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Vet. A&P II - Large
Final Exam Review - From Preprinted Notes (Pregnancy & Parturition)
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Name four characteristics of large animal anatomy: | They are herbivores, prey animals, and have large heavy bone structure and hooves. |
| Poll | Part of an animal's head. Alternatively, a referencing point immediately behind or right between the ears. Specifically refers to the occipital protrusion at the back of the skull. |
| Throatlatch | Either the part of a horse where the head and windpipe meet at the base of the jaw or a piece of a bridle that attaches at that point of the animal. It's a strap that helps keep the bridle in place. |
| Crest | The top line of the neck. Ideally, it should be a gentle convex curve from the poll to the withers. On a very fat horse it can be very thick and almost seem to flop over. On a very thin horse, it will be straight and thin. |
| Jugular groove | Runs the length of the ventral side of the neck between the M. brachiocephalicus and the M. sternocephalicus. The jugular vein is located within this area. Preferred site of intravenous injection in the horse. |
| Withers | The withers is the ridge between the shoulder blades of an animal, typically a quadruped. In many species, it is the tallest point of the body. In horses and dogs, it is the standard place to measure the animal's height. |
| Carpus | Is composed of three joints: the antebrachiocarpal (radiocarpal) joint, the middle carpal (intercarpal) joint, and the carpometacarpal joint. The horses "knee." Equivalent to the human wrist. |
| Girth | The area just behind the elbow, where the saddle girth sits. Should be the largest diameter of the horses barrel. |
| Flank | Side of the trunk of a horse |
| Croup | The topline of the horse's hindquarters and surrounding musculature, beginning at the hip, extending proximate to the sacral vertebrae and stopping at the dock of the tail (where the coccygeal vertebrae begin). |
| Tailhead | Also called a dock. It is the beginning of the tail, where the tail joins the rump. |
| Stifle | The area where the tibia, the bone that forms the gaskin, meets the femur, the bone that extends upward to the hip. It is analogous to the human knee. |
| Pastern | A part of the leg of a horse between the fetlock and the top of the hoof |
| Fetlock | Joint between the cannon and the pastern |
| Hock | Also called a gambrel. It is the joint between the tarsal bones and tibia of a digitigrade or unguligrade quadrupedal mammal, such as a horse, cat, or dog. |
| Horse Coat Color Bay | Tan to red-brown body with black points (mane, tail, lower limbs). |
| Horse Coat Color Roan | Even mixture of dark hair and white over most of body Blue roan, red roan, strawberry roan. |
| Horse Coat Color Chestnut/Sorrel | Brown (red) |
| Horse Coat Color Buckskin | Yellow body with black points. |
| Horse Coat Color Dun | Yellow/brown/red body with a dorsal stripe and horizontal stripes on legs. |
| Horse Coat Color Palomino | Yellow body with cream mane and tail. |
| Horse Coat Color Pinto or Paint | Irregular patches of white against solid color. |
| Horse Coat Color Appaloosa | Spotted hair coat (body or rump). |
| Horse Coat Color Grey | Progressive silvering of the coat hairs. Often born black or bay and have underlying black skin. Also note the dapples on the skin. Can also be “flea bitten.” |
| Cow Coat Color Brindle | Brown mixed with black, red or yellow. |
| Cow Coat Color Bald Face/White face | Partial white on face. |
| Cow Coat Color Albino | White with pink eyes. |
| Cow Coat Color Belted | White band around center. |
| Cow Coat Color Spotted | White spots against a colored body are of different sizes, shapes, and placement, seemingly at random. |
| Cow Coat Color Hereford | Solid color on body and white on face, underbelly and partly on legs. |
| Horse Coat Markings - Face Blaze | White stripe down face. |
| Horse Coat Markings - Face Snip | White patch between nostrils. |
| Horse Coat Markings - Face Star | White mark on forehead. |
| Horse Coat Markings - Leg Coronet | White mark around coronary band. |
| Horse Coat Markings - Leg Sock | White mark that reaches higher than fetlock, but not as high as knee. |
| Horse Coat Markings - Leg Stocking | White mark that reaches knee. |
| Name four forms of identification, other than coat color and pattern in horses. | Microchips, Freeze brands (BLM freeze brands), Hot brands, Lip tattoo (fade with age) |
| What are BLM Freeze brand typically used for and by who? | Bureau of Land Management for wild mustangs |
| Medical Forms Why are they necessary? Name three types. | Certain medical forms require very careful I.D. for legal purposes. Very important to get the markings correct. Error could lead to serious legal issues. Types: Coggins (EIA forms), Health inspection forms, Canadian health certificates. |
| How do you appropriately fill out a Coggins Form? | Fill out the base body color on the paperwork, and then draw in any white markings or any other distinctive color patterns. |
| Bones Classified Sesamoid Bones | “Sesame seed” shape. Embedded in tendons. Function: Reduce friction on tendons. Example: Patella |
| Bones Classified Long bones | Greater in one dimension than any other. Function: levers for locomotion and support. Site of hematopoesis (make red and white blood cells.) Examples: femur, humerus, phalanges |
| Bones Classified Short bones | Cube shaped. Function: absorb concussion Examples: tarsal or carpal bones. |
| Bones Classified Flat bones | Thin plates. Function: Protect vital organs. Examples: Skull, scapula, pelvis. |
| Bones Classified Pneumatic Bones | Contain air spaces or sinuses. Function: Reduce weight, hold air-filled structures. Example: Frontal bone, (humerus in birds). |
| Bones Classified Irregular Bones | Irregular shape, unpaired. Example: Vertebrae, hyoid bones. |
| Function of Bones Name three: | Protection of structures (example: ribs protecting thoracic viscera.) Locomotion (examples: carry weight, attach muscles.) Contain bone marrow (makes red blood cells-only certain bones, not all). |
| Bone Structure Epiphysis | The ends of the bone. |
| Bone Structure Diaphysis | The cylindrical shaft of the bone. |
| Bone Structure Cartilage | Thin layer tissue that provides cushion and a smooth surface for sliding. |
| Bone Structure Periosteum | Fibrous tissue around the outside of the bone. Has cells to make bones WIDER and help fracture repair. |
| Bone Structure Growth plate | Also called the Epiphyseal line. Layer of cartilage through the bone that allows for bone LENGTH (in immature animals). |
| Bone Structure Bone Marrow | Tissue that produces red and white blood cells. |
| Bone Structure Nutrient foramen | Tunnel through bone that allows a blood vessel to penetrate into the bone. |
| Bone Structure Cortex | The hard outer portion of the bone. |
| Physiology of Bone: Bone is Dynamic Tissue! Remodeling | Constantly formed/resorbed. Atrophy of bone: when little weight is applied (problematic in casts and plates). Excess stress can cause growing bones to stop growing. Excess stress in mature bone causes hypertrophy. “Bowing” |
| Physiology of Bone: Bone is Dynamic Tissue! Fracture Repair | Normal repair requires bone ends to touch (apposition) and no movement to occur between bone ends (immobilization) until healing is complete. Fracture repair (with immobilization) takes 4-6 weeks in healthy mammals. |
| Name the five steps in bone repair in order. | Blood Clot forms between break. Granulation tissue: (Fibroblasts & Capillaries) enter blood clot. Osteoblasts rapidly divide and form callus. Callus bridges fracture and mineralizes. Remodeling returns bone to normal architecture with use. |
| True or False: Bone is the only substance in the body that heals stronger than before it was damaged? | True |
| Important- Bone Repair Essentials Immobilization | Movement between bone fragments prevents callus bridge. (non-union) |
| Important- Bone Repair Essentials Blood Supply | If bone fragment has no blood supply healing can not occur. (Sequestrum) |
| Important- Bone Repair Essentials Sterile Environment | Infection at fracture can prevent healing. (non-union) |
| Types of Fractures - Simple Simple or Closed Fracture | Skin unbroken |
| Types of Fractures -Simple Open or Compound Fracture | Skin broken (high risk for infection) |
| Common Types of Fractures Comminuted Fracture | Splintered or crushed bone |
| Common Types of Fractures Greenstick Fracture | Occurs in young, only one side of bone is broken |
| Common Types of Fractures Physeal (Salter) Fracture | Occurs in young, fracture at growth plate |
| Common Types of Fractures Transverse | Horizontal fracture |
| Common Types of Fractures Oblique | Diagonal fracture |
| Common Types of Fractures Spiral | Spiral fracture |
| Common Types of Fractures Avulsed | Section of bone that has a tendon or ligament attachment is pulled away |
| Fracture Immobilization Name three forms: | Splints, Casts, Plates & Pins |
| Fracture Immobilization Splints | Temporary immobilization for comfort. Very limited use for fracture repair. |
| Fracture Immobilization Casts | Good for greenstick and non-displaced stable fractures of certain bones in light weight animals. |
| Fracture Immobilization Plates & Pins | Excellent stabilization. Requires surgical placement. |
| Equine Fracture Repair | If the horse is deemed valuable enough, it can be fixed. It’s complicated, expensive, and successful healing is challenging. |
| Skeletal Structure trivia | Large heads with room for grinding teeth with small brain capacity (relatively). Eyes set on either side of head (binocular vision). Long necks to reach the ground to graze with elastic tissue to help hold the heavy head. |
| Skeletal Structure trivia | Hooves with thick, strong keratin to walk on rough surfaces. Big abdomens to hold fiber rich intestinal tracts. Strong sturdy legs to help stand for hours grazing. Big muscles to kick predators. Some speed to run if needed for short periods of time. |
| How does the body maintain blood pH? | Bicarbonate ion (HCO3^1-) circulates in the blood stream in equilibrium with Hydrogen (H+) and Hydroxide (OH-). In the lungs, bicarbonate ions combine with a hydrogen ion and lose a water molecule to form carbon dioxide (CO2), which is exhaled. |
