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BMC - LAB II
QUIZES
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| PARASCARIS EQUORUM | EQUINE ROUNDWORM |
| TOXOCARA VITULORUM | CATTLE ROUNDWORM |
| ASCARIS SUUM | SWINE ROUNDWORM |
| ANCYCLOSTOMA SPP | CANINE AND FELINE HOOKWORMS |
| UNCINARIA STENECEPHALA | NORTHERN CANINE HOOKWORM |
| BUNOSTOMUM PHLEBOTOMUM | RUMINANT HOOKWORM |
| TOXOCARA CANIS, T. CATI, AND T. LEONINA | CANINE AND FELINE ROUNDWORMS |
| STRONGYLUS VULGARIS, S. ENDENTATUS, S. EQUINUS | EQUINE LARGE STRONGYLES |
| OLLULANUS TRICUSPIS | FELINE TRICHOSTRONGYLE |
| DICTYOCAULUS ARNFIELDI | EQUINE LUNGWORM |
| METASTRONGYLOIDEA | HAIR LUNGWORMS |
| TRICHURIS VULPIS | CANINE WHIPWORM |
| CAPILLARIA PLICA (PEARSONEMAPLICA0 | CANINE AND FELINE BLADDER WORM |
| OXYURIS EQUI | EQUINE PINWORN |
| THELAZIA CALIFORNEIENSIS | CANINE AND FELINE EYEWORM |
| THELAZIA RHODESII, T. GULOSA | CATTLE, SHEEP, AND GOAT EYEWORMS |
| HABRONEMA SPP, DRASCHIA MEGASTOMA | EQUINE STOMACH WORMS |
| DIOCTOPHYMA RENALE | CANINE GIANT KIDNEY WORM |
| STEPHANURUS DENTATUS | SWINE KIDNEY WORM |
| DIROFILARIA IMMITIS | CANINE HEARTWORM |
| WHAT ARE TWO COMMON INTESTINAL PARASITES THAT PUPPIES AND KITTENS ARE INFECTED WITH | ROUNDWORMS AND HOOKWORMS |
| WHAT ARE THE POSIBLE ROUTES OF TRANSMISSION FOR INTESTINAL PARASITES THAT PUPPIES AND KITTENS GET | FECAL-ORAL; TRANSPLACENTAL; TRANSMAMMARY |
| WHICH NEMATODE EGG HAS A SPHERICAL, DARK BROWN, THICK WALLED, PITTED APPEARANCE | ROUNDWORMS |
| WHICH NEMATODE HAS AN EGG THAT IS OVAL OR ELLIPSOID WITH THIN WALLS AND 8-16 CELLS INSIDE | HOOKWORMS |
| WHICH PARASITE HAS AN EGG WITH A THICK YELLOW-BROWN SYMMETRICAL SHELL WITH POLAR PLUGS AT BOTH ENDS | WHIPWORMS |
| IF SEVERE ENOUGH, WHICH INTESTINAL PARASITTE IS MOST LIKELY TO CAUSE ANEMIA OR EVEN DEATH | HOOKWORMS |
| A ROUTE OF INFECTION BY HOOKWORMS THAT IS NOT SHARED WITH ROUNDWORMS IS | TRANSDERMAL |
| IN APPEARANCE, HOOKWORM EGGS IN SMALL ANIMALS CLOSELY RESEMBLE THE ________ EGGS IN LARGE ANIMAL | STRONGYLE |
| WHAT IS AN INTERMEDIATE HOST | THE ANIMAL WHERE THE IMMATURE PARASITE LIVES AND GOES THROUGH LIFE CHANGES |
| THE HEAD OF A CESTODE IS CALLED THE ___________,WHILE THE BODY IS CALLED _________ | SCOLEX, STROBILA |
| WHAT PARASITE HAS AN OPERCULATED EGG CONTAINING A LARVA KNOWN AS A CORACIDIUM | PSEUDOTAPEWORMS |
| Dipylidium caninum is the most common tapeworm of dogs and cats, and is diagnosed by finding _________ in the stool or in the perianal fur/area. A mammal must ingest a ______ in order to be infected with this tapeworm. | proglottids, flea |
| Dogs can be infected with which taeniid tapeworm by ingesting rabbits or hares? | Taenia pisiformis |
| What tapeworms have the most zoonotic significance? | Echinococcus |
| This parasite is known as the "zipper tapeworm" and affect dogs and cats near the Gulf coast. | Spirometra sp |
| ________ are equine tapeworms, while _________ are ruminant tapeworms | Anoplocephala spp.; Moniezia spp |
| _____________ are a type of flatworm, commonly known as flukes that typically have a ___________ as an intermediate host | Trematodes, mollusk |
| Paragonimus kelicotti | lung fluke of dogs and cats |
| Platynosomum fastosum | lizard poisoning fluke of cats |
| Fasciola hepatica | liver fluke of ruminants |
| Nanophyetus salmincola | salmon poisoning fluke of dogs |
| Dicrocoelium dendriticum | lancet fluke of ruminants |
