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BMC - LAB II

HOMEWORK

QuestionAnswer
WHAT IS THE MORPHOLOGY OF VIBRO SP. BACTERIA BACILLUS
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN IMPORTANT FUNCTION OF BACTERIAL FIMBRIAE ATTACHMENT
BACTERIAL ENDOSPORES ARE: RESISTANT TO HEAT AND DESICCATION
SARCINNAE MORPHOLOGY REFERS TO WHAT KIND OF BACTERIAL ARRANGEMENT CUBES OF EIGHT
IN THE GRAM STAIN PROCEDURE, THE MORDANT IS IODINE
A BACTERIAL GENUS CAN BEST BE DESCRIBED AS COMPOSED OF ONE OR MORE SPECIES
AN IODINE SCRUB ON SKIN WOULD RESULT IN ANTISEPSIS
LYOPHILIZATION IS FREEZE-DRYING
COMPARED TO BACTERIA, FUNGI NEED LESS MOISTURE TO SURVIVE
IN THE BACTERIAL NAME BORRELIA BURGDORFERI, WHAT DOES BORGDORFERI REPRESENT SPECIES
THE TEMPERATURE THAT MUST BE REACHED IN AN AUTOCLAVE TO DESTROY MICROORGANISMS IS_______ 121*C
THE HUMOR IMMUNE SYSTEM INVOLVES B CELLS
A PRODROMAL PERIOD INVOLVES EARLY SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS
A NON-GRAM STAINING BACTERIUM IS LEPTOSPIRA
A HOSPITAL AQUIRED DISEASE IS NOSOCOMIAL
TETANUS IS CONSIDERED NONCOMMUNICABLE
TYPES OF EFFECTOR T CELLS INCLUDE HELPER T CELLS
WHAT IS AN EXAMPLE OF A GRAM NEGATIVE BACTERIUM PASTEURELLA
IT IS THE MOST DIFFICULT TO FIND ANTIMICROBIALS FOR: VIRUSES
ROCKY MOUNTAIN SPOTTED FEVER IS MORE PREVALENT IN: THE SOUTHEASTERN UNITED STATES
THE ETIOLOGIC AGENT OF LYME DISEASE IS BURRELIA BURGDORFERI
IN THE NAME STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS, STAPHYLOCOCCUS IS THE: GENUS
THE COUNTERSTAIN IN GRAM STAIN IS SAFRANIN
MOST BACTERIA GROW BEST AT PH 7
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN IMPORTANT FUNCTION OF BACTERIAL FLAGELLA LOCOMOTION
WHAT PARASITE HAS ONLY THE CAT AS THE DEFINITIVE HOST TOXOPLASMA
WHAT IS NOT A METHOD OF CULTERING ANIMAL VIRUSES AGAR PLATE INOCULATION
WHAT IMMUNOGLOBULIN IS USUALLY PRESENT IN GREATEST QUANTITY IGG
THE MOST COMMON PORTAL OF ENTRY FOR MICROORGANISMS INTO THE BODY IS RESPIRATORY TRACT
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WOULD BE PARENTERAL ROUTE OF PATHOGEN TRANSMISSION TRANSFUSION
ADAPTIVE OR SPECIFIC IMMUNITY INCLUDES THE RESPONSE OF THE DEFENSES OF THE BODY TO A SPECIFIC SUBSTANCE
IGA IS FOUND IN BODY SECRETIONS
IGD IS FOUND ON LYMPHOCYTE MEMBRANES
IGE IS FOUND ON LYMPHOCYTE MEMBRANES
ANTIBODY TITER IS A TEST THAT MEASURES THE LEVEL OF ANTIBOSY IN SERUM
BY DEFINITION, AN ALLERGEN IS A MATERIAL THAT INVOKES AN A LLERGIC RESPONSE
WITH RESPECT TO IMMUNOLOGY, TOLERANCE MEANS THE LACK OF RESPONSIVENESS BY THE IMMUNE SYSTEM
THE TYPE OF IMMUNITY THAT IS THE FUNCTIONOF B CELLS THAT TRANSOFRM INTO PLASMA CELLS AND PRODUCE PROTECTIVE PROTEINS, CALLED ANTIBODIES, AGAINST ANTIGENS IS HUMORAL
WHEN T CELLS ARE PROCESSED IN THE ________, THEY DEVELOP SPECIFIC ANTIGEN RECEPTORS ON THEIR CELL MEMBRANES THYMUS
THE THIRD LINE OF DEFENSE AGAINST FOREIGN INVADERS IN THE BODY IS SPECIFIC IMMUNITY
CELL-MEDIATED IMMUNITY IS THE FUNCTION OF _____THAT ATTACH TO ANTIGENIC SITES ON THE SURFACE OF FOREIGN CELLS T CELLS
NUTRITIVE MEDIA WILL GROW ALMOST ALL TYPES OF BACTERIA
SELECTIVE MEDIA GROW SELECTS FOR GRAM NEGATIVE ORGANISMS
TRIPLICATE SOY AGAR IS A NUTRITIVE MEDIA
MACCONKEY AGAR SELECTS FOR GRAM NEGATIVE ORGANISMS
THE MOST IMPORTANT LABORATORY PROCEDURE FOR MICROBIOLOGIC DIAGNOSIS IS DIRCT MICROSCOPIC EXAM OF THE SPECIMEN
DERMATOPHYTE TEST MEDIUM IS USED TO IDENTIFY FUNGAL PATHOGENS
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS CONSIDERED STERILE LOWER RESPIRATORY TRACT
The fecal solution most likely to be successful in detecting Giardia cysts is a. Sodium chloride b. Sodium nitrate c. Zinc sulfate d. Physiologic saline C. Zinc sulfate
A 4 year old dog has a chronic cough and the veterinarian has included Filaroides on his list of possible diagnoses. What is the common name of this parasite? a. Tapeworm b. Roundworm c. Whipworm d. Lungworm D. Lungworm
