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Laboratory Sciences
Final & Practicum Review - Spring Quarter
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What are the indications for a necropsy? Name six: | Determining cause of death/disease. Study pathophysiology of the disease. Monitor therapy/treatment. Specific public health concerns: rabies, mad cow, etc. Herd health (pigs, poultry, fish) Secondary problems; accuracy of living diagnosis. |
| What are some safe practices in out lab. | Wash hand: in/out, clean lab tables, Fire safety (extinguish locations/how to use them), control street clothes, chemistry spill kit, awareness of hand movement (don't touch face), separate pencils/pens for contaminated work, PPE, No food/drink, eye wash |
| What is the refractometer used for? | Specific Gravity, Total Protein (TP-total solids) in plasma. |
| What are the pros and cons of a hematology analyzer? | Pro: faster, more accurate for cell counts (vs hand evaluation. Con: No evaluation of morphology, blood parasites, platelet clumping, and abnormal morphology will cause incorrect counts, evaluation is based on size |
| What are the pros and cons of a chemistry analyzer? | Pros: fast in-house results, more accurate glucometer or azostix. Cons: Abnormal serum/plasma color will interfere with results; sample handling will affect results (tube type, time delay) |
| How does a Vet Tech prepare for a necropsy? | Get forms ready & signed by owner: patient ID, biohazard, history. PPE/Equipment: dedicated to necropsy, sample containers, culture media, shipping process. Photos of the body & procedure. Disposal of remains: cosmetic necropsy, cremation w/ return ashes. |
| What is an adequate amount of urine for urinalysis? What is ideal? | 5 mL adequate. 10 mL ideal. |
| What are the indications for a urinalysis? Name six: | Kidney function evaluation, Bladder health, hydration status, kidney health, supportive info for body health, reproductive tract health. |
| How is urine collected and indications for each method? | Free catch: easy, non-invasive. Provides a good basic urine sample (midstream). No good for culture. Cystocentesis: best for culture and non-cooperative urination. Urethral catheter: ok for culture. Easy procedure for male dog. Expression: trauma |
| Four steps in performing a urinalysis? | Gross Examination, Chemistry Analysis, Sediment Analysis, Culture |
| Steps in Performing a Urinalysis #1 Gross Examination | Color & Turbidity Smell: fruity, ammonia, alcohol |
| Steps in Performing a Urinalysis #2 Chemistry Analysis | Dip Stik (reagent strips) Can be spun. Supernate is most important (liquid portion of urine vs sediment). |
| Steps in Performing a Urinalysis #3 Sediment Analysis | Cellular, Crystals, Microorganisms >50 TNC (Too numerous to count) |
| Steps in Performing a Urinalysis #4 Culture (If Indicated) | Indicated when? Inflammatory changes found on urinalysis. |
| Hematology Collection Principles? | EDTA (lavender tube) or Fresh preferable. Sample handling: gently invert tube to mix, fast flowing vein, clean stick, no alcohol in needle, don't draw off a hematoma, 22 gauge (cats & dogs), remove needle before putting blood in tube. |
| Hematology Sample Preparation? | Blood smear: feathered edge, 2/3 - 3/4 slide coverage, stain: trichrome, DiffQuik, Romanosky stain. We read @ monolayer for differentials. |
| Artifacts & How to Avoid Them (5) | Stain artifact: clean/maintain stains wkly. Slow dry artifact: trip to dry, keep away humidity. Water artifact: no refrigeration, package after dry, keep away from sink, EDTA: evaluate sample < 3 days. Formalin artifact: cytology packaged seperate. |
| CBC (Complete Blood Count) What is it? | RBC count & Morphology, Total WBC count & Morphology, Platelet count & Morphology, Differential (individual WBC count) Absolute count. Total Protein (plasma color) PCV (HCT); hemaglobin count, RBC Indicies: MCV, MCH, MCHC. |
| Pros and Cons of Cytology (FNA) | Pros: faster, minimally invasive, inexpensive, no special equipment, rarely is sedation necessary. Cons: less accurate, (fewer cells evaluated); tissue architecture missing, sample size may miss disease area. |
| Cytology Collection Equipment & Techniques | Fine needle aspirate (FNA), Tracheal lavage, Swabs, Scrappings, Centesis, tape prep (parasites, cells), biopsy imprint. Prep: (squash: thick sample)(starfish: delicate cells)(line: low cellular concentration) Cytospin: cerebrospinal fluid, smear, imprint |
| Cytology of Inflammation | Neutrophils/Eosinophils/Basophils, causative organisms (parasite, bacteria, fungus), macrophages (chronic, or organism) |
