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VTT Pharmacology 7

VTT Pharmacology FINAL

The Woods lamp is used to detect what? ringworm
What type of antimicrobial is highly lipophilic, making them one of the few antibiotics available to treat prostate infections? Quinolones
What type of bacteria are aminoglycosides highly effective against? aerobic bacteria
Does Gentamicin work well in the presence of purulent debris? no
Why should tetracycline's not be administered at the same time as Pepto-Bismol? Because they are readily chelated in the gut my mineral divalent cations such as Ca (calcium), Mg(magnesium), Fe(iron), Cu (copper)
Is tetracycline bactericidal or bacteriostatic? bacteriostatic
Do cats and dogs contract pinworms? no
What kind of drug could be used to treat psittacosis? Doxycycline
Which species can be infected with coccidia? dogs, cats, poultry, cattle
Which of the azoles is most likely to cause vomiting and hepatotoxicity? ketoconazole
Why are sulfonamides often combined with other drugs? to make them bactericidal Vs. Bacteriostatic
Tetracycline is readily chelated in the gut by what? mineral divalent cations
Which azole is most likely to be used for otitis externa caused by Malassezia? clotrimazole
The route of administration for oxytetracycline is what? Parenteral
Which group of antibiotics will permanently teeth if given to young animals (including children)? tetracyclines
What is the route of administration and frequency for Simplicef?? Oral S.I.D
How are cephalosporins categorized? by when they were first developed
Aspergillus can grow in where?? old bread
Praziquantel is used to treat what? cestodes
Which drug is used topically to treat KCS? Cyclosporine
What is the proper term for ringworm? Dermatophytosis
What is the proper term for valley fever? Coccidioidomycosis
Which is the only FDA approved systemic antifungal for veterinary use? Griseofluvin
Why is Griseofluvin supplied in microsize ultra microsize formulations? particle must be very small to be absorbed by the gastrointestinal tract
What is the Pasteurella species found in cats? Pasteurella Multocida
Expired tetracyclines decompose to a nephrotoxic compound that causes what? Fanconis Syndrome
What are the clinical signs of Fanconis syndrome? polyuria, polydipsia, reduced appetite, weight loss, lethargy, poor body condition, reduced/abnormal growth (rickets) in young growing animals
What is Fanconis Syndrome? The presence of glucosuria in the absence of hyperglycemia
What breed has a genetic predisposition for Fanconis syndrome? Basenji
What aminoglycoside is the active ingredient in Neosporin? Neomycin
What are the 2 main adverse effects of the aminoglycosides? Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity
What is the active ingredient in Convenia? Cefovecin
What organism causes salmon poisoning? Rickettsia Helminthoeca, which infects the parasite nanophyetus salmincola
Which antibiotic help tear staining in dogs? tetracyclines
Is it normal for Convenia to turn an amber color during storage after it has been opened? yes
What kind of drug is Cipro? Quinolone
Cefopodoxime proxetil is a prodrug, What is the active metabolite? Cefopodoxime
What is the MOA of the quinolones? interferes with DNA gyrase. preventing bacterial DNA from supercoiling
What is the route of administration for amphotericin B? Parenteral IV
What is the primary adverse effect of amphotericin B? Nephrotoxicity
How does methimazole control hyperthyroidism? by blocking the incorporation of iodine
What kind of drug is Apoquel? Janus Kinase (JAK) Inhibitor
What is the active ingredient in Apoquel? oclacitinib
What is Apoquel (oclacitinib) used to treat? pruritus associated with allergic dermatitis and control of atopic dermatitis
Apoquel is used to control atopic dermatitis is dogs that are how old? 12 months or older
Can Apoquel be taken with NSAIDS? Yes
What is the drug of choice for coccidia infections? Sulfadimethoxine
What is the trade name for Sulfadimethoxine? Albon
What causes a goiter? Hypothyroidism caused by a lack of iodine in the diet, T3 and T4 cannot be produced leading to increased output of TRH &TSH causing thyroid cells to proliferate, and the gland increases in size
Which canine parasite is not treated with pyrantel pamoate? canine whipworm
What is the scientific name for the canine whipworm? Trichuris Vulpis
