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VTHT 1413 Final

QuestionAnswer
The layer of the pleura membrane that covers the organs in the thoracic cavity is known as the _____________________ layer. visceral
back area dorsal
towards the body (leg) proximal
The body cavity that includes the brain and the spinal cord is known as the __________________ cavity. dorsal
towards the hind end caudal
Which anatomic plane divides the body into doral and ventral regions? dorsal plane
The body cavity lies caudal to the diaphragm. This is the _____________________ cavity. abdominal
The body cavity includes the thoracic and the abdominal cavities. This is the ________________________ cavity. ventral
towards the stomach area ventral
towards the head cranial
An example of a group of tissues working together for a common purpose is Brain
The 'knee' of hoofed animals is called the Carpus
The dog has 13 pairs of ribs- each rib on the right side of the thorax has a matching rib on the left side of the thorax. This is an example of bilateral symmetry
A technician doing ultrasonic imaging must be familiar with the position of all the bones, muscle, organs and blood vessels of the abdomen. This is an example of regional anatomy
towards the body medial
The structure that divides the ventral cavity into two parts is the The body cavity that contains the heart is the diaphragm; The omentum is the peritoneum covering the stomach and other abdominal organs. The pleura is the thin serous membrane covering the lungs and lining the thoracic cavity. Viscera is another name for the soft organs in the body.
The body cavity that contains the heart is the cranial thoracic cavity.
Gross anatomy is also known as macroscopic anatomy.
Bone is considered what type of tissue? connective tissue
towards the nose rostral
Put these terms in the proper order to show the hierarchial organization of the body. W) body system X) tissue Y) organ Z) cell Z, X, Y, W
The directional term that means 'toward the head' but not on the head is cranial
On a horse, the area dorsal to the scapulas is known as the withers
The dog has 13 pairs of ribs- each rib on the right side of the thorax has a matching rib on the left side of the thorax. This is an example of bilateral symmetry
The type of tissue that coordinates and controls activities in and around an animal"s body is nervous tissue.
If you were told to look for a cut on the palmar surface of a dog"s leg, where would you look? the back surface of the front leg below the carpus
The back surface of the back leg below the tarsus plantar surface
front surface of the back leg below the tarsus dorsal surface
front surface of the front leg below the carpus dorsal surface
back surface of the front leg below the carpus palmar surface
Which anatomic plane separates the body into cranial and caudal regions? transverse plane
Which anatomic plane divides the body into equal R and L halves? median plane
Inflammation of the pleura membrane is known as _______________________. pleuritis
If you were told to look for a tumor on the dorsal surface of a pig"s hind leg, where would you look? the front surface below the tarsus
All the organs in the thoracic cavity are covered by a thin membrane called the pleura
away from the body lateral
The layer of the pleura membrane that lines the entire thoracic cavity is known as the _____________________ layer. parietal
The type of tissue that forms sweat glands is __ tissue. epithelial; Adipose is fatty connective tissue. Connective tissue holds the body together. Muscle tissue moves the body.
The process by which physiologic processes collectively and actively maintain balance in the structures, functions, and properties of the body is known as homeostasis
The thin membrane that lines the abdominal cavity is known as the ______________________ membrane. peritoneum
toward the ground (leg) distal
The study of the normal function of living organisms is physiology
Inflammation of the peritoneum is known as _______________________, peritonitis
The three major subatomic particles are protons, neutrons and ____________. electrons
____________ have a positive electrical charge and are found in the nucleus of the atom. protons
An ____________ bond is formed when one atom in a molecule loses electrons and another gains electrons. ionic
A ____________ is the smallest unit of a compound that retains the unique properties of the compound. molecule
A ____________ bond is a weak bond between molecules, such as between water molecules. hydrogen
Choose the term that makes the statement true. If at atom (gains/ loses) electrons it will become a negatively charged ion. gains
The smallest unit of an element that retains the unique properties of the element is a/an atom
A polypeptide can be made up of a chain of as many as __ amino acids. 100
The most abundant organic molecules in the body are proteins
A saturated fatty acid is defined as a chain of carbon atoms with one or two hydrogen atoms attached to each carbon atom by a single bond.
An example of an organic compound is carbohydrate
The energy source for cells of the body to function properly is stored in and released by ATP
In a mixture the component that is present in the greatest amount is the solvent
Water and fats don"t mix well because fats are hydrophobic
CA +2 calcium
NH4+ ammonium
Two atoms that have the same atomic number, but a different number of neutrons, are called ____________ isotopes
A __________ increases the rate of a chemical reaction. catalyst
____________ is anything that has mass and occupies space. Matter
The three major subatomic particles are protons, ____________ and electrons. neutrons
Denatured proteins become a straight chain of amino acids.
Cholesterol is classified as what type of lipid? steroid
Which group of lipids is made up of a glycerol molecule and three fatty acids? neutral fats
All proteins contain carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, and hydrogen.
Which three nucleotides do both DNA and RNA have in common? adenine (A), guanine (G), and cytosine (C)
Thymine is unique to __________? DNA
uracil is unique to ____________? RNA
Triglycerides are a. neutral fats.
A sequence of nucleotides that carries information to make one peptide chain is a/an gene
A monosaccharide contains which three atoms? a. carbon, oxygen, hydrogen
OH - hydroxide
K+ is the symbol for ____________ ion. potassium
Choose the term that makes the statement true. If at atom (gains/ loses) electrons it will become a positively charged ion. loses
A(n) ____________ is a protein that acts as a catalyst for chemical reactions in the cell. enzyme
A substance that ionizes when added to water and releases a hydroxyl ion (OH-) is a/an base
Which group of lipids has a hydrophilic end and a hydrophobic end that causes them to line up in two layers when placed in water? phospholipids
Which group of lipids contains prostaglandins that help mediate an inflammatory reaction? eicosanoids
Glycogen, the storage form of glucose, is a polysaccharide
Water is the universal solvent
Electrolytes are __ ionized salts.
To buffer a solution means to b. keep the solution in a neutral pH range.
