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Vet. A&P II - Large
Final Review - Spring Quarter
Question | Answer |
---|---|
The periosteum allows the bone to grow: | Thicker and stronger after a fracture. |
The growth plate allows bone to grow: | longer |
What is the thin layer of tissue on the end of the bones that provides cushion? | Articular cartilage |
What are two things that bone marrow produces? | Red & White blood cells. |
What are the five essentials to allow bones to heal after a fracture? | Proper Nutrition, Immobilization, Blood supply, Alignment of fractured ends, Free from infection |
True or false: Most quadrupeds have 7 cervical vertebrae. | True |
True or false: The patella is an example of an irregular bone. | False. Sesamoid. |
True or false: The carpal bones are examples of short cube shaped bones. | True |
True or False: All fractures heal easily after a cast is applied. | False |
True or false: The cortex of the bone is the spongy center of the bone. | False: hard outer layer |
The purpose of the respiratory system is to add ___ to the blood stream and remove ___ and also to regulate blood ___. | oxygen. carbon dioxide (CO2). pH. |
What is a guttural pouch? In what species? | An extension of the Eustachian tube located below the external ear. *Possibly there to help cool the brain in horses. |
Name one complication of disease of the guttural pouch in horses. | Infection can erode the carotid artery: causing extensive hemorrhage. |
In what part of the lung does the actual gas exchange take place? | Alveoli |
What are two potential medical consequences of dysfunction of the arytenoids and/or esophagus? | Aspiration or food and water. Exercise intolerance. |
How does air in your thoracic cavity (pneumothorax) prevent normal breathing? | The air takes up lung space (puts pressure on the lungs) preventing them from expanding. |
In general, disease of the upper respiratory tract results in increased respiratory sounds on: | Inhalation |
Disease of the lower respiratory tract results in increased respiratory noise on: | Exhalation |
True or false: Ruminants and pigs are unique in that they have a cranial accessory lung lobe that branches off the trachea cranial to the bifurcation. | True |
True or false: Llamas are unique, possessing a flat bone in the tip of their nose called the rostral bone. | False: Pigs. |
True or false: Most large animals breath through their mouths as easily as through their nasal passages. | False |
True or false: Surfactant is helpful in the large airways to help trap dust and debris. | False: Reduces friction in the alveoli allowing the sack to move more freely. |
What are turbinates: | Mucous membrane covered scroll shaped bones that help remove debris from the airways. |
Paranasal sinuses are: | Air-filled cavities that make the head lighter, but can have medical significance in the horse with dental disease or cows when dehorning. |
What is the larynx: | A set of cartilage that is the "gatekeeper" for the trachea: preventing food and water from entering. |
Arytenoids allow for: | Vocalization through movement of this cartilage. |
What is the epiglottis? | Triangular cartilage at the base of the tongue. |
What is the bronchus? | The main branches of the respiratory system. |
What is the pleura? | The lining tissue of the thorax that contains the lungs in two separate sacs. |
True or False: the dorsal gluteal muscles are an appropriate site for intramuscular (IM) injections? | False: base of the neck |
True or False: the hock has four separate joints and the carpus has three. | True |
True or false: Navicular disease is an acute process that usually heals within a few days. | False: Chronic. |
What joint in the horse is most comparable to the human "wrist." | Carpus |
True or False: Nail punctures in the area of the frog of the hoof generally has a better prognosis for recovery than punctures of the sole? | False |
What tendon runs around the navicular bone and attaches to the coffin bone. | Deep Digital Flexor Tendon (DDFT) |
Explain the purpose of the stay apparatus in the horse and how it works in the front and hind limbs. | In the hind limbs, the femur has a notch that allows the horse to lock their stifle in place by flexing their quads. In the front limbs the bones/joints stack to lock the limbs. This allows the horse to sleep standing up without collapsing. |
What is the common name for the paired thin bones (metacarpal 2 & 4 and metatarsal 2 & 4)? | Splint bones |
Which joints of the hind limb are involved in the reciprocal apparatus? How does it affect the horse's movement. | Stifle/Hock. In normal healthy equine legs, the hock flexes when the stifle flexes, and when the hock extends the stifle extends. |
What are two (of many) conditions/factors that lead to laminitis in horses? | Excessive Weight Bearing. Grain Overload. *Enteritis, Colic, Overexercise, Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing's Disease) & Excess Corticosteroids administered. |
Define uniparous ovarian cycle and name one animal example: | Usually produces one offspring (Cow) |
Define a multiparous ovarian cycle and name one animal example: | Produces multiple offspring at parturition (Pig) |
Define seasonally polyestrous and name one animal example. | Multiple heat cycles throughout the year but the cycle is influenced by the weather (sunlight). Sheep. |