| __________ are single-celled organisms with only a fraction that are parasitic. The __________ are blood parasites and frequently have _______ as the intermediate hosts. | Protozoa, hemoprotozoa, ticks |
| The life cycle of protozoa includes two forms. The _________ is the vegetative form when feeding, movement, and locomotion occur. The ________ is the infective form when metabolic function is supended to prevent __________. | trophozoite, cyst, desiccation) |
| ____________ is a flagellated protozoan which can be found in the stool of dogs or cats with diarrhea. | giardia |
| This hemoprotozoan can manifest as a visceral or mucocutaneous form, depending on the species. | Leishmania spp. |
| This protozoan is a very financially significant parasite that affects the reproductive tract of cattle, causing infertility, spontaneous abortions, and pyometra | Tritrichomonas foetus |
| Cystoisospora, Toxoplasma, Cryptosporidium, Sarcocystis, and Eimeria are all examples of _________ parasites. | Coccidian |
| ________ are the definitive hosts for Toxoplasma gondii. The oocysts become infective ____ hours after they are shed | Cats, 72 |
| Anaplasma, Ehrlichia, and Wolbachia are all a part of the group of obligate intracellular gram-negative bacteria known as ________. Wolbachia are linked to __________ infection. | rickettsia, heartworm |
| What is the drug commonly used to treat Coccidia? a. Strongid b. Panacur c. Virbantel d. Albon | D. Albon |
| What two drugs can be used to treat Giardia? a. Pyrantel and Fenbendazole b. Fenbendazole and Metronidazole c. Metronidazole and Albon d. Metronidazole and Azithromycin | B. Fenbendazole and Metronidazole |
| What is the drug most commonly used to treat Roundworms? a. Pyrantel pamoate b. Metronidazole c. Azithromycin d. Fenbendazole | A. Pyrantel pamoate |
| What drug can be used to treat Hookworms? a. Moxidectin b. Pyrantel pamoate c. Fenbendazole d. All of the above | D. All of the above |
| What parasite combination combination can be effectively treated with Drontal Plus | Tapeworms, roundworms, and hookworms |
| What drug is used to treat Whipworms? a. Fenbendazole b. Praziquantel c. Metronidazole d. Both Fenbendazole and Praziquantel | A. Fenbendazole |
| Clindamycin and trimethoprim sulfonamide is a drug combination that is effective against what | Toxoplasmosis |
| What treatment is effective against Tapeworms (including Dipylidium, Taenia, and Echinococcus)? a. Pyrantel pamoate b. Praziquantel c. Fenbendazole d. Metronidazole | B Praziquantel |
| What drug is effective against Taenia species of tapeworms but not the Dipylidium caninum tapeworm? a. Fenbendazole b. Praziquantel c. Pyrantel pamoate d. Metronidazole | A. Fenbendazole |
| What is the brand name for fenbendazole? a. Albon b. Strongid c. Virbantel d. Panacur | D. Panacur |
| Dirofilaria immitus is type of: a. Nematode b. Cestode c. Trematode d. Protozoa e. Rickettsia | A. Nematode |
| Giardia is a type of: a. Nematode b. Cestode c. Trematode d. Protozoa e. Rickettsia | D. Protozoa |
| Echinococcus multilocularis is a type of: a. Nematodes b. Cestodes c. Trematodes d. Protozoa e. Rickettsia | B. Cestodes |
| Ehrlichia spp. is a type of: a. Nematode b. Cestode c. Trematode d. Protozoa e. Rickettsia | E. Rickettsia |
| Toxocara canis is a type of: a. Nematode b. Cestode c. Trematode d. Protozoa e. Ricketsia | A. Nematode |
| Fasciola hepatica is a type of: a. Nematode b. Cestode c. Trematode d. Protozoa Rickettsia | C. Trematode |
