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vet2400
midterm crap
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| why is it important to use surgical instruments only for their designed purpose | to avoid damage, protect useful life, they are expensive and should be handled with care |
| why is it important for ratchets to remain locked when the jaw is closed | it needs to be a reliable mechanism of holing target tissue or item, if the ratchets dont remain locked complications could result |
| which scissor is finer and lightweight and used on delicate tissues | metzenbaums |
| which needle holders have scissors included in the jaw | olsen-hegar |
| allis tissue forceps is considered to be what type of forcep | traumatic |
| the gelpi retractor is a handheld retractor that is frequently used in orthopedic surgery (true/false) | false |
| what type of retractor is a self-retaining retractor that is frequently used during abdominal exploratorys | balfour |
| what part of the anesthesia machine converts the liquid anesthetic into gas anesthetic | vaporizer |
| which valve allows for room air to enter the anesthesia system if negative pressure is detected in the system | negative-pressure relief valve |
| when might a situation of negative pressure exist in the anesthesia system | when the oxygen source is depleted |
| which part of the anesthesia machine indicates the amount of pressure in the system | pressure manometer |
| when the rebreathing bag is being squeezed to ventilate the patient manually the pop off valve needs to be | closed then opened after giving a breath |
| why is it important to confirm that the pop off valve is completely open after the anesthesia machine and circui9t are checked for leaks | when the patient is connected to the anesthesia machine with the pop off valve closed the patient will not be able to exhale |
| what anesthesia monitoring device is used primarily to measure the percentage of available hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen | pulse oximeter |
| ideally the surgery room is | a separate room used only for surgery |
| a 27kg patient would need what sized rebreathing bag | 2 L |
| the suction tip best used to remove large volumes of fluid is | poole |
| which instrument would be used to collect large amounts of bone graft material intraoperatively | bone currette |
| the amount of force in psi that the suture can withstand before it breaks | tensile strength |
| the ability or tendency of the suture to return to its original packaged form | memory |
| the ease with which the suture is manipulated either by the surgeon or tissue | flexibility |
| this type of suture is not broken down by the body and can remain in tact for at least 2 years | nonabsorbable |
| this type of suture can be broken down in the body by phagocytosis, or hydrolysis and may happen as soon as 7 days after placement or take as long as 2 years | absorbable |
| the ability of the suture to allow microbes to be carried to the interior of the suture strand | capillarity |
| this type of suture has two or more braided strands that form a single strand of suture | multifilament |
| this type of suture is a single solid strand of suture material | monofilament |
| the ability of suture to hold the knots the surgeon has place | knot security |
| a good rule of thumb for scheduling surgeries is | schedule cleanest to dirtiest, difficult to easy, longer to shorter, |
| this asa class is a normal healthy patient with no underlying disease | class I minimal risk |
| this asa class is a patient with slight to mild systemic disturbances, patient is able to compensate with no clinical signs of disease | class II slight risk |
| this asa class is a patient with moderate systemic disease or mild clinical signs | class III moderate risk |
| this asa class is a patient with preexisting systemic disease or severe disturbances | class IV high risk |
| this asa class is when surgery is often performed in desperation on patients with life threatening systemic disease or disturbances not correctable by surgery; includes all moribund patients not expected to live 24 hours | class V grave risk |
| what information is included in the patients signalment | age, gender, breed |
| why is it important to review all medications and supplement that a patient is taking before beginning surgery | to avoid drug interactions, perform additional diagnostic tests, make necessary adjustments to anesthetic protocol |
| what can be done to stop a cat from purring during thoracic auscultation | holding a cat near a sink or faucet, with or without it running |
| combining different types of analgesics as premedications that exert major effects on one of the four distinct phases of pain pathways | multimodal analgesia |
| the goals of balanced anesthesia are | maximize effects of certain drugs, minimize side effects of certain drugs |
| these type of catheters generally suffice for short-term use, (1-3days) | peripheral |
| these type of catheters are more appropriate for long term vascular access, (> 3 days) | central lines |
