductive System: Stages of Labor Clinical signs Stage __ of Labor: the bitch is usually restless and may show nesting behavior. She is nervous, panting, anorexic, and may tremble or shiver. | One |
| The Reproductive System: Stages of Labor What does Stage 2 look like? | This is the active propulsion stage when the bitch pushes the puppies out. It lasts approximately 20 minutes to 1 hr per puppy, but no more than two hours should elapse between each puppy being born. |
| The Reproductive System: Stages of Labor Stage __ usually lasts a total of __-__ hours but may be as long as __ hrs. The pup engages the cervix and anterior vagina. which initiates the Ferguson reflex (uterine contractions). | 3-6 hrs. 24hrs. |
| The Reproductive System: Stages of Labor The presentation of puppies is 60% ___ in the bitch and 60% ___ in the queen. | anterior. posterior. |
| The Reproductive System: Stages of Labor What does stage III look like? | delivery of the placenta. Placenta separates from the wall of the uterus and is expelled by weaker uterine contractions. You may see pup-placenta-pup or pup-pup- placenta. |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System What are four etiologies of Dystocia? | Uterus exhaustion. Oversized fetuses. Abnormal fetuses. Pelvis canal abnormality. |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System How can dystocia be prevented? (4) | Ideal body condition score of dam. Adequate calcium in diet. Responsible breeding: neonate size and litter #, breed (bulldogs). Radiograph dam in last week of pregnancy. |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System What are some clinical signs of dystocia? | 30 minutes of strong contractions with no pups delivered. 2-3 hrs of weak and infrequent expulsive efforts failing to produce a pup. 4 or more hours between pups. Obvious problem (pup hanging out, etc) |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System How is dystocia diagnosed? | Sterile digital vaginal exam. Radiographs. Ultrasound. Chemistries (esp. blood calcium). |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System How is dystocia treated? | Digital with sterile lube, oxytocin, calcium gluconate. Cesarean section. |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System ___ ___ is often associated with prolonged whelping or dystocia, and is more often seen in toy breeds. | Retained Placenta |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System What are some clinical signs of retained placenta? | The persistance of greenish-black discharge for longer than 24-26 hours after parturition. Normally the discharge should be rust colored by 48 hrs. Discharge has a foul odor. |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System How are retained placenta treated? | Oxytocin. Antibiotics. Possible surgery. |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System ___ etiology: hypocalcemia during late gestation or lactation. (serum Ca: <6.5 mg/dl) | Eclampsia |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System What are four clinical signs of Eclampsia? | Muscle tremors, facial pruritis, stiffness, seizures. |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System What are four possible treatment options for an animal suffering from eclampsia? | Slow IV calcium gluconate with ECG. Diet correction. Wean or supplement nursing puppies. Likely to occur during subsequent pregnancies. |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System What is Benign Hyperplasia in males? | Enlargement of prostate due to chronic testosterone levels. |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System What are three clinical signs of benign hyperplasia in the male? | Tenesmus, flattened stool, enlargement of rectal palpation. |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System What are some treatment options for benign hyperplasia in the male? | Castration rapidly effective. Medication possible: but life-long. |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System What is Prostatitis? | Bacterial infection of prostate (E. coli). Acute prostatitis may be life-threatening. |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System What are three clinical signs of Prostatitis? | Fever (104F), Caudal abdominal/rear leg pain, urinary tract infections. |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System What are some treatment options for Prostatitis? | Antibiotics (based on culture) 6 weeks. Castration to prevent recurrence. |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System A condition called ___ is the failure of one/both testicles to descend into scrotal sac of fetus. May be hereditary. May predispose to neoplasia. Neutering is recommended. May be less fertile but can still breed. | Cryptorchid |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System What are some clinical signs of testicular tumor? | Non-painful enlargement of one testicle, opposite may shrink. Feminization may occur if Sertoli cell tumor (excess testosterone is converted into estrogen). Bone marrow toxicity due to estrogen. |
