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VTT Equine Final Pre

QuestionAnswer
True or False: The two most important minerals in a horses diet are calcium and phosphate. False, it's calcium and phosphorus
True or False: A horse is considered a pony if it is under 14.2 hands. True
True or False: The miniature horse is the only horse not to be measured from ground to withers, it is measured from ground to poll. False, it is measured to the last true hairs
True or False: Draft horses are gentle in disposition making them a great all around horse for riding and light work. False, Coldblood or draft horses are used for heavy work and warmblooded horses are great all around horses for riding and light work
True or False: There are two shades of black, fading and non-fading. True
True or False: A horse should be fed 2.5% of it's body weight daily for maintenance. False, it should be fed 1.5% of it's body weight daily for maintenance.
True or False: The Ca:P ratio for foals is 1:1 to 1:3. False, the ratio is 1:1 to 3:1
True or False: Horses are the only animal to not have a gall bladder. No, though they are one of the few large animals not to. Deer also do not.
Define Foal: Horse under 1 year of age
Define Gelding: Castrated male horse
Define Suckling Horse that is still nursing
Define long yearling: Horse between ages 1 1/2 and 2 years
Define short yearling: Horse between ages 1 and 1 1/2 years
List each horse gait in order from Fastest to Slowest. Gallop, canter, trot, walk
List each horse gait in order from Slowest to Fastest Walk, Trot, Canter, Gallop
What are the two ways to group breeds? Temperament, body type
Name two color breeds Palomino, Paint
Name three types of bedding. Straw, wood shavings, Peat moss
What are the three temperament breeds? Cold, warm, hot
What is the difference between a white and grey horse? Black skin = grey while White skin = white
What are the three(out of nine) species, of the equus genus that we discussed in class? Zebra, caballus, asinus
What is the horse dental formula? 2(I 3/3, C 1/1, P 4/4, M 3/3) = 44
What is the alternative term for first phalanx? Long pastern
What is a pro to using straw bedding vs wood shavings? Less bacteria, doesn't get in wounds, safe for foals
What does hind gut fermentation mean? Cellulose digested by bacteria in hind gut
What is the average daily consumption of water? 5 to 10 gallons
On average how long does it take food to pass through the entire digestive tract? 36-72 hours
What color should a horse's forage be? Green
When do the energy requirements change for a pregnant horse? Month 7
How much is a hand? about 4 inches
What is the birthday that all horse's share in the Northern Hemisphere? Jan 1st
Name two gaited breeds. Tennessee Walking Horse, Missouri Trotter
True or False: Vision is assessed by the pupillary light reflex. False, Vision is assessed by the menace reflex, the pupillary light reflex is used to assess neurological conditions.
True or False: For a prepurchase exam, the exam is paid for by the seller and the vet is acting in the seller's best interest. False, it is paid for by the buyer and the vet is acting in their best interest
True or False: If you are acting in the patient's best interest, it is okay to pass judgement on the owner's husbandry practices. False, you should use a nonjudgemental guiding approach or they may just not tell you or worse not call you at all when they do something or something is wrong.
True or False: The blind spots in a horse are directly in front and directly behind. True
True or False: The most common way to test for hydration status is by skin turgor. True, mucus membranes also help to assess this
True or False: Splayed legs and pawing at the ground is referred to as "snaking". False, shaking the lowered head from side to side is called "snaking"
True or False: When walking behind a horse, you should either stay 15 feet back or as close as possible while keeping a hand on the horse. True, this keeps you out of the kick zone and/or keeps them aware of your presence so they don't become startled and kick you.