| Respiratory system works in combination with ______ and ______ systems to provide necessary gas exchange for the body. Name three things this gas exchange system accomplishes. | cardiovascular, hematopoietic By delivering oxygen to tissues, removing carbon dioxide from tissues, and regulating the blood pH. |
| What does hematopoietic mean? | Of, relating to, or involved in the formation of blood cells . |
| Describe what exactly is happening during inspiration: | The pleural cavity creates negative pressure in the chest when diaphragm expands. Air rushes into lungs. |
| Define pleural cavity. | The space that lies between the pleura, the two thin membranes that line and surround the lungs. It cavity contains a small amount of liquid (pleural fluid), which provides lubrication as the lungs expand and contract during respiration. |
| What does pleura mean? | Each of a pair of serous membranes lining the thorax and enveloping the lungs in mammals. |
| What occurs during respiratory expiration? | Relaxation of diaphragm. Elastic recoil of lung. Air pressure differential. Air rushes out of lungs. |
| Name four parts of the upper airway: | Nose, Larynx, Sinuses, Trachea |
| What are four functions of the upper airway? | Warm and humidify air. Cool body through panting. Protect lower airway from debris (Sneeze, Cough, Gag). Vocalizaton. |
| Dysfunction of the upper airway will result in _____ and _____ during INHALATION. | Stertor and stridor (difficulty breathing and noisy breathing) |
| Define: stertor. | A respiratory sound characterized by heavy snoring or gasping. |
| What is stridor? | A high-pitched, wheezing sound caused by disrupted airflow. |
| Upper Respiratory Tract Describe the air flow of the upper respiratory tract. | Air flows through the nostrils into the turbinates, down the pharynx, through the larynx, and into the trachea. |
| Upper Respiratory Tract Air is ______ and the brain is _____ by air flowing through the upper respiratory tract | warmed, cooled |
| Upper Respiratory Tract True or False: Most large animals are nearly exclusively nasal breathers meaning that breathing through their mouth or panting is very unusual and a sign of disease? | True |
| What are turbinates (conchae)? Describe their function. | Scroll-like bones inside the nose, covered with mucous membranes. Function: to increase surface area inside the nose, warm & humidify air, plus remove particle debris. |
| What is the Nasal Planum? | "External nose" It is the pigmented, devoid of hair, flattened front portion of the nose composed of modified skin that harbours the nares. Moist due to many sweat glands. |
| What do you call the flat bone in the tip of the nose (for rooting?) unique to pigs? | Rostral Bone |
| What is the nasal septum? | Cartilage inside the nasal chamber which divides the nose into right and left halves. |
| What are paranasal sinuses? | Air-filled cavities in the skull that connect to the nose. |
| What is the function of the paranasal sinuses? Name two medically significant functions of paranasal sinuses in the horse. Cattle? | To make head lighter in weight and protect structures within head. Connection of the cheek teeth into the maxillary sinus (horses). Connection of developed horns to frontal sinus (cattle). |
| True or False: Dental disease can lead to severe sinus infections. | True |
| When is the best time to remove horns? | Removing horns before they communicate with the frontal sinus is preferred to avoid complications. (Young animals - 0-3 months) |
| Guttural Pouches What are they? | Unique structure of the horse (super weird!). Large, air-filled pouches that open into nasopharynx. It is an expansion of the eustachian tube of the middle ear. |
| Guttural Pouches Function? | Cool blood flow to the brain during exercise by absorbing heat from carotid arteries. |
| Guttural Pouches Medical Importance? | Disease of the guttural pouch can effect cranial nerves VII, IX-XII. This can cause significant neurological symptoms. A diseased guttural pouch can also lead to erosion of the carotid artery causing spectacular and sometimes deadly hemorrhage. |
| What is the larynx? | The region in back of throat. Composed of a set of cartilage in shape of rigid box (voice box) connected to bones of hyoid apparatus (pharynx). |
| What are three function of the larynx? | “Gatekeeper” to trachea. Closes to protect trachea from food & water entering during swallow. Phonation. Will dilate for increased air movement during heavy exercise or excitement. |
| Name the five cartilages that compose the larynx: | Epiglottis, Arytenoids (2), Thyroid cartilage, Cricoid cartilage |
| What is an epiglottis? | Triangular shaped cartilage at base of tongue. Covers larynx during swallowing. Often pushed downward during intubation. “Glottis” means vocal unit. Vocal cords and the space between them. |
| Arytenoids What are they? | Vocal Cords attach to them. |
| Arytenoids What is their function? | Protect trachea from foreign material. Movements of these structures change pitch of voice. |
| Arytenoids Failure to move normally results in? | Airway obstruction. Important diseases in horses (roaring) and dogs (laryngeal paralysis). |
| What is the trachea? | Large airway that connects larynx to bronchi of lungs. Composed of “C” shaped cartilage connected dorsally by annular ligaments and muscle. |
| The Lower Airway is made up of what? | Lungs: Gas exchange. Bronchi -> Bronchioles -> Alveolar ducts -> Alveoli |
| Disease of the lower airway will result in more respiratory noise (wheezes, crackles) during ______? | Exhalation |
| Alveoli is the site of: | gas exchange with blood in capillaries. |
| What is the name of the phospholipid substance that decreases surface tension of fluids in alveoli allowing them to remain open with exhale. | Surfactant |
| Lung Lobes What is the accessory lung lobe? What species have them? | Ruminants and pigs. A cranial lobe of the lung that branches off the trachea cranial to the bifurcation. |
| Compared to other species pigs and ruminants may be at increased risk of what disease due to the presence of their cranial lung lobe? | Pneumonia |
| True or false: Open mouth breathing is very unusual in large animals. | True |
| 1.) Normal lung tissue should be what color? 2.) Abnormal lung tissue is what color? | 1.) Pale pink 2.) Dark pink (looks similar to liver tissue) |
| During necropsy, lung tissue should ____ in water, if it _____, it is diseased. | float, sinks |
| Pleura What is it? | The lining tissue of the thorax that contains the lungs in two separate sacs. |
| Pleura What is it's function? | Produces a small amount of fluid that lubricates tissues, thus decreasing friction caused by breathing. |
| Pleura Medical Importance: | May collect excess fluid, free air or infection in certain diseases. Such abnormalities greatly inhibit the lungs ability to expand and ventilate. |
| What is the Mediastinum? | The space between pleural sacs which contains heart, esophagus, and giant vessels (aorta, vena cava, etc.) |
| A lung has collapsed due to air in the pleural space. The lung should always contact the liver and the ventral portion of the spine. What is this condition called? | Pneumothorax |
| A large amount of fluid, in the pleural cavity, has obscured the heart and large vessels from view and is preventing the lungs from inflating fully. What is this condition called? | Pleural effusion |
| What is generally the most common equine disease? | musculoskeletal |
| After musculoskeletal disease, what four disease processes are commonly seen in equine species? | alimentary (gastrointestinal), urogenital, respiratory, and skin |
| What sight is most commonly used for equine IM injections: forelimbs. Why? | Lateral cervical muscles. They are easy to reach and they tend to move them less during injections. Also, if any abscess forms it drains easily. |
| What sight is most commonly used for equine IM injections: Hindquarters. Why? | Semitendinosus or Semimembranosus. Good spot. Particularly, the ventral aspect of these muscles. |
| What is the nuchal ligament? | A very thick, strong fibrous tissue. It's elasticity makes it easier to lift their heads (horses) when grazing. Do not inject into this area. (except microchips) |
| What are splint bones in horses? | 2nd and 4th metacarpal/metarsal bones. Non-weight bearing. |
| Extensor tendons | Extend the limb |
| Flexor tendons | Flex the limb |
| Suspensory ligament | Suspend the lower limb |
| The ridge on the end of the _____ is there to "lock" the patella in place when resting. | femur |
| What is the purpose of the Stay Apparatus? | Stabilization of joints of limbs by ligaments and tendons while exerting a minimum of muscular activity. Allows horse to stand while sleeping without the limbs collapsing. Present in fore & hind limbs. Controlled by different structures. |
| True or False: Horses sleep better when in groups because some animals will sleep while others stand guard to watch for predators. | True |
| Only have REM sleep when _____ ____, but luckily need less than ___ ____ per day. | lying down, 1 hour |
| How does the stay apparatus work for the front limbs in equine species? | The joints stack and the tendons keep the leg stable. |
| The _____ and the ____ have to move in the same manner- both flex, both extend. | stifle, hock Flexed hock and flexed stifle, extended hock, extended stifle. |
| Hoof wall grows daily, trimming is required every 6 - 12 _____. | weeks |
| True or false: The reciprocal apparatus is NOT the same as the stay apparatus. | |
| Name the three different parts of the hoof wall. | Toe, Quarter, Heel |
| List six anatomical structures of the hoof. | Coronet/Coronary Band, Sole, Frog, Bar, White line, Heel bulb |
| Inside the Hoof. Name five structures within. | Flexor tendons, Navicular bone, Navicular bursa, Digital cushion, P3 (Coffin bone) |
| True or False: The dermal laminae interdigitate with the epidermal laminae of the interior hoof wall. This extensive interlocking essentially suspends the _____ _____ of the horse on the hoof walls. | entire weight |