| how can a patients identity be verified | cross-check the signalment and description in the medical record along with the ID band or cage card and ask a coworker to confirm the patients identity |
| why should the patients identity be verified before the animal is anesthetized for surgery | to avoid anesthetizing the wrong patient, to avoid performing surgery on the wrong patient |
| what is the primary purpose of the anesthesia form | to "tell the story" of the anesthetic event from start to finish, it can help guide protocols for the future |
| what should be done to the patient after the hair clip and before the patient is moved into the surgery suite | vaccuum the clipped hair, check to see if the bladder needs expressed, perform initial skin scrub |
| it is accepted practice to scrub a patient initially with a povidone iodine product (true/false) | true |
| what contributes to hypothermia of the anesthetized patient | muscle relaxation, the surgical prep, using room temp IV fluids, breathing cold gases from compressed cylinders |
| where should the first spray of the final prep be sprayed | directly into the kick bucket |
| what are some safe techniques for preventing hypothermia in small animal surgical patients | circulating warm water pads, snuggle safe discs |
| what is the next step after the patient has been induced with anesthesia and the intended surgical site has been clipped and had an initial prep | the patient is moved to the surgery room and is positioned on and secured to the surgery table then the final prep is performed |
| what position is the patient placed in for abdominal exploratory surgery | dorsal recumbency |
| for orthopedic surgery on the extremity only the side of the limb to be incised needs to be clipped and prepped (true/false) | false |
| what position is the patient placed in on the surgery table for thoracic surgery | with the side to be incised facing upward |
| after application of a scrub product what should be applied | a rinsing agent to remove the detergent |
| the process of scrub then rinse should be performed a minimum of how many times | 3 |
| you should always begin a surgical prep at what point of the surgical field | at the proposed incision site |
| chlorhexidine scrub or solution can be used as the final sterile surgical paint (true/false) | false |
| what is the surgical assistant responsible for during the surgery | monitoring the patient, maintaining hemostasis |
| what should the surgical nurse don on leaving the surgery suite | laboratory coat |
| why should scrub suits not be worn from home to the hospital | they can carry microorganisms into the hospital when worn from home to the hospital |
| why should scrub suits not be worn home from the hospital | they can carry microorganisms home and infect the personnel own pets |
| the surgical nurses scrub top should be | tucked into the scrub pants |
| it is recommended that all nonscrubbed personnel wear long-sleeve laboratory coats in the surgery room (true/false) | false |
| jewelry and long finger nails are protected by the sterile gloves and therefore do not need to be removed or cut (true/false) | false |
| what does managing the instrument table involve | keeping the instruments organized, counting the instruments and gauze squares at the beginning and end of procedure, loading the needle holders with the suture needle |
| what should the scrub suit be covered with at all times when outside the surgical area | clean laboratory coat |
| what are the two most important practices used to prevent surgical infections | aseptic and sterile technique |
| what areas of the scrubbed in personnel's gown are part of the sterile field | front of the gown from chest to the level of the sterile field |
| the absence of pathogenic microorganisms that cause infection | asepsis |
| absence of all living microorganisms including spores | sterile |
| the commitment of the surgical personnel to adhere strictly to aseptic technique, because anything less could increase the potential risk of infection resulting in harm to the patient | surgical conscience |
| the person who opens packs and is a runner for the surgical team | circulating nurse |
| strike through renders surgical drapes "sterile proof" and therefore drapes affected by strike through cannot become contaminated under any circumstance (true/false) | false |
| the edges of all sterile packages are considered nonsterile (true/false) | true |
| it is acceptable practice for the circulating nurse to reach over the sterile field if required to assist the surgeon or surgical assistant (true/false) | false |
| unscrubbed personnel can walk between two sterile fields (true/false) | false |
| if unscrubbed personnel enter or touch the sterile field it is non longer considered sterile (true/false) | true |
| the space above and surrounding an open sterile pack is considered part of the sterile field (true/false) | true |
| what should be done immediately before beginning the surgical hand antisepsis procedure | wash hands and forearms with soap and running water, cleaning under the nails and drying with a paper towel |