In a mixture the component that is present in the greatest amount is the solvent
Of the pH values below, which is considered 'neutral' pH? 7
Which group of lipids is characterized by a lipid bilayer? phospholipids
Cholesterol is classified as what type of lipid? steroid
The viscous, semitransparent fluid of the cell is the cytosol
Ribosomes that are not free in the cytoskeleton of a cell are attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
During cell division X-shaped chromosomes are formed from chromatin
The nitrogen base thymine (T) found in DNA can bind only to adenine (A).
Membrane receptors are integral proteins and glycoproteins.
DNA and RNA are made up of chains of nucleotides
The most common organelle in a cell is the ribosome
Glycoproteins that cover the surfaces of almost all mammalian cells and allow the cells to bond with one another are called d. cell adhesion molecules (CAMs).
Microtubules, intermediate fibers, and microfilaments are all parts of the cytoskeleton
Rigid areas of densely packed phospholipids, cholesterol, and protein in the cell membrane are called rafts
A neurofilament is an example of a/an intermediate fiber (of nerve cells)
When a cell dies, which organelle is responsible for autolysis? lysosome
Lysosomes are formed by the Golgi apparatus.
Prions are unique in that they lack DNA and RNA
Cilia are located on the surface of the cell.
Fat globules in a cell are considered inclusions
Which organelle in the cell is an important site for protein synthesis? ribosome
This thickest and strongest fiber in a cell is the microtubule
Which protein degradation 'machine' within the cell breaks down unwanted proteins one protein at a time? proteasome
Microtubules, intermediate fibers, and microfilaments are all parts of the cytoskeleton
Actin and myosin proteins form microfilaments
A virus is composed of a protein-covered capsule that contains either one strand of DNA or one strand of RNA.
The function of a flagellum is to move a cell through a fluid.
Fat globules in a cell are considered inclusions
The outer layer of a cell"s nuclear membrane is continuous with the endoplasmic reticulum.
Ribosomes that are not free in the cytoskeleton of a cell are attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
The control center of a cell is the nucleus
In the lipid bilayer that makes up the cell membrane the hydrophobic fatty acids are the inside of the membrane.
Under light microscopy the dark strands visible in the nucleoplasm are coiled chromatin
The viscous, semitransparent fluid of the cell is the cytosol
If cells (e.g., red blood cells) are placed in a hypotonic solution, what will happen to them? a. They will burst.
Waste products of cellular metabolism that are carried in the blood are slightly acidic. To counteract the effects of the acidic waste materials, what would be an ideal pH for blood? 7.4
Ions that have a negative charge are called anions
A patient that has a capillary refill time (CRT) of 2.5 seconds is 5% to 7% dehydrated.
Chemotherapeutic drugs work by blocking cell division and protein synthesis.
A phagosome found in a cell will contain solid material
A solution that contains more solutes than plasma is hypertonic
Osmosis involves the movement of __ to achieve equilibrium between intracellular and extracellular fluids. water
X-shaped chromosomes are linked together at the centromere
DNA replication occurs during which stage of interphase? synthetic phase
Abnormal buildup of fluid in the abdominal cavity is called ascites
A patient is depressed and lying down. The mucous membranes and tongue are dry. It is conscious with a weak and rapid pulse. What would you estimate the percentage of dehydration to be? 10% to 12%
What is the correct order of stages of mitosis? prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
The concentration of salt in water in normal saline is 0.9% NaCl.
Lactated Ringers Solution, a frequently administered IV fluid, is a/an isotonic, crystalloid fluid.
Transcription results in mRNA production.
During replication, the double-stranded DNA unwinds and produces two nucleotide chains. If the original strand reads GTTAGA, what is the configuration of the complementary new strand that is formed? CAATCT
Facilitated diffusion moves molecules from extracellular spaces to intracellular spaces using no energy from the cell.
The sodium-potassium pump system is a(n) antiport system.
Diffusion is molecules moving from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration in a liquid or gas.
All mutations result in a/an alteration of genetic material.
Fluid therapy to correct dehydration in an animal would be replacement therapy.
When waste materials are released from a cell into the interstitial fluid, the process is known as excretion
During the inflammatory process phagocytosis is the job of macrophages
Serosal fluid is found between the parietal and visceral layers of a serous membrane.
'Proud flesh' is composed of collagen fibers and capillaries.
Which is a characteristic of second-intention wound healing? A scar develops.
The basal surface of an epithelial cell faces the underlying connective tissue.
The thinnest epithelial cells are fragile and are found lining surfaces involved in passage of liquids or gasses. They are classified as simple squamous.
Keratin is found in skin cells.
Elastic fibers are also known as yellow fibers.
Because it is a site of heat production, this type of connective tissue is found in animals that hibernate during the cold winter months. brown adipose tissue
The matrix of blood in the body is plasma
A normal transudate in the abdominal cavity is called peritoneal fluid.
A scab is a/an external clot.
The portion of a membrane that lines a cavity wall is the parietal layer.
The brush border of an epithelial cell is found on the apical surface of the cell.
When mucin is mixed with water, it becomes mucus
Which type of muscle is responsible for constricting the walls of blood vessels? nonstriated involuntary muscle
If a gland has a branched duct that carries secretions to the deposition site, it is a compound gland.
Which type of muscle has muscle cells that connect to one another at junctions called intercalated disks? striated involuntary muscle
The __ has many tiny blood vessels that supply nutrients to cartilage. perichondrium
Gristle is a common name for cartilage
The type of membrane that lines the cavities of joints is synovial membrane.
During the inflammatory process the first thing that happens is vasoconstriction
The __ anchors a cell to its underlying connective tissue. basement membrane
Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium is found in the skin.
The thinnest epithelial cells are fragile and are found lining surfaces involved in passage of liquids or gasses. They are classified as simple squamous.
If a gland loses an entire secretory cell during the secretory process, it is classified as a/an holocrine gland.
The nucleus of a nerve cell is found in the perikaryon
Pseudostratified columnar epithelium is classified as such based on the nonuniform level of the nuclei of the cells.
The pinna of the ears of animals contains __ cartilage. elastic
Which type of muscle is paralyzed when its nerve supply is absent? striated voluntary muscle
An example of a fixed cell is a/an osteoblast, Osteoblasts mature into bone cells that pretty much stay put. Histiocytes, leukocytes, and macrophages all travel through connective tissue to reach a specific destination.
