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BMC - LAB II
HOMEWORK
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| WHAT IS THE MORPHOLOGY OF VIBRO SP. BACTERIA | BACILLUS |
| WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN IMPORTANT FUNCTION OF BACTERIAL FIMBRIAE | ATTACHMENT |
| BACTERIAL ENDOSPORES ARE: | RESISTANT TO HEAT AND DESICCATION |
| SARCINNAE MORPHOLOGY REFERS TO WHAT KIND OF BACTERIAL ARRANGEMENT | CUBES OF EIGHT |
| IN THE GRAM STAIN PROCEDURE, THE MORDANT IS | IODINE |
| A BACTERIAL GENUS CAN BEST BE DESCRIBED AS | COMPOSED OF ONE OR MORE SPECIES |
| AN IODINE SCRUB ON SKIN WOULD RESULT IN | ANTISEPSIS |
| LYOPHILIZATION IS | FREEZE-DRYING |
| COMPARED TO BACTERIA, FUNGI | NEED LESS MOISTURE TO SURVIVE |
| IN THE BACTERIAL NAME BORRELIA BURGDORFERI, WHAT DOES BORGDORFERI REPRESENT | SPECIES |
| THE TEMPERATURE THAT MUST BE REACHED IN AN AUTOCLAVE TO DESTROY MICROORGANISMS IS_______ | 121*C |
| THE HUMOR IMMUNE SYSTEM INVOLVES | B CELLS |
| A PRODROMAL PERIOD | INVOLVES EARLY SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS |
| A NON-GRAM STAINING BACTERIUM IS | LEPTOSPIRA |
| A HOSPITAL AQUIRED DISEASE IS | NOSOCOMIAL |
| TETANUS IS CONSIDERED | NONCOMMUNICABLE |
| TYPES OF EFFECTOR T CELLS INCLUDE | HELPER T CELLS |
| WHAT IS AN EXAMPLE OF A GRAM NEGATIVE BACTERIUM | PASTEURELLA |
| IT IS THE MOST DIFFICULT TO FIND ANTIMICROBIALS FOR: | VIRUSES |
| ROCKY MOUNTAIN SPOTTED FEVER IS MORE PREVALENT IN: | THE SOUTHEASTERN UNITED STATES |
| THE ETIOLOGIC AGENT OF LYME DISEASE IS | BURRELIA BURGDORFERI |
| IN THE NAME STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS, STAPHYLOCOCCUS IS THE: | GENUS |
| THE COUNTERSTAIN IN GRAM STAIN IS | SAFRANIN |
| MOST BACTERIA GROW BEST AT PH | 7 |
| WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN IMPORTANT FUNCTION OF BACTERIAL FLAGELLA | LOCOMOTION |
| WHAT PARASITE HAS ONLY THE CAT AS THE DEFINITIVE HOST | TOXOPLASMA |
| WHAT IS NOT A METHOD OF CULTERING ANIMAL VIRUSES | AGAR PLATE INOCULATION |
| WHAT IMMUNOGLOBULIN IS USUALLY PRESENT IN GREATEST QUANTITY | IGG |
| THE MOST COMMON PORTAL OF ENTRY FOR MICROORGANISMS INTO THE BODY IS | RESPIRATORY TRACT |
| WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WOULD BE PARENTERAL ROUTE OF PATHOGEN TRANSMISSION | TRANSFUSION |
| ADAPTIVE OR SPECIFIC IMMUNITY INCLUDES | THE RESPONSE OF THE DEFENSES OF THE BODY TO A SPECIFIC SUBSTANCE |
| IGA | IS FOUND IN BODY SECRETIONS |
| IGD | IS FOUND ON LYMPHOCYTE MEMBRANES |
| IGE | IS FOUND ON LYMPHOCYTE MEMBRANES |
| ANTIBODY TITER IS A TEST THAT MEASURES | THE LEVEL OF ANTIBOSY IN SERUM |
| BY DEFINITION, AN ALLERGEN IS | A MATERIAL THAT INVOKES AN A LLERGIC RESPONSE |
| WITH RESPECT TO IMMUNOLOGY, TOLERANCE MEANS | THE LACK OF RESPONSIVENESS BY THE IMMUNE SYSTEM |
| THE TYPE OF IMMUNITY THAT IS THE FUNCTIONOF B CELLS THAT TRANSOFRM INTO PLASMA CELLS AND PRODUCE PROTECTIVE PROTEINS, CALLED ANTIBODIES, AGAINST ANTIGENS IS | HUMORAL |
| WHEN T CELLS ARE PROCESSED IN THE ________, THEY DEVELOP SPECIFIC ANTIGEN RECEPTORS ON THEIR CELL MEMBRANES | THYMUS |
| THE THIRD LINE OF DEFENSE AGAINST FOREIGN INVADERS IN THE BODY IS | SPECIFIC IMMUNITY |
| CELL-MEDIATED IMMUNITY IS THE FUNCTION OF _____THAT ATTACH TO ANTIGENIC SITES ON THE SURFACE OF FOREIGN CELLS | T CELLS |
| NUTRITIVE MEDIA WILL | GROW ALMOST ALL TYPES OF BACTERIA |
| SELECTIVE MEDIA GROW | SELECTS FOR GRAM NEGATIVE ORGANISMS |
| TRIPLICATE SOY AGAR | IS A NUTRITIVE MEDIA |
| MACCONKEY AGAR | SELECTS FOR GRAM NEGATIVE ORGANISMS |