True or False: A halter is an ideal way to restrain a young foal. False, never restrain or lead a foal with a halter, they are not trained with it and may resist causing injury
True or False: The shoulder twitch should only be used as a last resort when restraining a horse. False, the EAR twitch should only be used as a last resort
True or False: One of the purposes of a tail tie is for rectal exams. True, another is obsetetrics
List three ways to get a respiratory rate on a horse. Visual observation often done at a distance 1st, Auscultation noting sounds and when sounds occur (inspiration vs expiration), Feel (resting hand on the side)
List the four quadrants of the abdomen. Upper Right, Lower Right, Upper Left, Lower Left
List the three reasons for lameness (General not specific disease processes) Pain, Neurological, mechanical interference
List two signs of pain. Rolling, Groaning
List two clinical signs of colic patients. Distended abdomen, pinging on auscultation, pawing at ground, flank watching, profuse sweating, decreased deification, kicking at belly, poor appetite
What is the difference between an insurance exam and a prepurchase exam? In a prepurchase exam you're acting in the best interest of the of the buyer, buyer pays. In the insurance exam a lot of what you examine depends on what the use of the horse will be. Both determine the value of the horse, client pays.
When assessing gait for a neurological exam or a lameness exam, what two gaits do you most commonly observe? walk, trot
What does it mean when a horse has it's ears turned back? Listening behind
What kind of vision does the horse have? Monocular and Binocular
What is the horse's field of vision? 350 degrees
What does it mean when a horse has it's ears pinned back? Angry
The stomach contents voided through a nasogastric tube are referred to as what? Reflux
The pulse rate is taken by what? Palpation of the arteries
When the pulse and heart rate don't match up, it's called a what? Pulse deficit
The normal temperature in horses varies how? By age temperament and environement
True or False: The normal temperature in horses is lower in draft horses. True
Is the normal temperature in foals higher or lower than it is in adults? Lower
Brick red gums indicate what? septic shock
What is the kick zone of a horse? 5.5 to 8 feet
What is NOT a type of twitch used with horses Ear twitch, tail twitch, mechanical twitch, shoulder twitch? Tail twitch
What are stocks used for? Dental work, Nasogastric intubation, Rectal palpations, fluid administration
What does chewing (without food) indicate? Relaxed
When is a foals respiratory rate 60-80 breaths per minute? About 5 minutes after birth
What is the normal respiratory rate in the horse? 8-12 breaths per minute
What is the first step to a proper physical exam? History
Information about the animal's history should be kept in what order? Sequential
What is something that can't be observed from a distance? Heart rate
What are 3 things that can be observed from a distance? Respiration, Posture, Alertness
What must also be noted, along with breaths per minute, with respiratory rate? Rate, Effort, Sounds
What is the most convenient location to get a pulse rate? Facial
Why is it useful to have a ring on the ned of the thermometer? Aspiration of the thermometer, Pushing out of thermometer, To attach string
When auscultating the abdomen how would normal mobility be recorded? +2
When performing a skin turgor test on a severely dehydrated patient, how many seconds might it take for the skin to return to it's normal position? 8 seconds
True or False: A Sweeney occurs because of the influx of blood supply to the area after trauma or strain. False, it occurs because the shoulder atrophies
True or False: One of the clinical signs of a bone spavin is pain upon flexion of the hock. True
True or False: When diagnosing a lameness in the hind limb, the head will rise when the lame limb is bearing weight. False, This is only true if it's a forelimb that is lame if it is a rear limb then it's the croup that rises and if it's more than one limb they'll be resistant to move.
True or False: Most horses won't bear weight on a lamb limb. True
True or False: When both limbs are affected (lameness in both), the horse's croup will rise upon movement. False, they will be hesitant to move.
True or False: The primary cause of quittor, is chronic inflammation of the coffin bone. False, puncture wounds
True or False: One of the clinical signs of navicular syndrome is a choppy stride. True
True or False: Seedy toe is the equivalent to a hot spot, but on the horse's hoof. False
True or False: One treatment for side bone is regular trimming of the hooves. False
True or False: The most common location for blood draws on a horse is the jugular vein. True
True or False: Cystocentesis is not feasible in large animal. True
True or False: The parasitic evaluation of feces is performed by culture and sensitivity. False, C&S are done to test for things such as bacterial infection.
True or False: Abdominal fluid is normally pale yellow, clear, odorless with the consistency of honey. False, it has the consistency of water
True or False: Dose syringes should be placed between the hors's incisors for delivery of medications. False, between the canines and premolars
True or False: A balling gun is the large animal version of a pill gun and makes for giving horse's pills much easier. False, it is designed to do this, but isn't good at it.