| Tissue Types and Neoplasia Naming | Round cells: round, individual (mast cell, lymphocyte. Epithelial (oval, cluster) Carcinomas. Mesenchymal (spindle, sheets) Sarcomas. Benign: -oma |
| Cytology of Neoplasia | Identify 2 or more features (4 is ideal). #1 is N:C (high) large nucleus: small cytoplasm, mitotic figures, alien cells for the tissue sampled, pleomorphism: variable cell size/shapes. multiple nucleus: normal for muscle cell, coarse/clumped cytoplasm |
| Clinical Chemistries Indications (4) | Organ function, Homeostasis (metabolic health), Organ damage (toxin, inflammation, trauma, tumor), Monitoring (treatment working) glucose, etc. |
| Clinical Chemistries Plasma | Liquid portion of blood with clotting factors |
| Clinical Chemistries Serum | Liquid portion of blood without clotting factors (after clotting has been allowed to happen) |
| How do chemistries relate to disease? | Leaking of cell content. Presence or absence (body production), Body removal. Normal blood work does not equal normal patient. |
| Coagulation How does coagulation work? | Activation by injury to blood vessel wall (exposure of basement membrane, tissue damage (cytokines). Platelets adhere and activate coagulation cascade. |
| Coagulation Coagulation Cascade? | Intrinsic, Extrinsic, Common Pathways -> Fibrin |
| Ideal Coagulation Characteristics? | Rapid, Localized, Reversible |
| Coagulation Homeostasis: Too much anticoagulant =? Excess Coagulant =? | Hemophilia: Heparin, Antithrombin. Thrombosis: Fibrin, Thrombin. |
| What is nuclear molding? | nuclei which distort or compress adjacent nuclei indicate a cell population with uncontrolled proliferation and lack of contact inhibition. |
| What is N:C? | High nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio. Nucleus comprises more than half of the total cell size. |
| Anisokaryosis? | Variation in nuclear size between cells. 1.5 times or greater |
| Multinucleation | |
| Large or Irregularly shaped Nucleoli: | Suggests malignancy. Prominent nucleoli of variable size, shape, and number between cells. Angular nucleoli or nucleoli larger than mature erythorcytes (6-7 um) |
| Coarse/Clumped Chromatin | Nuclei with clearly visible light (euchromatin) and dark (heterochromatin) areas indicate increased cell activity. |
| Pleomorphism | variation in nuclear and cell size and shape. |
| Mitotic figures | organization and separation of nuclear chromatin |
| What units do we use for WBC count and Platelet estimate? | #/ul ul = microliter |
| The preferred specimen collection method for urine samples that require culture and sensitivity testing? | cystocentesis |
| Urine samples should be evaluated/analyzed within ____ after collection, if they are not refrigerated. | less than an hour |
| Ideal sample size for a complete urinalysis? | 10-12 mL |
| Which urine crystal is commonly associated with ethylene glycol (antifreeze) toxicity in small animals? | calcium oxalate monohydrate |
| Samples collected by ___ are NOT contaminated with cells from the distal genital tract? | cystocentesis |
| Ideally, urine sediment should be evaluated under both LPF (10x) and HPF (40x) using a minimum of ___ fields to obtain your results. | 10 fields |
| For urinary catherization, after cleaning the external genitalia with antiseptic solution, you then must ___. | rinse area with saline |
| To complete an aseptic urinary catheterization, you need what three things? | Sterile gloves, Sterile catheter, Sterile lubricant |
| What is a schistocyte? | A fragmented part of a RBC: typically irregularly shaped, jagged, and have two pointed ends: hemolytic anemia, tumors, thrombosis. Shearing of RBC due to intravascular trauma or fragility of RBCs. |
| What is an echinocyte? | Also called a burr cell. Abnormal cell membrane characterized by small evenly spaced thorny projections. Causes: prolonged storage, slow drying blood smears. |
| What is polycythemia? | Increase in the number of red blood cells in the body. Blood is thicker. Higher risk of clot formation. Blood cells will appear crowded. Possible cause: dehydration. |
| What is a neutrophil? What does it do? Describe its morphology. | Phagocytic. Cytoplasm has fine granules that stain a faint purple w/ Romanowsky stains. The cytoplasm stains with neutral dyes. 3-5 lobes. First cell to migrate to the site of infection. |
| What is a band cell? Why is it significant when seen in a patients blood sample? | Left shift. Band neutrophil. Immature neutrophils. Clinical sign of infection or sepsis. The body is pushing them out of the bone marrow prematurely. |