| THE MOST IMPORTANT LABORATORY PROCEDURE FOR MICROBIOLOGIC DIAGNOSIS IS | DIRCT MICROSCOPIC EXAM OF THE SPECIMEN |
| DERMATOPHYTE TEST MEDIUM IS | USED TO IDENTIFY FUNGAL PATHOGENS |
| WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS CONSIDERED STERILE | LOWER RESPIRATORY TRACT |
| The fecal solution most likely to be successful in detecting Giardia cysts is a. Sodium chloride b. Sodium nitrate c. Zinc sulfate d. Physiologic saline | C. Zinc sulfate |
| A 4 year old dog has a chronic cough and the veterinarian has included Filaroides on his list of possible diagnoses. What is the common name of this parasite? a. Tapeworm b. Roundworm c. Whipworm d. Lungworm | D. Lungworm |
| Which of the following nematode are characterized by an ovoid egg with a thin shell and a morulated embryo? a. Toxascaris leonine b. Toxocara canis c. Trichuris vulpis d. Ancylostoma caninum | D. Ancylostoma caninum |
| What is a proper lens cleaner to use for the care and maintenance of a compound microscope? a. Saline b. Xylene c. Hydrogen peroxide d. Sodium bicarbonate | B. Xylene |
| A cytologic sample collected with a cotton swab should be applied to a microscope slide with a ______ action. a. Smearing b. Rolling c. Dabbing d. Rubbing | B. Rolling |
| Fluid samples collected through fine-needle aspiration should be collected into a. An EDTA tube b. A heparinized syringe c. A clot tube d. A citrate tube | A, An EDTA tube |
| Preparation for fine-needle aspirate of a joint or body cavity would include a. Preparation as for venipuncture b. Washing the area with sterile water c. Preparation as for surgery d. Washing the area with physiologic saline | C. preparation as for surgery |
| A method for diagnosing Cheyletiella is a. Tissue biopsy b. Fungal culture c. Fine-needle aspirate d. Cellophane tape method | D. Cellophane tape method |
| A Wood’s Lamp is used to examine an animal for the presence of a. Demodex b. Scabies c. Ringworm d. Pinworm | C. Ringworm |
| A fecal smear can be stained for fat. An increased amount of fat is indicative of a. Dyschezia b. Dysentery c. Steatorrhea d. Tenesmus | C. Steatorrhea |
| The stain used to stain undigested fecal starch is a. New Methylene blue b. Ligol iodine c. Sudan d. Gentian violet | B. Ligol iodine |
| Transmission of coccidian occurs by a. Ingesting oocytes b. Direct bodily contact c. Transmammary transmission d. Transplacental transmission | A. Ingesting oocytes |
| Which of the following would be considered an abnormal finding on healthy canine external ear canal cytology? a. Cerumen b. Epithelial cells c. Malassezia d. Debris | C. Malassezia |
| Incubation time to grow aerobic bacteria is typically a. 6 hours b. 12 hours c. 24 hours d. 48 hours | C. 24 hours |
| Which of the following is an example of selective medium? a. MacConkey b. Mueller-Hinton c. Trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood d. Trypticase soy agar | A. MacConkey |
| Trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood is used a. As an enrichment medium b. To show hemolytic reactions c. To select for Staph d. To inhibit growth of Salmonella | B. To show hemolytic reactions |
| The Fungassay test medium is selective for what organism? a. Trichophyton b. Trichuris c. Toxoplasma d. Tritrichomonas | A. Trichophyton |
| Chocolate agar is used predominantly to grow a. Proteus vulgaris b. E. coli c. Microsporum gypseum d. Brucella abortus | D. Brucella abortus |