What is the indication for the use of oral Maropitant? For the prevention of acute vomiting as well as vomiting due to motion sickness
What is the trade name for maropitant? Cerenia
What is the minimum age for use of Cerenia (maropitant)? 8 weeks of age
What is the active form of thyroid hormone? T3 triiodothyronine (3 iodines )
What is the inactive form of thyroid hormone? T4 tetraiodothyronine/ thyroxine (4 iodines)
What is the treatment of choice for canine hypothyroidism? Levothyroxine
Why is levothyroxine the treatment of choice for canine hypothyroidism? because it allows each tissue to convert T4 to T3 as needed
What is visceral larval migrans (VLM) condition in which ova of toxocara canis or T.cati are ingested, the larva then hatch, penetrate the wall of the G.I.T and migrate into the viscera (usually the liver, but also the lung, brain, and even eyes)
What is the scientific name for the canine heartworm? Dirofilaria
What drug is used to kill adult heartworms? Melarsomine dihydrochloride (Imitticide)
What is the active ingredient in Advantage? imidacloprid
What is the active ingredient in Frontline? Fipronil
What is the active ingredient in Program? Lufeneron
What is the active ingredient in Capstar? Nitenpyram
How does Advantage kill fleas? effects the nervous system of fleas which are different than that of mammals
How frequently can Capstar be given? Why? daily, very short half life
What is the name of the parenteral flea medication for cats? Program
What are pyrethrins derived from? Chrysanthemums
What are the different types of insecticides? pyrethrins, synthetic pyrethroids, chlorinated hydrocarbons, carbamates, organophosphates, formamidines
What is an example of a formamidine? Amitraz
Is Amitraz safe for use in dogs and cats? No, Safe in dogs only, toxic to cats
What synergist increases the efficacy of pyrethrins and some pyrethroids? piperonyl butoxide
1000mg equals what? 1 gram
What carries an impulse away from the neuron cell body? axon
What drug is used to treat urine spraying in cats? Buspirone
Name an alpha 2 antagonist used to reverse the effects of xylazine Yohimbine
What is an epidural? regional nerve block
What are the symptoms of organophosphate toxicity? S.L.U.D.D.E salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, dyspnea, emesis
multimodal pain managment the use of multiple drugs from different classes concurrently to control pain
What drug is used to manage urinary incontinence in dogs? Phenylpropanolamine or PPA
Name the anticholinergic used to treat cilliary spasm in a painful eye atropine
What drug is nick named milk of amnesia? Propofol
What drug is called laughing gas? nitrous oxide
What drug penetrates the skin readily and tastes like garlic? DMSO
What drug has 100% bioavailability in cats when given via OTM route? buprenorphine
What drug is mixed in equal volumes with ketamine and given IV? diazepam
What drug is a polysulfated glycosaminoglycan? Adequan
What is the active ingredient in Rimadyl? Carprofen
How many pairs of cranial nerves are there? 12
What part of the brain is responsible for pain perception? thalamus
How many mg are in a grain? 64.8mg
What does MAC measure? how potent an inhalant agent is
Describe apneustic respiration a deep inhale, held then rapid shallow exhalations
What cholinergic drug controls vomiting by increasing peristalsis? metoclopramide (Reglan)
What opioid is used as an antitussive? Butorphanol
Expectorant that doubles as an IV induction agent in horses Guaifenesin
What is the benzodiazepine component of telazol? zolazopam
What drug reacts with Baralyme to create compound A Sevoflurane
What local anesthetic has a rapid onset and short duration of effect? lidocane
What is the active ingredient of Domitor? medotomidine
What drug is used to treat canine cognitive dysfunction? Anipryl
What drug is used to treat idiopathic epilepsy? phenobarbital
What class of drug is phenobarbital? class IV
Parasympathomimetic cholinergic
What adrenergic drug is used to treat acute renal failure? dopamine
What opioid can be supplied as a transdermal patch? Fentanyl
What receptors does fentanyl act upon? Mu
What drug may cause permanent penile prolapse in horses? Acepromazine
Lipophilic drugs tend to be more readily absorbed via what route? PO
Hydrophilic drugs tend to be more readily absorbed via what route? IM
Is the somatic nervous system under voluntary control? yes
alpha and beta receptors are located where/ sympathetic nervous system
