Busy. Please wait.
or

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 
or

Username is available taken
show password

why


Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
We do not share your email address with others. It is only used to allow you to reset your password. For details read our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.


Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.
Don't know
Know
remaining cards
Save
0:01
To flip the current card, click it or press the Spacebar key.  To move the current card to one of the three colored boxes, click on the box.  You may also press the UP ARROW key to move the card to the "Know" box, the DOWN ARROW key to move the card to the "Don't know" box, or the RIGHT ARROW key to move the card to the Remaining box.  You may also click on the card displayed in any of the three boxes to bring that card back to the center.

Pass complete!

"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
Retries:
restart all cards
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

BMC - LAB II

QUIZES

QuestionAnswer
PARASCARIS EQUORUM EQUINE ROUNDWORM
TOXOCARA VITULORUM CATTLE ROUNDWORM
ASCARIS SUUM SWINE ROUNDWORM
ANCYCLOSTOMA SPP CANINE AND FELINE HOOKWORMS
UNCINARIA STENECEPHALA NORTHERN CANINE HOOKWORM
BUNOSTOMUM PHLEBOTOMUM RUMINANT HOOKWORM
TOXOCARA CANIS, T. CATI, AND T. LEONINA CANINE AND FELINE ROUNDWORMS
STRONGYLUS VULGARIS, S. ENDENTATUS, S. EQUINUS EQUINE LARGE STRONGYLES
OLLULANUS TRICUSPIS FELINE TRICHOSTRONGYLE
DICTYOCAULUS ARNFIELDI EQUINE LUNGWORM
METASTRONGYLOIDEA HAIR LUNGWORMS
TRICHURIS VULPIS CANINE WHIPWORM
CAPILLARIA PLICA (PEARSONEMAPLICA0 CANINE AND FELINE BLADDER WORM
OXYURIS EQUI EQUINE PINWORN
THELAZIA CALIFORNEIENSIS CANINE AND FELINE EYEWORM
THELAZIA RHODESII, T. GULOSA CATTLE, SHEEP, AND GOAT EYEWORMS
HABRONEMA SPP, DRASCHIA MEGASTOMA EQUINE STOMACH WORMS
DIOCTOPHYMA RENALE CANINE GIANT KIDNEY WORM
STEPHANURUS DENTATUS SWINE KIDNEY WORM
DIROFILARIA IMMITIS CANINE HEARTWORM
WHAT ARE TWO COMMON INTESTINAL PARASITES THAT PUPPIES AND KITTENS ARE INFECTED WITH ROUNDWORMS AND HOOKWORMS
WHAT ARE THE POSIBLE ROUTES OF TRANSMISSION FOR INTESTINAL PARASITES THAT PUPPIES AND KITTENS GET FECAL-ORAL; TRANSPLACENTAL; TRANSMAMMARY
WHICH NEMATODE EGG HAS A SPHERICAL, DARK BROWN, THICK WALLED, PITTED APPEARANCE ROUNDWORMS
WHICH NEMATODE HAS AN EGG THAT IS OVAL OR ELLIPSOID WITH THIN WALLS AND 8-16 CELLS INSIDE HOOKWORMS
WHICH PARASITE HAS AN EGG WITH A THICK YELLOW-BROWN SYMMETRICAL SHELL WITH POLAR PLUGS AT BOTH ENDS WHIPWORMS
IF SEVERE ENOUGH, WHICH INTESTINAL PARASITTE IS MOST LIKELY TO CAUSE ANEMIA OR EVEN DEATH HOOKWORMS
A ROUTE OF INFECTION BY HOOKWORMS THAT IS NOT SHARED WITH ROUNDWORMS IS TRANSDERMAL
IN APPEARANCE, HOOKWORM EGGS IN SMALL ANIMALS CLOSELY RESEMBLE THE ________ EGGS IN LARGE ANIMAL STRONGYLE
WHAT IS AN INTERMEDIATE HOST THE ANIMAL WHERE THE IMMATURE PARASITE LIVES AND GOES THROUGH LIFE CHANGES
THE HEAD OF A CESTODE IS CALLED THE ___________,WHILE THE BODY IS CALLED _________ SCOLEX, STROBILA
WHAT PARASITE HAS AN OPERCULATED EGG CONTAINING A LARVA KNOWN AS A CORACIDIUM PSEUDOTAPEWORMS
Dipylidium caninum is the most common tapeworm of dogs and cats, and is diagnosed by finding _________ in the stool or in the perianal fur/area. A mammal must ingest a ______ in order to be infected with this tapeworm. proglottids, flea
Dogs can be infected with which taeniid tapeworm by ingesting rabbits or hares? Taenia pisiformis
What tapeworms have the most zoonotic significance? Echinococcus
This parasite is known as the "zipper tapeworm" and affect dogs and cats near the Gulf coast. Spirometra sp
________ are equine tapeworms, while _________ are ruminant tapeworms Anoplocephala spp.; Moniezia spp
_____________ are a type of flatworm, commonly known as flukes that typically have a ___________ as an intermediate host Trematodes, mollusk
Paragonimus kelicotti lung fluke of dogs and cats
Platynosomum fastosum lizard poisoning fluke of cats
Fasciola hepatica liver fluke of ruminants
Nanophyetus salmincola salmon poisoning fluke of dogs
Dicrocoelium dendriticum lancet fluke of ruminants
__________ are single-celled organisms with only a fraction that are parasitic. The __________ are blood parasites and frequently have _______ as the intermediate hosts. Protozoa, hemoprotozoa, ticks
The life cycle of protozoa includes two forms. The _________ is the vegetative form when feeding, movement, and locomotion occur. The ________ is the infective form when metabolic function is supended to prevent __________. trophozoite, cyst, desiccation)