| when performing a surgical hand scrub how many times should a surface be brushed before moving on to the next area | 10 times |
| a new veterinary technician is preparing to start her job tomorrow, which is the most appropriate nail care practice | clip nails shorter than fingertips and remove nail polish |
| a vet tech is about to step out of the surgery room for a minute what should be put on before leaving the room | a clean laboratory coat over the scrubs |
| a surgical mask should cover what areas of the face | nose and the mouth |
| a good antimicrobial detergent should offer | broad-spectrum activity, non-irritating to tissues, offers persistent effects with cumulative activity, fast-acting and effective, and FDA compliant |
| what is the most appropriate chronological order for a surgical had scrub | fingers, hands, forearms, elbows |
| which portions of surgical apparel should no be considered sterile | back of the gown and the cuff portion of the gown |
| liquids from an unclipped and non sterile area of an animals body seeping through the sterile drape onto a sterile portion of the patient | strike through |
| what are four instruments included in the harrison college surgical pack | carmalts, metzenbam dissecting scissors, backaus towel clamps, mayo hegar needle holders, kelly hemostatic forceps, |
| how frequently should physiologic parameters be recorded in the anesthesia log during surgery | every 5 minutes |
| what contributes to hypothermia of the anesthetized patient | muscle relaxation, the surgical prep using water and alcohol, administering room temp IV fluids |
| hypotension can be caused by | cardiac insufficiency |
| which reflex significantly diminishes or is absent when the patient enters the surgical plane of anesthesia | palpebral |
| which class of drugs causes muscle rigidity | dissociate anesthetics |
| what type of surgical procedure may create a challenge for monitoring the patient owing to patient positioning | perineal urethrosotomy |
| which monitoring device measures exhaled CO2 | capnometer |
| a change in which wave of an electrocardiogram is likely when myocardial hypoxia is occuring | T wave |
| to ensure the most accurate blood pressure reading the cuff should be what percentage of the width of the patients limb | 40% |
| the surgical staff member taking a sterile pack from a circulating nurse during surgery should be most concerned with | not touching the nonsterile parts of the packaging |
| what instrument is the most appropriate to use to place a blade into a scalpel handle | needle holder |
| when threading an eyed needle the tech should place the needle holder how far into the needles curve | two-thirds |
| what is the most appropriate placement of the instrument when handing a ring-handled instrument to the surgeon | the ring handles should be pointing toward floor |
| during surgery how is it most appropriate to use a moist lap pad | between a self-retaining retractors blades and the patients tissues |
| an assistant uses a sponge to wipe away blood from a hemorrhaging site, but the patient continues to bleed excessively, what is the most appropriate next step | firmly blot the site |
| which suture pattern is a surgeon most likely to use to close the skin of a dog in whom a penrose drain has been placed | simple interrupted |
| what are the acceptable lower and upper limits on heart beats per minute for an anesthetized dachshund dog | 70-200 |
| inadequate tissue perfusion during anesthesia puts what organ most at risk for damage | kidneys |
| if the CRT is prolonged in an anesthetized patient aside from reduced arterial blood pressure what is most likely the additional cause of the prolonged CRT | peripheral vasoconstriction |
| the veterinarian should be notified immediately if the mean arterial blood pressure of an anesthetized animal reaches | 60 mm Hg |
| the tech determines that the blood vessels of a patient under anesthesia are expanding and blood is pooling, venous return to the cardiac system is decreased reducing the patients blood pressure, what is most likely the cause of hypotension | excessive vasodilation |
| during anesthesia the tech notices with a stethoscope that breath sounds are increasing in intensity and wheezing is heard, what is the most likely explanation of this | pulmonary airway narrowing, or presence of fluid in the lungs |
| during anesthesia the tech notices agonal breathing of the patient, this is most likely a sign that what has occured | cardiac arrest |
| during surgery the tech manually ventilates the patient and immediately smell a pungent gas odor, this is most likely a sign of | an incomplete cuff seal on the ET tube |
| testing what two reflexes is most appropriate before attempting to intubate a patient are | pedal and laryngeal |
| testing what reflex in a euthanized patient is most appropriate to determine death | corneal |
| a patients eyes rotating ventrally is most likely to signify the animal is in which stage of anesthesia | surgical |
| in addition to monitoring the pulse rate, a pulse oximeter also does what | measures percentage of available hemoglobin saturated with oxygen |