| Which lamina is sensitive: Dermal or Epidermal? | Dermal |
| What is Laminitis? | Inflammation of the connection between the sensitive and insensitive laminae. |
| Causes of Laminitis? | Anything that causes blood vessel inflammation (vasculitis), Grain overload, Obesity, Severe diarrhea, Infections elsewhere in the body, weight overload. |
| Treatment for Laminitis? | Rest, NSAIDs, Pad feet, corrective shoeing, diet change |
| Clinical signs of Laminitis? | Significant lameness, Characteristic Stance, Increased digital pulses |
| In a normal hoof, the hoof wall and the dorsal surface of the coffin bone should be _______? | parallel |
| Things to remember when radiographing an equine hoof. | Foot radiographs can be done shoes on/off. Metal marker is placed on dorsal hoof wall to highlight it on radiograph. Allows rotation of coffin bone to be measured. |
| The navicular bursa is a _____ ___ that protects the DDF and navicular bone from abrasion as the tendon slides over the area, it lies between the navicular bone and the DDF tendon. | small sac |
| Navicular Syndrome: clinical signs | 1/3 of all forelimb lameness (so common disease). Chronic pain around the navicular bone. Progressive. |
| What are three possible causes of navicular syndrome? | Inflammation of the navicular bursa, degeneration of the cartilage, or associated tendonitis of the DDF in the navicular area |
| What horses do we usually see with navicular disease? | Young (6-8) athletic horses-QH/Tbs/Warmbloods (rarely Arabs, Standardbreds |
| Navicular Disease: Diagnosis? | Radiographs, nerve blocks, hoof testers |
| Navicular Disease: Treatment? | Exercise plan, Special shoes, NSAIDS, Neuroectomies |
| What are hoof testers? | Big metal "pinchers" used to localize pain around the hoof |
| Puncture Wounds - Hoof Prognosis & Treatment: Outside Frog/Inside Frog | Excellent-drainage, bandage, NSAIDS, ABXs/Poor-may require surgical drainage |
| Puncture Wounds - Hoof Possible complications: Name three. | Subsolar abscess, Severe lameness, Drainage preferably through sole |
| What vaccine is important to administer, if the hoof is punctured? | Tetanus |
| What is "White Line" disease? | Infection trapped in the “white line”-laminae. Can be from puncture wounds, poor conditions, debris in foot Anaerobic conditions that bacteria enjoy and causes destruction of hoof tissue. May require hoof wall resection to get at tissue and treat. |
| What is Thrush? | Infection of tissue of sole. Starts in the grooves of frog. May invade deeper sensitive tissue. Management problem. Black, malodorous exudate in grooves. Clean and trim tissue, treat with copper sulfate. |
| Words to Know Cattle (Bovine): A mature male is called a...... | Bull |
| Words to Know Cattle (Bovine): A castrated male is called a...... | Steer |
| Words to Know Cattle (Bovine): An immature female is called a..... | Heifer |
| Words to Know Cattle (Bovine): A mature female is called a.... | Cow |
| Words to Know Horses (Equine): What is a mature male? | Stallion |
| Words to Know Horses (Equine): What is a mature female? | Mare |
| Words to Know Horses (Equine): What is a castrated male? | Gelding |
| Words to Know Horses (Equine): What is an immature female? | Filly |
| Words to Know Horses (Equine): What is an immature male? | Colt |
| Words to Know Horses (Equine): What is an immature horse called? | Foal |
| Words to Know Sheep (Ovine): A mature male? | Ram |
| Words to Know Sheep (Ovine): A sheep less than 1 year old? | Lamb |
| Words to Know Sheep (Ovine): A mature female? | Ewe |
| Words to Know Sheep (Ovine): A group of sheep? | Flock |
| Words to Know Sheep (Ovine): A castrated sheep? | Wether |
| Words to Know Pig (Swine): A mature male? | Boar |
| Words to Know Pig (Swine): A castrated male? | Barrow |
| Words to Know Pig (Swine): A mature female? | Sow |
| Words to Know Pig (Swine): An immature female? | Gilt |
| Words to Know Pig (Swine): Neonate pigs? | Piglets |
| Words to Know Pig (Swine): Group of neonates? | Pog! |
| Words to Know Llamas and other camelids: A mature male? | Stud |
| Words to Know Llamas and other camelids: A castrated male? | Gelding |
| Words to Know Llamas and other camelids: A mature female? | Female |
| Words to Know Llamas and other camelids: Immature animals? | Cria |
| Words to Know… Goats (Caprine): A mature male? | Buck |
| Words to Know… Goats (Caprine): A goat less than 1 year old? | Kid |
| Words to Know… Goats (Caprine): A mature female: | Doe |
| Words to Know… Goats (Caprine): A mature castrated male? | Wether |
| Female Reproductive System Name eight parts. | Ligaments, Ovaries, Oviducts, Uterus, Cervix, Vagina, Vulva, Brain |
| Ovarian Cycle Uniparous species | One mature ovum produced per cycle (usually). Horse, cow, and human |
| Ovarian Cycle Multiparous species | Multiple ova produced per cycle. Cat, dog, and sow. |
| The Ovary at Work | The ovarian cycle works under management of a flood of different hormones designed to perfectly time the maturation of the follicle then ovulation. Medications can be used to mimic or block some of these hormones to manipulate the ovarian cycle. |
| Ovarian Cycle Development of ovum, ovulation, formation of corpus luteum, and degeneration of unripened follicles and corpus luteum are influenced by: | Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing hormone (LH) from the brain. |
| Ovarian Cycle Primordial (primary) follicle: | Immature oocyte (egg) surrounded by a single layer of follicular cells. |
| Ovarian Cycle Follicular activation: | Follicle growth is triggered: follicular cells thicken and multiply into multiple layers: granulosa cells (helper cells). Follicle grows rapidly as granulosa cells multiply. |
| Ovarian Cycle Granulosa cells produce increasing amounts of _____ as follicle becomes larger. | Estrogens |
| Ovarian Cycle Fluid-filled spaces form between granulosa cells. Spaces gradually merge into one large fluid-filled space called the: | Antrum |
| Ovarian Cycle Mature follicle - production of _____ peaks (the increase in _____ causes estrus). Oocyte on top of granulosa cell mound (cumulus oophorus) surrounded by thin layer of granulosa cells (corona radiata). | Estrogens, estrogen |
| Ovulation Rupture of mature follicle and release of reproductive cell into oviduct. | Fluid released from antrum along with ovum (still surrounded by corona radiata). Empty follicle fills with blood (corpus hemorrhagicum). |
| Corpus Luteum Formed by divisions of granulosa cells that line the blood-filled follicle. This is influences by continued stimulation of _____. | LH - Lutienizing Hormone |
| Corpus Luteum Produces _____ (primarily _____) which is necessary for maintenance of pregnancy. | Progestins, Progesterone |
| Endocrine signal to ovary causes corpus luteum to be maintained if ovum _____ in uterus (if not, it regresses). | Implants |
| Oviducts | Also known as fallopian tubes and uterine tubes. Muscle contractions and cilia movements guide ovum toward the uterus. Usual site of fertilization. |
| Uterus | Hollow muscular organ. Usually Y shaped. Uterine body forms the base of the Y. Uterine horns form the arms. Endometrium: lining epithelium and simple tubular glands. Secrete mucus and other substances. |
| Cervix | Smooth muscle sphincter between the body of the uterus and the vagina. Normally tightly closed, except during estrus and parturition. |
| Porcine Cervix | Spiral cervix locks with boar penis for extended copulation period. The artificial insemination pipette for pigs is also spiral shaped to allow access through the cervix. |
| Vagina | Muscular tube extends caudally from the cervix and connects it with the vulva. |
| Vulva | Composed of the vestibule, clitoris, and labia. Urethra opens on the floor of the vestibule. |
| Mare Anatomy Name six anatomical structures: | Vulva, Vagina, Cervix, Uterus, Oviducts, Ovaries |
| Hypothalamus | Part of diencephalon section of the brain. Controls activities of the pituitary gland. “CEO” of the brain. The portal system of blood vessels links the hypothalamus with anterior portion of pituitary gland. |
| Brain (Hypothalamus & Pituitary) Hypothalamus releases: | GnRH (Gonadotropin-releasing hormone) which triggers pituitary gland. |
| Brain (Hypothalamus & Pituitary) Pituitary releases: | FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone), LH (Lutenizing Hormone), Oxytocin |
| Simple Cycle of Hypothalamus & Pituitary and Ovarian Cycle | Hypothalamus -> GNRH -> Pituitary Gland -> FSH/LH -> Ovaries ->Egg |
| Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH) In Females: | Stimulates growth and development of ovarian follicles - oogenesis. Also stimulates cells lining the follicles to produce and secrete estrogens (female sex hormones-breeding and pregnancy). |
| Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH) In Males: | Stimulates spermatogenesis (development of male reproductive cells). |
| Luteinizing Hormone (LH) Completes process of _____ _____ in the ovary. | follicle development |
| Luteinizing Hormone (LH) Increasing amounts of estrogens feedback to the anterior pituitary and cause reduced production of ___ and increased production of ___. | FSH, LH |
| Luteinizing Hormone (LH) levels reach a peak when _____ is fully mature. This usually causes _____. | follicle, ovulation |
| Luteinizing Hormone (LH) After ovulation, it stimulates cells in the empty follicle to multiply and develop into the _____ _____ (another endocrine structure). | corpus luteum |
| Corpus luteum produces _____ hormones necessary for the maintenance of pregnancy. | progestin |
| Luteinizing Hormone (LH) In the male, it stimulates interstitial cells in the testes to develop and produce _____. | testosterone |
| Estrous Cycle Intervals Animals that cycle continuously throughout the year, if they are not pregnant (cattle and swine). | Polyestrous |
| Estrous Cycle Intervals Animals with seasonal variations in estrous cycles (horse, sheep, cat). Due to changes in daylight. | Seasonally Polyestrous |
| Estrous Cycle Intervals Animals with two cycles per year, usually spring and fall (dog). | Diestrous |
| Estrous Cycle Intervals Animals with one cycle per year (fox and mink). | Monoestrous |
| Estrous Cycle Define: | Time from the beginning of one heat period (estrus) to the next. |