True or False: Endometrial biopsies are given a grade of a 1-5 by the histopathologist. False, 1-3 with 1 being normal, 2 being above normal, and 3 being severe
True or False: Stage 2 of parturition is when the foal is delivered. True, it begins with water breaking and ends with delivery
True or False: C-secion is common in horses and the foal has a good chance of survival. False, it is the last resort
True or False: After birth, the umbilicus should be checked at least twice a day. True, for omphalophlebitis or possible formation of abcess
True or False: Foal side test kits are used to test antibody levels in the field. True, usually done in the first 18 to 24 hrs
True or False: Recovery is not always possible after surgery on a bone spavin. True
True or False: The most common location for lameness is in the hind limb of large animals. False, the most common location is in the forelimb
True or False: Neurologic disorders cause lameness without pain, but lameness is usually associated with pain. True
True or False: Surgery is a possible treatment for laminitis. True, antiendotoxic therapy, corrective trimming, and surgery
True or False: Venous blood draws are more prone to hematomas than arterial blood draws. False, it's the reverse
True or False: EDTA is used as the anticoagulant for blood gas samples. False, heparin is
True or False: Voided urine samples are the accepted compromise for not being able to perform cystocentesis on horses. False, catherization is
True or False: Calcium carbonate crystals are normal in horses but not very common. False, they are normal and common
True or False: Abdominocentesis is performed in standing recumbency in adults, lateral recumbency in foals. True
True or False: A reliable method of medicating horses is feed additives. False, it's unreliable
What are the three types of oral medications? Powder, tablet, liquid
What are the three disadvantages to feed additives? Tend to sift to the bottom of the feed bucket, may fall from mouth and not be taken in, May refuse food and meds due to taste
What are the five most readily accessible muscles in horses? Brachiocephalicus, Pectoral, Gluteal, Semitendinosus, Triceps brachii
What is the maximum capacity of volume that can be administered IM in large muscles? 15 ml
What is the maximum capacity of volume that can be administered IM in small muscles? 5 to 10 ml
What are two parts of dental procedures an LVT can perform? Floating, deciduous extractions
What three pieces of equipment are needed for a dental exam? Light, speculum, syringe
Define "points" of the teeth. Sharp points are referred to as hooks on the upper maxillary bucal area. Ramps on the lower mandibular lingual side.
What is the average length of gestation in horses? 330-345 days
What is the average age of puberty in horses? 10-24 months
What are the five "successes" that must occur to produce a live foal? Insemination, conception, implantation, gestation, partruition
The estrous cycle mares have is called what? Seasonally Polyestrus
To extend the estrus cycle of mares, what can people use? Artificial light
The most common cause of dystocia is what? fetal malposition.
The position a foal should be in during delivery is what? nose up feet out
If the foal is unable to be delivered the last resort to retrieve the foal is what? cesarean (C-section)
How soon does fresh semen have to be used? Immediately
How long can cooled semen be stored for? 24 hrs
Frozen semen requires what to be used? thawing
Barbaro originally broke is rear leg. During recovery what did he develop in his remaining limbs. Laminitis
What type of lameness was the laminitis that Barbaro had? Compensatory/complementary
The other name for non-weight bearing lameness is what? Swinging leg disorder
The cause of navicular disease is what? Unknown
The neonatal period is what? The first 4-5 days of life.