The part of the nerve cell that receives impulses of information from other cells is the dendrite
Another name for the skin is cutaneous membrane.
The longest cells in the body are nerve cells.
The matrix of blood in the body is plasma
Antlers are composed of bone
A sudoriferous gland is also known as a/an sweat gland.
The most common site for malignant melanoma in dogs and cats is the oral cavity.
The junction of the sole and hoof wall in an equine hoof is called the white line.
The tail gland is located on the __ surface of the tail. dorsal
Hooves grow from the coronary band.
Which one of the following animals can retract its claws. cat
The implantation angle of a hair is increased when the arrector pili muscle contracts. As the muscle contracts, it pulls the hair up to a straighter position, increasing the angle at which the hair emerges from the skin. As the muscle relaxes, the hair lies back down and the implantation angle decreases
Which animals have tail glands that help them identify individual animals? dogs and cats
Meissner"s corpuscle is important in the perception of touch
As an animal ages and its hair turns white, the medulla becomes filled with air
Which dark, horny structures are found buried in the long, caudal hairs of equine fetlocks? ergots
Another name for a hoofed animal is an ungulate
In a compound follicle a primary hair is also known as a __ hair. guard, The guard hair is also known as the cover hair
a shorter secondary hair that surrounds the guard hairs satellite hair
a type of hair that is sensitive to touch (whiskers) Tactile hairs, Tactile hairs are also known as sinus hairs.
The sensitive tissue of both claws and hooves is the corium; The corium is the layer where the blood vessels and nerves are found. It attaches to the periosteum, the membrane covering bone
Where is the sole of a horse located? The sole is the plantar or palmar surface of a hoof
Where is the frog of a horse located? The frog is located between the heels on the underside of a hoof.
Where is a chestnut located? Chestnuts are proximal to the ergots at the level of the knee or hock on all four legs
What are the remains of digits that have regressed through evolution? Dewclaws
The majority of cells found in the skin are keratinocytes
The invagination of epidermis in which a hair is anchored is the follicle
On a footpad, which layer of skin is the thickest? stratum corneum, It is composed of 20-30 rows of keratinocytes
What is the basal layer of skin? also known as the stratum germinativum or stratum basale. Here there are melanocytes that are firmly attached and undergo cell division to produce daughter cells that mature and die as they work their way to the surface of the skin to be shed.
What is the granular layer of skin? The granular layer is also known as the stratum granulosum and is the middle layer of skin.
What is the clear layer of skin and where is it found? The clear layer is also known as the stratum lucidum and is found only in very thick skin.
Infraorbital, interdigital, and inguinal pouches are found in what species of animal? ovine
The part of a hair that is buried within skin is the root
The foramen magnum is located in the __ bone. occipital
Cancellous bone is sometimes called spongy bone.
From cranial to caudal what is the correct sequence of letter designations for the five regions of the spinal column? C, T, L, S, CY
As a young animal grows so must its bones grow. Where does creation of new bone that allows long bones to lengthen as the animal grows take place? epiphyseal plates
Firm connective tissue bands that help stabilize the bones that make up a joint and help hold the joint together are called ligaments
What are the two calcitropic hormones involved calcium homeostasis? calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
A ginglymus joint is also known as a __ joint. hinge
Which one of the following bones is classified as an irregular bone? patella
The cells that secrete the matrix of a bone are the osteoblasts
The largest sesamoid bone in the body is the patella
Which face bones are elongated in dolichocephalic dogs? nasal
Which one of the following bones is formed by intramembranous bone formation? temporal bone of the skull
The navicular bone is another name for the __ bone in horses. distal sesamoid
Which bone forms the brachium? humerus
How many dewclaws does a cow have on its thoracic limb? 2
The diaphysis is the __ of a long bone. long shaft
Besides alignment and immobilization of a fracture, what else is needed for optimal healing to occur? time
A hole in a bone is called a/an foramen
Splint bones in horses are vestigial metacarpal bones.
A depressed or sunken area on the surface of a bone is called a/an fossa
What two bones form the stifle joint? femur and tibia
Which face bone houses the upper incisor teeth in a horse? incisive
Hinge joints are capable of only two movements. They are extension and flexion.
Which bone forms part of the nasal septum? vomer
Decreasing the angle between two bones results in flexion
Firm connective tissue bands that help stabilize the bones that make up a joint and help hold the joint together are called ligaments
The fetlock joint in horses is located between the __ and __ bones. metacarpal and proximal phalanx
The point of the hock is actually the calcaneal tuberosity of the fibular tarsal bone.
Endochondral bone formation takes place in a fetus over a __ template that is eventually replaced by bone. cartilage
Where would you find immovable fibrous joints called sutures? skull
Which bone is found in the antebrachium? radius
Which two species of animal are most commonly affected with Wobbler syndrome? equine and canine
What is the correct order of bones on the thoracic limb starting distally and working proximally? phalanges, metacarpal bones, carpal bones, radius, ulna, humerus, scapula
Which group of bones forms the joint that is comparable to the wrist in humans? carpal
Which face bone forms the rostral part of the hard palate? maxillary
The hock is made up of tarsal bones.
What part of the pelvis can be seen as the point of the hip in cattle? ilium
The outside layer of all bones is made up of compact bone.
Which face bone forms the lower jaw? mandible
An ununited anconeal process is seen in what bone? ulna
Costal cartilage is found at the ventral end of a rib.
Besides alignment and immobilization of a fracture, what else is needed for optimal healing to occur? time
Which face bones are elongated in dolichocephalic dogs? nasal
An example of an arthrodial joint is the __ joint. carpus
If the fibers of a muscle are running caudoventrally, in which direction are they running? a. to the back of the animal and down
When skeletal muscle contracts, which site undergoes the greatest movement? a. insertion of the muscle
The 'pacemaker' of the heart is the sinoatrial node located in the wall of the b. right atrium.
The triceps brachii muscle is partially named based on b. its location.