| Estrous cycle stages Name all five in order: | Proestrus, Estrus, Metestrus, Diestrus, Anestrus (in some species, some just continue to cycle). |
| Estrous cycle stages What happens during Proestrus? | Follicles begin developing and growing in ovary. Output of estrogen increases accordingly. Linings of the oviduct, uterus, and vagina thicken. Vaginal epithelium begins to cornify; forms layer of keratin on its surface. |
| Estrous cycle stages What happens during Estrus? | Period of sexual receptivity in the female. Estrogen level production peaks. Ovulation occurs near end of estrus in some species. Induced ovulator species (e.g. cat or rabbit) remain in a prolonged state of estrus if not bred. |
| Estrous cycle stages What happens during Metestrus? | Period when corpus luteum develops. It produces progesterone which temporarily inhibits follicular development. Lining of uterus prepared for implantation of a fertilized ovum. |
| Estrus Signs in horses Name eleven: | Tail flagging “winking,” Vocalizing, Vulva-discharge, swollen/red, Frequent urination, Reduced milk production, General attitude change, May mount/fight, increased activity, Nervous, reduced appetite, Lordosis-stands rigid if weight applied over dorsum |
| Prediction of Ovulation Why? and How? | Needed in order to manage their cycle for breeding, particularly artificial insemination. Number of days in heat. Size of largest follicle. Softness of preovulatory follicle. Ultrasound image. |
| Estrous cycle stages What happens during Diestrus? | Corpus luteum at maximum size & exerting maximum effect. If fertilized ovum implants, it is retained well into pregnancy. If no pregnancy, it degenerates. Animal then goes back into proestrus or ovary shuts down and animal goes into anestrus. |
| Estrous cycle stages What happens during Anestrus? | Period of temporary ovarian inactivity. Seen in seasonally polyestrus, diestrous, and monoestrous animals. Ovary temporarily shuts down |
| Estrous cycle (days) Cow | 19-23 (21) days |
| Duration of estrus Cow | 16-20 hr |
| Gestation (days) Cow | 283 days |
| Estrous cycle (days) Sow | 19-23 (21) days |
| Estrous cycle (days) Mare | 10-37 (21) days |
| Estrous cycle (days) Ewe | 14-19 (17) days |
| Duration of estrus Sow | 1-3 days |
| Duration of estrus Mare | 4-6 days |
| Duration of estrus Ewe | 1-2 days |
| Gestation (days) Sow | 114 days |
| Gestation (days) Mare | 336 days |
| Gestation (days) Ewe | 147 days |
| Puberty | In a female is the age of first estrus with ovulation. |
| Factors affecting age of puberty: Name four: | Breed (genetics within breed), Size, Nutrition, Season of year. |
| Onset of Puberty Mare | 18 months |
| Onset of Puberty Cow | 12 - 24 months |
| Onset of Puberty Ewe | 8 months |
| Onset of Puberty Sow | 7 months |
| First Breeding Mare | 24-36 months |
| First Breeding Cow | 12-24 months |
| First Breeding Ewe | 12-16 months |
| First Breeding Sow | 8-10 months |
| Records for Cycle Prediction | Dairy Cows: freshening dates (Date of calf delivery, Rebreeding 45 days post-partum), breeding dates, pregnancy check dates, due dates, dry dates |
| Chin Ball Markers What are they for? How do they work? | Marker placed on Teaser Bull- a bull which has been rendered infertile but still has hormones. Has ink in the chin ball which marks the cow in Estrus. |
| KaMar/ Bovine Beacon What are they for? How do they work? | Cows in estrus will mount each other. These markers or tail paint are placed on their tail head and when the cow is mounted the ink pack will burst or the paint will be disturbed OR it will send an electronic signal. |
| Ram harness What are they for? How do they work? | Solid ink block is affixed to the ram, so the date when the ewe is bred can be noted. By changing colors frequently and monitoring you can get more precise breeding dates. |
| Progesterone Test The Milk or Blood Progesterone Test | Used in confirming a suspected heat when doubts about an individual cow arise. This test can be used as an early indicator of pregnancy. It must be used in conjunction with good records. |
| The Milk or Blood Progesterone Test Interpretation Cows suspected of being in heat. | High progesterone = not in heat. Low progesterone = could be in heat. |
| The Milk or Blood Progesterone Test Interpretation Cow potentially pregnant (milk sample collected 21-24 days after insemination). | High progesterone = could be pregnant. Low progesterone = not pregnant. |
| Most dairy cows are confirmed pregnant by either _____ or _____ _____ by veterinarian or trained tech. The blood test is another tool that can help with diagnosis. | ultrasound, rectal palpation |
| Male fertility Breeding Soundness exam | Likelihood of fertility- only proven by successful production of offspring. Why is it important? Quick, economic procedure to screen animals for breeding potential. |
| (Breeding Soundness Examination) BSE- overall physical exam | Body condition score. Free of other diseases- respiratory, etc. No obvious genetic abnormalities (umbilical hernias, malformations, etc). Normal reproductive organs. |
| BSE- Physical exam Cryptorchid | One or more testicles are retained in the abdomen- incapable of producing sperm, do not pass exam. |
| BSE- Physical exam Scrotal circumference | Roughly estimates the amount of sperm produced per day- useful for bulls and rams (large herds). As a general rule, SC should be 34 cm for bulls ≥2 yr old. |
| Semen evaluation Collection Methods: Name three. | Collection methods- teaser animals, artificial vaginas, electroejaculator. |
| Semen evaluation Volume varies for each species - Horse | Approximately 30 to 60 mL |
| Semen evaluation Volume varies for each species - Pig | Average 250 mL |
| Semen evaluation Motility | Need to get to area of fertilization- about 70% motile is “normal.” |
| Semen evaluation Morphology | Structure. If abnormal, will be unable to fertilize egg. |
| Semen collection methods Teaser animals, artificial vaginas | Trying to replicate normal breeding practices, usually horses. |
| Semen collection methods Electroejaculators | Bulls, Sheep, Goats. Device that delivers electric current to the prostate area causing ejaculation. |
| (Breeding Soundness Examination) BSE Sperm Motility | Evaluate ASAP after collection. If chilled, warm before evaluation. A 5–10 μL drop of semen is placed on a prewarmed slide & overlaid w/ coverslip. Sample motility is then subjectively estimated to the nearest 5% viewing several random fields under 20× |
| (Breeding Soundness Examination) BSE Sperm morphology | A minimum of 100 (preferably 200) sperm should be assessed for morphology of the head, midpiece, and principal piece (ie, the tail distal to the midpiece). Greater than 70% should be normal. |
| Hind Gut Fermentors Are single stomach animals with ___ ___ of intestine to house the fermenting microbes. | enlarged chambers |
| Four examples of equid zoo animals that are hind gut fermentors are: | zebra, Prezwalski horse, tapir, and elephant |
| True or False: hind gut fermentation is a mode of digestion similar to rumination. | True |
| What is the main similarity between ruminant and hind gut fermentor digestive systems? | The large population of bacteria that ferment foodstuffs. Particularly fiber. |
| What is the main difference between hind gut fermentor and ruminant digestive systems? | The site of fermentation. In a hind gut fermentor's GI tract it occus in the cecum and colon (at the end of the digestive tract. In ruminant's it is in the rumen. |
| True or false: the hind gut fermentative digestive tract is similar to that of the monogastric system and has the same components. | True |
| What three components do both the hind gut fermentors and the monogasts have in common? | Stomach, small intestine (duodenum, jejunum, ileum), large intestine (cecum, colon, rectum). |
| Equine hind gut fermentors lack a: | gall bladder. Small frequent meals means they don't need to store bile in a gall bladder. |
| Large volumes of ___ are produced in the mouth. | saliva (aids in digestion-small concentration of salivary amylase)(aids in lubricating mouth and swallowing) |
| The main breakdown in the mouth is: | physical (reduction of physical size) By the large grinding molars. |
| There is ___ opportunity for chewing, in a hind gut fermentor's GI tract, which is done thoroughly before swallowing. | one |
| The presence of sharp edges of teeth can lead to: | quidding |
| What is quidding? | Dropping partially chewed food from the mouth. |
| Dental problems can lead to: | pain and dysfunction then issues with chewing |
| Incomplete breakdown of food can lead to what? | Less efficient digestion of food, fewer calories and nutrients, and the animal is more likely to have issues with colic (abdominal pain) and esophageal choking. |
| The esophagus is a tubulomuscular organ that is about ___ to ___ long in adult horses. | 50 - 60 inches |
| The esophagus is composed of two types of muscle. What are they? | Striated (motor), Smooth (parasympathetic control) |
| Oral swallowing portion is ___, gets the food or water to the back of the throat. | voluntary |
| After oral swallowing, involuntary ___ contractions take over and move the bolus down the esophagus. | peristaltic |
| What is the smooth muscle structure that has intrinsic tone (stays closed naturally) at the end of the esophagus? | Lower esophageal sphincter (LES). It opens to allow food in, but stays contracted against pressure from the stomach (prevents reflux up the esophagus). |
| Equine Stomach The presence of a strong esophageal sphincter prevents: | vomiting or burping of gases |
| The equine stomach has a small capacity (15 liters) and can only cope with ___ meals because of the inelastic property of the wall. | small |
| The main digestive function of the equine stomach is the break down of ___ via ___ in strongly ___ conditions (just like the monogastic). | protein, enzymes, acidic |
| Equine Stomach The pH of the fundus is approximately ___ and that of the pylorus is ___. (this is where protein is digested. | 5.4, 2.6 |
| There is also significant production of ___ ___ as a result of the fermentation of ___ in the fundus. | lactic acid |
| The upper portion of the equine stomach is white in appearance. The tissue is: | Squamous (non-glandular) mucosa |