| What is an eosinophil? Morphology? What does it do? | Granulocyte: bilobed, granules stain red/orange. Often seen in parasitic infection. Released during infections, allergic reactions, and asthma. Inflammatory response. |
| What is a basophil? Morphology? What does it do? | Granulocyte: large deep blue staining cytoplasmic granules, bilobed nucleus. Responds to allergic reactions and asthma. Rarest of the white blood cells. |
| What is a lymphocyte? Morphology? What is a reactive lymphocyte and its significance if seen in a blood sample? | Reactive lymphocytes in sample: antigenic stimulation due to infection or vaccination. Second most common WBC. Small. Singular round nucleus. |
| What is a monocyte? Describe its morphology. What is its job? | Agranulocyte: phagocytic, macrophage. Have abundant blue cytoplasm. "Ground Glass" appearance. Extremely motile. Travels through the blood to tissues when it becomes a macrophage. Presents antigen to lymphocytes (boosting immune response.) |
| What does a monocyte do? | They surround and kill microorganisms, ingest foreign material, and remove dead cells. |
| Green Top Tube: What does it contain? Applications? | Contains: Sodium or Lithium Heparin. Applications: plasma for blood chemistry. |
| Tiger Top Tube: What does it contain? Applications? | Gel separator + clot activator. Application: serum for blood chemistry. |
| Lavender Top Tube: What does it contain? Applications? | Contains: EDTA. Applications: whole blood hematology, cytology, and plasma |
| Grey Top Tube. What does it contain? Applications? | Contains: Potassium Oxalate or Sodium Fluoride special tubes contain: Diatomaceous Earth. Applications: Glucose testing. Coagulation testing (ACT) |
| Light Blue Top Tube contain? Applications? | Contains: Sodium citrate. Application: coagulation studies (i.e. PT, PTT) |
| Red Top Tube contains? Applications? | Contains: Glass, no additive. Applications: specimen or transfer container. Contains: Plastic, silicon coated. Application: serum for blood, chemistry |
| Blood Chemistry Clear Top Tube contains? Application? | Contains: no additives. Application: transfer tube, specimen to culture. |
| Blood Chemistry BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) evaluates? | The ability of the kidneys to remove nitrogenous waste (urea). Can also indicate dehydration. |
| Creatine (CREA) evaluates? | Kidneys: specifically renal clearance. |
| Alanine transaminase (ALT) evaluates? | Primarily the liver. Liver health. "Leakage of enzymes." One of four enzymes produced in the liver. |
| (AP) or (AlkP) Alkaline Phosphatase evaluates? | Liver health. To detect cholestasis. Biliary tree function. Gall bladder inflammation. |
| Amylase and Lipase evaluate? | Pancreas function |
| Albumin (ALB) evaluates? | Leaked by the intestines and kidneys in disease. It is made in the liver. |
| Bilirubin evaluates? | Liver function. Red cell destruction. Bilirubin is a yellow compound that occurs in the normal catabolic pathway that breaks down heme in vertebrates. Bilirubin passes through the liver and is excreted in stool. |
| Calcium evaluates? | Parathyroid gland. High = cancer, Low = kidney failure |
| Name the five lymph nodes we need to know. | submandibular, prescapular, axillary, inguinal, popliteal |
| Refractometer Use Total Plasma Protein/ Total Solids (TP) is reported as: | g/dL read @ Wt. serum. p. 0-12 g/dL |
| Packed Cell Volume (PCV) is recorded as | a percentage |
| Serum that appears pink after centrifugation is described as? What causes this color change? | Hemolyzed. Hemolytic. RBC destruction. Due to rough handling of blood or IAHA - Idiopathic Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia. |
| Serum that appears milky after centrifugation is described as? What causes this change? | Lipemic. Lipids in serum. Due to post-prandial, diabetes, hypothyroidism. |
| Serum that appears yellow after centrifugation is described as? What causes this color change in serum? | Icteric: increased bilirubin in blood. Due to liver failure or hemolytic anemia. Normal in horses. |
| Emergency & Critical Care What are the "Big 4"? | BG: Blood glucose (mg/dL) BUN: Blood urea nitrogen (mg/dL) Azo (stick) PCV: % TP: g/dL |
| What three tests should be performed for a complete urinalysis? | Specific Gravity, Chemistry w/ dipstick, Sediment examination: unstained *Save urine for culture/sensitivity testing just in case urinalysis results indicate its necessity. |
| Urinalysis How do you report sediment results (cells & bacteria)? How do you report casts and crystals? | cells & bacteria: #/HPF (40x) and type/arrangement crystals & casts: #/LPF (10x) and type |