Which structures contain visceral smooth muscle? d. stomach and urinary bladder
Skeletal muscle cells are usually referred to as muscle ____________ . fiber
Both skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle are types of ____________ muscle. striated
_____________ muscle fibers are long, multinucleate cells. skeletal
What type of muscle controls the movement of an animal"s skeleton? b. voluntary striated muscle
When skeletal muscle contracts, which site undergoes the greatest movement? c. insertion of the muscle
Which structure of a muscle contains adipose tissue that contributes to the grossly visible marbling of meat? c. perimysium
Smooth muscle is classified as a. involuntary nonstriated muscle.
The triceps brachii muscle is partially named based on a. its location.
The outermost connective tissue layer of a muscle is the epimysium
Cardiac muscle contraction is modified by the nervous system. Stimulation by the ______________ nerves to the heart cause the heart to beat faster and harder. sympathetic
Muscle tissue that is not striated is called ____________ muscle. smooth
_____________ muscle fibers are long, multinucleate cells. skeletal
____________ muscle contains branched cells joined by intercalated discs. Cardiac
What type of muscle controls the movement of an animal"s skeleton? b. voluntary striated muscle
When skeletal muscle contracts, which site undergoes the greatest movement? c. insertion of the muscle
Which structure of a muscle contains adipose tissue that contributes to the grossly visible marbling of meat? perimysium
The primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system is acetylcholine
The efferent processes of a nerve cell are the axons
The period during which a neuron that has generated a nerve impulse cannot generate another is called the b. refractory period.
What keeps many drugs from readily passing from the blood into the brain? d. blood-brain barrier
The spinal cord is a b. caudal continuation of the brainstem.
The hole running through the center of the spinal column is the a. central canal.
How many cranial nerves are there? 24
The most primitive part of the CNS is the brainstem
Which clinical sign is characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system stimulation? a. reduced heart rate
The part of the CNS that contains the hypothalamus is the diencephalon
Which clinical sign is characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system stimulation? d. reduced heart rate
The centers of higher learning and intelligence are found in the cerebrum
The medulla oblongata is part of the brainstem
The spinal cord is a d. caudal continuation of the brainstem.
The part of the CNS that contains the corpus callosum is the cerebrum
The parasympathetic nervous system nerves are also known as the a. cranial-sacral system.
In the spinal cord the small gaps in the myelin sheath between adjacent glial cells are called b. nodes of Ranvier.
Which one of the following cranial nerves is a pure sensory nerve? d. CN I
The largest part of the brain is the cerebrum
The connective tissue layer that lies directly on the surface of the brain and spinal cord is the a. pia mater.
The fight-or-flight response to an emergency situation is a specific function of the a. sympathetic nervous system.
The part of the CNS that controls coordinated movement, balance, and posture is the cerebellum
Nerve fibers is another name for axons
Afferent nerve fibers carry sensations b. toward the CNS.
The 'all-or-nothing' principle means d. an entire neuron depolarizes to its maximum strength.
The radiographic procedure that uses a radiopaque dye injected into the space just beneath the arachnoid membrane to highlight areas of spinal cord compression is myelography
When the patellar ligament is tapped, what type of reflex causes the quadriceps muscle to contract, producing a small kick? a. stretch reflex
The part of the CNS that contains the hypothalamus is the diencephalon
Which clinical sign is characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system stimulation? reduced heart rate
The centers of higher learning and intelligence are found in the cerebrum
The medulla oblongata is part of the brainstem
The spinal cord is a d. caudal continuation of the brainstem.
The part of the CNS that contains the corpus callosum is the cerebrum
The parasympathetic nervous system nerves are also known as the a. cranial-sacral system.
The primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system is acetylcholine
The hole running through the center of the spinal column is the central canal.
This reflective surface of eye gives those species that have it, excellent night vision. This bright shiny part of the eye is the _________________. tapetum
The vitreous compartment of the eyeball is located a. behind the lens and ciliary body.
Wind-up, if it occurs, is seen in animals a. after recovery from general anesthesia.
The species that doesn"t have eyes that 'glow' in the dark when a light is shined on them is porcine
Olfactory sensors are found in the c. nasal passages.
The conversion of a painful stimulus to a nerve impulse occurs in the d. sensory nerve ending.
The most common cause of glaucoma is d. insufficient drainage of aqueous humor.
The function of the ossicles is to c. decrease amplitude of sound wave vibrations and increase their force.
The utricle and saccule are filled with endolymph
The most medial of the ossicles is the stapes
Tears are produced by the a. lacrimal gland.
The only place in an animal"s body where there are no pain receptors is (are) the brain
The 'diaphragm' of the eye that controls the amount of light that enters the eye is the iris
Which sense depends on mechanical stimulation? hearing
The sensory receptors for vision are located in the retina
The ossicles of the ear link the c. tympanic membrane with the cochlea.
When stretched, most hollow organs elicit pain
The white part of the eye is known as the __________________. sclera
The normal upper end of the temperature reference range of a goat is 103.5 degrees F. What is the maximum temperature of a goat that is compatible with life. 113.5
The blind spot of the eye is the d. optic disc.
An ear hematoma associated with otitis externa is most often found b. on the underside of the pinna.
The anterior chamber of the eyeball is located d. in front of the iris in the aqueous compartment.
The ossicles of the ear link the c. tympanic membrane with the cochlea.
Central temperature receptors are located in the __ of the CNS. hypothalamus
The hearing sensory receptors are found in the inner ear
Where the upper and lower eyelids meet near the bridge of an animal"s nose is the c. medial canthus.
Near and far vision are accommodated through the muscles of the c. ciliary body.
The gustatory sense is dependent on __ stimulation. chemical
What three structures make up the ear flap? d. elastic cartilage, blood vessels, epithelial tissue
The sensory organs and structures associated with the special senses are all located in the head
The core temperature of a cow is taken b. in the rectum.
When a/an __ develops the lens becomes opaque. cataract
The part of the ear that is visible on the outside of the animal is the pinna
The ossicles of the ear link the c. tympanic membrane with the cochlea.