| The lower region of the equine stomach is dark pink to red with smooth a glistening appearance. The tissue is: | Glandular mucosa |
| What is the name of the border between the Squamous and Glandular mucosa regions? | "margo plicatus" |
| The duodenum just beyond the pylorus should be: | velvety pink |
| The terminal esophagus enters the stomach at a very ___ angle. | acute (virtually “turns a corner”) |
| The ___ is always tensed, but constricts further in response to distention of the stomach (a vagal reflex). | LES - Lower Esophageal Sphincter |
| The LES prevents ___ and ___, but can also result in ___ ___. | vomiting, reflux, stomach rupture |
| What are the three regions of the small intestines? | duodenum, jejunum, ileum |
| The pH of the duodenum is alkaline (7.4) due to the secretion of ___ ___ containing bicarbonate from the ___. | bile salts, liver |
| Bile salts emulsify ___ and neutralize the effects of the stomach ___. | fats, acid |
| True or False: Equines do not have a gall bladder. Instead, bile trickles in continuously - consequently equines must eat small meals continuously (unlike cows). | True |
| Damage to the ___ ___ can cause necrosis of the intestines. | mesenteric vessels |
| True or False: The long heavy intestines can easily twist on itself. | True |
| Massive intestinal parasitism can cause ___. | blockages |
| Large Intestine Is subdivided into three regions. Name them: | Cecum, Colon (large, small), Rectum |
| As in ruminants, insoluble carbohydrates (digestible fiber) are converted to ___ ___ ___: acetic, propionic, and butyric acids. | volatile fatty acids |
| Non-___ nitrogen and any residual ___ are fermented to ammonia and microbial ___. | protein |
| Volatile proteins are absorbed into the ___ ___ and then contribute to the energy needs of the animal. | blood stream |
| True or False: Water soluble vitamins (B complex) are also synthesized in the large intestine of horses. These vitamins and water are absorbed in the colon. | True |
| The presence of bends and flexures leads to a slowing of the rate of passage of digesta, but also predisposes animals to ___ and ___. | colic, impactions |
| Name four regions of the large intestine that are prone to impaction. | Pelvic flexure, Body of Cecum, Base of Cecum, Junction of right dorsal colon with transverse colon. |
| Why ferment? | They can gather/store large quantities of food quickly for later chewing/fermentation in safe areas. This allows for a more complete mechanical breakdown. Thorough but slow. They can also utilize less bioavailable foods (cellulose) as energy source. |
| What should horses eat? Horses graze on ___ ___ as they wander. | wild grasses |
| What should horses eat? True or false: Horses are not confined to stalls or fenced in and have little to no access to any grains or lush pastures. | True |
| Horses typically graze __ to __ hours out of the day. Why? | 18, 22 Constant food in the mouth means constant saliva production and saliva contains bicarbonate to help neutralize stomach acid (hydrochloric acid). |
| Horses will consume __ - __% of their body weight a day in dry roughage (hay, hay pellets, hay cubes). | 1 - 2.5% This equates to: 1000 lb horse = 10-20 lbs of hay/day. 1600 lb horse = 16-32 lbs of hay/day. 200 lb horse = 2-4 lbs of hay/day. |
| Pasture is about __% moisture, therefore approximately 30 lbs of pasture = __ lbs of hay (DM). | 50%, 15 lbs. |
| True or False: An average 1000 lb horse must graze most of the day on pasture to meet its calorie requirement. | True |
| Keeping the bugs happy Make changes to feed over __ - __ days. (Grain & Hay) | 7-14 days |
| Keeping the bugs happy Feed at least __ – __% of horse’s body weight in forage. | 1.2-2.5% |
| Keeping the bugs happy Do not feed ___ meals of grain at once – no more than ___% of body weight PER MEAL. | large, 0.5% |
| What does eructation mean? What is the purpose? | Better known as burping or belching. Casting up wind (expelling air) from the stomach through the mouth. The rumen fermentation vat produces 160 gallons of gas (CO2 & CH4) per cow per day. |
| Mammalian Digestive Systems Name four animals with monogastric systems: | pigs, humans, cats, dogs |
| Mammalian Digestive Systems Name four hindgut fermenters: | Horse, rabbit, elephant, guinea pig |
| Mammalian Digestive Systems Name five Ruminants | Cow, deer, llama, goat, sheep |
| What are four characteristics of a monogastric - simple stomach? | GI system of predators. One compartment. Glandular design. Low fiber, high protein food. |
| What are three characteristics of a hindgut fermenter? | One glandular compartment. Cecum or enlarged large intestine to digest plants. High fiber, low protein, low fat diet. |
| What are four characteristics of ruminant digestive systems? | Most are herbivores. Four compartment stomach. Fore-gut fermentation vat to digest plants. High fiber, low protein, low fat diet |
| Why Ferment? Ruminant & Hindgut | Can gather and store large quantities of food quickly for later chewing and fermentation in safe areas. This allows for a more complete mechanical breakdown. (It is slow, though.) Can utilize less bioavailable foods (cellulose) as energy source. |
| True or false: ruminants chew cud. | True |
| Bovine ruminants have how many job movements/day? | 40,000 - 60,000 |
| Do cows have upper incisors? | No upper incisors. They have a dental pad instead. |
| A cow does not "bite" grass, it: | wraps tongue |
| The cow uses fermentation to: | digest plants |
| What kind of relationship do cows have with their bacterial tenants? | Symbiotic |
| How much gas/hour do cows produce? | 13 gallons |
| On an average day, how much saliva does a cow produce? | 40 liters |
| What are the four compartments of the stomach of a ruminant? | Reticulum, Rumen, Omasum, Abomasum |
| Stomach Compartments Provide a brief description of the Reticulum: | Rumen's "assistant" |
| Stomach Compartments Provide a brief description of the Rumen: | Fermentation vat |
| Stomach Compartments Provide a brief description of the Omasum: | Dehydrator |
| Stomach Compartments Provide a brief description of the Abomasum: | Glandular stomach - True stomach |
| Rumen + Reticulum = | Reticulorumen |
| Rumen What side of the animal will you find this compartment? | On the left side of the animal |
| Rumen Absorbs the ___ produced by the rumen flora. | VFA's (Volatile Fatty Acids-acetic, propionic, butyric acid) |
| Rumen It is continually contracting. These coordinated contractions occur every: | one to two minutes |
| Rumen Fermentation in this vat produces __ and __ in the ___ environment. | CO2 (Carbon Dioxide), CH4 (Methane) Anaerobic |
| Rumen What is the pH of this vat? | (6-7) Close to neutral |
| Rumen What is the capacity of this compartment? | 40 - 60 gallons |
| What are rumen papillae? | Small finger-like projections which are flattened approximately 5 mm in length and 3 mm wide. They increase the absorptive surface area of the rumen to absorb the VFAs produced by the flora. |
| Reticulum What is its location? | close to the heart |
| Reticulum Briefly describe this region of the cow's digestive system. | Small sac - part of the rumen body. It catches dense, heavy feed for later rumination up the reticular groove through the esophagus. It retracts for regurgitation. "Honeycomb" lining. "Hardware" Diseases. |
| Omasum It is the ___ compartment. | third |
| Omasum Describe the shape and interior. | Globe-shaped. Has "pages" like a book. |
| Omasum What is the job of this part of the cow's digestive system? | Reduces feed particle size. *Absorbs water and dries out ingesta (dehydrator). It also absorbs volatile fatty acids. |
| Abomasum This the ___ compartment. It is ___ in design. | final, tubular |
| Abomasum What other name do people use for it? | "True" stomach (glandular) |
| Abomasum Secretes ___ and enzymes for chemical digestion. | HCI (Hydrochloride) |
| Abomasum Reduces pH to ___ and dissolves ___ kills ___ and breaks down ___. | 2.5, minerals, rumen bacteria, protein |
| Abomasum What is its job? | Passes ingesta to small intestine |
| Rumen Motility What are its three purposes? | Mixing of rumen contents - proper sorting of rumen content by size and texture. Inoculation of incoming feed with micro-organisms. Distribution of fermentation end-products (VFAs). |
| Rumen Motility What stimulates it? (Tactile Stimuli & Distension) | Tactile stimuli: the presence of feed particles in the rumen ("scratch" stimulus) (requires ample "effective fiber" in the diet. Distension: the "stretch" of the rumen wall (due to the presence of ingesta (and gas) in the rumen. |
| Ruminant Digestion What does regurgitation mean? | controlled reverse movement of coarse feedstuffs from the reticulum/rumen via esophagus to mouth for rechewing (cud). |
| Ruminant Digestion What does eructation mean? | Expulsion of accumulated fermentation gases from rumen via esophagus (burping) |
| Ruminant Digestion Define rumination. | Refers to the processing of feedstuffs in the reticulum/rumen, to include fermentation, regurgitation, eructation. |
| Rumination Cycle What four phases (the four "R's) are involved? | Regurgitation, Remastication, Reinsalivation, Reswallowing |
| Rumination Cycle What occurs during the Regurgitation phase of "the four R's?" | movement of ingesta from reticulum into the mouth |
| Rumination Cycle What occurs during the Remastication phase of "the four R's?" | rechewing into fine particles |
| Rumination Cycle What occurs during the Reinsalivation phase of "the four R's?" | addition of more saliva |
| Describe five processes involved in fermentation. | Anaerobic bacteria break down cellulose. Volatile fatty acids (VFA’s) released by bacteria passed to bloodstream through papillae. CO2 and CH4 produced by bacteria. Bacteria controlled by protozoa. Ingesta passed to omasum by contractions. |
| Rumen Fluid Evaluation What is the role of bacteria? About how many species live in the rumen? | Digest cellulose. Over 200! |
| Rumen Fluid Evaluation What is the role of protozoa? How do they accomplish this? | Control the bacterial population. They prey on the bacteria. |