The peripheral nervous system includes what? the nerves that are outside the brain and spinal cord
What carries messages to the neuron cell body? dendrite
What is an agonist? a drug that combines with a receptor and produces and effect on the cell
What is an antagonist? A drug that combines with a receptor to inhibit an effect on the cell
DEA Drug Enforcement Administration
The cell body of a pre-ganglionic neuron is located where? thoracic or lumbar spinal cord
What makes the capillaries of the brain different from the capillaries of the body? Capillaries of the body have fenestrations whereas the capillaries of the brain do not
Alpha receptors are activated primarily by what? norepinephrine
Dopamine may be used to treat what? anuric renal failure
What drug is used to treat the tachycardia seen in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? propranolol
What is the primary neurotransmitter in the parasympathetic nervous system? Acetylcholine
Which type of drug is most likely to pass through the blood brain barrier? lipophilic drugs
What part of the brain interprets sensory input? cerebral cortex
a hepatic effect in which some PO administered drugs do not make it to systemic circulation because they are removed by the liver the first pass effect
When dopaminergic receptors are stimulated it causes what? vasodilation in the kidneys
An F-1 drug is said to have what? 100% bioavailability
A cholinergic drug may also be called what? a Parasympathomimetic
Parasympathomimetic drugs can be used to do what? decrease intra-ocular pressure, control vomiting, treat urinary retention
Beta agonists can be used to treat what? asthma
What part of the brain controls vital functions such as blood pressure and respiration? medulla oblongata
What part of the brain controls the pituitary gland? hypothalamus
The hepatic portal system is most relevan in which route of drug administration? PO- per os- by mouth- oral
Name 4 things that happen when you stimulate the sympathetic nervous system increased HR, increased RR, Mydriasis, decresed GI motility
What does PPA stand for? phenylpropanolamine
What is PPA used for? to treat urinary incontinence in dogs
What are the 2 sites in the body that have simillar barrier to drug distribution as the brain? the globe of the eye, the prostate
Relative to the ANS how does metoclopramide control emesis? by increasing peristalsis, moving stomach contents through the system more quickly. less time in the stomach = less opportunity to vomit contents back up
What does hemostasis mean? the stopping of a flow of blood
homeostasis the tendency toward a relatively stable equilibrium between interdependent elements, especially as maintained by physiological processes.
Why is atropine used to treat an eye that is painful due to a corneal ulcer? to reduce cilliary spasms
What are the 2 indirect means by which a drug may mimic a natural neurotransmitter? 1. stimulate the release of the natural neurotransmitter without binding to the receptors itself. 2.inhibit the breakdown of the natural neurotransmitter
Why is epinephrine added to a local anesthetic such as lidocane? because it causes vasoconstriction, therefore decreasing perfusion and prolonging the duration of the local anesthetic
name 3 sites that are innervated by sympathetic nerve fibers but NOT parasympathetic? sweat glands, hair follicles, adrenal medulla
Whay does an afferent nerve cell do? sends messages to the CNS (sensory)
What is oliguric renal failure? a condition in which the kidneys are producing very little "scanty" urine
What does SLUDDE stand for? Salivation, lacrimation, urination defecation, dyspnea, emesis
What causes SLUDDE? Organophosphate toxicity
What does a vasopressor do? increases blood pressure
Why would glycopyrrolate be used in rabbits instead of atropine? because some rabbits produce atropinase, which makes them break down atropine more quickly than other species
A micro-drip IV administration set will deliver what? 60gtt/ml
CNS excitement and aggression can sometimes be seen with what drug? Acepromazine
True or false? ketamine provides for excellent visceral analgesia and is therefore ok to use alone for a procedure such as a spay? False, why? Ketamine provides peripheral anesthesia
True or false? perivascular injection of some drugs, like certain barbiturates can lead to tissue necrosis and tissue sloughing true....what drug will you see this with?