The most medial of the ossicles is the stapes
Which of these hormones is NOT produced in the adenohypophysis? ADH
The hormone ________ lowers blood glucose and ________ raises blood glucose. c. insulin: glucagon
The islets of langerhans in the pancreas are a. endocrine tissue
FSH stimulates ovaries to produce follicles, which in turn produce estrogens
Which of these is a steroid hormones? glucocorticoid
Aldosterone helps regulate __ levels in the body. electrolyte
Estrogens are produced when __ induces ovaries to develop follicles. FSH from the anterior pituitary gland
Which hormone prompts ovulation and corpus luteum formation LH
Administration of which classification of drugs can cause effects that mimic the body"s natural white blood cell stress response? glucocorticosteroids
How does the metabolic rate affect an animal"s core temperature? b. As the metabolic rate increases, so does the animal"s core temperature.
Which hormone does the hypothalamus gland produce? oxytocin
Animals that suffer from a deficiency of ADH are likely to show clinical signs that include polyuria
The gland that helps regulate the body"s blood calcium levels is the d. parathyroid gland.
The gland that plays a direct role in development of the immune system is the thymus
Which two hormones are involved in maintaining the homeostasis of blood calcium levels? b. parathyroid hormone and calcitonin
The anterior pituitary gland produces somatotropin, which is also known as b. growth hormone.
The primary target for glucocorticoid hormone is the c. whole body.
Besides the gonads, which other gland produces sex hormones? c. adrenal cortex
Which hormones are responsible for male secondary sex characteristic development? androgens
Hormones are secreted into the bloodstream
In a male prolactin b. has no known effect.
The adrenal medulla is b. stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system
Which of these hormones is required for uterine contractions during labor and for milk “let down” during lactation? oxytocin
Which pair of hormones is hydrophilic? d. peptide and catecholamine hormones
Dwarfism is a result of c. GH deficiency.
The hormonal part of the 'flight-or-fight' response is produced in the a. adrenal glands.
When oxytocin is released into the bloodstream, what is one of its effects? d. milk letdown
Which gland is the master endocrine gland? pituitary
The function of ADH is to b. conserve water.
When a normal, healthy animal is exposed to cold temperatures, what happens to the production of thyroid hormone? a. It is increased to increase the animal"s metabolic rate.
Besides the gonads, which other gland produces sex hormones? d. adrenal cortex
The fight-or-flight hormones are c. epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Which gland is not located in the head and neck area of an animal? a. adrenal gland
Diabetes mellitus is a disease caused by a deficiency of insulin
Which drug will cause a female to 'superovulate' in preparation for embryo transfer? FSH
In order for a hormone to be effective its target cell must have a a. receptor for the hormone.
Thyroid-stimulating hormone is produced by the d. anterior pituitary gland.
The endocrine system works closely with the __ to control and coordinate the intricate parts and functions of the body. d. nervous system
Which hormone does the hypothalamus gland produce? oxytocin
Natural killer cells are a type of lymphocyte
Oxygen carried in a hemoglobin molecule is bound to a/an a. iron atom.
A term that describes normal monocyte production is monocytopoiesis
One hemoglobin molecule can carry how many molecules of oxygen? The PMN is also known as a/an
Lymph from the digestive tract is called chyle
You would most likely see postprandial lipemia a. shortly after an animal has eaten.
Along with tissue macrophages, which leukocytes make up the mononuclear phagocyte system? monocytes
When performing a manual differential white blood cell count, how many white blood cells do you count per stained blood smear? d. 100 white blood cells
This granulocyte makes up less than 1% of the circulating leukocytes. basophil
Which vessel carries lymph into a lymph node? d. afferent lymph vessel
Immunoglobulins are produced by which leukocyte? Blastic transformation of B lymphocytes will produce
Granulocytes are blood cells that have a. specific granules in their cytoplasm when the cells are mature.
The process by which blood is prevented from leaking out of damaged blood vessels is hemostasis
What gives hemoglobin its natural color? d. the heme molecule
When monocytes enter tissue they become macrophages
Tonsils differ from lymph nodes in that they a. are not encapsulated.
If immature neutrophils are observed in peripheral blood, the condition is called a a. left shift.
Blastic transformation of B lymphocytes will produce a. plasma cells.
An example of an agranulocytic leukocyte is a/an lymphocyte
Jaundice (icterus) could be a result of b. excessive amounts of unconjugated bilirubin.
The rate of erythropoiesis is controlled by erythropoietin, which is a/an a. hormone produced by the kidney.
Which of the following cells is the most primitive? c. pluripotential stem cell
One antibody type has thousands of antigen receptors on its cell surface. How many types of antigens will typically fit these receptors? 1
The organ in an animal"s body that is the primary site of extravascular hemolysis is the spleen
A term that describes normal monocyte production is monocytopoiesis
Which one of the following blood tests would measure the average size of an erythrocyte in a blood sample? b. mean corpuscular volume
When monocytes enter tissue they become macrophages
Tonsils differ from lymph nodes in that they a. are not encapsulated.
Blastic transformation of B lymphocytes will produce a. plasma cells.
An example of an agranulocytic leukocyte is a/an lymphocyte
The process by which a neutrophil squeezes between the cells of the endothelium to leave a blood vessel and enter tissue is called diapedesis
Where would you look for the thymus in a young animal? c. cranial thorax
The normal reference range for the hematocrit in an adult dog is 35% to 57%. Allover, an adult Golden Retriever, has a hematocrit of 15%. This is an indication that Allover might d. be anemic.
White blood cells use peripheral blood for transportation
You are looking at a stained smear of horse blood and you see a leukocyte with large red granules in its cytoplasm. What cell are you most likely seeing? eosinophil
EDTA is a/an anticoagulant
What type of immunologic cell can protect an animal from a pathogen after the animal"s initial exposure and during a subsequent exposure? d. memory B cell
The complement system can alter a microbial cell membrane through a process of ___ that makes the microbe more 'visible' to a phagocyte. opsonization
External innate immunity depends on d. intact skin.
The virulence of a pathogen refers to d. the relative strength of the pathogen.
When an animal receives a vaccine, about how long will it take before the animal"s immune system will protect the animal from disease? d. 2 weeks
What cell is responsible for production, storage, and release of antibodies? c. plasma cell
If you see a lymphocyte on a stained blood smear, it is most likely what type of lymphocyte? d. T cell
Adaptive immunity b. is associated with memory cells.