What is the most common way to collect semen from a stallion? Artificial Vagina
The average litter size of a horse is what? 1 foal
What is the percentage of foals that die within 48 hours of birth? 2%
How soon after failed breeding will a horse cycle again? 3 weeks
What volume of liquid would be used for a uterine infusion after an abortion? Several gallons
What is a "jump mare"? Mare in heat for stallion to mount during semen collection
What is a "teaser mare"? Mare in heat used to cause erection in stallion
When are embryos transferred to recipient during embryo transfer? 2 hrs after collection, can be stored for 12-24 hours
What is the most common cause of dystocia in horses? Malposition
When is the suckling reflex present? 5 minutes after birth
What environmental interferences may affect the bonding of a mare with a foal? Humans, loud noises, dogs, other horses
What is meconium? first feces
How long can colostrum be stored in milk banks? 1 year
When would microbial culture and sensitivity be done in a uterine sample? If infectious disease is suspected
What size syringe is most commonly used for administering liquid/paste medications? 60 ml
How long can a nasogastric tube be kept in place for medication administration? 24-48 hrs
When administering a medication via parental injection, what should be used to clean the skin? Alcohol
What vein are most IV injections given into? Jugular
How many times a year is it recommended to do a fecal floatation on a horse? twice yearling, in the spring and fall
What do large strongyle adults cause in the horse? Anemia
How are bot flies diagnosed in the horse? Visual assessment - yellow eggs on legs and stomach
What type of lesion do stomach worms cause? summer sores
How is the threadworm diagnosed? Fecal float
How many hours after ingestion can Red Maple Leaf Poisoning cause death? 24-48 hours
What do blister beetles feed on? Alfalfa
How soon after ingestion of yew does death occur int he horse? 2-3 hours
How long must locoweed be consumed before it elicits a reaction? 2 weeks
What type of toxin are foxglove, oleander, and rhododendron considered? Cardiac glycoside
What disease does yellow star thistle cause? Chewing disease
What is the toxin that blister beetles release when killed? Cantharidin
True or False: The most nerve racking part of large animal anesthesia is intubation. False, it's recovery
True or False: The primary protection against compartment syndrome is constant movement off muscle compartments. False, it's maintaining a good blood pressure
True or False: One way we can reduce anesthetic time for the patient is clipping the surgical area before induction. True
True or False: Another name for a field block is a line block. True
True or False: The first priority once the foal is born is drying/warming. False, it's making sure the foal is breathing
True or False: Failure to apply adequate padding can lead to pressure necrosis. True
True or False: It is important to apply constant tension to each layer, keeping all layers the same tension level. False
True or False: If a patient is tampering with their bandage, it may require caustic chemicals to keep them from chewing on it. No, that can hurt them, use a neck cradle
True or False: When using rolled gauze, it is best to use gauze that is less than 3". False, at least 3"
True or False: Cast application is almost always done under anesthesia. True
The family of bandages used to cover open surgical or traumatic wounds on the underside of the hoof are called what? hoof bandages
The most important layer in a bandage is which layer? Padding
What is the padding layer primarily used for? To prevent the strangulation of blood supply
Which layer in a bandage is the only optional layer? The finishing layer
What is the purpose of the finishing layer? To prevent bedding and other debris from entering the bandage
What are the four muscle compartment we discussed in reference to compartment syndrome? quadriceps, triceps, masseters, gluteals
List four of the nine areas/parameters we include in a "cast check" Hot spots, weight bearing, temp, swelling, odor, exudate, wear, cast integrity, inflammation
What does external coaptation refer to? Bandages, splints, casts
What is the commercial name for hoof bandages? EZ boots
Name two common things struts are made from. wooden poles, metal rods, casting tape
Why are anticholinergics not commonly used for pre-anesthetic drug combinations? They decrease GI mobility which can lead to colic
What method of induction and maintenance would we use for a procedure lasting less than one hour? Injectable/Injectable
What is the most common route of tracheal intubation? Orotracheal
How is ideal dept of anesthesia assessed? Eye position (rostral), Palpebral reflexes
What is the simplest type of splint? Robert-Jones
How often should a bandage be checked? Once daily
How can we prevent patient tampering in horses? Neck cradle
Exercise bandages are used for what? Protecting the lower legs during exercise, Protection of the hoof/heel bulbs, support of lower legs during exercise