| Refractometer Use Urine Specific Gravity is read where? How is it reported? | Urine.Sp.G. 1.000 - 1.050 1.036 verbally reported as 10 36 |
| Isosthenuria occurs when | the urine specific gravity approaches that of glomerular filtrate (1.008 to 1.012) The urine has not been concentrated or diluted by the kidneys. Can indicate chronic renal failure. |
| What is the Activated Clotting Time (ACT) test? What does it specifically evaluate? | All clotting factors except VII |
| What is the Mucosal Bleeding Time test? What does it evaluate in the patient? | Platelet function. Dogs must remain quiet & in position up to 10 - 12 min. Sedation may be required for adequate restraint. Device is triggered parallel to the lip margin. Blood flowing from wounds is then gently blotted below the incisions. |
| How does a tech determine the difference between rouleaux and agglutination? | Saline test: rouleaux is RBC that appear like coins stacking. Agglutination is when the RBCs bridge & clump (like a cluster of grapes). Applying saline to the slide will break up rouleaux, but will have no affect on agglutination. |
| What is the clinical significance of agglutination? | It indicates an autoimmune response. Antibodies on the RBC surfaces cause the reaction. Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia is one condition when agglutination can be observed. |
| Pathogenesis is defined as: | The sequence of events that lead to or caused a disease. |
| If a necropsy must be delayed (1-3 days), ideally the body should be: | refrigerated |
| The necropsy procedure may expose personnel to biohazards such as: | Fungi, Bacteria, Viruses |
| In the event of a rabies suspect case, the | chilled head of the animal should be submitted to the state diagnostic lab within 24 hours of the animals death. |
| Necropsy - Sampling If a poisoning is suspected: | Kidney and liver biopsies should be both saved in formalin and frozen. |
| Necropsy In regard to sample collection for microbiology culture: | culture samples should be collected rapidly after necropsy is initiated |
| Necropsy Sample Storage In regard to tissue samples: | they are commonly preserved in 10% buffered formalin. |
| When submitting samples to a laboratory: | fill out forms completely and place in a plastic bag to protect the form from moisture. |
| List two possible purposes for the necropsy procedure: | Evaluate accuracy of diagnosis. Evaluate quality or outcomes of treatment on pathogenesis and animal systems (Did it help or harm?) *Herd health, Public Health concerns: rabies, mad cow. |
| List three pieces of PPE that should be utilitized during a necropsy. | Rubber boots (large animal necropsy), Mask/Face Shield/Eye Protection and apron or surgical gown. Gloves (latex/nitrile) or specially woven gloves that protect the tech's fingers from cuts. |
| List procedures for an effective/accurate necropsy procedure: | A timely start to the procedure. Get permission from the owner. Verify patient info (signalment, name, microchip). Review patient history before starting. Proper packaging and shipping (plus documentation) for specimens. Disposal preferences for remains. |
| A leukocyte that primarily fights parasites and mediates allergic reactions is: | eosinophil |
| The percentage of whole blood that is composed of erythrocytes is measured by: | PCV (HCT) |
| The ideal location for identifying cells for a white cell differential is the: | monolayer |
| A complete blood count (CBC) includes: | Total red cell count, Mean Corpuscular Concentration (MCHC), Total White Cell Count w/ differential. |
| An automated cell analyzer: | Differentiates cell by size. |
| What are the morphology features of lymphocytes? | About 9 um (micrometers), dark blue/purple round nucleus, small amount of light blue cytoplasm. |
| What do monocytes do? | They present antigen to lymphocytes and leave the bloodstream to enter tissue. When they do so, they increase in size and become macrophages. They phagocytize invaders and debris. They are slow to respond, but attack in force. |
| There are four recommendations for appropriate technique to collect a sample for a CBC (name two): | Refrigerate, if not evaluating within 1 hr. WBC break down quickly. Never shake (hemolysis). Must collect blood in a tube w/ anticoagulant (EDTA preferred). Label: date, time, pt name, clinic ID#, owners name. Gently invert tube 5-10x, don't freeze |
| The preferred anticoagulant for hematology (purple top tube) contains: | EDTA |
| An elevated total (WBC) white blood cell count is caused by: | Infection, Drug reaction, Inflammation |
| A urine sample is best analyzed ___ to minimize artifact changes. | Immediately. < 30 minutes after it is collected from the patient. |