| what is the normal range of systolic blood pressure in an anesthetized dog or cat | 90-160 mm Hg |
| what machine is most helpful to evaluate a patients respiratory rate and quality of respiration's | capnometer |
| an anesthetized patient has an expired CO2 level of 25mm Hg, the machinery is in working order, what should be done to correct the hypocarbia | administer analgesic and decrease ventilation |
| direct blood pressure monitoring is best performed by placing a catheter into what on the patient | artery |
| what tasks are the responsibility of the surgical assistant | passing instruments to the surgeon, maintaining the surgical table, setting up the instrument table before surgery, counting instruments before and after surgery |
| a anesthetized patient begins to develop pulse deficits a few minutes into the surgery, what will most likely result of this condition if it is not treated quickly | shock |
| the respiratory rate of an anesthetized cat is 5 breaths/min, this is most likely a sign of | excessive anesthetic depth |
| what type of sponges are best used for surgery | string woven radiopaque |
| the first ground drape placed for four corner draping is on which side of the patient | the side closest to the person draping |
| what position is the patient placed in for abdominal exploratory surgery | dorsal recumbency |
| what types of procedures are considered abdominal surgical procedures | ovariohysterectomy, routine closed castration |
| what is the primary indication for an ovariohysterectomy | reproductive sterilization |
| why is it beneficial to spay a dog before her first heat cycle | to decrease the chance of unwanted litters, and decrease the chance of development of unwanted mammary tumors |
| what breeds of dogs have an increased risk of dystocia | pugs and bulldogs |
| during which procedures would the uterus be removed | routine ovariohysterectomy or en bloc resection |
| what would be an indication for abdominal exploratory surgery | splenic tumor or ruptured bladder |
| what retractor is routinely used in abdominal exploratory surgeries | balfour |
| what surgical procedure involves making an incision into the stomach | gastrotomy |
| which intestinal surger involves removing a piece of the intestine and suturing the ends of the remaining intestine back together | resection and anastomosis |
| sterile saline can be injected into the surgical site to check for an leakage after the anastomosis site has been closed (true/false) | true |
| what should always be performed before closing an abdomen if peritonitis is suspected | bacterial culture swab |
| what refers to surgically attaching the stomach to the body wall | gastropexy |
| a gastropexy procedure prevents further bloat occurrences (true/false) | false |
| a patient that needs to have an abdominal exploratory for internal hemorrhage resulting after being hit by a car should have their bladder express before being moved into surgery (true/false) | false |
| what term refers to a joint | articular |
| neonatal kittens should be placed with the dam to allow nursing as soon as possible (true/false) | true |
| purulent discharge from the vulva is present in all cases of pyometra (true/false) | false |
| what term refers to a fracture that is on an incline or slanting in relation to the long axis of the bone | oblique |
| what term refers to a fracture that curves around a center point or axis | spiral |
| what devices are used in internal fixation of fractured bones | intramedullary (IM) pins and bone plates |
| what devices are used in external fixation of fractured bones | ring fixation |
| what are possible complications associated with internal fixation of fracture repair | non-union, malunion, delayed union, aseptic loosening |
| splints are appropriate only for fractures that are distal to the elbow and stifle (true/false) | true |
| which diagnostic tests may aid in diagnosing a torn cranial cruciate ligament | cranial drawer test, tibial compression test |
| what diagnostic test used to evaluate masses does not usually require sedation or anesthesia, is easy to perform, has minimal morbidity associate with it, but has a low diagnostic yield | fine needle aspiration |
| for what condition is a lateral ear canal resection indicated | chronic otitis externa, neoplasia of the ear canal |
| baby shampoo diluted 1:3 with water is both effective and safe in cleansing the periocular area before surgery (true/false) | true |
| which breeds are predisposed to protrusion of the gland of the third eyelid, also known as "cherry eye" | cocker spaniel, boston terrier, great dane |
| what types of procedures are considered minimally invasive | laser surgery, laparoscopy, endoscopy |
| what are some workplace hazards associated with laser surgery | eye and skin damage, smoke plume hazard, fire hazard |
| what advantage does laparoscopy have over traditional laparotomy | smaller surgical incisions, lower postoperative morbidity |
| what can be diagnosed by gastroscopy | helicobacter infection, foreign bodies in the stomach, gastric ulceration |