Define polyestrous and name an animal example: | Multiple heat cycles throughout the year. Cattle. |
Where is the hormone GnRH (Gonadatropin-releasing hormone) produced in the brain (known as the CEO of the brain). | Hypothalamus |
What hormone starts the process of follicular growth? | Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) |
What hormone does the granulosa cell produce? | Estrogen |
What hormone completes the process of follicle development in the ovary and causes the follicle to release? | Luteinizing Hormone (LH) |
What hormone does the Corpus Luteum produce? | Progesterone |
In most species, what happens to the corpus luteum if no pregnancy results after the ovum is released? | Lyses (dissolves) |
What is the term for the release of the ovum? | Ovulation |
What condition increase estrus activity in the mare? | Increasing day length in the spring. |
The period of no ovarian follicular activity is known as | Anestrus |
What criteria are evaluated during a breeding soundness exam for a male animal? (4) | Morphology of the sperm. Semen motility. Presence of both testicles. Scrotal size. |
True of False: Normal semen evaluation should show at lease 70% normal motility and 70% normal morphology (size, shape, structure) but the volume of semen is very species specific. | True |
Regurgitation is a term describing: | Controlled reverse movement of coarse foodstuffs fro the reticulum/rumen via the esophagus to the mouth for rechewing (cud). |
Build-up of gas in the rumen during fermentation includes: | CO2 (Carbon dioxide), and CH4 (Methane) |
The omasum is the third, globe-shaped stomach of the ruminant. Its purpose is to (3): | Absorb water/dry out ingesta. Reduce feed particle size. Absorb volatile fatty acids. |
In nursing ruminants, milk is passed directly from the esophagus to the abomasum via the: | Esophageal groove. |
Ruminants prehend (grab) food using their (3): | Tongue, Lower incisors, Upper dental pad. |
Which compartment of the ruminants gastrointestinal tract is considered the "true stomach?" | Abomasum |
The reticulum lies just caudal to the diaphragm. What type of materials tend to accumulate in the reticulum? | Hardware |
The rumen pH is typically: | Approximately neutral. (6-7) |
What are three microscopic living components of healthy rumen fluid? | Bacteria. Fungus. Protozoa (Control microorganism populations). |
What is transfaunation and how is it beneficial to a sick animal? | A small amount of rumen fluid is removed from a healthy animal and transferred to an ill animal. The transplant helps the ill animal's rumen recover homeostasis. |
True or False: A full rumen cycle occurs every 5 seconds. | False. |
True or False: Rumen motility is stimulated by a lack of fibrous feed withing the rumen. | False |
Where is the abomasum normally located? | Ventral. Beneath the Rumen & Omasum. |
In general, which is more serious for bovine health, a left displacement of the abomasum or right? | Right (RDA) |
Provide one reason for a displaced abomasum and two clinical signs. | Cause: gas build-up. Clinical signs: Reduced milk production. Weight loss. |
The primary sites of fermentation and digestion in the horse are the: | Cecum and Large Colon. |
True or False: In both foregut and hindgut digestion, insoluble carbohydrates (fibrous plant material) is converted to volatile fatty acids that are ultimately absorbed into the blood stream and contribute to the energy needs of the animal. | True |
True or False: Only protozoa are essential in the process of digestion in both hindgut and foregut fermenters. | False |
True or False: horses should receive a minimum of 10% of their body weight in dry roughage per day. | False. 1.5 - 2% |
True or False: the large intestine of the horse is about 7 meters in length and has several bends and flexures predisposing the animal to colic and impactions. | True. 7-8 yards. 23 feet. |
The main function of the relatively small equine stomach is the: | break down of proteins via enzymes in a strongly acidic environment (pH 2.6) |
The equine stomach is grossly (visually) sharply divided into the glandular and non-glandular regions by the: | Margo Plicatus |
Why are dental issues potentially more significant to equine health than ruminant nutrition? | It is important for equine animals to chew their food. Dental issues, like irregularities in tooth placement or surface make it painful or impossible to chew. They'll just drop their food from their mouths and give up. |
True or False: Horses have a gall bladder as they are continuous grazers whereas cows do not. | False |
The rate of passage of digesta through an adult herbivore is greatly influenced by (3): | The species of the animal. How fibrous the feed is. The digestibility of the feed. |
True or False: Horses cannot vomit due to the very strong lower esophageal sphincter. | True |
True or False: Galactopoiesis refers to the continued production of milk by the mammary glands. | True |
True or False: "Drying off" refers to the cleaning process of the udder prior to milking. | False |
True or false: Increased frequency of milking has minimal effect on the amount of milk production. | False |
True or False: Progesterone produced during each estrus promotes development of the duct system of the mammary glands. | False |