| Babesia canis is a type of: a. Nematode b. Cestode c. Trematode d. Protozoa e. Rickettsia | D. Protozoa |
| Dipylidium caninum is a type of: a. Nematode b. Cestode c. Trematode d. Protozoa e. Rickettsia | B. Cestode |
| Trichuris vulpis is a type of: a. Nematode b. Cestode c. Trematode d. Protozoa e. Rickettsia | A. Nematode |
| Oxyuris equi is a type of: a. Nematode b. Cestode c. Trematode d. Protozoa e. Rickettsia | A. Nematode |
| What is the common name for Mallophagia? a. Biting lice b Sucking lice c. Tick d. Deer fly | A. biting lice |
| What is another name for a skin lesion containing a Cuterebra? a. Warble b. Cattle grub c. Maggots d. Fly | a. warble |
| What is the common name for Ctenocephalides felis? a. Maggots b. Fleas c. Flies d. Tick | b. fleas |
| What is the common name for Anoplura? a. North American Tick b. Lone Star Tick c. Sucking lice d. Chewing lice | c. sucking lice |
| What is the common name for Tabanus spp? a. Horse fly b. Deer fly c. House fly d. Heel fly | a. horse fly |
| What is the common name for Chrysops spp? a. Horse fly b. Deer fly c. House fly d. Heel fly | b. deer fly |
| What are the life stages of lice? a. Nit, nymph, adult b. Nit, lymph, adult c. Nit, nymph, juvenile, adult d. Nit, juvenile, adult | a. Nit, nymph, adult |
| What does FAD stand for? a. Feline allergy dermatitis b. Flea allergy dermatitis c. Fat adult disorder d. Feline adult dermatitis | b. Flea allergy dermatitis |
| What is the common name for Otodectes cynotis? a. Ear mite b. Walking dandruff c. Sheep ked d. Biting midge | a. Ear mites |
| What is the common name for Argasidae? a. Hard ticks b. Soft ticks c. Burrowing mites d. Non-burrowing mites | b. Soft ticks |
| What does IGR stand for? a. internal growth review b. intermittent global relief c. insect growth regulator d. insect grub reference | c. insect growth regulator |
| Most flea preventatives kill what stage? a. egg b. larva c. pupa d. adult | d. adult |
| What flea preventive is not safe for use in cats? a. Selamectin b. Permethrin c. Imidacloprid d. Fipronil | a. selamectin |
| what is a fly larval infestation called | myiasis |
| what is a mite or tick infestation called | acariasis |
| what is a lice infestation called | pediculosis |
| what is a flea infestation called | siphonapterosis |
| what is a leech infestation called | hiruiniasis |
| what med prevents heartworm, round worms and hookworms | heartguard plus |
| what med prevents fleas, heartworm, hookworm, roundworm, and whipworm, | trifexis |
| what med prevents fleas | capstar |
| what med prevents fleas, heartworm, hookworms, roundworms, whipworms and scabies | advantage multi |
| what med prevents fleas and ticks | nexgard |
| What three types of organisms are studied in microbiology? | bacteria, fungi and viruses |
| What is the most common species of blood that is added to agar? | Sheep |
| Obligate anaerobe | Organism that cannot grow or dies in the presence of oxygen |
| Obligate aerobe | Organism that requires oxygen to survive. |
| Facultative anaerobe | Organism that can survive in oxygen but has reduced growth. |
| Microaerophilic | Organism that prefers reduced oxygen levels. |
| Capnophilic | Organism that requires high levels of carbon dioxide. |
| Mesophile | Organism that grows best at 20-40ºC. |
| Psychrophile | Organism that grows best in lower temperatures (<20ºC) |