| The causative agent of Lyme disease is a. Bordetella bronchiseptica b. Borrelia burgdorferi c. Moraxella bovis d. Mycoplasma pulmonis | B. Borelia burgdorferi |
| Which of these ectoparasites is zoonotic? a. Demodex b. Cnemidocoptes c. Sarcoptes d. Otodectes | C. Sarcoptes |
| Which of the following mites is commonly found in rabbits and large animals a. Cnemidocopes b. Sarcoptes c. Psoroptes d. Otodectes | C. Psoroptes |
| What endoparasite larva causes creeping eruptions in humans? a. Whipworm b. Tapeworm c. Pinworm d. Hookworm | D. Hookworm |
| When culturing a swab for bacterial identification, which of the following media should be used? a. TSI, BAP, CAMPY b. EMB, BAP, MAC c. BAP, CAN, MAC d. CNA, TSI, MSA | C. BAP, CAN, MAC |
| The nonpathogenic gram-positive rods found on skin are a. Diphtheroids b. Coliforms c. Anaerobes d. Dermatophytes | A. Diphtheroids |
| To get the best results, all fecal cultures are a. Inoculated onto BAP, CNA, and TsB b. Inoculated onto MAC, SS, and GN c. Inoculated onto MH, SS, and THIO d. Inoculated onto BAP, MAC, and SS | A. Inoculated onto BAP, CNA. and TsB |
| Fungal cultures are a. Incubated at room temperature b. Incubated in a microaerophilic environment c. Incubated at body temperature d. Incubated in anaerobic environment | A. Incubated at room temperature |
| Staphylococcus aureus a. Is catalase-positive b. Is coagulase negative c. Grows in an aerobic environment only Is gram negative | A. Is catalase-positive |
| Streptococci a. Are catalase positive b. Are catalase negative c. Resemble shooting stars when grown in tube media d. Are never hemolytic like staphylococcus | B. Are catalase negative |
| Enterobacteriaceae are found in what part of the body? a. Lungs b. Intestines c. Skin d. Stomach | B. Intestines |
| Which of the following is a spreading organism when grown on agar plates? a. Staph b. Strep c. Shigella d. Proteus | D. Proteus |
| Which of the following is considered a serious primary pathogen in birds, reptiles, and amphibians? a. Pseudomonas b. Shigella c. Staph d. Micrococcus | A. Pseudoomonas |
| Which of the following bacteria is a gram negative spirochete? a. Staph b. Strep c. Micrococcus d. Campylobacter | D. Campylobacter |
| Candida albicans may cause many different diseases, especially when there is a predisposing condition such as a. Vegetarian diet b. Primary bacterial infection c. Prolonged analgesic use d. Carnivorous diet | B. Primary bacterial infection |
| Kittens are most likely to get roundworms (Toxocara) by what route? a. Fecal-oral b. Transplacental c. Transmammary d. Skin penetration | C. Transmammary |
| A route of infection by hookworms that is not shared by roundworms is: a. Ingestion of infective stage b. Transplacental c. Transmammary d. Skin penetration | D. Skin penetration |
| In appearance, hookworm ova resemble ________ ova a. Strongyle b. Whipworm c. Roundworm d. Pinworm | A. Strongyle |
| Finding proglottids around a dog’s anus indicates infection with a. Flukes b. Tapeworms c. Pinworms d. Hookworms | B. Tapeworms |
| The intermediate host for heartworms is the a. Flea b. Rodent c. Mosquito d. Snail | C. Mosquito |
| Serology tests can detect heartworms in a dog’s blood a. Immediately after becoming infected b. Several days after becoming infected c. Several weeks after becoming infected d. Several months after becoming infected | D. Several months after becoming infected |
| Heartworm treatment begins with killing the a. Eggs b. Infective L3 larvae c. Microfilaria d. Adult worms | D. Adult worms |