| Diseases of the Reproductive System What is the treatment for testicular tumors? | Castration |
| Veterinary Dermatology What does dermatology mean? | Dermat: skin ology: the study of |
| Veterinary Dermatology Layer of skin consisting of stratified squamous cells lacking blood vessels, nerves, or glands? | Epidermis |
| Veterinary Dermatology What are the functions of the Epidermis (3)? | Waterproof skin. Protection from chemicals and organisms. Melanocyte pigment (melanin) protects body from UV light. |
| Veterinary Dermatology Layer of skin with a Fibroelastic framework (collagen) with nerves and blood vessels? | Dermis |
| Veterinary Dermatology What is the function of the Dermis? | Thermoregulation through dilation of capillaries, sweat production, and piloerection ("goosebumps"). Sense of touch. |
| Veterinary Dermatology Layer of skin consisting of adipose and connective tissue? | Subcutis |
| Veterinary Dermatology What is the function of the Subcutis? | Fat storage. Provides strength and elasticity to skin. |
| Veterinary Dermatology Name two types of glands and describe their function. | Sebum and lanolin: oils skin and fur. Elasticity. Waterproof. Micro-organism balance. |
| Veterinary Dermatology Where are pheromones produced in the cat? In the dog? | Cat: circumoral glands. Dog: perianal glands |
| Veterinary Dermatology Nails, hooves, horns, and beaks are ___ epidermis that are specialized for specific functions. | keratinized |
| Veterinary Dermatology What are some methods used to approach skin disease? (6) | History, PE, Skin tests, Systemic tests, Diagnosis, Treatment. |
| Veterinary Dermatology Why is a history important when dealing with skin disease? | Similar clinical signs across many diseases. Common secondary infections that confuse evaluation. Usually chronic disease. |
| Veterinary Dermatology What are some important history questions to ask? | Duration of problem? (progressive/intermittent). Description of problems? (pruritic/flea control). Other animal or human signs? Other clinical signs in pet? (thirst, appetite, weight changes). Any therapies tried previously? Breed? |
| Veterinary Dermatology Name three general physical exam parts that would be important. | BCS, Lymph nodes, eyes and ears. |
| Veterinary Dermatology What are four clinical signs of skin disease? | Abnormal hair growth. Abnormal skin color or texture. Abnormal skin features: growths or cysts, crusts or flakes, wounds or scabs, pustules or papules, parasites, odors or exudates. Pain, pruritis, hyperaesthesia. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Lesions A ___ is a small circumscribed area of epidermis filled with exudate (neutrophils or eosinophils). | Pustule |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Lesions A ___ is a sharply circumscribed, raised edematous subcutaneous lesion. May appear/disappear within minutes to hours. Due to allergies, drug reaction or other hypersensitivity. | Wheal |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Lesions What does edematous mean? | swollen with an excessive accumulation of fluid. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Lesions A ___ is a mass involving skin or subcu tissue consisting of inflammatory or neoplastic cells. | Tumor |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Lesions ___ indicates partial to complete loss of hair. | Alopecia |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Lesions ___ is an accumulation of loose fragments of horny layer of skin "dandruff". | Scale |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Lesions ___ is an adherence of dried exudate, serum, scales, blood or medications to the skin surface. | Crust |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Lesions ___ is an increase in epidermal or dermal melanin usually secondary to chronic inflammation. | Hyperpigmentation |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Lesions A ___ is epidermal scale arranged in a circle usually due to a healing pustule commonly due to bacterial infection. | Collarette |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Lesions ___ is a shallow epidermal defect due to trauma or inflammation. | erosion |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Tests ___ is used to evaluate cell type or infectious organism including bacteria, yeast, fungus, or mites. | cytology |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Tests What are some test used to evaluate cytology (5)? | Aspirate, swab, impression smear, tape prep, skin scraping. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Tests Describe an Impression Smear. | Glass slide is touched directly to a lesion. Good for exudates and weeping lesions. Slide is air-dried and then stained (DiffQuik works well). |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Tests Describe how to perform a Tape prep: | Clear sticky tape is pressed directly to skin surface. A drop of new methylene blue or blue DiffQuik is placed on glass slide. Sticky tape is placed over drop of stain with sticky side down (like a coverslip). Useful for Malassezia yeast & epidermal mite. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Tests Describe the process of performing a Skin Scrape test. | Mineral oil is applied to #11 blade & skin is scraped in one direction at an angle. For mites, squeeze skin & then abraded enough to draw slight blood. Add collected material to slide. Add coverslip. Evaluate slide. Count mites (adult & juvenile). |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Tests Cultures can be done to detect what two types of organisms? | Fungal (DTM), Bacterial |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Tests A ___ Lamp Exam, biopsies, and intradermal allergy tests can be used to evaluate skin. | Wood's |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Tests How are fungal cultures collected? | Hairs & scale at edge of lesion collected w/hemostats or sterile toothbrush. Collected material placed in Dermatophyte Test Medium. Agar w/ color indicator. Incubated @ room temperature, aerobic. Growth + color change = fungus must be ID under microscope. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Tests How is a Wood's lamp used? | Warm Wood's Lamp for 5 minutes. Examine animal in dark room. Hairs invaded with Microsporum canis will fluoresce apple-green. 50% of Microsporum infections will fluoresce. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Tests Describe the process of obtaining a skin biopsy. | Representative sample and normal appearing skin should be samples. NO surgical prep is done on skin! Antimicrobial and alcohol can alter diagnosis. Tumor removal is prepared in routine manner. Local anesthetic with lidocaine. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Tests Describe the process of preserving biopsy samples. | Sample is placed on tongue depressor prior to placing in formalin. Remember history and Rx on submission form! Small sample size (8 mm) but designed to obtain full skin thickness. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Tests Describe the process of Intradermal Skin testing. | Patient is shaved on body wall and a grid pattern is drawn on. A different allergen is injected into the skin in each square. A skin reaction is read by DVM. Results are used to develop hyposensitization plan (allergy shots). |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Skin Tests What is one important thing to remember to tell clients before they have an intradermal skin test performed. | All corticosteroid medications must be withdrawn 2-4 weeks prior to test. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Therapy When treating a systemic issue, what methods can be used (9)? | Antibiotics, Antifungals, Antihistamines, Corticosteriods, Hormones, Omega 3, Antiparasitic, Diet Trials, and Allergen injections. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Therapy When topical treatment options are available? (5) | Creams, Solutions, Shampoos, Spot-ons, Powders |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Therapy What are two environmental factors that can be changed to help the affected animal? | Contact surfaces. Air quality. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Therapy Describe the appropriate technique for treating an animal with a medicated shampoo. | Minimum 10 minutes contact time fully lathered animal. Good time to practice animal massage. Time on clock. Thoroughly rinse 5-10 minutes. Shampoo therapy usually repeated every 5-10 days. No residue on animal. Follow label directions. DVM prescription. |
| Remember DAMNIT? D Name two potential causes of disease in pet: | Degenerative, Developmental |
| Remember DAMNIT? A Name two potential causes of disease in pet: | Allergic, Anomalous (anomalies/defects) |
| Remember DAMNIT? M Name three potential causes of disease in pet: | Metabolic, Mechanical, Mental |
| Remember DAMNIT? N Name two potential causes of disease in pet: | Neoplastic, Nutrition |
| Remember DAMNIT? I Name six potential causes of disease in pet: | Infectious (bacteria, fungus, parasite, viral), inflammatory, immune-mediated, ischemic, iatrogenic, idiopathic |