____________ is a flagellated protozoan which can be found in the stool of dogs or cats with diarrhea. giardia
This hemoprotozoan can manifest as a visceral or mucocutaneous form, depending on the species. Leishmania spp.
This protozoan is a very financially significant parasite that affects the reproductive tract of cattle, causing infertility, spontaneous abortions, and pyometra Tritrichomonas foetus
Cystoisospora, Toxoplasma, Cryptosporidium, Sarcocystis, and Eimeria are all examples of _________ parasites. Coccidian
________ are the definitive hosts for Toxoplasma gondii. The oocysts become infective ____ hours after they are shed Cats, 72
Anaplasma, Ehrlichia, and Wolbachia are all a part of the group of obligate intracellular gram-negative bacteria known as ________. Wolbachia are linked to __________ infection. rickettsia, heartworm
What is the drug commonly used to treat Coccidia? a. Strongid b. Panacur c. Virbantel d. Albon D. Albon
What two drugs can be used to treat Giardia? a. Pyrantel and Fenbendazole b. Fenbendazole and Metronidazole c. Metronidazole and Albon d. Metronidazole and Azithromycin B. Fenbendazole and Metronidazole
What is the drug most commonly used to treat Roundworms? a. Pyrantel pamoate b. Metronidazole c. Azithromycin d. Fenbendazole A. Pyrantel pamoate
What drug can be used to treat Hookworms? a. Moxidectin b. Pyrantel pamoate c. Fenbendazole d. All of the above D. All of the above
What parasite combination combination can be effectively treated with Drontal Plus Tapeworms, roundworms, and hookworms
What drug is used to treat Whipworms? a. Fenbendazole b. Praziquantel c. Metronidazole d. Both Fenbendazole and Praziquantel A. Fenbendazole
Clindamycin and trimethoprim sulfonamide is a drug combination that is effective against what Toxoplasmosis
What treatment is effective against Tapeworms (including Dipylidium, Taenia, and Echinococcus)? a. Pyrantel pamoate b. Praziquantel c. Fenbendazole d. Metronidazole B Praziquantel
What drug is effective against Taenia species of tapeworms but not the Dipylidium caninum tapeworm? a. Fenbendazole b. Praziquantel c. Pyrantel pamoate d. Metronidazole A. Fenbendazole
What is the brand name for fenbendazole? a. Albon b. Strongid c. Virbantel d. Panacur D. Panacur
Dirofilaria immitus is type of: a. Nematode b. Cestode c. Trematode d. Protozoa e. Rickettsia A. Nematode
Giardia is a type of: a. Nematode b. Cestode c. Trematode d. Protozoa e. Rickettsia D. Protozoa
Echinococcus multilocularis is a type of: a. Nematodes b. Cestodes c. Trematodes d. Protozoa e. Rickettsia B. Cestodes
Ehrlichia spp. is a type of: a. Nematode b. Cestode c. Trematode d. Protozoa e. Rickettsia E. Rickettsia
Toxocara canis is a type of: a. Nematode b. Cestode c. Trematode d. Protozoa e. Ricketsia A. Nematode
Fasciola hepatica is a type of: a. Nematode b. Cestode c. Trematode d. Protozoa Rickettsia C. Trematode
Babesia canis is a type of: a. Nematode b. Cestode c. Trematode d. Protozoa e. Rickettsia D. Protozoa
Dipylidium caninum is a type of: a. Nematode b. Cestode c. Trematode d. Protozoa e. Rickettsia B. Cestode
Trichuris vulpis is a type of: a. Nematode b. Cestode c. Trematode d. Protozoa e. Rickettsia A. Nematode
Oxyuris equi is a type of: a. Nematode b. Cestode c. Trematode d. Protozoa e. Rickettsia A. Nematode
What is the common name for Mallophagia? a. Biting lice b Sucking lice c. Tick d. Deer fly A. biting lice
What is another name for a skin lesion containing a Cuterebra? a. Warble b. Cattle grub c. Maggots d. Fly a. warble
What is the common name for Ctenocephalides felis? a. Maggots b. Fleas c. Flies d. Tick b. fleas
What is the common name for Anoplura? a. North American Tick b. Lone Star Tick c. Sucking lice d. Chewing lice c. sucking lice
What is the common name for Tabanus spp? a. Horse fly b. Deer fly c. House fly d. Heel fly a. horse fly
What is the common name for Chrysops spp? a. Horse fly b. Deer fly c. House fly d. Heel fly b. deer fly
What are the life stages of lice? a. Nit, nymph, adult b. Nit, lymph, adult c. Nit, nymph, juvenile, adult d. Nit, juvenile, adult a. Nit, nymph, adult
What does FAD stand for? a. Feline allergy dermatitis b. Flea allergy dermatitis c. Fat adult disorder d. Feline adult dermatitis b. Flea allergy dermatitis
What is the common name for Otodectes cynotis? a. Ear mite b. Walking dandruff c. Sheep ked d. Biting midge a. Ear mites
What is the common name for Argasidae? a. Hard ticks b. Soft ticks c. Burrowing mites d. Non-burrowing mites b. Soft ticks
What does IGR stand for? a. internal growth review b. intermittent global relief c. insect growth regulator d. insect grub reference c. insect growth regulator