| how long should a patient be fasted before a gastroscopy | 6-8 hour food fast, 4 hour water fast |
| lymphoma is the most common intestinal neoplasia (true/false) | true |
| duodenoscopy aids in the diagnosis and treatment of small intestine disease (true/false) | true |
| colonoscopy refers to the endoscopic technique of examining the | rectum, large intestine, and cecum |
| in addition to rendering a male cat unable to reproduce what also would indicate the need for castration | prevent aggressive behavior, prevent urine spraying, prevent roaming |
| when does the postoperative recovery period being for the surgical patient | on discontinuation of anesthesia |
| brachycephalic breeds should have the endotracheal tube removed at the first sign of return of the ability to swallow (true/false) | false |
| once the patient is extubated, the anesthetists can relax bc all risks associated with anesthesia immediately cease on extubation (true/false) | false |
| all animals that undergo an anesthetic/surgical procedure are at risk for hypothermia (true/false) | true |
| what phase is used to describe the excitement and exaggerated and uncontrollable movements some patients exhibit during the recovery phase of anesthesia | emergence delirium |
| what conditions can contribute to a prolonged recovery from anesthesia | hypoglycemia, liver disease, kidney disease |
| what methods can hasten a patients recovery from anesthesia | physical stimulation, oxygen supplementation with or without manual ventilation, warming measures, reversal agents |
| what postoperative complication involves premature suture loss and surgical site opening | dehiscence |
| the process of removing dead tissue and debris from a wound | debridement |
| topical antimicrobial medications are usually | discontinued once granulation tissue appears in the wound |
| bandages, splints, and casts are used to immobilize bones and joints, which decreases pain associated with fractures and facilitates healing by securing bone fragments close together (true/false) | true |
| with a bandaged limb, leaving the toes exposed does what | allows for monitoring the amount of swelling that may occur under the bandage, and allows for comparing of the toes with those on the other limbs |
| drains are usually removed in 3-5 days after application, and applying petrolatum-based ointments applied to the skin around the drains exit site help prevent exudates from accumulating and clogging the drains exit site (true/false) | true |
| physical therapy should be performed shortly after analgesics have been administered to the surgical patient (true/false) | true |
| cold generally is applied to recent wounds and heat to wounds at least 3 to 5 days old (true/false) | true |
| what are the benefits of massage to the surgery patient | muscle relaxation, improved blood and lymph flow, pain relief |
| the terms effleurage and petrissage refer to which physical therapy modality | massage |
| what is the minimum amount that an animal should consume orally before assisted feeding is needed | 85% |
| how long should an animal be allowed to not eat before intervention is sought | 3 days |
| how can a vet tech determine whether a patients pain was successfully managed through surgery and into the postoperative period | recovery is smooth, patient remains calm and quiet post op, signs of overt pain are absent |
| patients undergoing soft tissue elective surgery should receive opiods for 24 hours and NSAIDs for 3 to 4 days post op (true/false) | true |
| NSAIDs are the only class of analgesics that may safely be sent home with the owner for at home pain management following surgery (true/false) | false |
| in what room should anal sac surgeries and abscessed wound be lanced and flushed | in the prep room |
| what items should be located in the scrub area/room | scrub sink, autoclave, table/counter to hold open gown packs |
| all procedures should be performed in the surgery room, whether they are considered "clean" or "dirty" (true/false) | false |
| the surgery room needs to have easy access, so doors should not be placed between surgery rooms and scrub or prep areas (true/false) | false |
| the air pressure in the surgery room should be greater than that in the rest of the hospital to reduce the influx of bacteria into the surgery room (true/false) | true |
| moveable equipment in the surgery room should not leave the surgery room (true/false) | true |
| what should be done to moveable equipment when it is removed from the surgery suite | it should be thoroughly cleaned and disinfected before being returned to the surgery room |
| in absence of cleaning instructions from the manufacturer, stethoscopes, blood pressure cuffs, and other noncritical items can be cleaned in what manner to be used in the surgery suite | cleaned and then disinfected with alcohol |
| how often should the surgery room floor be cleaned | daily |
| surgery rooms should be cleaned daily whether they are used or not (true/false) | true |
| why are refillable soap dispensers not recommended for use in the surgery prep or scrub area | they can harbor bacterial growth |