Which of the following nematode are characterized by an ovoid egg with a thin shell and a morulated embryo? a. Toxascaris leonine b. Toxocara canis c. Trichuris vulpis d. Ancylostoma caninum D. Ancylostoma caninum
What is a proper lens cleaner to use for the care and maintenance of a compound microscope? a. Saline b. Xylene c. Hydrogen peroxide d. Sodium bicarbonate B. Xylene
A cytologic sample collected with a cotton swab should be applied to a microscope slide with a ______ action. a. Smearing b. Rolling c. Dabbing d. Rubbing B. Rolling
Fluid samples collected through fine-needle aspiration should be collected into a. An EDTA tube b. A heparinized syringe c. A clot tube d. A citrate tube A, An EDTA tube
Preparation for fine-needle aspirate of a joint or body cavity would include a. Preparation as for venipuncture b. Washing the area with sterile water c. Preparation as for surgery d. Washing the area with physiologic saline C. preparation as for surgery
A method for diagnosing Cheyletiella is a. Tissue biopsy b. Fungal culture c. Fine-needle aspirate d. Cellophane tape method D. Cellophane tape method
A Wood’s Lamp is used to examine an animal for the presence of a. Demodex b. Scabies c. Ringworm d. Pinworm C. Ringworm
A fecal smear can be stained for fat. An increased amount of fat is indicative of a. Dyschezia b. Dysentery c. Steatorrhea d. Tenesmus C. Steatorrhea
The stain used to stain undigested fecal starch is a. New Methylene blue b. Ligol iodine c. Sudan d. Gentian violet B. Ligol iodine
Transmission of coccidian occurs by a. Ingesting oocytes b. Direct bodily contact c. Transmammary transmission d. Transplacental transmission A. Ingesting oocytes
Which of the following would be considered an abnormal finding on healthy canine external ear canal cytology? a. Cerumen b. Epithelial cells c. Malassezia d. Debris C. Malassezia
Incubation time to grow aerobic bacteria is typically a. 6 hours b. 12 hours c. 24 hours d. 48 hours C. 24 hours
Which of the following is an example of selective medium? a. MacConkey b. Mueller-Hinton c. Trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood d. Trypticase soy agar A. MacConkey
Trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood is used a. As an enrichment medium b. To show hemolytic reactions c. To select for Staph d. To inhibit growth of Salmonella B. To show hemolytic reactions
The Fungassay test medium is selective for what organism? a. Trichophyton b. Trichuris c. Toxoplasma d. Tritrichomonas A. Trichophyton
Chocolate agar is used predominantly to grow a. Proteus vulgaris b. E. coli c. Microsporum gypseum d. Brucella abortus D. Brucella abortus
The causative agent of Lyme disease is a. Bordetella bronchiseptica b. Borrelia burgdorferi c. Moraxella bovis d. Mycoplasma pulmonis B. Borelia burgdorferi
Which of these ectoparasites is zoonotic? a. Demodex b. Cnemidocoptes c. Sarcoptes d. Otodectes C. Sarcoptes
Which of the following mites is commonly found in rabbits and large animals a. Cnemidocopes b. Sarcoptes c. Psoroptes d. Otodectes C. Psoroptes
What endoparasite larva causes creeping eruptions in humans? a. Whipworm b. Tapeworm c. Pinworm d. Hookworm D. Hookworm
When culturing a swab for bacterial identification, which of the following media should be used? a. TSI, BAP, CAMPY b. EMB, BAP, MAC c. BAP, CAN, MAC d. CNA, TSI, MSA C. BAP, CAN, MAC
The nonpathogenic gram-positive rods found on skin are a. Diphtheroids b. Coliforms c. Anaerobes d. Dermatophytes A. Diphtheroids
To get the best results, all fecal cultures are a. Inoculated onto BAP, CNA, and TsB b. Inoculated onto MAC, SS, and GN c. Inoculated onto MH, SS, and THIO d. Inoculated onto BAP, MAC, and SS A. Inoculated onto BAP, CNA. and TsB