| Rumen Fluid Evaluation What is the role of fungi? How great is their population compared to bacteria and protozoa? How long have we known they lived in the cow's rumen? | Aid in cellulose digestion. Their numbers are very low in the rumen. They were only discovered 20 years ago. |
| Describe a fistulated cow. | A cow with a fistula (or passageway) connecting the cow's stomach with the outside. The cow has an opening cut into her stomach. The opening has a ring around it, and it can be closed with a big plug. |
| What is Rumen Transfaunation? | Giving ill animals normal rumen contents to stablize their GI tracts. |
| When Things Go Wrong Name three common digestive issues in ruminants. | Improper diet. Esophageal Obstruction. Hardware in Reticulum (Hardware Disease). |
| What issues come about due to improper diet in ruminants? | It changes the pH of the rumen which may kill vital microorganisms and can even cause ulceration of the rumen wall. Fiber stimulus for motility is essential to survival. |
| What is a potential complication of esophageal obstruction in a ruminant? | If a cow is unable to eructate, build up of gas in rumen becomes fatal within hours (similar to GDV in dogs) |
| Why is hardware in the reticulum an issue? What is one solution? (Hardware Disease) | Metal objects in reticulum can puncture through rumen walls into the chest/heart causing fatal infections. Dairy cattle are fed magnets to decrease this risk. |
| Displaced Abomasum It normally lies on the floor of the abdomen, but can become filled with ___ and rise to the top of the abdomen. When this happens it is said to be displaced. | gas |
| Displaced Abomasum It is more likely to be displaced to the ___ than the ___. | left (LDA), right (RDA) |
| Displaced Abomasum What are two possible causes? | Calving: majority of cases occur after calving. During pregnancy uterus displaces abomasum. After calving abomasum moves back normal position increasing risk of displacement. Atony: abomasum stops contracting accumulates gas and will float up abdomen. |
| Displaced Abomasum What are four symptoms? | Loss of appetite. Drop in milk yield. Reduced Rumination. Mild Diarrhea. |
| Displaced Abomasum What are two possible treatments? | Rolling a cow to correct the DA. Surgery. |
| Displaced Abomasum Treatment: Surgery | Can be performed, however isn't always necessary. Often the abomasum can be returned to its usual place by casting and rolling the animal onto its back, permitting the abomasum to "float" back into its normal position. |
| Displaced Abomasum Treatment: Rolling | Can be used in conjunction with toggling, where a toggle is passed through the skin into the abdomen and twisted fixing the abomasum in the correct position. This significantly reduces the relapse rate. |
| Displaced Abomasum Which displaced abomasum side is more serious? | RDAs are more serious compared to LDA because the RDA tends to have more torsion and compromise of blood vessels. (RDA is more like dog GDV) |
| Displaced Abomasum True or False: It is cheaper to make management changes to prevent the conditions that cause a DA to happen than having to manage them. | True |
| The Colon Descending colon is: | coiled (Spiral Colon) |
| True or False: Calves are an investment. They must be fed properly as babies to insure they develop properly. You must understand the development of the digestive tract in order to properly feed calves. | True |
| Calf Digestive Tract Development Only the ___ is functional (temporarily functionally a simple stomach monogastric) | abomasum |
| Calf Digestive Tract Development What action forms the esophageal groove? | sucking |
| Calf Digestive Tract Development Milk passes directly to the ___, curdles and digests slowly. | abomasum |
| Calf Digestive Tract Development ___ does not develop as long as calf is on milk only. | Rumen |
| Calf Digestive Tract Development At 12-16 weeks, feed (grain) consumption causes the ___ to develop. | rumen |
| Calf Digestive Tract Development How is the rumen populated with microorganisms? | From the environment: eating poop (normal coprophagia) |
| Calf Digestive Tract Development ___ produces VFA's which cause rumen to develop papillae and increase in size. | Bacteria |
| Calf Digestive Tract Development The calf can digest hay and grass once ___ develops. | rumen |
| Why ferment? (Rumen or Hindgut) | Can gather & store large quantities of food quickly for later chewing and fermentation in safe areas. This allows for a more complete mechanical breakdown. (It is thorough but slow). Can utilize less bioavailable foods (cellulose) as energy source. |
| Mammary Glands Random Facts | Present in both male and female animals. Males do not secrete the proper blend of hormones to make them work. Number and appearance of mammary glands differs among common species of animals. |
| Mammary Glands Common to all ___. They are ___ glands (modified sweat glands). Name two functions. | mammals. exocrine. To nourish the young & produce immunoglobulins for protection. |
| True or False: Mammary glands rely on many of the same hormones that control reproduction. | True. Prolactin, Oxytocin, Growth Hormone, Progesterone, etc. |
| Mammary Gland Considered part of the reproductive system because: | It contributes to survival of neonates |
| Mammary Gland Development Mammary glands develop in response to ___ produced at ___. | hormones, puberty |
| ___ and ___ directly encourage mammary gland development. | Prolactin & Growth Hormone |
| ___ and ___ encourage the mammary alveoli and duct systems to develop. | Estrogen and progesterone |
| External Features Teats | Usually one teat per gland in cattle. |
| What are Supernumerary teats? | Nonfunctional and functional extra teat(s) outside the norm. Removed when 1-2 years of age. |
| External Features - Teats "Inverted nipples" | An inherited condition where the nipples fail to project from the surface of the gland. This makes it impossible to suckle that gland. Common in sows. |
| External Features - Teats Separate Glands | Sides separated by intermammary groove. No interaction between quarters or halves. Closely associated glands are called an udder. Cows have 4 glands (quarters). Cranial quarters more developed than caudal quarters. Ewe and Doe have 2 glands (halves). |
| The Udder | Intermammary groove separates left and right halves of the udder. Udder can weigh anywhere from 7 to 165 pounds. May support up to 80 pounds of milk. Udder continues to grow in size until cow is 6 years old. |
| Udder Suspensory Apparatus Describe the three regions: | Skin. Lateral suspensory ligaments: superficial, deep, arise from the subpelvic ligament and prepubic tendon. Median suspensory ligament: main suspension, attaches to body wall, elastic. |
| Ruptured Suspensory Ligament | Usually median ligaments. Occurs gradually in some older cows. Leads to dropping of udder floor resulting in lateral deviation of teats. Acute rupture can occur at or just after parturition. These animals are at high risk for developing mastitis. |
| Ruptured Suspensory Ligament Treatment | Supportive trusses generally are not satisfactory. |
| Ruptured Suspensory Ligament Etiology | The condition is suspected to have a genetic basis. |
| Interior of the Udder Streak Canal | Duct that empties teat sinus. Surrounded by smooth muscle that acts a sphincter. |
| Interior of the Udder Gland cistern | 100-400 ml. milk storage. Duct systems drains into used to detect end of milking. |
| Interior of the Udder Duct System | Drains secretory tissue. No secretory function. |
| Interior of the Udder Alveoli | Milk producing units. Secretory cells, myoepithelial cells and capillaries, duct. |
| Interior of the Udder Lobules | 150-200 alveoli, common duct |
| Interior of the Udder Lobes | Group of lobules |
| Interior of the Udder Alveolus | A cubic inch of udder tissue contains millions of alveoli. They are lined by secretory epithelial cells that produce milk. They are surrounded by muscle fibers known as myoepithelial cells. Oxytocin acts on these cells to cause milk let down. |
| Vascular System Blood:Milk Ratio | 500:1. Blood supply to the mammary gland is extremely important for function! All milk precursors come from blood: avg: 400 - 500 units of blood passes through udder for each unit of milk synthesized by a high producing dairy cow; ~280 ml per sec. |
| Vascular System | 2 Arteries: External pudendal, Perineal. 3 Veins: External pudendal, Superficial Epigastric, Venous circle (Prevents venous obstruction when cow lying down) Subcutaneous Abdominal or Milk vein enters body cavity at milk well. |
| Milk Vein Rupture | Lacerations of the large milk vein are considered an emergency because of the potential for severe hemorrhage; prompt compression and ligation of these lacerations is recommended. |
| Lymph System Lacteals | Originate in the peripheral tissues of the teat ends. Move fluids to the lymph nodes. |
| Lymph System Supramammary Lymph Nodes | Located in the rear udder |
| Lymphatic System Four Facts | Helps regulate proper fluid balance within udder and combat infection. Fluid drained from tissue only travels away from udder. Lymph travels from udder to the thoracic duct and empties into blood system. |
| True or False: Flow rates of lymph depend on physiological status of animal. | True |
| Edema | Low pressure, passive system fed by a high pressure vascular system! This situation results in pooling of interstitial fluid if evacuation of fluid doesn’t keep up with deposition. |
| Edema Example: | Tissue trauma: increased mammary blood flow at parturition (common in first lactation of cows). |
| Mammae By Species Cow | The cow has 4 mammary glands (quarters) each drained by a single teat canal onto a single teat. |
| Mammae By Species Ewe & Doe | The lactating goat (doe) and sheep (ewe) each have two glands, each drained by a single teat with a single streak canal. They are located in the inguinal region. |
| Mammae By Species Sow | Average 12-14 complex glands (6-7 pairs) but range is 6-32. Glands: in two parallel rows, one on each side of the ventral midline. Each simple gland is separate: secretory tissue is independent from adjacent gland. |
| True or false: Teats usually 2 streak canals but may have 3-4. | True |