| what is the difference between antiseptics and disinfectants | antiseptics are intended for use on living tissues, and disinfectants are intended for inanimate objects |
| regarding disinfectants, what does "contact time" refer to | the time required for the disinfectant to be in contact with the microorganisms to achieve its intended effect (ie significantly reduce the number of microorganisms) |
| what can affect a disinfectants effectiveness | amount of protein present in the area, type of microorganism present, concentration of the disinfectant |
| what is the correct order of events used to achieve the level of disinfection required for surgical suppliers and instruments | clean> sanitize> sterilize |
| basic cleaning of surgical instruments involves which order of steps | presoaking> decontaminating> ultrasonic cleaning |
| what is the purpose of presoaking surgical instruments | to prevent blood and other surgical debris from drying on the instruments, to soften blood and other surgical debris already dried on the instruments |
| what process involves manually cleaning surgical instruments in detergent | decontaminating |
| after ultrasonic cleaning, instruments should be | rinsed with distilled water |
| steam indication tape is recommended for securing the wrapping material of an instrument pack (true/false) | true |
| both the inner and the outer wraps of a surgical pack should be closed with steam indicator tape (true/false) | false |
| what are two methods used to identify how long a previously sterilized item is considered sterile | expiration dating and event-related expiration of sterility |
| what are acceptable ways to sterilize items for use in surgery | gravity air-displacement autoclave, high-vacuum autoclave, ethylene oxide unit |
| what is an example of a chemical sterilization indicator | steam indicator tape |
| power drills used in orthopedic surgery should not be submerged in liquids (high level disinfectants) or clean in ultrasonic units (true/false) | true |
| endoscopes are routinely submerged in high-level disinfectants rather than steam sterilized (true/false) | true |
| what is most appropriate to do to the surgery room floor at the end of the day | wet vacuum |
| if instructed to engage in terminal cleaning one should expect to what | stay to the end of the surgery day and clean the surgery and prep rooms and all equipment |
| what is not an ideal characteristic of a disinfectant product | single spectrum |
| a disinfectant is most likely to be rendered ineffective by what | off label dilution |
| what is considered a high level disinfectant but not a sterilizing agent and is most appropriate for cleaning endoscopes | glutaraldehyde |
| to prevent blood and other surgical debris from drying on the instruments it is most appropriate to do what | presoaking |
| avoiding buildup of which of the following best explains why it is important to pay special attention to the surgical instruments box locks, joints, and serrations during decontamination | biological debris |
| what is not an ideal characteristic of wrapping material used for surgical packs | impermeable |
| after a surgical pack is complete what is the most appropriate next step | sterilize it |
| an autoclave uses what to do its job | pressurized steam |
| concerning drapes and gowns used in surgery how should they be folded | accordion style |
| the "flash" sterilization setting on the autoclave is commonly used for | emergency (very rapid) sterilization of instruments |
| after ethylene oxide sterilization materials should be | quarantined in a well ventilated area for at least 24 hours |
| how is an antiseptic different from a disinfectant | the former kills or inhibits infectious agents on living tissues and the latter on inanimate objects |
| since sterility cant be guaranteed, most cold-sterilized instruments should only be used for minor procedures (true/false) | true |
| these systems use a gas to sterilize items | ethylene oxide |
| soap that has free negatively charged ions that precipitate when combined with calcium and magnesium in hard water | anionic detergent |
| chemical that inhibits or prevents the growth of microbes on living tissue | antiseptic |
| agent that destroys (kills) bacteria | bactericide |
| agent that inhibits the growth of bacteria | bacteriostat |
| contains positively charged ions that remain suspended in solutions (eg quaternary ammonium) | cationic detergent |
| agent that kills living organisms | biocide |
| chemical that contains free ions and leaves a film on surfaces | detergent |
| chemical used to inhibit or prevent the growth of microbes on inanimate objects | disinfectant |
| agent that kills fungi | fungicide |
| to reduce the number of microbes to a safe level | sanitize |
| agent that kills spores | sporicide |
| to eliminate all microbes by killing or inactivation | sterilize |
| agent that kills viruses | virucide |
| wounds closed immediately after injury. used for clean, new wound with little to no contamination | primary closure |
| wounds closed within 1-5 days after the injury occurs, used for moderately contaminated or traumatized wounds, the wound should be free of infection and granulation tissue has not formed | delayed primary closure |