| What is not a type of coccidian? a. Isospora b. Cryptosporidium c. Toxoplasma d. Giardia | D. Giardia |
| What are two diagnostic forms of Giardia? a. Cysts and trophozoites b. Merozoites and schizonts c. Oocysts and sporocytes d. Ova and L3 larvae | A. Cysts and Trophozoites |
| Compared to a roundworm ova, coccidian appear a. Smaller b. The same size c. Twice as large d. Three times as large | A. Smaller |
| The roundworm of horses is a. Strongylus sp b. Oxyuris sp c. Anoplocephala sp d. Parascaris sp | D. Parascaris sp |
| The difference in appearance between small and large strongyle ova in horses is a. Size b. Shape c. Color d. None; they look alike | A. Size |
| Ruminant ova such as Haemonchus, Ostertagia, Trichostrongylus, and Cooperia resemble canine a. Roundworms b. Hookworms c. Tapeworms d. Whipworms | B. Hookworms |
| Which of the following protozoan parasites of cattle causes abortion or fetal resorption? a. Tritrichomonas b. Eimeria c. Giardia d. Cryptosporidium | A. Tritrichomonas |
| Gram negative bacteria retain what component of the gram stain? a. Crystal violet b. Iodine solution c. Decolorizer d. Safranin | D. Safranin |
| Which of these is a primary medium and would be used for initial inoculation of a sample? a. Triple-sugar iron b. Trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood c. Citrate d. Urea | B. Trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood |
| What media is selective for gram negative bacteria? a. MacConkey b. BAP (Blood agar plate) c. Mannitol salt agar d. Mueller-Hinton agar | A. MacConkey |
| The catalase and coagulase tests are used in the presumptive identification of a. Gram negative bacteria b. Gram positive bacteria c. Saprophytes d. Dermatophytes | B. Gram positive bacteria |
| What gram negative bacteria may “swarm” a blood agar plate, leaving a film over the entire surface? a. Pseudomonas sp b. Staph sp c. Proteus sp d. Escherichia coli | C. Proteus sp |
| What microorganisms are frequently recovered from the ears of dogs with chronic otitis externa? a. Candida sp b. Cryptococcus sp c. Microsporum sp d. Malassezia sp | D. Malassezia sp. |
| What microorgansism is an etiologic agent of ringworm? a. Microsporum sp b. Mycobacterium sp c. Micrococcus sp d. Moraxella sp | A. Microsporum sp. |
| The species of this genus are common contaminants and the causative agent of anthrax a. Escherichia b. Corynebacterium c. Bacillus d. Enterobacter | C. Bacillius |
| What is a common pathogen in mastitis, skin wounds, and abscesses that is also found in the environment? a. Proteus vulgaris b. Escherichia coli c. Strep d. Staph | D. Staph |
| The species of this genus can cause strangles in horses a. Strep b. Clostridium c. Pseudomonas d. Malassezia | A. Strep |
| A normal GI inhabitant in turkeys, chickens, and humans that can cause serious urinary tract infections, diarrhea, and tissue infections is a. Leptospira b. E. coli c. Pasteurella multocida d. Staphylococcus intermedius | B. E. Coli |
| What family of bacteria is the largest group of potential pathogens and the most frequently isolated bacteria? a. Actinomycetaceae b. Bacteroidaceae c. Enterobacteriaceae d. Micrococcaceae | C. Enterobacteriaceae |
| Skin scales and infected hair samples are mixed with ________ to dissolve the debris and aid in microscopic examination for fungal elements a. Hydrogen peroxide b. Acetic acid c. Physiologic saline d. Potassium hydroxide | D. Potassium hydroxide |
| The temperature of a bacterial incubator would most likely be a. 4 deg C b. 25 deg C c. 37 deg C d. 56 deg C | C. 37`C |