Helper T cells help the immune response by secreting __ into the surrounding tissue. cytokines
The most common immunoglobulin produced after an animal has been exposed to a pathogen for a long time is IgG
Chemotaxis is the process of a. attracting phagocytes to a site of injury.
An animal"s first line of defense against potential disease-causing organisms is the skin
Where do T lymphocytes mature? thymus
What cell is responsible for immunity against intracellular pathogens? c. T lymphocytes
Which specific type of immunity is involved in antibody production? c. humoral immunity
Where on an animal would you look for the popliteal lymph node? d. caudal aspect of the hamstring muscles
The type of hypersensitivity reaction that can be associated with a severe allergic reaction from a second exposure to an antigen is c. type I reaction.
The immunoglobulin that protects body surfaces such as mucosal surfaces from foreign microorganisms is IgA
Redness, swelling, heat, and pain are the four cardinal signs of inflammation. A fifth sign that is frequently added is c. loss of function.
The first immunoglobulin produced by newborn animals is IgM
The type of cytokine that is produced by virus-infected cells and attaches to the cell membranes of nearby noninfected cells is a/an interferon
The most common immunoglobulin produced after an animal has been exposed to a pathogen for a long time is IgG
What cell is responsible for production, storage, and release of antibodies? c. plasma cell
Chemotaxis is the process of a. attracting phagocytes to a site of injury.
Transplacental antibody transfer from mother to fetus is an example of d. passive immunity.
The type of immunoglobulin produced through intranasal vaccination is a. IgA.
Excessive numbers of chylomicrons in blood can cause lipemia
Helper T cells help the immune response by secreting __ into the surrounding tissue. cytokines
The complement system can alter a microbial cell membrane through a process of ___ that makes the microbe more 'visible' to a phagocyte. opsonization
Where do T lymphocytes mature? thymus
Which blood cell becomes a macrophage when it enters tissue? monocyte
The “natural pacemaker” of the heart is the c. SA node
The QRS complex on the ECG represents b. ventricular depolarization
In domestic animals, the ________ of the heart rests on the sternum. apex
Which of these vessels carries oxygenated blood? c. pulmonary vein
When looking at a standing animal from the side, you would locate the heart b. between its right and left olecranon processes.
Cardiac output is determined by c. stroke volume and heart rate.
The heart is located in the thoracic cavity in the space between the two lungs. This space is called the mediastinum
The interatrial septum is a continuation of the myocardium
Arterioles are a. small muscular arteries.
What type of muscle is found in the middle layer of a muscular artery"s wall? c. involuntary, nonstriated muscle
Which chamber of the heart sends oxygenated blood to systemic circulation when it contracts? a. left ventricle
The largest elastic artery in an animal"s body is the aorta
The largest vein in an animal"s body is the c. vena cava.
The apex of the heart is made up of the c. wall of the left ventricle.
Which one of the following arteries is most commonly used to check the pulse on a horse? a. mandibular artery
Tricuspid valve stenosis results when the tricuspid valve d. doesn"t open completely during atrial systole.
The mediastinum c. contains the heart, thymus and other structures
Resting membrane potential in nerve cells, skeletal muscle cells and cardiac muscle cells is maintained by c. sodium-potassium pump
The pulmonary circulation begins when deoxygenated blood passes through the __ into the pulmonary circulation. c. right semilunar valve
Deoxygenated blood from the systemic circulation enters the heart at the c. right atrium.
Which valves produce the second heart sound when they snap shut? a. pulmonary valve and aortic valve
The atria of the heart sit at the __ of the heart base
The outermost layer of the heart itself is the epicardium
The largest elastic artery in an animal"s body is the aorta
Which chamber of the heart sends oxygenated blood to systemic circulation when it contracts? b. left ventricle
The impulse to begin each heartbeat of the heart comes from the c. sinoatrial node.
The largest vein in an animal"s body is the vena cava
Which diagnostic test is typically required for identifying arrhythmia? ECG
What event is associated with the first heart sound? a. closing AV valves
The myocardium c. is the muscle forming the walls of the atria and the ventricles
Chordae tendineae are found in the ventricles
The interventricular septum is a continuation of the c. interatrial septum.
The impulse to begin each heartbeat of the heart comes from the b. sinoatrial node.
Which chamber of the heart sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs for oxygenation when it contracts? d. right ventricle
The __ represents the strength of a heartbeat. c. stroke volume
The fibrous sac that encloses the heart is the pericardium
Which vein can be used for venipuncture in nearly all species of animals? a. jugular vein
Another name for the left atrioventricular valve is the c. mitral valve.
The apex of the heart is made up of the c. wall of the left ventricle.
On an ECG reading of one cardiac cycle, the contraction of the main mass of the ventricles is represented by the b. R wave.
If an animal breathes in 500 milliliters with each resting breath and takes 15 breaths per minute, how many liters has the animal inspired and expired in 1 minute? 7.5
If the CO2 level in blood rises above a preset limit, how will the respiratory center adjust the breathing to compensate? b. increase rate and depth of respiration
The nasopharynx sits __ to the oropharynx in a standing animal. dorsal
Bronchodilation and bronchoconstriction are controlled by d. the autonomic nervous system acting on smooth muscle.
The upper respiratory tract includes all structures b. outside the lungs.
The main expiratory muscles are the b. internal intercostal muscles and the abdominal muscles.
The flow of oxygen from inspired air in the alveolar into the capillary is dependent on the PO2 in the alveoli being higher than the PO2 in the capillary.
Which of these species is most prone to asthma attacks? feline
When the external intercostal muscles contract, they rotate the ribs c. upward and forward.
In a relaxed state the diaphragm assumes a dome shape with a. the convex surface facing in a cranial direction.
The ciliated epithelium that lines the trachea has a layer of __ on top of it to trap foreign debris. mucus
The space between each tracheal ring is composed of smooth muscle and fibrous tissue.
The unconscious act of breathing is controlled by the respiratory center in the brainstem
A nasal meatus is created by the turbinates
Tracheal collapse is often seen d. with inspiratory dyspnea.
The blood vessel that brings blood to the lungs from the heart is the b. pulmonary artery.