| wounds closed after 5 days, granulation tissue has formed, used for severely contaminated or traumatized wounds that require extended wound management | secondary closure |
| wound is not closed, it is allowed to heal by contraction and epitheliaziation | secondary intention |
| a wound created under sterile conditions that does not enter into the GI tract, respiratory tract, urogenital tract, or oropharyngeal areas such as a surgical wound | clean |
| a wound with minimal contamination, the level of contamination can be removed or reduced such as a surcial incision into the GI tract, respiratory tract, urogenital tract or oropharyngeal areas | clean-contaminated |
| heavy contamination is present such as leakage of intestinal contents into the peritoneum during an enterotomy | contaminated |
| old traumatic wound, active infection with purulent exudate such as a laceration that was left unattended and became infective | dirty |
| these analgesics cause sedation, low blood pressure, respiratory depression | opioids |
| these analgesics do not generally cause any side effects unless give by CRI, with CRI nausea, vomiting, neurologic signs, or seizures can be seen | local anesthetics |
| these analgesics can cause GI disturbances, GI bleeding, and renal disturbances | NSAIDs |
| these analgesics can cause bradycardia, cardiac arrhythmia, hypertension, peripheral vasoconstriction | a2-agonists |
| what is the oxygen flow rate that should be used during induction when using a rebreathing system | 3L |
| what is the maintenance oxygen flow rate that should be used during surgery when using a rebreathing system | 25-50ml/kg/min but not less that 500ml/min |
| what is the oxygen flow rate during the recovery period when using an rebreathing system | 3L |
| what is the oxygen flow rate that should be used during induction when using a non rebreathing system | 200ml/kg/min |
| what is the oxygen flow rate that should be used during maintenance anesthesia when using a non rebreathing system | 200ml/kg/min |
| what is the oxygen flow rate that should be used during recover when using a non rebreathing system | 200ml/kg/min` |
| how do you calculate tidal volume of a patient | 10ml/kg of body weight |
| how do you calculate bag size in mL for a patient | 5 x tidal volume= bad size in mL |
| proper scrub attire is meant to reduce the chance that microbes will be released into the surgery area, these microbes are most likely present where on the human body | sebaceous and sweat glands around hair follicles |
| during a surgical procedure a vet tech feels that she is about to sneeze, what is most appropriate to do | dont turn head, step back from the sterile field |
| how long is the minimum amount of time that presurgical mechanical scrubbing should take to be done correctly | 5 minutes |
| what antimicrobial skin cleansing agent does not have residual activity | alcohol |
| what is the most appropriate chronological order for a surgical hand scrub | fingers, hands, forearms, elbows |
| immediately after completing the hand scrub, what is the most appropriate next step for the vet tech to take | dry the hands with a sterile towel |
| toward the end of a surgery the tech's right glove is inadvertently contaminated. The tech steps away from the sterile field and the surgical nurse properly takes off the glove. What method of re-gloving is most appropriate | assisted |
| what is not appropriate to include in a patients signalment | medications |
| a vet tech is performing thoracic auscultation on a dog, where is the most appropriate anatomical location to place the stethoscope | caudal to where the dogs left elbow meets the chest |
| what is considered to be part of a minimum database for young and healthy surgical candidates presurgical blood work | TP, ALT, BG, PCV |
| what is not considered to be part of a minimum presurgical blood work database for young healthy surgical candidates | fibrinogen |
| the veterinary surgical team can target several points along a patients pain pathway by using what process | multimodal analgesia |
| what type of drug would not be used to deliver preemptive analgesia | analeptics |
| how long before surgery should a NSAID be administered | 1-2 hours |
| what type of medications are alpha2-adrenergic agonist approved for use in dogs in the US | medetomidine and xylazine |
| what type of drug combination is most appropriate to give a healthy young animal that is in obvious distress and agitation before sugery | sedative and analgesic |
| what type of premedication is most appropriate to use for a patient undergoing a procedure that is expected to produce significant and sustained bradycardia | anticholingergic |
| what type of catheter is most appropriate to use when vascular access is required for medication that needs to be administered slowly once | butterfly |
| what type of catheter is most appropriate to use when vascular access is required for long-term fluid therapy | jugular catheter |