| Chemical reagent strips (Dipstick) analysis of urine: individual tests..... | must be evaluated at specific times after urine is applied. |
| A cat's urine specific gravity (SG) is 1.005, this is considered: | dilute |
| Regarding casts and crystals in urine sediment, they must be: | classified according to type and number and recorded. |
| The ideal minimum amount of urine to be evaluated for a complete urinalysis is: | 10 mL |
| When evaluating urine sediment under a microscope: | Crystals and casts are identified and counted using the 10x (LPF) objective and recorded. |
| The ingestion of certain drugs may alter the color of the patient's urine. | True |
| A cystocentesis performed correctly is safe and provides a urine sample that can be cultured accurately. | True |
| The specific gravity (SG or sp.gr) of distilled water is: | 1.000 |
| True or False: If a cat patient is 7% dehydrated and the urine specific gravity is 1.012, the kidneys are concentrating appropriately. | False. SG would be much higher. Normal feline urine is much higher than that normally and dehydration would concentrate the urine further. |
| True or False: No useful information can be obtained from urine collected off of a clean cage floor. | False. |
| True or False: When collecting a voided urine sample, the initial part of the urine stream will provide the most accurate information. | False (midstream) |
| True or False: because it takes the kidneys days to respond to injury or illness, there is no reason to evaluate urine samples more often than once a week. | False |
| True or False: when placing a urinary catheter in a male or female animal, generous amounts of water-soluble lubricant should be used. | True |
| A RBC fragment caused by mechanical injury to the cell (such as traveling through a liver tumor) is called a: | schistocyte |
| A special stain used to identify reticulocytes is: | New Methylene Blue |
| The "dots" inside of a stained reticulocyte are: | RNA (Ribonucleic Acid)Messenger carrying instructions from DNA for controlling the synthesis of proteins. |
| Toxic neutrophils are caused by: | Microenvironment that causes shortened maturation in bone marrow. |
| The first step in performing a platelet estimate is to: | Scan the slide for clumps. |
| A lymphoblast is a: | immature lymphocyte |
| What is a reticulocyte? | A RBC newly released from the bone marrow. |
| Rouleaux is differentiated from auto-agglutination of red blood cells by: | A saline test |
| Name two features of a regenerative anemia and explain why the veterinary team wants to know if anemia is regenerative or non-regenerative. | Regenerative anemai is defined by the presence of reticulocytes (polychromasia due to bluer young RBC) and nucleated RBC in an anemic patient. It shows that the patient's bone marrow is attempting to correct the anemia. Non-regenerative anemia is a BAD |
| True or False: Chemistry analysis can only be performed on blood serum (not urine or other body fluids). | False |
| A decrease in blood pH is termed: | acidosis |
| True or False: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) will rise in dehydrated patients or in the event of decreased kidney function. | True |
| Urine specific gravity evaluates the function of which organ? | kidney |
| Light blue capped collection tube (sodium citrate) is used for which purpose? | coagulation times (PT & PTT) |
| A low albumin may signal? | Poor liver function. It is synthesized in the liver. |
| True or False: It is not possible to determine the oxygen content of arterial blood in a chemistry analyzer. | False |
| Elevated amylase may signal inflammation of the: | pancreas |
| True or false: Hemolysis in the serum/plasma sample may cause incorrect results to be reported by the chemistry analyzer? | True |
| An elevated Alkaline Phosphatase (AlkP)(AP) may occur with liver disease or: | Certain medications |
| (TLI) Trypsin-like immunoreactivity is utilized to evaluate: | exocrine pancreas (digestive enzymes) |
| Name two general reasons why the veterinary team evaluates blood and urine: | Example: Diagnose cause of health problem. Evaluate the effectiveness of treatment. Progression of disease. |
| A cat patient is 10% dehydrated and its urine specific gravity is 1.010. What is your interpretation of this finding? | The kidneys are not concentrating the urine. Dehydration should result in an elevated specific gravity. Typical SG of urine in cats is fairly concentrated (1.030 or higher) The urine is Isosthenuric as well 1.008-1.012. |