Why is diazepam supplied in an amber bottle? because it is light sensitive
True or false? After administration of euthanasia solution, cardiac activity may persist for several minutes after respiratory arrest true
What type of drug is the active ingredient in most euthanasia solutions? barbiturate
Diazepam is a good example of a true what? tranquilizer
Why are barbiturates used with caution if at all in sight hounds?
true or false, diazepam can soak into plastic true
What is the reversal agent for xylazine? yohimbine
What is important to know about the xylazine and its dosing in cattle? the cattle dose is 1/10 the horse dose
in the pain pathway, the translation of a noxious stimulus into a pain message is called? transduction
What is the reversal agent for dexdomitor? Atipamizole
there is a partial recovery, or lessening of anesthesia, shortly after giving an IV barbiturate. this is caused by? redistribution of the drug into lesser perfused tissues such as fat
Dissociative can cause what side effects? hyper salivation, pain when given IV seizures, increased muscle tone, exaggerated laryngeal reflexes
When monitoring a patient who has been given dexmetetomidine, what would you expect to see? pale MM's, slow CRT, bradycardia
What is acepromazine commonly used for? pre-med prior to anesthesia, chemical restraint, sedation for traveling, sedation for 4th of july/new years/thunderstorms
Which drug is used as an appetite stimulant in cats? diazepam
What drug is used as an emetic in cats? xylazine
What is the concentration of acepromazine? 10mg/ml
general anesthesia affects what part of the pain pathway? conscious perception
What drug causes potentially permanent penile prolapse in horses? acepromazine
What is the medical term for penile prolapse? paraphimosis
What drug is commonly used for the management of idiopathic epilepsy? phenobarbital
While under the influence of dissociatives what is it called when an animal holds its breath and exhales in short shallow breaths? Apneustic respiration
How to alpha-2 agonists cause sedation? by stimulating the alpha-2 receptors causing a decrease in norepinephrine
What is norepinephrine responsible for? general alertness
What are the 2 active ingredients in telazol? tiletamine and zolazepam
dissociatives inhibit which receptors in the spinal cord? NMDA
What does NMDA stand for? N-Methyl-D-Aspartate
What is spinal cord wind up? process of increasing sensitivity of spinal cord to pain impulses
What does paradoxical mean? opposite to what you would expect
What is the toxic ingredient in some snail baits that will cause fatal seizures in animal? metaldahyde
What is needed for ordering class II drugs? form 222
Where does form 222 come from? the DEA
What is the main advantage with administration of midazolam as compared to diazepam? midazolam is hydrophilic so it absorbs well IM & SQ
What is the maximum parenteral dose of acepromazine in dogs? 3mg
What is the maximum parenteral dose of acepromazine in cats? 1mg
Why should you not give acepromazine to an animal that is going to undergo intradermal skin testing for allergies? it has acepromazine has antihistamine properties and intra dermal allergy testing relies on a histamine response for accurate results
What are the 3 classes of drugs in kitty magic opioid, dissociative, alpha 2 agonist
ketamine is contraindicated in what 2 injuries? head trauma, open globe injury
How can phenylbutazone be administered? IV PO
What medical condition in cats can lead to thromboembolus and therefore warrant the use of aspirin therapy? hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Flunixin meglumine is used off label to treat dogs with parvo virus, and calves with diarrhea, what exactly is being treated? endotoxemia
The only FDA approved use for DMSO IS? Topical application to reduce acute swelling due to trauma
How does the maintenance dose of meloxicam compare to the loading dose? half of the loading dose