Fungal cultures are a. Incubated at room temperature b. Incubated in a microaerophilic environment c. Incubated at body temperature d. Incubated in anaerobic environment A. Incubated at room temperature
Staphylococcus aureus a. Is catalase-positive b. Is coagulase negative c. Grows in an aerobic environment only Is gram negative A. Is catalase-positive
Streptococci a. Are catalase positive b. Are catalase negative c. Resemble shooting stars when grown in tube media d. Are never hemolytic like staphylococcus B. Are catalase negative
Enterobacteriaceae are found in what part of the body? a. Lungs b. Intestines c. Skin d. Stomach B. Intestines
Which of the following is a spreading organism when grown on agar plates? a. Staph b. Strep c. Shigella d. Proteus D. Proteus
Which of the following is considered a serious primary pathogen in birds, reptiles, and amphibians? a. Pseudomonas b. Shigella c. Staph d. Micrococcus A. Pseudoomonas
Which of the following bacteria is a gram negative spirochete? a. Staph b. Strep c. Micrococcus d. Campylobacter D. Campylobacter
Candida albicans may cause many different diseases, especially when there is a predisposing condition such as a. Vegetarian diet b. Primary bacterial infection c. Prolonged analgesic use d. Carnivorous diet B. Primary bacterial infection
Kittens are most likely to get roundworms (Toxocara) by what route? a. Fecal-oral b. Transplacental c. Transmammary d. Skin penetration C. Transmammary
A route of infection by hookworms that is not shared by roundworms is: a. Ingestion of infective stage b. Transplacental c. Transmammary d. Skin penetration D. Skin penetration
In appearance, hookworm ova resemble ________ ova a. Strongyle b. Whipworm c. Roundworm d. Pinworm A. Strongyle
Finding proglottids around a dog’s anus indicates infection with a. Flukes b. Tapeworms c. Pinworms d. Hookworms B. Tapeworms
The intermediate host for heartworms is the a. Flea b. Rodent c. Mosquito d. Snail C. Mosquito
Serology tests can detect heartworms in a dog’s blood a. Immediately after becoming infected b. Several days after becoming infected c. Several weeks after becoming infected d. Several months after becoming infected D. Several months after becoming infected
Heartworm treatment begins with killing the a. Eggs b. Infective L3 larvae c. Microfilaria d. Adult worms D. Adult worms
What is not a type of coccidian? a. Isospora b. Cryptosporidium c. Toxoplasma d. Giardia D. Giardia
What are two diagnostic forms of Giardia? a. Cysts and trophozoites b. Merozoites and schizonts c. Oocysts and sporocytes d. Ova and L3 larvae A. Cysts and Trophozoites
Compared to a roundworm ova, coccidian appear a. Smaller b. The same size c. Twice as large d. Three times as large A. Smaller
The roundworm of horses is a. Strongylus sp b. Oxyuris sp c. Anoplocephala sp d. Parascaris sp D. Parascaris sp
The difference in appearance between small and large strongyle ova in horses is a. Size b. Shape c. Color d. None; they look alike A. Size
Ruminant ova such as Haemonchus, Ostertagia, Trichostrongylus, and Cooperia resemble canine a. Roundworms b. Hookworms c. Tapeworms d. Whipworms B. Hookworms
Which of the following protozoan parasites of cattle causes abortion or fetal resorption? a. Tritrichomonas b. Eimeria c. Giardia d. Cryptosporidium A. Tritrichomonas
Gram negative bacteria retain what component of the gram stain? a. Crystal violet b. Iodine solution c. Decolorizer d. Safranin D. Safranin
Which of these is a primary medium and would be used for initial inoculation of a sample? a. Triple-sugar iron b. Trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood c. Citrate d. Urea B. Trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood
What media is selective for gram negative bacteria? a. MacConkey b. BAP (Blood agar plate) c. Mannitol salt agar d. Mueller-Hinton agar A. MacConkey