| List three cytology features of an inflammatory process: | Eosinophils or Neutrophils present. Organisms (parasites, bacteria, fungus). Macrophages in view. |
| List three features of malignant neoplasia: | N:C High nucleus to cytoplasm ratio. Variations in shape and size of cell nucleus. Chromatin density variations. Light clearly visible or not. |
| Name one cytology prepartation technique (not used in hematology) and describe the situation it would be used. | Starfish prep: usually used w/samples that are more delicate. Needle is used to drag material in multiple directions in an attempt to isolate cells. |
| Name one advantage of cytology (compared to histology). Name one disadvantage of cytology (" ") | Cytology sample can be collected and evaluated fairly quickly and inexpensively. Histology is more accurate. |
| List two important points when preparing cytology samples for shipment to a laboratory. | All slides sent should be labelled and put in a slide holder. Forms should be filled out completely. (patient/client info., patient signalment, test to be performed, patient hx, and medications/treatments administered to patient recently. |
| A coagulation test that used a tube containing diatomaceous earth and a heat block (or armpit) is the: | ACT - Activated Clotting Time test |
| A coagulation test that evaluates the extrinsic pathway is: | PT test (Prothrombin) |
| the d-dimer and fibrin degradation product (FDP) tests can be used to evaluate? | Fibrinolysis |
| PIVKA is an acronym for: | Proteins Induced by Vitamin K absence (which converts coagulation factors so they are usable) |
| Agents in blood collection tubes, such as EDTA or Citrate, prevent clotting by binding with: | calcium |
| List three possible causes of coagulopathies: | Rodenticides, Snake Bite, Congenital issues (Hemophilia) |
| What are the three necessary properties for coagulation to be appropriate for effective and safe homeostasis? | It must be: rapid, localized, reversible |
| There are three major body systems involved in coagulation. They are: | Vessel wall/Endothelium & Basement membrane, platelets, coagulation factors. |
| What are the three pathways in the Coagulation Cascade? | Extrinsic Pathway, Intrinsic Pathway, Common Pathway |
| True or False: Creatinine is a very sensitive test for kidney function and will rise when 25% of nephrons have been injured. | False. Not an accurate indicator of kidney function because 75% of kidney tissue must be non-functional before blood creatinine levels will rise. |
| The body needs a minimum number of platelets to protect against inappropriate bleeding. What is that number range? | >50,000 platelets/ul |
| Tissue specimens should be < ___ thick for correct fixing. Ample formalin should be used. At what ratio? | 1 cm, 1:10 (or 10x volume of tissue) |
| Fibrinolysis What is it for? | It is a process that prevents blood clots from growing and becoming problematic. *It produces D-dimers and FDPs (Fibrin Degradation Products) |
| Fibrinolysis How is it evaluated? | Tests: D-Dimer: detects the breakdown products generated by the actions of plasmin. FDP: degeneration products generated by the action of Thrombin. |
| Coagulation How is the entire coagulation cascade (Extrinsic, Intrinsic, and Common pathways)? | ACT test: Activated Clotting Time test. Special gray top tube containing diatomaceous earth. Warming block or armpit/hand is also used. |
| Coagulation How is the extrinsic pathway evaluated? | PT test (Prothrombin test) Light blue test tube with Sodium Citrate. *And common pathway |
| Coagulation How is the intrinsic pathway evaluated? | PTT test (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time test). Light blue top tube: contains Sodium Citrate. *Common Pathway also evaluated. |
| What does PIVKA stand for? | Proteins Induced by Vitamin K Absence. |
| Clinical Chemistries EDTA (Lavender Top Tube): | Best Preservation, Uses: Hematology. Disadvantage: Irreversible, Shrinks cells. Chelates Calcium. |
| Pros and Cons: Histology (biopsy): | Cytology costs less, no special equipment, fast. Histology is more accurate. |
| Complete Blood Count (CBC) What is MCHC? Especially important in veterinary medicine. | Unit: g/dL It is the concentration of hemoglobin in the average erythrocyte. hemoglobin concentration (g/dL)/ PCV% and multiplied by 100. |
| Complete Blood Count (CBC) What is MCH? | Mean weight of hemoglobin (Hb) contained in the average RBC. Hemoglobin concentration/RBC concentration multiplied by 10. |
| Complete Blood Count (CBC) What is MCV? | The measure of the average size of the erythrocyte. PCV/RBC concentration multiplied by 10. PVC%/RBC count/mL. |
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