The trachea splits into two bronchi at the bifurcation
Sinuses are outpouchings of the b. nasal passages.
In a relaxed state the diaphragm assumes a dome shape with d. the convex surface facing in a cranial direction.
The ciliated epithelium that lines the trachea has a layer of __ on top of it to trap foreign debris. mucus
The space between each tracheal ring is composed of smooth muscle and fibrous tissue.
The hilus is found a. on the medial surface of each lung.
The three main condition functions of the nasal passages are d. warming, humidifying, and filtering air.
The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs across a. two layers of simple squamous epithelium.
The boundaries of the glottis are formed by the b. arytenoid cartilages and the vocal cords.
In a relaxed state the diaphragm assumes a dome shape with a. the convex surface facing in a cranial direction.
If the CO2 level in blood rises above a preset limit, how will the respiratory center adjust the breathing to compensate? a. increase rate and depth of respiration
Phonation in an animal begins in the larynx
Blood entering the lungs from the heart is dark red because of b. the high carbon dioxide content.
The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs across a. two layers of simple squamous epithelium.
The part of the stomach that allows the stomach to expand to store food after a large meal is the fundus
How many canine teeth does a ewe have? 0; Ruminants don"t have canine teeth.
Where does the pancreatic duct enter the GI tract? duodenum
The brush border of the small intestines is made up of microvilli
The 'true' glandular stomach of a ruminant is the abomasum
Which one of the following substances gives urine its characteristic color? urobilin
Which one of the following species does not have a gall bladder? equine
An example of an omnivore is a pig
The cartilage that makes up part of the laryngeal cartilage and prevents food from being aspirated into the trachea is the __ cartilage. epiglottic
What type of tooth grows continually throughout the life of an animal? d. aradicular hypsodont teeth
The pattern of muscle contraction that moves through the GI tract is called peristalsis
Which two gases are produced during the fermentation process in the ruminant stomach? c. carbon dioxide and methane
What is the correct order of the parts of the small intestine, starting with the first part? a. duodenum, jejunum, ileum
Acute ruminal tympany is also known as bloat
Which one of these animals has the least ability to vomit? horse
In the Triadan System for documenting teeth, the left mandibular arch contains teeth in the ___ series. 300
The liver is located just caudal to the diaphragm; The liver sits cranial to the mesentery, omentum, and stomach.
Another name for the buccal cavity is the c. oral cavity.
Swallowing happens in three stages. Which stage(s) is/are voluntary and which stage(s) is/are involuntary? b. Stage one is voluntary; stages two and three are involuntary.
Which part of the tooth extends above the gum line? crown
In which part of the large intestine does most water absorption take place? colon
Which motility movement in the small intestine mixes the partially digested food but doesn"t move it toward the large intestine? segmentation
The cheek teeth are the a. premolars and molars.
In ruminants amino acids are absorbed from the intestinal mucosa and transported to the __ by the bloodstream. liver
What effect does sympathetic nerve stimulation have on digestion? c. inhibits digestion
Which one of the following species does not have a gall bladder? equine
Which chamber of the ruminant stomach has mucosa that resembles a honeycomb? reticulum
The intestines are suspended from the abdominal wall by the mesentery
The esophageal groove connects the d. esophagus to the omasum.
Insulin is a hormone secreted by the c. endocrine pancreas.
The two bones that are connected with the TMJ are the c. mandible and temporal bones.
Which two gases are produced during the fermentation process in the ruminant stomach? d. carbon dioxide and methane
The mixing chamber of the stomach is the corpus
The primary function of dietary vitamins is to a. activate enzymes.
During catabolic metabolism carbohydrates are broken down by hydrolysis into monosaccharides
Starches are c. polysaccharides that come from grains, root vegetables, and legumes.
Cellulose is a c. polysaccharide found in most vegetables.
The third stage of catabolic metabolism occurs in the mitochondria
During catabolic metabolism fats are broken down by hydrolysis into fatty acids and glycerol
A catalyst d. lowers the activation energy of a reaction and speeds up the reaction.
Insulin is classified as a a. regulatory protein.
The second stage of catabolic metabolism occurs in the cytosol
In total, what is the maximum number of ATP molecules that can be formed from each molecule of glucose that enters a cell? 38
The molecule with which an enzyme reacts is the substrate
Of the six categories of nutrients, which three produce energy when they are consumed? c. carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins
In general, cofactors and coenzymes assist with a. enzymatic reactions.
During catabolic metabolism fats are broken down by hydrolysis into fatty acids and glycerol
Triglycerides are named for their a. three fatty acids attached to a glycerol molecule.
More than __ amino acids linked together is considered a protein. 50
Postparturient ketosis usually appears c. during lactation.
Hemoglobin is classified as a a. transport protein.
In general, cofactors and coenzymes assist with d. enzymatic reactions.
Cellulose is a b. polysaccharide found in most vegetables.
Which of the following minerals is the most abundant in the body? calcium
During catabolic metabolism fats are broken down by hydrolysis into fatty acids and a. glycerol.
The most important dietary steroid is cholesterol
The fat-soluble vitamins are a. A, D, E, K.
The water-soluble vitamins are Vitamins B12, B6, and C are water-soluble vitamins.
The primary function of dietary vitamins is to c. activate enzymes.
On the average, most mammals are about __ water. 70%
A loss of a minimum of __ of its water would be fatal to an animal. 15%
Examples of trace elements are c. cobalt, fluorine, sulfur.
Which system in the body is the most unaffected by starvation? skeletal
In what part of the kidney is a majority of the DCT found? cortex
What three substances are eliminated from the body through tubular secretion? d. ammonia, hydrogen, potassium
Urine is moved from the kidneys to the urinary bladder continuously
What two substances are normally 100% reabsorbed in the PCT? b. glucose and amino acids
The renal artery is a branch of the aorta
The BUN is a measure of d. blood urea nitrogen.
What is the correct order of organs of the urinary system from cranial to caudal? c. kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, urethra
Urine is moved from the kidneys to the urinary bladder continuously
Which hormone is produced and secreted by the kidney when an animal"s blood pressure is too low? renin
The basic functional unit of a kidney is the nephron
The collection chamber for urine in the kidney is the pelvis
A renal corpuscle is located in the renal cortex
The sphincters that control urination are under __ control. d. voluntary muscle
The high blood pressure in glomerular capillaries forces some __ to leave the blood. c. plasma
The fluid that is filtered through the tuft of capillaries in the first stage of urine production is called d. glomerular filtrate.