The catalase and coagulase tests are used in the presumptive identification of a. Gram negative bacteria b. Gram positive bacteria c. Saprophytes d. Dermatophytes B. Gram positive bacteria
What gram negative bacteria may “swarm” a blood agar plate, leaving a film over the entire surface? a. Pseudomonas sp b. Staph sp c. Proteus sp d. Escherichia coli C. Proteus sp
What microorganisms are frequently recovered from the ears of dogs with chronic otitis externa? a. Candida sp b. Cryptococcus sp c. Microsporum sp d. Malassezia sp D. Malassezia sp.
What microorgansism is an etiologic agent of ringworm? a. Microsporum sp b. Mycobacterium sp c. Micrococcus sp d. Moraxella sp A. Microsporum sp.
The species of this genus are common contaminants and the causative agent of anthrax a. Escherichia b. Corynebacterium c. Bacillus d. Enterobacter C. Bacillius
What is a common pathogen in mastitis, skin wounds, and abscesses that is also found in the environment? a. Proteus vulgaris b. Escherichia coli c. Strep d. Staph D. Staph
The species of this genus can cause strangles in horses a. Strep b. Clostridium c. Pseudomonas d. Malassezia A. Strep
A normal GI inhabitant in turkeys, chickens, and humans that can cause serious urinary tract infections, diarrhea, and tissue infections is a. Leptospira b. E. coli c. Pasteurella multocida d. Staphylococcus intermedius B. E. Coli
What family of bacteria is the largest group of potential pathogens and the most frequently isolated bacteria? a. Actinomycetaceae b. Bacteroidaceae c. Enterobacteriaceae d. Micrococcaceae C. Enterobacteriaceae
Skin scales and infected hair samples are mixed with ________ to dissolve the debris and aid in microscopic examination for fungal elements a. Hydrogen peroxide b. Acetic acid c. Physiologic saline d. Potassium hydroxide D. Potassium hydroxide
The temperature of a bacterial incubator would most likely be a. 4 deg C b. 25 deg C c. 37 deg C d. 56 deg C C. 37`C
What agar is used for antimicrobial susceptibility testing? a. Sabouraud agar b. Mueller-Hinton agar c. MacConkey agar d. Kligler iron agar B. Mueller-Hinton agar
Which of the following is not a serology test? a. Latex agglutination b. Kinetic reaction c. Rapid immunomigration (RIM) d. ELISA B. Kinetic reaction
Which of these immune responses refers to the production of antibodies? a. Innate b. Cell-mediated c. Humoral Cytotoxic C. Humoral
What type of antibodies are used in serology test kits? a. Autoantibodies b. Monoclonal antibodies c. Neutralizing antibodies d. Sensitizing antibodies B. Monoclonal antibodies
Which is least likely to be a sign of allergy? a. Face rubbing b. Ear problems c. Loss of appetite d. Skin rashes C. Loss of appetite
Which intracellular parasite appears fairly large, paired, and teardrop-shaped when viewed microscopically? a. Mycoplasma felis b. Anaplasma marginale c. Babesia canis d. Ehrlichia canis C. Babesia canis
An intracellular parasite, which appears as a structure called morula, found in the cytoplasm of leukocytes, is a. Babesia b. Ehrlichia c. Anaplasma d. Theileria B. Ehrlichia
What ectoparasite is barely visible to the naked eye? a. Ticks b. Fleas c. Lice d. Mites D. Mites
What ectoparasite has zoonotic potential? a. Demodex b. Notoedres c. Sarcoptes d. Psoroptes C. Sarcoptes
In what analysis could heartworm microfilaria appear as an incidental finding? a. Differential cell count b. Modified Knott test c. Difil test d. ELISA test A. Differential cell count
The instrument specifically designed to collect a fecal sample directly from the animal’s rectum is a a. Fecal extractor b. Fecal spoon c. Fecal loop d. Fecal scoop C. Fecal loop
What is the minimum number of minutes a fecal floatation should stand before examination? a. 5 min b. 10 min c. 20 min d. 30 min B. 10 minutes
Fecal specimens should be examined routinely with what objective? a. 4X b. 10X c. 40X d. 100X B. 10X