| Remember DAMNIT? T Name two potential causes of disease in pet: | Toxin, Trauma |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases ___ (Ringworm) is caused by Microsporum and Trichophyton spp most commonly in dogs and cats. Is it zoonotic? | Dermatomycoses. Yes. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases Clinical signs of ___ (Ringworm) include: mild pruritis, circular alopecia with crusts and scale. May or may not have "ring" appearance. | Dermatomycoses |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases What are three possible methods of diagnosing Dermatomycoses (Ringworm)? | Wood's lamp, Fungal culture, Fungal ID (microscope) |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases What are three possible treatments for Dermatomycoses? | Topical for focal lesion. Systemic antifungal agents. Vaccine (cats) |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases What are four preventative measures that can be taken to prevent Dermatomycoses (Ringworm)? | Know that spore contaminate environment for >1 yr. Bleach hard surfaces. Throw away toys, bedding, and grooming supplies not easily bleached. Children shouldn't handle infected animals. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases Etiology of Moist Dermatitis (Hotspots)? | Self-trauma secondary to allergies, ear infections, and insect bites. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases Clinical signs of ___ (Hot spots) are acute moist painful, pruritic erosions. | Moist Dermatitis |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases Moist Dermatitis, also referred to as __ __, can be treated with: | hot spots. Careful clipping to normal skin. Gentle cleansing with Chlorhexiderm solution. Treat inciting cause. Prevent self-trauma. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases Anal Gland ___ is caused by infection and duct obstruction of anal gland(s). | Sacculitis |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases What are two clinical signs of Anal Gland Sacculitis? | Scooting and/or licking perianal area. Foul odor +/- perineal wound. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases What are four possible treatments for Anal Gland Sacculitis? | Express anal glands. Clip and clean open wounds. Antibiotic infusion into sacs. Systemic antibiotics. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases How can Anal Gland Sacculitis be prevented? | Increase insoluble fiber in the pet's diet to create formed stool. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases Name four etiologies: | Atopy (inhaled allergy), Food allergy, Flea-bite allergy, Contact allergy. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases How do we evaluate for Allergic Dermatitis? | History is very important: seasonal pruritis? Diet history. Foot licking? Otitis externa? Body pattern. Common for animal to have more than one allergy at a time! |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases ___ may have seasonal history (molds, pollen, dust). Certain breeds @ risk (esp white/yellow breeds). Feet, face, axilla & ventrum common body patterns. Secondary infections, alopecia & hyperpigmentation (self trauma) | Atopy |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases What are four possible treatment options for Atopy? | Antihistamines, Omega-3, Steroids, Hyposensitization injections. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases Otitis externa, scooting, and face rubbing are common seen with ___ ___. Rodent ulcers and ventrum alopecia in cats. Trigger will be a protein in the diet, usually need >1 year of exposure to the antigen. | food allergy |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases What are two treatment options for food allergy? | Novel diet or Lyophilized protein diet. Treat secondary problems. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases Describe the etiology of flea allergy. | Allergy to flea saliva. Even one flea bite can cause severe pruritis for days. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases What are two clinical signs of flea allergy? | Flea or flea dirt. Body distribution: tail head usually worse. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases Treatments for flea allergy? | Aggressive flea control. Treat secondary problems. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases ___ ___ is an allergy to a substance in direct contact with the skin (grass, carpet, plastic bowls, harnesses). | Contact allergy |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases Clinical signs? What are the four most effected sites on the body? | Dermatitis most prominent in thin-haired body regions. Axilla, groin, ventrum, face. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases Treatment for Contact Allergy? | Prevent skin contact with offending agent. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases ___ skin disease is due to an endocrine imbalance in the body leading to skin signs. Usually, non-pruritic symmetrical alopecia. (Secondary problems can cause pruritis). | Endocrine Skin Disease (Alopecia) |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Endocrine Skin Disease Name five diseases that you commonly will see Endocrine alopecia. | Hypothyroid. Cushings. Alopecia X. Addisons. Liver failure. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases ___-___ skin disease is caused by an abnormal response of the immune system, causing lesions of skin. Triggers may include antibiotics, viruses, neoplasia, female gender, idiopathic. | Immune-mediated skin disease |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases What treatment options are available for immune-mediated skin disease? | Immunosuppression, especially T-cells: Prednisone. Azathioprine. Cyclosporine. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases ___ is indicated in tumors of the skin. They are rather common and most are benign, but malignant life-threatening skin ___ does occur. | Neoplasia. neoplasia. |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases How is Neoplasia of the skin diagnosed? | All skin tumors should be evaluated for malignancy (cytology) |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases __ __ __ is problematic in white-faced cats (indoor or outdoor). Affecting pinna and nasal planum. | Squamous Cell Carcinoma |
| Veterinary Dermatology: Diseases __ __ __ can affect any animal, but problematic in Boxers. | Mast cell tumor |
| Pansystemic Diseases ___ occurs when the body temperature set point in the brain is elevated by pyrogens and cooling mechanisms are turned down or off. | fever |
| Pansystemic Diseases Chemicals produced within or without the body that alter the brain set point are called ___. | Pyrogens. Inflammatory cytokines from white cells. Bacterial cell walls. Others. |
| Pansystemic Diseases ___ occurs when the set point in the brain remains normal, but external influences generate more heat than can be effectively dissipated. (Environmental heat, muscle tremors, and seizures). | Hyperthermia |
| Pansystemic Diseases These diseases involve ___ body systems. Causes may be ___, ___, ___, or ___. | multiple. viral, bacterial, fungal, parasitic. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Symptoms generally vary, but name nine that are commonly seen. | Fever, anorexia, depression, weight loss, vomiting/diarrhea, anemia, leukopenia, neurologic signs, respiratory signs. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Feline Panleukopenia is also called? | feline distemper |
| Pansystemic Diseases Etiology of Feline Panleukopenia? | parvo virus (related to canine parvo) |
| Pansystemic Diseases How is it transmitted? | Direct contact: bite wounds, grooming, etc. Indirect contact: environment may be contaminated for years. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Pathophysiology of Panleukopenia? | The virus attacks neonatal brain tissue, bone marrow, and GALT. |
| Pansystemic Diseases What are five common clinical signs of Feline Panleukopenia? | Fever, Vomiting/diarrhea, Panleukopenia, Abortions, Cerebellar gait in surviving neonates. |
| Pansystemic Diseases How contagious is Feline Panleukopenia? | The virus is highly contagious. Infected animals must be quarantined. The virus is often fatal. All body secretions contain virus. |
| Pansystemic Diseases What treatment options are available for Feline Panleukopenia? | Aggressive supportive care: IV fluids, Antibiotics, Treat clinical signs (symptoms). |
| Pansystemic Diseases Can Feline Panleukopenia be prevented? | Yes! Vaccinate all kittens at 8 weeks, 12 weeks, and 16 weeks of age. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Describe the etiology of Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP). | Abnormal body reaction to a common corona virus of cats. Common in catteries. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Describe the pathophysiology of Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP). | Pyogranulomatous reaction in body cavities, eyes, brain, and kidneys up to years after exposure to the virus. |
| Pansystemic Diseases What does suppuration mean? Hint: pyo | The formation of, conversion into, or process of discharging pus an abscess is a localized area of suppuration suppuration in a wound. |
| Pansystemic Diseases How is Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP) diagnosed? | Diagnosis is difficult. High titers to FECV (feline corona virus): not definitive. Yellow, high protein effusion in chest or abdomen. Tissue biopsy showing pyogranulomas. |
| Pansystemic Diseases What is the treatment for Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP)? | Supportive care. Usually rapidly fatal. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Etiology of Feline Leukemia Virus (FeLV)? | Retrovirus that can cause immunosuppression or trigger neoplasia (lymphoma). |