| Mammae By Species Mare | Glands are located in the inguinal region. Blood and lymph systems: like cow's. Two blunt broad flat teats that each have two streak canals & two teat cisterns. Each leads to a separate gland. |
| True or False: Therefore, the mare has 4 "quarters" like a cow but 2 streak canals per teat like a pig. | True |
| Lactogenesis | Establishment of milk secretion |
| Lactation | Secretion and removal of milk |
| Galactopoiesis | Continued production of milk by mammary glands. |
| Lactogenesis Estrogen | Promotes development of duct system with each estrus. |
| Lactogenesis Progesterone | of pregnancy promotes development of alveoli |
| Lactogenesis Prolactin (lactogen in ruminants) | of late pregnancy promotes secretary cell development of milk |
| Galactopoiesis How to keep it going. | Physical stimulation of teat or nipple and regular removal of milk from the gland stimulates anterior pituitary to continue production of hormones that keep lactation going. |
| Galactopoiesis How to stop it. | Lack of hormonal stimulation combined with increased pressure in the mammary gland gradually causes lactation to cease. |
| Milk Let Down | Milk accumulates high up in the mammary gland in alveoli & small ducts. Physical stimulation of nipple or teat sends sensory nerve impulses that cause release of oxytocin from posterior pituitary. |
| Milk Let Down Oxytocin | Causes contraction of myoepithelial cells around alveoli & small ducts. Moves milk down into large ducts & sinuses. |
| Milk Let Down Name three stimuli | Sound of a milking machine. Sight of a calf. Touch of the udder's skin. |
| Milk Composition General | Milk contains all nutrients needed for survival and initial growth of mammal neonates: Lipids and carbohydrates (energy), Proteins (growth), Vitamins, minerals, Water and electrolytes. |
| Milk Composition Lactose | Principle carbohydrate in milk (disaccharide) made from blood glucose. In ruminants, blood glucose is made in the liver from VFAs. |
| Milk Composition Casein | The primary protein in milk. |
| Milk Composition Triglyceride | The primary lipid in milk. |
| Milk Composition Can vary according to: name four | Species. Strain or breed of animal. Stage of lactation. Stage of milk removal. |
| Milk Composition What is the most variable component? | Milk fat |
| Milk Composition What is the least variable component? | Lactose |
| What is colostrum? | Pre-milk secretion. Contains large amounts of proteins, lipids, amino acids, and vitamins. Laxative effect helps clear meconium from newborn's intestinal tract. Imparts "passive immunity" - transfer of preformed antibodies from dam to newborn. |
| Cessation of Lactation Involution: | The process of the milk secreting mammary gland becoming a non-secreting one. |
| Cessation of Lactation "Drying off" (lay term) | Abrupt drying off decreases labor (on farm staff). Abrupt drying off increases mastitis. Abrupt drying off can cause “milk allergy” (acute anaphylaxis). |
| Mastitis What is it? | Inflammation of the mammary gland |
| Mastitis What are the usual causes? | Bacterial but can be fungal or traumatic. |
| Mastitis Subclinical: what does it look like? | Infected but no clinical signs |
| Mastitis Clinical | Observable changes |
| Mastitis Clinical Signs | Visibly abnormal milk (color, fibrin clots). Swelling, heat, pain, redness of udder. Fever, anorexia, shock can result in severe cases. Typically only one quarter at a time will display clinical mastitis. |
| Mastitis Gangrenous | Can also occur, particularly in cases of subclinical, chronic infections with S aureus. |
| Mastitis Diagnosis. How? | Clinical signs, Cell count in milk, Milk culture |
| Mastitis Treatment | NSAIDs, Frequent milking, Systemic antibiotics, Intramammary infusions, Culling, Chemical killing of quarter, Surgical removal. |
| Pregnancy Gestation | Time from fertilization of ovum to delivery of newborn: varies between species and is divided into three segments (trimesters). |
| Pregnancy Gestation First Trimester: | Embryonic period. Placenta develops. |
| Pregnancy Gestation Second Trimester | Fetal Period. Body tissues, organs, and systems develop. |
| Pregnancy Gestation Third Trimester | Fetal growth period. |
| Fertilization Mare, Sow, Bitch | Sperm is placed in the cervix/uterus. |
| Fertilization Other species | Sperm is placed in vagina during copulation. |
| Fertilization Oxytocin release stimulates: | the female reproductive tract to contract in waves to move the sperm into the oviduct. |
| Fertilization What is the oviduct? | The site of fertilization for most species. |
| Fertilization Capacitation | Series of changes spermatozoa undergo in the female reproductive tract, such as changes in ion movement through the cell membranes; increase in cells' metabolic rates. |
| Fertilization Release of digestive enzymes from acrosome: | help the spermatozoa penetrate layers surrounding the ovum to accomplish fertilization. |
| Fertilization Sperm has a ___ life span in the female reproductive tract. | short, so insemination must occur within hours of ovulation for successful fertilization. |
| True or false: large numbers of spermatozoa find and swarm around the ovum in the oviduct. | True |
| As the sperm attaches to ___ ___ of the ovum, a series of events called the ___ ___ occur. | zona pellucida. acrosome reaction The acrosome enzymes digest a path through the zona. The sperm enters and fuses with the vitelline membrane. |
| Once a single spermatozoan penetrates the cell membrane of the ovum, a change in the membrane ___ other sperm from entering. | blocks |
| Zygote Male pronucleus | Nucleus of the fertilizing spermatozoon. |
| Zygote Female pronucleus | Nucleus of the fertilized ovum |
| Zygote Each pronucleus contains: | the haploid chromosome number |
| Zygote Male and female pronuclei join: | together (restores the diploid chromosome number |
| Fertilization The female pronucleus and the male pronucleus: | fuse together forming one cell with genetic material of both parents. |
| Fertilization This cell begins: | mitosis (cleavage) to form a morula and then a bastula |
| Cleavage What is it? | Rapid mitosis of zygote. Overall size of zygote does not change. |
| Cleavage What is a Morula | solid mass of cells |
| Cleavage What is a Blastocyst | Hollow ball of cells |
| Percentage of species us artificial insemination: Dairy | 70% of cows |
| Percentage of species us artificial insemination: Poultry | 95% turkeys due to difficult natural mating. chickens use natural mating. |
| Percentage of species us artificial insemination: Swine | > 80% |
| Percentage of species us artificial insemination: Horses | increasing with greater use of extended semen (NOT allowed with registered Thoroughbreds) |
| Percentage of species us artificial insemination: Beef | < 10% cows, increasing |
| Percentage of species us artificial insemination: Sheep | increasing but limited; flocks dispersed |
| IA procedure in females Sheep | surgical or speculum |
| IA procedure in females Swine | corkscrew |
| IA procedure in females Horses | like cattle |
| Reproductive Management Estrous synchronization | Controlling estrous cycle so females express estrus around the same time |
| Reproductive Management Estrous synchronization: Reasons to use | with AI there is decreased expense of time & labor for detection of estrus. Success of embryo transfer. Decreased labor when young are born. |
| Reproductive Management Estrous synchronization: Methods | Hormonal: induced ovulation; restart estrous cycle; suppress estrus. Natural: weaning (sows & beef cattle). |
| Reproductive Management Embryo transfer (ET) | transferring fertilized embryos from one female to another |
| Reproductive Management How is ET used? | Embryo transfer: superovulate and inseminate donor cow. synchronize estrus of recipient females. flush embryos of donor and transfer to recipient or freeze. |
| Reproductive Management Why is ET used? | Maximizes use of superior genetics (females). Many offspring/female/year. |
| Maternal Recognition of Pregnancy | Maternal reproductive tract must “recognize” pregnancy in most species to maintain progesterone secreting corpus luteum. Embryo secretes hormones detected & prevent maternal release of PGF2a. |
| Maternal Recognition of Pregnancy True or false: In species that produce litters, a minimum number of embryos must be present for pregnancy recognition (4 for the sow). | True |
| Embryo Migration Embryos move about a ___ ___ within the uterus prior to implantation. | great deal |
| Embryo migration Allows for adequate ___ between multiple embryos. | spacing |
| Migration contact ___ pregnancy recognition (essential in the mare). | improves |
| Up to ___ of fertilized embryos die before implantation for a variety of reasons. | 30% |
| Implantation ___ produced by the blastocyst ___ away a small pit in the endometrium. | Enzymes. dissolve. |
| ___ attaches to endothelium in this pit. | Blastocyst |
| Placentation What is it? | The development of extraembryonic membranes or placenta. |
| Placentation The arrangement of placental membranes allows: | Transfer: nutrients from dam to fetus, waste from fetus to dam, no interaction of blood supply between dam and fetus |
| Placenta What is it? | A multilayered, fluid-filled, membranous sac. |
| Placenta True or false: the outermost layer of the placenta attaches to the uterine lining in some areas. | True. Fetal & Maternal blood vessels are in close proximity to each other in this area. Site of exchange of blood nutrients & wastes. In sow, mare, ewe, cow it is called: epitheliochorial. In humans it's called: hemochorial- blood connection) |
| Placenta What is the Amnion: | Membranous layer immediately surrounding the fetus. |
| Placenta: Amnion Details: | Forms the amniotic sac. Fetus floats in amniotic fluid inside the amniotic sac. Clear/grey color. non-vascularized. fluid produced by fetus. protective cushion. ruptures during birth or after (not water breaking) |
| Placenta What is the Allantois | Layer surrounding the amniotic sac. Forms the allantoic sac, which accumulates wastes. |
| Placenta: Allantois Details: | Outside of allantois sac is covered in the chorion. Blood vessels. Fuses with the chorion. Brings blood vessels to the chorion. |