| What agar is used for antimicrobial susceptibility testing? a. Sabouraud agar b. Mueller-Hinton agar c. MacConkey agar d. Kligler iron agar | B. Mueller-Hinton agar |
| Which of the following is not a serology test? a. Latex agglutination b. Kinetic reaction c. Rapid immunomigration (RIM) d. ELISA | B. Kinetic reaction |
| Which of these immune responses refers to the production of antibodies? a. Innate b. Cell-mediated c. Humoral Cytotoxic | C. Humoral |
| What type of antibodies are used in serology test kits? a. Autoantibodies b. Monoclonal antibodies c. Neutralizing antibodies d. Sensitizing antibodies | B. Monoclonal antibodies |
| Which is least likely to be a sign of allergy? a. Face rubbing b. Ear problems c. Loss of appetite d. Skin rashes | C. Loss of appetite |
| Which intracellular parasite appears fairly large, paired, and teardrop-shaped when viewed microscopically? a. Mycoplasma felis b. Anaplasma marginale c. Babesia canis d. Ehrlichia canis | C. Babesia canis |
| An intracellular parasite, which appears as a structure called morula, found in the cytoplasm of leukocytes, is a. Babesia b. Ehrlichia c. Anaplasma d. Theileria | B. Ehrlichia |
| What ectoparasite is barely visible to the naked eye? a. Ticks b. Fleas c. Lice d. Mites | D. Mites |
| What ectoparasite has zoonotic potential? a. Demodex b. Notoedres c. Sarcoptes d. Psoroptes | C. Sarcoptes |
| In what analysis could heartworm microfilaria appear as an incidental finding? a. Differential cell count b. Modified Knott test c. Difil test d. ELISA test | A. Differential cell count |
| The instrument specifically designed to collect a fecal sample directly from the animal’s rectum is a a. Fecal extractor b. Fecal spoon c. Fecal loop d. Fecal scoop | C. Fecal loop |
| What is the minimum number of minutes a fecal floatation should stand before examination? a. 5 min b. 10 min c. 20 min d. 30 min | B. 10 minutes |
| Fecal specimens should be examined routinely with what objective? a. 4X b. 10X c. 40X d. 100X | B. 10X |
| What is not a concentration method for parasite ova detection? a. Fecal float b. Centrifugation c. Sedimentation d. Direct smear | D. Direct smear |
| What pair of parasites differs in morphology and size? a. Trichuris spp versus Capillaria sp b. Dipetalonema versus Dirofilaria microfilaria c. Toxocara canis versus Toxocara cati d. Ancylostoma versus Toxascaris | D. Ancylostoma and Toxacaris |
| The least sensitive diagnostic technique for finding microfilariae is a. Direct exam of blood b. Buffy coat method c. Modified Knott technique d. Difil test | A. Direct blood exam |
| Tapeworm infections are most often diagnosed in small animals by which of the following methods? a. Centrifugal fecal floatation b. Simple fecal floatation c. Direct smear d. Gross examination | D. Gross examination |
| An animal that tested positive for heartworm infection might also have an elevation of which of the following blood cells? a. Lwukocytes b. Lymphocytes c. Eosinophils d. Monocytes | Eosinophils |
| The modified Knotts technique for microfilaria has what two additives for east of heartworm diagnosis? a. Alcohol and gram stain b. Formalin and new methylene blue stan c. Wright stain and formalin d. New methylene blue and wright stain | B. Formalin and new methylene blue stan |
| Occult heartworm infections occur in approximately 90% of a. Dogs b. Horses c. Cats d. Humans | C. Cats |
| In what host do the sexually mature adult parasites live? a. Definitive b. Intermediate c. Transport d. Secondary | A. Definitive |