Most flea preventatives kill what stage? a. egg b. larva c. pupa d. adult d. adult
What flea preventive is not safe for use in cats? a. Selamectin b. Permethrin c. Imidacloprid d. Fipronil a. selamectin
what is a fly larval infestation called myiasis
what is a mite or tick infestation called acariasis
what is a lice infestation called pediculosis
what is a flea infestation called siphonapterosis
what is a leech infestation called hiruiniasis
what med prevents heartworm, round worms and hookworms heartguard plus
what med prevents fleas, heartworm, hookworm, roundworm, and whipworm, trifexis
what med prevents fleas capstar
what med prevents fleas, heartworm, hookworms, roundworms, whipworms and scabies advantage multi
what med prevents fleas and ticks nexgard
What three types of organisms are studied in microbiology? bacteria, fungi and viruses
What is the most common species of blood that is added to agar? Sheep
Obligate anaerobe Organism that cannot grow or dies in the presence of oxygen
Obligate aerobe Organism that requires oxygen to survive.
Facultative anaerobe Organism that can survive in oxygen but has reduced growth.
Microaerophilic Organism that prefers reduced oxygen levels.
Capnophilic Organism that requires high levels of carbon dioxide.
Mesophile Organism that grows best at 20-40ºC.
Psychrophile Organism that grows best in lower temperatures (<20ºC)
Thermophile Organism that grows best in higher temperatures (>40ºC)
Lag phase Bacteria adjusting to the new environment.
Exponential phase Doubling time, bacteria continues to grow until all nutrition is gone, there is too much waste, or there is no more space.
Stationary phase No net increase or decrease in growth.
Final phase Death of bacteria, will include spore formation if possible.
Most fungi reproduce by forming ________, except for yeast which reporduce by ________. spores, budding
Transport Keeps microbes alive without encouraging growth.
General Purpose Contain basic nutrients.
Enriched Contain additional nutrient requirments for fastidious pathogens (blood, serum, egg, etc).
Selective Contain antibacterial agents to inhibit or kill certain bacteria, encouraging other bacteria to grow.
Differential Allow differentiation of bacterial based on biochemical reactions with the medium.
Enrichment Liquid medium that favors the growth of particular organisms.
When obtaining a sample for culture it is important to maintain ________ technique to prevent contamination. aseptic
Which step of a Gram stain uses Gram's iodine solution? Mordant
Gram positive organisms stain: Purple
Gram negative organisms stain: Red
What secondary test can be used to verify Gram status if the stain result is Gram variable? Potassium hydroxide test Oxidase test
Acid fast organisms stain: Pink
Non-acid fast organisms stain: Blue
Which two organisms on this list are acid fast? Nocardia,Mycobacterium
Blood agar plate Differential and enrichment agar that supports growth and indicates four types of hemolysis. McConkey agar plate
Thioglycollate broth Broth medium that indicates oxygen use based on the location of the growth in the tube.
Urea slant tube Differential agar where the slant is inoculated and the medium becomes pink after ammonia is produced from urea.
Sulfide indole motility tubes Differential agar that is inoculated with a stab, which can show hydrogen sulfide production, as well as a color change when tryptophan is converted to indole.
Simmons citrate slant tube Differential agar where only the slant is inoculated, which turns from green to blue with citrate use.
Triple sugar iron slant tube Selective and differential agar inoculated with a stab incision, which will start red and can turn yellow with sugar fermentation in addition to a black line forming with hydrogen sulfide production.
Brain heart infusion broth General purpose broth used to increase numbers before plating.
Mannitol salt agar Selective agar for Staphylococci and differentiates Staphylococcus aureus with a yellow color change as mannitol is fermented.
Bismuth sulfite agar Selective agar for Salmonella, while suppressing coliforms. Color change to black with a metallic sheen.
Mueller Hinton plate General purpose agar, used for antimicrobial sensitivity testing.
Sabouraud dextrose agar Used in dermatophyte test media (DTM) for fungal testing.
Culture and sensitivity test are evaluated by measuring the __________ Concentration of antimicrobials that diffuse
If colony growth is inhibited around an antimicrobial disc, it is ____________ to the antimicrobial Susceptible