What anatomical structures should a shipping bandage cover? Below carpus to coronary band
True or False: Hoof bandages can be made from standard bandaging material. True
Who typically applies a hoof bandage? The ferrier
Can hoof bandages be made commercially bought? True
What is the third layer of a distal limb bandage? Padding
What is the most common product used for the wound dressing layer of a bandage? Telfa pad
What artery do you need to be cautious with when applying a tail wrap? Coccygeal
How close to surgery would a horse be allowed to eat hay? 2-4 hours
What class of drug used for epidurals blocks motor fibers along with sensory fibers? Local anesthetics
When is grain most commonly returned to the horse post-surgery? 24 hours post-surgery
During what surgery may anticholinergics be indicated as a pre-med for a horse? Ophthalmic
How close to surgery are foals allowed to nurse? 30 to 60 minutes prior
What are the minimum vitals that should be taken prior to surgery? TPR, lung/heart auscultation, and weight
When would we use injectable induction with injectable maintenance? Surgeries lasting less than 1 hour
True or False: Older horses and miniature horses tend to be more predisposed to choke. True
True or False: Guttural pouch diseases do not occur frequently, but when they do they are medical emergencies. False
If epiglottic entrapment occurs during exercise, a standing endoscopic exam is sufficient to make a diagnosis. False, you have to recreate the circumstance that causes the entrapment
True or False: Intermittent DDSP occurs each time a horse swallows. False
True or False: "Roarers" are horses that have been diagnosed with epiglottic entrapment. False, they have been diagnosed with laryngeal hemiplegia
True or False: Laryngeal hemiplegia only occurs in male thoroughbreds that are used for racing. False
True or False: Coughing and shortness of breath are symptoms of atrial fibrillation, but most of the time there are no symptoms present. True
True or False: COPD is one of the only respiratory diseases in horses that can NOT be diagnosed by endoscopy. False
True or False: When a horse is diagnosed with EIA, the owner can opt to euthanize or place the horse in quarantine with the state. False, the state wants the horse euthanized
True or False: "Swamp Fever" is another name for rhinopneumonitis. False, it's another name for Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA)
True or False: Corneal ulcers can be caused by a number of things, but the cause is usually never determined. True
True or False: Appaloosas and Paints are more at risk for ERU due to the light pigment around their eyes. False
True or False: Definitive diagnosis of ocular squamous cell carcinoma can be made with a swab culture. False, it can be made with a biopsy
True or False: Tetnus is caused by an aerobic organism that is found in the soil. False, it is caused by an ANAEROBIC
True or False: The form of equine encephalitis that is seen in Washington state is VEE. False, it's WEE
True or False: Botulism causes a progressive flaccid paresis and cranial nerve deficits. True
True or False: Horses in Washington state are at a very high risk for Equine Protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM) since every opossum carries the protozoa that causes the disease. False, not every opossum carries the disease
True or False: Determining the cause of colitis is extremely easy after performing a few laboratory tests. False
True or False: Tendonitis can affect both the extensor tendons (on the posterior aspect of the leg) and the flexor tendons (on the anterior aspect of the leg). False
True or False: Homozygous affected HYPP horses tend to have more severe clinical signs than their heterozygous counterparts. True
True or False: Foals can die from septic arthritis; however, the adult form of the disease is far less severe. True
True or False: Male horses are four times as likely to suffer from wobblers as females. False, they're two times as likely
True or False: Signs of OCD can be seen as early as five months of age. True
True or False: Horses with upward fixation of the patella would rather trot than canter. True
True or False: The most common complaint of horses with ethmoid hematoma is severe nosebleeds lasting from minutes to hours. False
True or False: Influenza is not considered life-threatening, however death can occur. True
True or False: Strangles is most commonly caused by Streptococcus hyicus. False, it's most commonly caused by Steptococcus Equii
True or False: Cures for COPD include bronchodilators and steroids. False, however TREATMENT does include these things
True or False: Cribbing is more common in racing communities. True
True or False: Exertional rhabdomyolysis has been recognized in horses as a syndrome of muscle pain and cramping associated with exercise. True
One of the more serious complications of choke is what? Aspiration pneumonia