| What can the ELISA heartworm test detect that the Difil cannot? a. Dipetalonema b. Occult infection c. Microfilaria d. Anemia | B. Occult infection |
| The parasite that is distinguished by white, operculated eggs that are cemented to the hairs of its host is the a. Tick b. Flea c. Mite d. Louse | D. Louse |
| An ectoparasite known both for its host specificity and site specificity is the a. Louse b. Mite c. Tick d. Flea | A. Louse |
| 1.What tick the vector for Lyme disease? a. Argas persicus b. Ixodes scapularis c. Otobius mengninii d. Rhipicephalus sanguineus | B. Ixodes scapularis |
| Which of the following parasite ova is collected using a cellophane tape technique? a. Ancylostoma b. Dirfilaria c. Dipylidium d. Oxyuris | D. Oxyuris |
| What tick is a soft tick? a. Amblyomma b. Dermacentor c. Ixodes d. Otobius | D. otobius |
| The sarcoptic mange mite of the guinea pig is a. Sarcoptes caviae b. Trixacarus caviae c. Notoedres caviae d. Psoroptes caviae | B. Trixacarus caviae |
| The genus that is commonly known as the fur mite is a. Cheyletiella spp b. Trixacarus spp c. Psoroptes spp d. Notoedres spp | A. Cheyletiella spp |
| Which statement regarding Demodex is false? a. Live mites and/or eggs may be found in skin scrapings b. It is cigar-shaped c. It resides in the hair follicles and sebaceous glands of certain mammals d. It is highly contagious | D. It is highly contagious |
| What parasite can cause blockage of the cranial mesenteric artery in horses? a. Parascaris equi b. Oxyuris equi c. Strongyloides westeri d. Strongylus vulgaris | D. Strongylus vulgaris |
| Lyme disease is transmitted via: a. Deer tick b. Lone star tick c. American dog tick d. Brown dog tick | A. Deer tick |
| What protozoan disease causes an ascending paralysis in young dogs and abortion in cattle? a. Cryptosporidiosis b. EEE c. Neosporosis d. Brucellosis | C. Neosporosis |
| Cysts of what organism may be seen on a fecal flotation? a. Giardia b. Mycoplasma (Haemobartonella) c. Toxoplasmosis d. Trichomonas | A. Giardia |
| What is a tick-borne organism found in dogs? a. Toxoplasma b. Isospora c. Ehrlichia d. Cryptosporidium | C. Ehrlichia |
| Which of the following terms refers to an infestation with lice? a. Myiasis b. Acariasis c. Paraphimosis d. Pediculosis | D. Pediculosis |
| What does the occult heartworm test actually detect? a. Microfilariae b. L3 larvae c. Antibodies d. Immature female heartworms | C. Antibodies |
| What mite is the most damaging to cattle? a. Sarcoptes b. Chorioptes c. Psoroptes d. Demodex | C. Psoroptes |
| Which of the following is a tapeworm seen in horses? a. Acanthocephala b. Oxyuris c. Moniezia d. Anoplocephala | D. Anoplocephala |
| A skin scraping is used to diagnose what parasite? a. Bovicola b. Notoedres c. Otodectes d. Ctenocephalides | B. Notoedres |
| Which of the following is the largest intermediate form of a tapeworm? a. Cysticercus b. Hydatid cyst c. Coenurus d. Cysticercoid | B. Hydatid cyst |
| What protozoan parasite causes a venereal disease in cattle? a. Trypanosoma b. Giardia c. Tritrichomonas d. Babesia | C. Tritrichomonas |
| What parasites uses snails as a intermediate hosts? a. Toxocara b. Paragonimus c. Taenia d. Dipetalonema | B. Paragonimus |
| What equine parasite produces microfilariae, which causes patchy alopecia and depigmentation? a. Onchocerca b. Oxyuris c. Habronema d. Psoroptes | A. Onchocerca |