Adequan reduces inflammation and increases hyaluronate in arthritic joints resulting in? thicker synovial fluid
What is combined with aspirin to make it buffered? an antacid
What are the 2 approved routes of administration of Adequan? IM IA
When orally dosing liquid meloxicam to small dogs how should it be administered? on their food, not into their mouth
Which NSAID has a black box warning because it has caused death in cats? meloxicam
What did cats killed by meloxicam die from? acute renal failure/ toxicity
What irreversible ocular problem in dogs can be caused by etodolac? KCS
What is proud flesh? exuberant granulation tissue
give an example of an exogenous pyrogen? virus. bacteria,
phenylbutazone is used predominantly in what species? horses
What are the 4 clinical signs of inflammation heat ,swelling, pain, redness
What does acetominaphen cause in cats? methemoglobinemia
What breed may be susceptible to acute liver failure with Rimadyl Labrador retrivers
in addition to the usual side effects which NSAID can cause flatulence and hairloss tepoxalin/zubrin
What is the active ingredient in Adequan? polysulfated glycosaminoglycan
What is the active ingredient in aspirin acetylsalicylic acid
What does DMSO stand for? dimethyl sulfoxide
list 3 potential side effects of NSAIDS? GI ulceration, renal toxicity, bleeding problems due to anti-platelet effects
When phenylbutazone is given to cattle what is the withdrawl time for a single dose? 30 day
What do NSAIDS inhibit in the arachidonic acid cascade cyclooxygenase
Which COX-2 selective NSAID has been approved for oral use in cats? ONSIOR- Robenacoxib
What is the maximum length of time Onsior can be given to cats? 3 days
What NSAID is supplied as a rapidly dissolving tablet? tepoxalin/zubrin
What does idiosyncratic mean unpredictable
what does idiopathic mean? unknown cause
What does iatrogenic mean? caused by the health care professional
what does opishotinus mean? the head is thrown back and the legs go rigid
Synthetic progestins can cause what? adrenocortical suppression, mammary neoplasia, DM, Pyometra
Opioids when used in which species will cause CNS excitement? horses and cats
behavioral drugs work by? altering neurotransmitters in the brain
inhalents move from the lungs to the blood via what? a concentration gradient
inhalents with a high vapor pressure require what? precision vaporizer
What does MAC tell you about an inhalant agent? how potent it is
How often are fentanyl patches removed? every 3 days
Which inhalant is known to sensitize the myocardium and cause arrythmias halothane
What behavior disorder is selegiline (Anipryl) used for in dogs? canine cognitive dysfunction
neurleptanalgesia using a higher amount of an opioid and tranquilizer in combination to produce profound sedation and analgesia
What is an example of a natural opiod like substance that our bodies make endorphins
Why was N2O used with halothane and methoxyflurane? to speed up induction and recovery provide extra analgesia and reduce adverse effects by lowering the MAC of the other agents
What is TIVA Total intravenous anesthesia
When is TIVA used? field anesthesia, or if the procedure is less than an hour
Why should buprenorphine not be swallowed? first pass effect
What is the active ingredient in clomicalm clomipramine
Inhalant anesthetics can cause what hyper metabolic syndrome in humans and animals? malignant hyperthermia
What is malignant hyperthermia called when it occurs in swine? porcine stress syndrome
Sevoflurane can react with Baralyme to produce what? compound A
What does compound A cause renal damage
What color is associated with sevoflurane yellow
What color is associated with isoflurane purple
What color is associated with desflurane blue
What drug usually comes in ampules? buprenorphine
Created by: Adeprey4311



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