| Placenta What is the Chorion: | attaches to the lining of the uterus. Outermost membrane. Attaches to mother. |
| Placenta: Chorion Details: | Chorion is linked to the fetus by the umbilical cord. Highly vascularized in its entirety or in certain areas, velvety-red. |
| Placenta Yolk sac | In birds to nourish embryo, but in mammals regresses. |
| Urachus What is it? | The fetus urinary bladder connects to the allantois via this structure which lies next to the umbilical cord. |
| Urachus What happens after birth? | It closes, but a fibrous connection remains joining the urinary bladder to the umbilical stump. |
| Urachus Animals that are born with urine leaking from umbilical stump have a: | persistant urachus. This can be surgically corrected. |
| Umbilical Cord What is it? | Consists of umbilical arteries: carry unoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta, and umbilical veins: carry oxygenated blood from the maternal placenta to the fetus. |
| Placental Classifications How is this defined? | Placenta are classified according to the type of interdigition between the maternal and fetal membranes. |
| Placental Classification Name four: | Cotelydonary, Diffuse, Zonary, Discoid |
| Placental Classification Cotelydonary: name two animals | cow, sheep |
| Placental Classification Diffuse: name two animals | pig, horse |
| Placental Classification Zonary: name two animals | dog, cat |
| Placental Classification Discoid | human |
| Placental Attachments Diffuse: | Spread over the whole surface of the placenta and uterine lining. Horse & Pig. Velvety red all over. |
| Placental Attachments Cotyledonary: | Many small, separate attachment sites (placentomes). Ruminants. Velvety red in certain areas (buttons). |
| Placental Attachments Zonary: | Belt shaped attachment that encircles the placenta. Dogs & Cats. Velvety red in a band. |
| Placental Attachments Discoid: | Placenta and uterus attaches at a single disk-shaped area. Primates, Rabbits, Rodents. Flat velvety red disk. |
| Placentomes: Attachment sites Describe two shapes and animals that have them. | Convex: Cow. Diffuse: Mare & Sow. |
| Hormones of Pregnancy Progesterone: | Has several actions essential for maintaining pregnancy. Provides negative feedback to hypothalamus to inhibit new estrous cycles. Inhibits smooth muscle contractions of the uterus. Maintains a closed cervix to protect uterine environment. |
| Hormones of Pregnancy Corpus Luteum | Is the source of progesterone for all species. The CL remains the source throughout pregnancy for cow & sow. The placenta becomes the source of progesterone later in pregnancy for ewe and mare. |
| Hormones of Pregnancy Equine Chorionic Gonadotrophin (prior PMSG) | The mare is unique in that months 1-4 of gestation the production of ECG causes new follicles to develop and luteinize on the ovaries. This causes the development of accessory corpora lutea that produce additional progesterone. |
| Hormones of Pregnancy Relaxin: What does it do? | Hormone produced by CL or placenta (depends on species). Preparation for parturition. Opens the cervix. Relaxes muscles and ligaments of birth canal. Facilitates mammary gland development. Gradually increases as pregnancy develops. |
| Placenta It takes over production of ___ around day 100 until foaling. Complete placental formation is done at ___ days. | progesterone. 150 |
| Terminology for Giving Birth - Parturition Cattle | Calve or freshen |
| Terminology for Giving Birth - Parturition Sheep | Lamb |
| Terminology for Giving Birth - Parturition Swine | Farrow |
| Terminology for Giving Birth - Parturition Horses | Foal |
| Terminology for Giving Birth - Parturition Dogs | Whelp |
| Terminology for Giving Birth - Parturition Cats | Queen |
| Terminology for Giving Birth - Parturition Goats | Kid |
| Detection of Pregnancy Name four way: | Failure to come back into estrus (some species). Palpation of reproductive tract. Ultrasonography (rectal or transabdominal). Blood test/Milk test- progesterone levels. |
| Parturition- The Birth Process Late gestation changes: Name five. | Muscles and ligaments of the birth canal relax. Vulva swells and a mucoid discharge may be visible. Mammary glands enlarge. Milk develops and may leak small amounts. Changes in the uterus of increasing levels of contractile proteins. |
| Impending Birth Horse-Most obvious | Hypertrophy mammary glands obvious from 8th month. Maiden may display little until just before foaling. Distention of the teats: 4-6 d pre-foaling. Waxing of the teats: 1-72 hrs pre-foaling. An increase in milk Calcium: 1-3 d pre-foaling. |
| Parturition How many stages? | three. The timing of each stage differs between species. |
| Parturition First stage: | Uterine contractions push the fetus and fetal membranes to the cervix. This can take several hours. |
| Parturition Second stage: | Delivery of the fetus. Passage past the cervix initiates contraction of abdominal muscles and straining. |
| Parturition Third stage: | delivery of the placenta |
| Parturition Increased level of ___ hormones from ___ glands of the fetus stimulate estrogen level increase in the dam and release prostaglandin F2a (reduces CL in ovary) | glucocorticoid. adrenal |
| Parturition ___ levels affect the placenta and the maternal uterus. | Glucocorticoid |
| Parturition ___ levels in bloodstream of the dam declines. Changes uterine and cervical tone. | Progesterone |
| Parturition PGF2 stimulates the ___ of smooth uterine muscle. | contraction |
| Parturition ___ released from the dam's posterior pituitary gland when the fetus enters the birth canal. | Oxytocin which stimulates myometrium to contract. Can give exogenous oxytocin to enhance contractions. If fetus dies before entering the birth canal, may not actually deliver. |
| Parturition Hormones Initiated by the fetus due to stress: | Corticosterone from Adrenal. Decreased progesterone. |
| Parturition Hormones Oxytocin | contractions |
| Parturition Hormones Relaxin | birth canal expansion |
| Parturition Hormones Prostaglandin (PGF2a) | Lysis of CL (removal of progesterone). Stimulates uterine contractions. Opens cervix. |
| Stages of Labor First Stage | Uterine contractions. Myometrium contracts and presses fetus down against the cervix. Sustained contractions cause the cervix to gradually dilate. |
| Stages of Parturition Stage 1: Horse | Onset: initial uterine contractions. End: rupture of chorioallantois (water bag). 1-2 hr. Mare may stand up, lie down, roll, pace, look or bite at flanks, sweat, urinate. |
| Stages of Labor Second stage: Delivery of newborn. | Results from combination of strong uterine and abdominal muscle contractions. Rupture of amniotic and allantoic sacs of the placenta usually precedes actual delivery of the newborn. |
| Stages of Parturition Stage 2: Horse | Onset: rupture of chorioallantois (water breaking). End: delivery of fetus. Timeline 30 min. Contractions occur in groups of 3-4 followed by a rest period of 3 to 5 minutes. |
| Stages of Parturition Stage 2: Horse (Actions to assist) | When the chest is through vulva foal can breathe on its own. May go in & remove the amniotic sac. Not breathing: rub foal, take straw & put in nose, breath into nose. |
| Stages of Parturition Stage 2: Horse (Fetal changes at birth) | Lungs expand and start functioning. Foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus close. |
| Stages of Labor Third Stage: Delivery of the placenta. | Placenta separates from wall of the uterus and is expelled by weaker uterine contractions. |
| Placenta Examination: Horse Configuration | Arrange the membranes in a capital "F" position w/ pregnant horn uppermost & body forming vertical bar of "F." Tip of the nonpregnant horn is most likely part of placenta to be retained. |
| Placenta Examination: Horse What five things are you looking for? | Weight, length of umbilical cord & location, appearance of gross lesions, missing pieces. |
| Allantochorion Umbilical Cord Assessment | Length, degree of twisting, presence of any vascular compromise. Abnormal findings: cord separation, excessive rotation, kinking, aneurysms, intramural hematomas, thrombosis, edema. |
| Allantochorion Umbilical Cord Assessment: Normal Findings | 95% of normal equine pregnancies, the umbilical cord measures between 36 and 83 cm, with an average length of 55 cm |
| Dystocia What is it? | Difficult birth. Failure to deliver within normal parameters, generally 8 hours for cows, 2 horses for horses/ewes, 1 hour per piglet for sows. |
| Dystocia Causes | Improper presentation. Excessive size (first calf heifers, small litters, only one lamb or kid). Abnormalities of mother-illness, deformity, etc. |
| Dystocia May require intervention: Name three. | Traction/Manipulation, C-section, Fetotomy |
| Red Bag What is it? | Premature separation of the placenta from the uterus. Chorioallantonic membrane (placenta) is presented at vulva instead of the amniotic sac. |
| Red Bag Why is it an emergency? | Possible restriction of blood flow/oxygen to fetus. Not common. |
| Red Bag Cause? | May be due to thickened placenta from disease (bacterial, fescue toxicity). |
| Retained Placenta What is it? | Placenta does not detach from the uterine wall. |
| Retained Placenta Less common in ___, more often in ___ and ___. | Mares. Cows & Ewes. |
| Retained Placenta Emergency in ___, concerning in ___ ___. | Horses. Other species. |
| Retained Placenta Tissue breakdown and bacterial growth may lead to: | Metritis, laminitis, septicemia complex. |
| Retained Placenta The placenta should be passed in ___ ___, if not, initiate treatment prior to 4-6 hours postpartum. | 3 hours |
| Retained Placenta What are the aims of treatment? | To stimulate release of the placenta, evacuate the uterus, encourage involution, control bacterial growth and prevent laminitis. |
| Uterine Prolapse What is it? | Placenta does not detach from the uterine walls and pulls the uterus inside out. |
| Uterine Prolapse Risks | Can cause massive hemorrhage and death. Uterus is exposed to infection, debris, tears. |
| Uterine Prolapse Treatment? Emergency treatment necessary. | Sedation or epidural block through lavage and manual replacement. Often filled with sterile fluid and sutures placed across vulva. |
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