What is not a concentration method for parasite ova detection? a. Fecal float b. Centrifugation c. Sedimentation d. Direct smear D. Direct smear
What pair of parasites differs in morphology and size? a. Trichuris spp versus Capillaria sp b. Dipetalonema versus Dirofilaria microfilaria c. Toxocara canis versus Toxocara cati d. Ancylostoma versus Toxascaris D. Ancylostoma and Toxacaris
The least sensitive diagnostic technique for finding microfilariae is a. Direct exam of blood b. Buffy coat method c. Modified Knott technique d. Difil test A. Direct blood exam
Tapeworm infections are most often diagnosed in small animals by which of the following methods? a. Centrifugal fecal floatation b. Simple fecal floatation c. Direct smear d. Gross examination D. Gross examination
An animal that tested positive for heartworm infection might also have an elevation of which of the following blood cells? a. Lwukocytes b. Lymphocytes c. Eosinophils d. Monocytes Eosinophils
The modified Knotts technique for microfilaria has what two additives for east of heartworm diagnosis? a. Alcohol and gram stain b. Formalin and new methylene blue stan c. Wright stain and formalin d. New methylene blue and wright stain B. Formalin and new methylene blue stan
Occult heartworm infections occur in approximately 90% of a. Dogs b. Horses c. Cats d. Humans C. Cats
In what host do the sexually mature adult parasites live? a. Definitive b. Intermediate c. Transport d. Secondary A. Definitive
What can the ELISA heartworm test detect that the Difil cannot? a. Dipetalonema b. Occult infection c. Microfilaria d. Anemia B. Occult infection
The parasite that is distinguished by white, operculated eggs that are cemented to the hairs of its host is the a. Tick b. Flea c. Mite d. Louse D. Louse
An ectoparasite known both for its host specificity and site specificity is the a. Louse b. Mite c. Tick d. Flea A. Louse
1.What tick the vector for Lyme disease? a. Argas persicus b. Ixodes scapularis c. Otobius mengninii d. Rhipicephalus sanguineus B. Ixodes scapularis
Which of the following parasite ova is collected using a cellophane tape technique? a. Ancylostoma b. Dirfilaria c. Dipylidium d. Oxyuris D. Oxyuris
What tick is a soft tick? a. Amblyomma b. Dermacentor c. Ixodes d. Otobius D. otobius
The sarcoptic mange mite of the guinea pig is a. Sarcoptes caviae b. Trixacarus caviae c. Notoedres caviae d. Psoroptes caviae B. Trixacarus caviae
The genus that is commonly known as the fur mite is a. Cheyletiella spp b. Trixacarus spp c. Psoroptes spp d. Notoedres spp A. Cheyletiella spp
Which statement regarding Demodex is false? a. Live mites and/or eggs may be found in skin scrapings b. It is cigar-shaped c. It resides in the hair follicles and sebaceous glands of certain mammals d. It is highly contagious D. It is highly contagious
What parasite can cause blockage of the cranial mesenteric artery in horses? a. Parascaris equi b. Oxyuris equi c. Strongyloides westeri d. Strongylus vulgaris D. Strongylus vulgaris
Lyme disease is transmitted via: a. Deer tick b. Lone star tick c. American dog tick d. Brown dog tick A. Deer tick
What protozoan disease causes an ascending paralysis in young dogs and abortion in cattle? a. Cryptosporidiosis b. EEE c. Neosporosis d. Brucellosis C. Neosporosis
Cysts of what organism may be seen on a fecal flotation? a. Giardia b. Mycoplasma (Haemobartonella) c. Toxoplasmosis d. Trichomonas A. Giardia
What is a tick-borne organism found in dogs? a. Toxoplasma b. Isospora c. Ehrlichia d. Cryptosporidium C. Ehrlichia
Which of the following terms refers to an infestation with lice? a. Myiasis b. Acariasis c. Paraphimosis d. Pediculosis D. Pediculosis
What does the occult heartworm test actually detect? a. Microfilariae b. L3 larvae c. Antibodies d. Immature female heartworms C. Antibodies