How many hours after the onset of choke can fever occur 24-48 hrs
The medical term used for describing the inability to swallow food or water is what? Dysphagia
The most common organism involved with guttural pouch mycosis is what? Streptococcus equi
Nasal discharge associated with guttural pouch mycosis is often what color and consistency? Creamy
Which arytenoid cartilage is most commonly affected with laryngeal hemiplegia? The left
Arytenoid cartilage is usually seen in horses between what years of age? 3 and 7
Arytenoid cartilage is graded on what scale? 1 to 4, with 4 being complete paralysis of the cartilage
Equine Recurrent Uveitis (ERU) is also known as what? Moon blindness or Periodic Ophthalmia
The type of equine encephalitis that is seen most frequently is which? Eastern Equine Encephalitis (EEE)
What is the fatality rate for Eastern Equine Encephalitis? 75-100%
The type of equine encephalitis that is seen less frequently is which? Western Equine Encephalitis (WEE)
What is the fatality rate for Western Equine Encephalitis? 20-40%
When performing a "feed test", a normal horse should finish 8 oz of grain how quickly? 2 minutes
What is the incubation period of Equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM)? Weeks to years
What is the prognosis for Epiglottic Entrapment? Good
What is the cure for ERU? None available
What color do ocular squamous cell carcinomas present as? Pink
Who is at risk for tetnus? Everyone
What other disease does HYPP typically present as? Colic
What is the most common point of entry for bacteria leading to septic arthritis? Umbilicus
What horses does tendonitis most commonly occur in? Racehorses
What limb is tendonitis most common in which limbs? Forelimbs
What is the most severe side effect that can occur with Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis? Death
What is wobblers syndrome most commonly cuased by? Spinal cord injury
Where does Equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM) cause lesions? Brain
What is the definitive host for Sarcocystis neuroma? Opossum
What should be noted on the patient's chart in case of any vaccine reactions? Location/route given, vaccine lot number, vaccine serial number, any other vaccines given
What location in the fridge should the vaccines be stored? middle
Why is it important to always read the vaccine insert? It will tell you which route the vaccine should be given, the number of doses recommended will be listed, all safety information will be listed including age requirements for foals
How many doses of Rabies are given to a foal? Initial 2-dose series, 1 doses repeated yearly
How is West Nile Virus transmitted? Mosquitoes
The only licensed anthrax vaccine is what kind of strain? Live
What is the botulism vaccine primarily preventing? Shaker Foal Syndrome
What is the most infectious disease of the respiratory tract of horses? Equine influenza
What serious symptom can Equine Viral Arteritis cause in the foal if the pregnant mare is not vaccinated? Death
What lameness disease can be caused by Potomac Horse Fever? Laminitis
What is the major cause of foal diarrhea? Rotaviral
How is Strangles contracted? Direct contact between infected horses
When are antibiotics indicated for colitis? fever, low WBC count
What are the three forms of botulism? Food borne, shaker foal, wound
What is a grazing muzzle used for? to keep the horse from taking large bites of food/repeat offenders
What disease might a grazing muzzle prevent? Choke
What is the purpose of the DDSP collar? to stabilize the larnyx & hyoid bone - not used all the time,used to train the horse how to hold their neck
What is the prosthetic laryngoplasty commonly called? Tie back
Which surgery option for laryngeal hemiplegia is a second choice option for horses that had a failed laryngoplasty surgery Tie back
How is EIA transmitted? blood feeding insects
How can we prevent EIA? Good husbandry & management (clean, use insect testing, owners should verify new horses had coggins test, should quarantine new horses for 45 days, test every 12 months)
Confirmed cases of HYPP have been restricted to descendants of what horse? Impressive
What is septic arthritis commonly called in foals? "Joint ill"
What are the two forms of Rhinopneumonitis? EHV-1, EHV-4
What does EHV-1 commonly cause? Epidemic abortion in mares, the birth of weak non-viable foals, or a sporadic paralytic neurological disease
What does EHV-4 commonly cause? Respiratory disease (most common), abortion & neurological disease
What treatment for DDSP is illegal in some countries (but common for racehorses in the U.S.)? Tongue tie during exercise
What are the most common locations for ocular squamous cell carcinoma? Eyelid skin, Third eyelid, Limbus(the junction between the cornea and the conjunctiva)
What are some treatment methods for cribbing? Increase pasture time, Increase exercise level, Increase time with horses, and failing that give them a more appropriate item to crib on
Created by: Adeprey4311