| Pansystemic Diseases How is Feline Leukemia Virus (FeLV) transmitted? | Bite wounds. Grooming. Nursing. Exposure via fomites is rare. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Pathophysiology of Feline Leukemia Virus (FeLV)(3)? | After exposure to the virus one of the following will occur in the cat: Transient Infection, chronic infection, Active infection with clinical signs. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Pathophysiology of Feline Leukemia Virus (FeLV) that affects 80% of exposed cats. | Transient infection in which the cat's body clears the virus within six weeks. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Pathophysiology of Feline Leukemia Virus (FeLV) that has no clinical signs: | Chronic infection. This asymptomatic state may last for years. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Pathophysiology of Feline Leukemia Virus (FeLV) that results in clinical signs like neoplasia and systemic illness? | Active Infection. |
| Pansystemic Diseases How is Feline Leukemia Virus (FeLV) diagnosed? | ELISA screening test. If positive ELISA, retest in three months or confirm with IFA (Immunofluorescence assay). |
| Pansystemic Diseases What treatment is available for Feline Leukemia Virus (FeLV)? | Supportive care. Treat clinical signs. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Can Feline Leukemia Virus (FeLV) be prevented? | Vaccinate all ELISA (-) cats. Keep all ELISA (+) cats indoors. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Feline Immunodeficiency Virus is also commonly called? | FIV or Feline AIDS |
| Pansystemic Diseases Etiology of Feline Immunodeficiency Virus? Pathophysiology? | Lentivirus most common in outdoor male cats due to bite wound transmission. May be asymptomatic or show AIDS (Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome). |
| Pansystemic Diseases What are five common clinical signs of Feline Immunodeficiency Virus AIDS? FIV AIDS.... | Episodic fevers, gingivitis, weight loss, anemia, persistent or recurring infections. |
| Pansystemic Diseases What two treatment options are available for animals with FIV (Feline Immunodeficiency Virus) AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome)? Describe them. | Supportive care: infections, inappetence. Antiviral agents: AZT, Interferon. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Are there preventative measures for Feline Immunodeficiency Virus? Vaccine? | Testing and Isolation of positive animals. No. Vaccination is not considered safe and there are no effective tests that can differentiate between a FIV positive animal and a vaccinated one. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Etiology of Toxoplasmosis? | Coccidia parasite: Toxoplasma gondii. |
| Pansystemic Diseases How is Toxoplasmosis transmitted (3)? | Ingestion of contaminated meat. Fecal-oral: litter boxes, gardening without gloves. Transplacental. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Psychophysiology of Toxoplasmosis in the cat? | Lungs and eyes most commonly affected. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Pathophysiology of Toxoplasmosis in the dog? | GI, lung, and CNS may be affected. |
| Pansystemic Diseases How is Toxoplasmosis diagnosed? | Rising titer. Positive fecal (transient so not reliable). |
| Pansystemic Diseases What is the treatment for Toxoplasmosis? | Clindamycin antibiotic for three weeks |
| Pansystemic Diseases Is Toxoplasmosis a zoonotic disease? Who is affected? | Yes, although humans that are immunocompetent are rarely affected. Unborn fetus' and immunocompromised people are at risk. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Symptoms of Toxoplasmosis in humans? | Retinitis and vision loss. Brain disease. Liver and spleen disease. |
| Pansystemic Diseases There are 11 preventative measures that the CDC recommends to prevent Toxoplasmosis. Name five: | Wash hands after exposure to soil, sand, raw meat, or unwashed vegetables. Cook meat completely. Freeze meat for several days before cooking. Wash cutting boards and knives thoroughly after each use. Wash/peel fruits & veggies before eating. |
| Pansystemic Diseases There are 11 preventative measures that the CDC recommends to prevent Toxoplasmosis. Name five more: | Wear gloves when gardening. Keep sandboxes covered. Avoid drinking untreated water. Only immunocompetent, non-pregnant individuals should clean litter boxes. Litter boxes should be cleaned daily. Adopt only mature, healthy cats. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Why does the CDC recommend cleaning the litter box daily to prevent Toxoplasmosis? | It takes two days for the oocysts to become infective. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Who is susceptible to the Rabies virus? | All mammals |
| Pansystemic Diseases What is Rabies virus? | Neurologic disease. Always fatal. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Where is the Rabies virus found? | Most of the world, except islands. |
| Pansystemic Diseases How is the Rabies virus transmitted? | Direct contact with saliva or tissue |
| Pansystemic Diseases How is Rabies virus diagnosed? | Brain immunofluorescence or tissue ELISA. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Is there a treatment available for Rabies virus? | No |
| Pansystemic Diseases How is Rabies virus prevented? | Vaccination. Any animal suspected of having rabies must be quarantined. |