| What heartworm diagnostic test uses a concentration technique that increases the chance of seeing microfilariae? a. Agglutination test b. ELISA test c. Direct (wet mount) d. Filtration test (Difil) | D. Filtration test (Difil) |
| What canine parasite causes nodules in the esophagus, which may then become neoplastic? a. Physaloptera b. Filaroides c. Spirocirca d. Neosporum | C. Spirocirca |
| Which of the following parasites is not zoonotic? a. Toxoplasma b. Echinococcus c. Dipylidium d. Giardia | C. Dipylidium |
| Observing a “zippy” motility in fresh feces is used to help diagnose the presence of what parasite? a. Toxoplasma b. Mycoplasma (Haemobartonella) c. Tritrichomonas d. Alaria | C. Tritrichomonas |
| What fly is responsible for the greatest economic losses in U.S. cattle? a. Face fly b. Stable fly c. Screw worm fly d. Horn fly | D. Horn fly |
| What parasite causes malaria? a. Babesia b. Trypanosoma c. Plasmodium d. Anaplasma | C. Plasmodium |
| What fecal floatation solution is recommended when looking for Giradia cyts? a. Saturated sugar b. Sodium nitrate c. Zinc sulfate d. Saturated salt | C. Zinc sulfate |
| Visceral larval migrans is caused by the larvae of: a. Ancylostoma caninum b. Isospora canis c. Toxocara canis d. Taenia canis | C. Toxocara canis |
| Proglottids are produced by what parasite? a. Fluke b. Tick c. Mite d. Tapeworm | D. Tapeworm |
| What lungworm is found in cats? a. Dictyocaulus b. Capillaria plica c. Filaroides osleri d. Capillaria aerophila | D. Capillaria aerophila |
| What is the least likely way of transmitting Toxoplasma to a human? a. Ingesting ova from cat feces b. Drinking contaminated water c. Skin penetration d. Eating undercooked contaminated meat | C. Skin penetration |
| The fecal sedimentation technique is often needed to diagnose the presence of what bovine parasites? a. Dictyocaulus viviparous b. Fasciola hepatica c. Moniezia sp d. Strongyloides westeri | B. Fasciola hepatica |
| What small animal parasite ova resemble strongyle ova in horses? a. Ascarid b. Whipworm c. Hookworm d. Coccidia | C. Hookworms |
| Stomach bots are common in horses, but where are bots found in sheep? a. Small intestine b. Nasal passages c. Rumen d. Perianal region | B. Nasal passages |
| Occult heartworm infections are those in which: a. Microfilariae are absent b. L3 larvae are absent c. Adults are absent d. Antibodies are absent | A. Microfilariae are absent |
| What parasite causes blood loss, especially in young animals? a. Roundworm b. Tapeworm c. Heartworm d. Hookworm | D. Hookworm |
| What parasite causes a very pruritic disease in dogs? a. Cheyletiella b. Sarcoptes c. Demodex d. Dermacentor | B. Sarcoptes |
| Myiasis is an infestation of: a. Flies b. Mites c. Ticks d. Lice | A. Flies |
| What causes the sensitivity of the occult heartworm test to decrease? a. No microfilariae present b. Female worms only c. Male worms only d. No clinical signs | C. Male worms only |
| What systemic fungus is small and often found in the cytoplasm of macrophages? a. Aspergillus b. Blastomyces c. Histoplasma d. Cryptococcus | C. Histoplasma |
| Cestodes are a. Tapeworms b. Flukes c. Roundworms d. Thorny-headed worms | A. Tapeworms |
| Macroacanthorhynchus hirudinaceus, the parasite with the longest scientific name among parasites of domestic animals, is a parasite of: a. Cattle b. Horses c. Birds d. Pigs | D. Pigs |
| What adult parasite would be described as having a slender anterior end with its mouth at the tip and a thickened posterior extremeity? a. Heartworm b. Whipworm c. Tapeworm d. Hookworm | B. Whipworms |