True or False: The mare has 4 mammary glands like a cow, but only two teats. | True |
True or False: The venous circle around the udder refers to the 3 large veins that drain the udder. | True |
True or False: Inverted nipples are often functional. | False |
True or False: the composition of milk can vary between breeds and how many days the animal is in their lactation cycle. | True |
True or False: the sow can have numerous paired mammary glands, each treat has only once opening. | False |
The main protein in milk is: | Casein |
The main carbohydrate (sugar) is: | Lactose |
Lactose (the main carbohydrate/sugar in milk) is made from blood glucose that in ruminants is produced in the liver from this energy source- a biproduct of rumen metabolism: | VFAs Volatile Fatty Acids |
The main fat in milk is: | Triglycerides |
True or false: migration contact allows for better recognition of pregnancy. | True |
What percent of embryos die before implantation? | 30% |
True or False: Embryo migration allows for adequate spacing between the embryos in the uterine horn? | True |
True or False: Embryo migration is not necessary for retention of pregnancy in the mare. | False |
Describe a Zonary Placenta & Name one animal example: | Belt-shaped attachment site (dog). |
Describe a Cotyledonary Placenta & Name one animal example: | Many buttons for attachment covering its exterior. (cows) |
Describe a Diffuse Placenta & Name one animal example: | A placenta with villi covering the entire surface. (horse) |
Briefly explain what occurs in the stages of labor: | First Stage: Contractions start to push the fetus and sacs toward the cervix. Second Stage: Neonate is born. Third Stage: Placenta is passed. |
The lobe, of the mammary gland, has millions of milk secreting units (A). Milk then flows into the (B) and then into the (C), which can contain 100-400 mLs of milk. Milk then flows into the (D), and exits the udder via the (E). | A: Alveoli. B: Collecting duct. C: Gland Cistern. D: Teat Cistern or Teat Sinus. E: Streak Canal or Teat Meatus. |
(A) is the hormone that stimulates the contraction of muscle fibers known as (B) which then causes milk let down. | A: Oxytocin. B: Myoepithelial cells. |
The main elastic support system for the udder is: | Median Suspensory Ligament |
Mastitis is a serious condition of the mammary gland which can result in the total necrosis of the entire gland. Name three clinical signs. Name three treatments. | Clinical signs: Decreased milk yield. Swelling/pain. Inflammation/heat. Treatments: NSAIDs/Antibiotics, Surgery/Regular milking. Culling. |
The hormone known as the pregnancy hormone: | Progesterone |
The series of changes that spermatozoa undergo in the female reproductive tract are summarized by the term: | Capacitation |
The function of the placenta (4): | Transfer of nutrients from the dam to the fetus. Transfer of wastes from the fetus to the dam. Provide oxygen to the fetus. Provide progesterone in some species. |
What is the non-vascular membranous layer immediately surrounding the fetus called? What color is it? | Amnion. Gray. |
What is the outer most membrane, of the placenta, that attaches to the lining of the uterus called? What color is it? | Chorion. Velvety red. |
What is the structure that contains the veins and arteries that feed the fetus called? | Umbilical cord |
Name of the structure that connects the urinary bladder to the placenta is called the: | Urachus |
List two possible complications that might require medical intervention of the labor and delivery process. | Unusually large fetus. Improper placement of fetus (limbs/head) |
True or false: parturition is mainly initiated by the fetus. | True |
True or false: The process of embryo transfer only allows for one extra offspring a year for each female. | False |
True or False: the fetus itself creates the placental membranes. | True |
Pneumo- as in pneumo-thorax | Relating to the lungs. Relating to the presence of air or gas. |
Cattle (Bovine) A mature male is called a: | Bull |
Cattle (Bovine) A castrated male is called a: | Steer |
Cattle (Bovine) An immature female is called a: | Heifer |
Cattle (Bovine) A mature female is called a: | Cow |
Horse (Equine) What is a mature male called: | Stallion |
Horse (Equine) What is a mature female called: | Mare |
Horse (Equine) What is a castrated male called: | Gelding |
Horse (Equine) What is an immature female called: | Filly |
Horse (Equine) What is an immature male called: | Colt |
Sheep (Ovine) A mature male? | Ram |
Sheep (Ovine) A sheep less than one year old? | Lamb |
Sheep (Ovine) A mature female? | Ewe |
Sheep (Ovine) A castrated sheep? | Wether |
Pig (Swine) A mature male? | Boar |
Pig (Swine) A castrated male? | Barrow |
Pig (Swine) A mature female? | Sow |
Pig (Swine) A immature female? | Gilt |
Pig (Swine) A group of neonates? | Pog |
Pig (Swine) Neonates are called? | Piglets |
Llamas and other camelids A mature male? | Stud |
Llamas and other camelids A castrated male? | Gelding |
Llamas and other camelids A mature female? | Female |
Llamas and other camelids Immature animals? | Cria |
Goats (Caprine) A mature male? | Buck |
Goats (Caprine) A goat less than 1 year old? | Kid |
Goats (Caprine) A mature female? | Doe |
Goats (Caprine) A mature castrated male? | Wether |