| Pansystemic Diseases What is the incubation period for Rabies virus? | three to eight weeks depending on the species and the site of viral entry. |
| Pansystemic Diseases What are the three stages of clinical signs of Rabies Virus? | Prodromal stage, Furious stage, and Paralytic Stage. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Describe the Prodromal stage of the Rabies virus: | Stage 1: changes in behavior or inappropriate behavior for species. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Describe the Furious stage of the Rabies virus: | Stage 2: Hyper-reactive. "Dumb" stuperous. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Describe the Paralytic stage of the Rabies virus: | Stage 3: Ascending paralysis and death. |
| Pansystemic Diseases: Rabies Virus How can we decrease zoonotic risk of this disease? (5) | Assume any animal w/ neurologic signs, bite wounds or unknown vaccination status may be carrier. Wear gloves when working with these animals. Quarantine procedures. Get vaccinated if working w/ wildlife or zoo animals. Report to Public Health is bitten. |
| Pansystemic Diseases The only recognized definitive test for rabies in a biting animal is: | brain examination of a fresh, not frozen, sample. |
| Pansystemic Diseases If an animals is suspected of being a rabies virus carrier, how long should they be quarantined? | If they have previous been vaccinated or there vaccination has recently expired, the owner can quarantine the animal for 45 days. If there is no vaccination history: 4 months (dogs and cats) or 6 months (ferrets). Vaccinate within 96 hours of exposure. |
| Pansystemic Diseases What animals are affected by Canine Parvovirus? | Wild and domestic dogs. |
| Pansystemic Diseases What are clinical signs of Canine Parvovirus? | Potentially fatal vomiting, bloody diarrhea, and low white count. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Where is Canine Parvovirus seen? | Worldwide since 1970s |
| Pansystemic Diseases How is Canine Parvovirus spread? | Fecal-oral transmission |
| Pansystemic Diseases How is Canine Parvovirus diagnosed? | Fecal ELISA. Leukopenia on CBC is often seen. |
| Pansystemic Diseases What treatment is available for Canine Parvovirus? | Supportive care. Vaccinate to prevent. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Is Canine Parvovirus difficult to kill? | Yes. It has no envelope. It is difficult to kill this virus. Use Bleach! Quarantine protocol. |
| Pansystemic Diseases What preventative measures should be used to protect animals and puppies from Canine Parvovirus? | Vaccinate puppies at 8 weeks and every 3-4 weeks until 16 weeks old. Breeds at risk should be vaccinated every 4 weeks until 6 months old, then annually: Rottweiler, Doberman, Pit Bulls. Puppies should not go to public places until vaccinations complete. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Animals positive for Canine Parvovirus should be: | quarantined. They will be contagious for six weeks after symptoms have resolved and their environment (yard, etc) will be contagious for 3-6 months. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Describe the Etiology of Canine Distemper: | Paramyxovirus that is highly contagious, but easily decontaminated. |
| Pansystemic Diseases How is Canine Distemper transmitted? | Aerosol (common in Humane Societies). Fecal/urine oral. Transplacental. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Pathophysiology of Canine Distemper? | Leukopenia. Vomiting/diarrhea. Enamel Dysplasia. Neurologic signs. Abdominal skin pustules. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Are there treatments available for Canine Distemper? | Supportive care. Treat clinical signs. |
| Pansystemic Diseases What can be done to prevent Canine Distemper? | Vaccinate as per other puppy protocols. Quarantine all suspect animals. |
| Pansystemic Diseases What is a "Fever of Unknown Origin" (FUO)? | Fever causing disease may be expensive and frustrating to treat and diagnose. |
| Pansystemic Diseases Etiology of Fever of Unknown Origin (FUO)? | Infection: viral, bacterial, protozoal, fungal. Immune-mediated. Neoplasia. Drug reaction. |
| Pansystemic Diseases What are supportive care options for Fever of Unknown Origin (FUO)? | Fluid support: SQ fluids will cool animal for a few hours. IV fluids can be run through cool water. Cool water enemas will rapidly drop core temp. Environmental cooling: fans blowing on patient, ice. Patient cooling: wet head/neck, alcohol foot pads. |
| Pansystemic Diseases: Fever of Unknown Origin If fever occurred while patient had IV or urinary catheter in place(2): | Immediately change catheter. Culture catheter removed. |
| Pansystemic Diseases: Fever of Unknown Origin If fever occurred while patient receiving blood or plasma transfusion: | immediately stop transfusion and consult DVM |
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