| Thermophile | Organism that grows best in higher temperatures (>40ºC) |
| Lag phase | Bacteria adjusting to the new environment. |
| Exponential phase | Doubling time, bacteria continues to grow until all nutrition is gone, there is too much waste, or there is no more space. |
| Stationary phase | No net increase or decrease in growth. |
| Final phase | Death of bacteria, will include spore formation if possible. |
| Most fungi reproduce by forming ________, except for yeast which reporduce by ________. | spores, budding |
| Transport | Keeps microbes alive without encouraging growth. |
| General Purpose | Contain basic nutrients. |
| Enriched | Contain additional nutrient requirments for fastidious pathogens (blood, serum, egg, etc). |
| Selective | Contain antibacterial agents to inhibit or kill certain bacteria, encouraging other bacteria to grow. |
| Differential | Allow differentiation of bacterial based on biochemical reactions with the medium. |
| Enrichment | Liquid medium that favors the growth of particular organisms. |
| When obtaining a sample for culture it is important to maintain ________ technique to prevent contamination. | aseptic |
| Which step of a Gram stain uses Gram's iodine solution? | Mordant |
| Gram positive organisms stain: | Purple |
| Gram negative organisms stain: | Red |
| What secondary test can be used to verify Gram status if the stain result is Gram variable? | Potassium hydroxide test Oxidase test |
| Acid fast organisms stain: | Pink |
| Non-acid fast organisms stain: | Blue |
| Which two organisms on this list are acid fast? | Nocardia,Mycobacterium |
| Blood agar plate | Differential and enrichment agar that supports growth and indicates four types of hemolysis. McConkey agar plate |
| Thioglycollate broth | Broth medium that indicates oxygen use based on the location of the growth in the tube. |
| Urea slant tube | Differential agar where the slant is inoculated and the medium becomes pink after ammonia is produced from urea. |
| Sulfide indole motility tubes | Differential agar that is inoculated with a stab, which can show hydrogen sulfide production, as well as a color change when tryptophan is converted to indole. |
| Simmons citrate slant tube | Differential agar where only the slant is inoculated, which turns from green to blue with citrate use. |
| Triple sugar iron slant tube | Selective and differential agar inoculated with a stab incision, which will start red and can turn yellow with sugar fermentation in addition to a black line forming with hydrogen sulfide production. |
| Brain heart infusion broth | General purpose broth used to increase numbers before plating. |
| Mannitol salt agar | Selective agar for Staphylococci and differentiates Staphylococcus aureus with a yellow color change as mannitol is fermented. |
| Bismuth sulfite agar | Selective agar for Salmonella, while suppressing coliforms. Color change to black with a metallic sheen. |
| Mueller Hinton plate | General purpose agar, used for antimicrobial sensitivity testing. |
| Sabouraud dextrose agar | Used in dermatophyte test media (DTM) for fungal testing. |
| Culture and sensitivity test are evaluated by measuring the __________ | Concentration of antimicrobials that diffuse |
| If colony growth is inhibited around an antimicrobial disc, it is ____________ to the antimicrobial | Susceptible |
Created by:
Jessica.estes2001
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