Which species of animal has a lobulated kidney when viewed grossly? bovine
Which two hormones play a major role in the control of the amount of water contained in urine? d. ADH and aldosterone
The type of epithelium found in the urethra, ureters, and urinary bladder that allows them to stretch is transitional
Urea is a b. nitrogenous waste.
Which species of animal normally has cloudy urine when it is passed? equine
Because the kidneys sit between and peritoneum and the dorsal abdominal muscles, they are considered retroperitoneal
The sphincters that control urination are under __ control. a. voluntary muscle
Which two ions can the kidney preserve or excrete to regulate the blood pH? a. hydrogen and bicarbonate
What organ produces and secretes aldosterone? d. adrenal cortex
Which hormone is produced and secreted by the kidney when an animal"s blood pressure is too low? renin
What type of muscle is found in the ureters? smooth
Sodium cotransport allows __ to attach to the carrier protein that sodium is using to passively enter an epithelial cell. c. glucose and amino acids
The sphincters that control urination are found in the b. neck of the urinary bladder.
Which animal has uroliths that resemble sand rather than large stones? cat
Glomerular capillaries are a continuation of the d. afferent arterioles.
The medulla of the kidney is made up of mostly b. loops of Henle.
Except in the pig, the right kidney sits __ to the left kidney. cranial
Diabetes insipidus can result from an inadequate release of ADH
The sphincters that control urination are found in the c. neck of the urinary bladder.
The term for a condition where very little urine is being passed is oliguria
Which two ions can the kidney preserve or excrete to regulate the blood pH? b. hydrogen and bicarbonate
Aldosterone a. increases reabsorption of sodium from the DCT and collecting ducts.
The fluid that is filtered through the tuft of capillaries in the first stage of urine production is called b. glomerular filtrate.
In what part of the kidney is a majority of the DCT found? cortex
A kidney can slowly lose nearly __ of its functional ability to make urine before clinical signs of renal failure appear. 67%
Which species of animal normally has cloudy urine when it is passed? equine
Because the kidneys sit between and peritoneum and the dorsal abdominal muscles, they are considered a. retroperitoneal.
Meiosis occurs c. only in reproductive cells.
Where is the nucleus of the spermatozoa located? head
Another name for the capsule of the testis is the c. tunica albuginea.
The female gonads are the ovaries
The tube that receives the penis during breeding is the vagina
The male gonads are the testes
The bands that attach the penis to the pelvis are the crura
Follicular activation is under the influence of d. FSH from the pituitary gland.
The species of animals that 'tie' after the male has ejaculated is the canine
A uniparous animal b. gives birth to one offspring per pregnancy.
The diploid chromosome number is always d. an even number.
Which animal is diestrous? b. canine bitch
The timing for breeding is controlled by the d. estrous cycle.
When engorged, the erectile tissue of the penis is filled with blood
Which species of animal has an os penis? canine
The majority of the volume of semen is composed of a. alkaline secretions from accessory reproductive glands.
The two portions of the male urethra are the d. pelvic and penile portions.
What female part is equivalent to the male penis? clitoris
On average, how often are oocytes replaced in the ovaries? never
In order to fully descend, the testes must pass through the d. inguinal ring.
During which stage of the estrus cycle can dogs develop a pseudopregnancy? diestrus
Erectile tissue is composed of a. fibrous connective tissue and sinuses.
Many sensory nerve endings are found in the __ of the penis. glans
Which two hormones are produced in the ovary? c. estrogen and progestins
The granulosa cells in a developing follicle d. produce estrogen.
If no pregnancy begins during an estrous cycle, when does the corpus luteum degenerate? c. late diestrus
The finger-like projections that make sure the mature female gamete gets caught when it is ovulated are the fimbriae
The female gametes are ova
The tail of the spermatozoa is used for d. propulsion.
One of the typical clinical signs of a Sertoli cell tumor may be a. gynecomastia.
Which part of the spermatozoa contains the most mitochondria? midpiece
The thin membrane that is tightly adhered to each testis and the structures of the spermatic cord is the b. visceral vaginal tunic.
The milk-secreting units of the mammary gland are the alveoli
Capacitation is the term for a. the changes spermatozoa undergo in the female reproductive tract.
Humans and __ have approximately the same period of pregnancy, 9 months. cattle
Another name for a difficult birth is dystocia
In addition to the corona radiata, a spermatozoon must also pass through the __, a thick gel that surrounds the ovum, to fertilize the ovum. b. zona pellucida
The part of the placenta that attaches to the uterus is the chorion
The umbilical cord connects the c. fetus to the placenta.
Intromission is the term for c. insertion of a penis into a vagina.
Which type of placental attachment is seen in cattle and sheep? cotyledonary
There is often a normal short delay between when a newborn starts nursing and when milk starts freely flowing from the teat because of a delay in the action of oxytocin
Implantation occurs in the __ of the uterus. endometrium
The acrosome of the spermatozoa contains d. digestive enzymes.
A pronucleus has a a. haploid chromosome number.
Sexual stimuli in the male results from high levels of __ in the female. estrogen
There is often a normal short delay between when a newborn starts nursing and when milk starts freely flowing from the teat because of a delay in the action of oxytocin
During what stage of labor do the placental sacs rupture? b. second stage
Spermatozoa are transported to the oviducts in just minutes due primarily to d. uterine contractions.
In order for passive immunity to be transferred from mother to offspring, the newborn must have colostrum within c. a few hours after birth.
When during pregnancy do body tissues, organs, and systems develop? during the second trimester of pregnancy
Implantation occurs in the __ of the uterus. endometrium
Which membrane of the placenta forms a sac immediately around the fetus? amnion
During what stage of labor is the placenta delivered? c. third stage
Lactation is started under the influence of b. prolactin, growth hormone, and adrenal cortex hormones.
A placentome consists of an area on the lining of the uterus called the caruncle
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