What mite is the most damaging to cattle? a. Sarcoptes b. Chorioptes c. Psoroptes d. Demodex C. Psoroptes
Which of the following is a tapeworm seen in horses? a. Acanthocephala b. Oxyuris c. Moniezia d. Anoplocephala D. Anoplocephala
A skin scraping is used to diagnose what parasite? a. Bovicola b. Notoedres c. Otodectes d. Ctenocephalides B. Notoedres
Which of the following is the largest intermediate form of a tapeworm? a. Cysticercus b. Hydatid cyst c. Coenurus d. Cysticercoid B. Hydatid cyst
What protozoan parasite causes a venereal disease in cattle? a. Trypanosoma b. Giardia c. Tritrichomonas d. Babesia C. Tritrichomonas
What parasites uses snails as a intermediate hosts? a. Toxocara b. Paragonimus c. Taenia d. Dipetalonema B. Paragonimus
What equine parasite produces microfilariae, which causes patchy alopecia and depigmentation? a. Onchocerca b. Oxyuris c. Habronema d. Psoroptes A. Onchocerca
What heartworm diagnostic test uses a concentration technique that increases the chance of seeing microfilariae? a. Agglutination test b. ELISA test c. Direct (wet mount) d. Filtration test (Difil) D. Filtration test (Difil)
What canine parasite causes nodules in the esophagus, which may then become neoplastic? a. Physaloptera b. Filaroides c. Spirocirca d. Neosporum C. Spirocirca
Which of the following parasites is not zoonotic? a. Toxoplasma b. Echinococcus c. Dipylidium d. Giardia C. Dipylidium
Observing a “zippy” motility in fresh feces is used to help diagnose the presence of what parasite? a. Toxoplasma b. Mycoplasma (Haemobartonella) c. Tritrichomonas d. Alaria C. Tritrichomonas
What fly is responsible for the greatest economic losses in U.S. cattle? a. Face fly b. Stable fly c. Screw worm fly d. Horn fly D. Horn fly
What parasite causes malaria? a. Babesia b. Trypanosoma c. Plasmodium d. Anaplasma C. Plasmodium
What fecal floatation solution is recommended when looking for Giradia cyts? a. Saturated sugar b. Sodium nitrate c. Zinc sulfate d. Saturated salt C. Zinc sulfate
Visceral larval migrans is caused by the larvae of: a. Ancylostoma caninum b. Isospora canis c. Toxocara canis d. Taenia canis C. Toxocara canis
Proglottids are produced by what parasite? a. Fluke b. Tick c. Mite d. Tapeworm D. Tapeworm
What lungworm is found in cats? a. Dictyocaulus b. Capillaria plica c. Filaroides osleri d. Capillaria aerophila D. Capillaria aerophila
What is the least likely way of transmitting Toxoplasma to a human? a. Ingesting ova from cat feces b. Drinking contaminated water c. Skin penetration d. Eating undercooked contaminated meat C. Skin penetration
The fecal sedimentation technique is often needed to diagnose the presence of what bovine parasites? a. Dictyocaulus viviparous b. Fasciola hepatica c. Moniezia sp d. Strongyloides westeri B. Fasciola hepatica
What small animal parasite ova resemble strongyle ova in horses? a. Ascarid b. Whipworm c. Hookworm d. Coccidia C. Hookworms
Stomach bots are common in horses, but where are bots found in sheep? a. Small intestine b. Nasal passages c. Rumen d. Perianal region B. Nasal passages
Occult heartworm infections are those in which: a. Microfilariae are absent b. L3 larvae are absent c. Adults are absent d. Antibodies are absent A. Microfilariae are absent
What parasite causes blood loss, especially in young animals? a. Roundworm b. Tapeworm c. Heartworm d. Hookworm D. Hookworm
What parasite causes a very pruritic disease in dogs? a. Cheyletiella b. Sarcoptes c. Demodex d. Dermacentor B. Sarcoptes
Myiasis is an infestation of: a. Flies b. Mites c. Ticks d. Lice A. Flies
What causes the sensitivity of the occult heartworm test to decrease? a. No microfilariae present b. Female worms only c. Male worms only d. No clinical signs C. Male worms only