| Trematodes are a. Tapeworms b. Flukes c. Roundworms d. Thorny-headed worms | B. Flukes |
| A gravid proglottid is a. An empty tapeworm segment b. A tapeworm larvae c. A tapeworm segment filled with eggs d. The tapeworm segment closest to the head | C. A tapeworm segment filled with eggs |
| When an Isospora oocyst is infective, how many sporozoites does it contain? a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16 | C. 8 |
| Which of these is a coccidian organism? a. Giardia b. Cryptosporidium c. Bunostomum d. Taenia | B. Cryptosporidium |
| Which of these is not a characteristic of Dirofilaria immitis? a. 310 u long b. Curved tail c. Straight tail d. Tapered head | B. Curved tail |
| Cheyletiella spp are a. Mites b. Nematodes c. Lice d. Ticks | A. Mites |
| Which of the following is not a fecal flotation medium? a. Potassium hydroxide b. Zinc sulfate c. Sodium nitrate d. Sugar solution | A. Potassium hydroxide |
| Which of these is not a stage of protozoan life cycle? a. Trophite b. Trophozoite c. Cyst d. Oocyst | A. Trophite |
| What are the tips of Trichuris vulpis ova called? a. Caps b. Opercula c. Ends d. Morulae | B. Opercula |
| Paragonimus kellicotti is a a. Tapeworm b. Tick c. Mite d. Fluke | D. Fluke |
| What parasite could cause anemia in horses through blood sucking? a. Strongylus vulgaris b. Parascaris equorum c. Anoplocephala perfoliata d. Dictyocaulus arnfieldi | A. Strongylus vulgaris |
| What parasite is the equine pinworm? a. Setaria equine b. Strongylus vulgaris c. Oxyuris equi d. Strongyloides westeri | C. Oxyuris equi |
| Where in an adult cow would you expect to find adult Haemonchus sp parasites? a. Trachea b. Bronchioles c. Abomasum d. Perianal region | C. Abomasum |
| TRUE or FALSE: The life span of heartworms in cats is shorter than in dogs | True |
| Which is a lentivirus? a. Coronavirus b. FIV c. Herpes virus d. Parvovirus | B. FIV |
| TRUE or FALSE: Chewing lice have a head that is broader than the thorax, whereas sucking lice have a head that is narrower than the thorax | TRUE |
| A farmer acquired livestock from Louisiana and is concerned they may have Fasciola hepatica. What fecal examination method will give the best chance of finding the eggs of this parasite? a. Sedimentation b. Centrifuge float c. Simple float | A. Sedimentation |
| A wet mount of parasite eggs is three-dimensional, therefore when examining the slide under the microscope, you must: a. Lower the condenser b. close the iris diaphragm c. Continually adjust the focus d. use the highest power objective | C. Continually adjust the focus |
| What common disadvantage do direct smear and fecal sedimentation methods share? a. neither is a c concentrating method b. Both test very small samples c. Fecal debris makes microscopic exam difficult d. more time consuming to perform | C. Fecal debris makes microscopic exam difficult |
| Why aren't flotation solutions with specific grvavities over 1.300 not commonly used? a. very saturated, difficult to make b. they would distort ova c. prohibitively expensive d. not necessary | B. They would distort ova |
| What's best method in obtaining sample for dermatophyte determination a. take hair from periphery of lesion b. impression smear of the lesion c. take hair from the center of lesion d. skin scrape from center of lesion | A. Take hair from periphery of lesion |
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Jessica.estes2001
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