What systemic fungus is small and often found in the cytoplasm of macrophages? a. Aspergillus b. Blastomyces c. Histoplasma d. Cryptococcus C. Histoplasma
Cestodes are a. Tapeworms b. Flukes c. Roundworms d. Thorny-headed worms A. Tapeworms
Macroacanthorhynchus hirudinaceus, the parasite with the longest scientific name among parasites of domestic animals, is a parasite of: a. Cattle b. Horses c. Birds d. Pigs D. Pigs
What adult parasite would be described as having a slender anterior end with its mouth at the tip and a thickened posterior extremeity? a. Heartworm b. Whipworm c. Tapeworm d. Hookworm B. Whipworms
Trematodes are a. Tapeworms b. Flukes c. Roundworms d. Thorny-headed worms B. Flukes
A gravid proglottid is a. An empty tapeworm segment b. A tapeworm larvae c. A tapeworm segment filled with eggs d. The tapeworm segment closest to the head C. A tapeworm segment filled with eggs
When an Isospora oocyst is infective, how many sporozoites does it contain? a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16 C. 8
Which of these is a coccidian organism? a. Giardia b. Cryptosporidium c. Bunostomum d. Taenia B. Cryptosporidium
Which of these is not a characteristic of Dirofilaria immitis? a. 310 u long b. Curved tail c. Straight tail d. Tapered head B. Curved tail
Cheyletiella spp are a. Mites b. Nematodes c. Lice d. Ticks A. Mites
Which of the following is not a fecal flotation medium? a. Potassium hydroxide b. Zinc sulfate c. Sodium nitrate d. Sugar solution A. Potassium hydroxide
Which of these is not a stage of protozoan life cycle? a. Trophite b. Trophozoite c. Cyst d. Oocyst A. Trophite
What are the tips of Trichuris vulpis ova called? a. Caps b. Opercula c. Ends d. Morulae B. Opercula
Paragonimus kellicotti is a a. Tapeworm b. Tick c. Mite d. Fluke D. Fluke
What parasite could cause anemia in horses through blood sucking? a. Strongylus vulgaris b. Parascaris equorum c. Anoplocephala perfoliata d. Dictyocaulus arnfieldi A. Strongylus vulgaris
What parasite is the equine pinworm? a. Setaria equine b. Strongylus vulgaris c. Oxyuris equi d. Strongyloides westeri C. Oxyuris equi
Where in an adult cow would you expect to find adult Haemonchus sp parasites? a. Trachea b. Bronchioles c. Abomasum d. Perianal region C. Abomasum
TRUE or FALSE: The life span of heartworms in cats is shorter than in dogs True
Which is a lentivirus? a. Coronavirus b. FIV c. Herpes virus d. Parvovirus B. FIV
TRUE or FALSE: Chewing lice have a head that is broader than the thorax, whereas sucking lice have a head that is narrower than the thorax TRUE
A farmer acquired livestock from Louisiana and is concerned they may have Fasciola hepatica. What fecal examination method will give the best chance of finding the eggs of this parasite? a. Sedimentation b. Centrifuge float c. Simple float A. Sedimentation
A wet mount of parasite eggs is three-dimensional, therefore when examining the slide under the microscope, you must: a. Lower the condenser b. close the iris diaphragm c. Continually adjust the focus d. use the highest power objective C. Continually adjust the focus
What common disadvantage do direct smear and fecal sedimentation methods share? a. neither is a c concentrating method b. Both test very small samples c. Fecal debris makes microscopic exam difficult d. more time consuming to perform C. Fecal debris makes microscopic exam difficult
Why aren't flotation solutions with specific grvavities over 1.300 not commonly used? a. very saturated, difficult to make b. they would distort ova c. prohibitively expensive d. not necessary B. They would distort ova
What's best method in obtaining sample for dermatophyte determination a. take hair from periphery of lesion b. impression smear of the lesion c. take hair from the center of lesion d. skin scrape from center of lesion A. Take hair from periphery of lesion