| when leak checking an ET tube before surgery the absence of what when placed in a pan of clean water denotes that the tube has no leak | bubbles |
| the buffy coat contains which elements | white blood cells and platelets |
| the TP of a 12 year old dog is decreased, what is the most likely clinical finding in this dog | edema |
| what phase of nociception involves palpation of a wound/injury that elicits pain causing the patient to vocalize and withdrawal from the person palpating | perception |
| the proper endotracheal tube size to use is a decision based primarily on what | the patients weight |
| what anatomical structure is located lateral to the edges of the glottis | vocal folds |
| what techniques are most appropriate to use to confirm proper placement of an endotracheal tube | blowing of gauze or hair, air movement, patient cough, fogging in the tube |
| the AORN recommends cleaning the perimeter of visibly solid areas in the surgical field by a minimum of how many feet | 3-4 feet |
| what does AORN stand for | association of perioperative room nurses |
| during surgery, the tech manually ventilates the patient and immediately smells a pungent gas odor which is most likely a sign of what | an incomplete cuff seal on the ET tube |
| after intubation of a patient testing what reflex is most appropriate to determine if the animal is in the surgical plane of anesthesia | palpebral |
| the plateau display wave of a capnography tracing is most likely to indicate what of the anesthetized patient | end-tidal CO2 levels |
| a new vet tech is instructed by their supervisor to engage in terminal cleaning, what should they be prepared to do | stay to the end of the surgery day to clean the surgery and preparation rooms and all equipment |
| a new vet tech is instructed by their supervisor to properly clean the moveable equipment in the surgery room what type of cleaning solution is most appropriate to use | disinfectant |
| what type of surgical scrub pattern is most appropriate to place a purse string suture in the anus before preparation is begun | perineal |
| a cat is to undergo neutering, what position is the most appropriate to place the animal on the surgical table | dorsal recumbency with the hind-limbs pulled toward the head |
| which bodily fluid or product will most likely deactivate the effects of a chlorine-based disinfectant | fecal matter |
| a disinfectant is most likely to be rendered ineffective by what | off-label dilution |
| what is considered to be a high-level disinfectant but not a sterilizing agent and is most appropriate to use when cleaning endoscopes | glutaraldehyde |
| what process will most likely rid an object of all living microbes | sterilization |
| what does an autoclave use to do its job | pressurized steam |
| what sterilization method is most appropriate to use when an instrument has been dropped during surgery and the surgeon needs them cleaned | flash |
| a new tech is taking packs out of the autoclave, how do they know the conditions for sterilization have been met | the chemical indicator tape has changed color |
| after surgery the technician takes the animal to the recovery cage, what is most appropriate to do next | monitor the patients vitals and administer pain medications |
| which of the following patients is not at increased risk for post-op hypothermia: 16 week old kitten, 4 yr old italian greyhound, 3 yr old cat, 14 yr old great dane, 4 month old minature bull terrier | 14 yr old great dane |
| avoiding buildup of what best explains why it is important to pay special attention to surgical instruments' box locks, joints, and serrations during the decontamination process | biological debris |
| after decontamination of surgical instruments, what is the most appropriate next step | ultrasonic cleaning |
| after surgery the patient is thrashing about, crying out, and paddling all four limbs. What is the most likely explanation of this behavior | emergence delirium |
| Which of the following animals should be given reduced concentration of anesthetic agents during surgery: neonates, sight hounds, kidney disease patients, liver disease patients | all of them! |
| in the recovery cage after surgery the patient is bleeding from its surgery site what is the most appropriate action to take | apply direct pressure to the surgery site |
| the patient is bleeding from the surgical site post-op and the surgeon is concerned about internal bleeding. The patient has pale MM, swelling at the surgical site, & rapid respirations. What is another sign that the patient has internal hemorrhage | abdominal bloating, hypotension, slowed CRT |
| the patient is bleeding from its surgical site, if the vet team can't correct this hemorrhaging event what is the most likely outcome for the patient | hypovolemic shock |
| a patient has a lump at its surgical site 24 hours after surgery, aspirate of the lump is straw colored. What is the most likely cause of the lump | overactive post-op causing a seroma |
| a few hours after surgery a patient has an influx of white blood cells into its wound, what wound-healing stage is the patient most likely to be in | debridement phase |
| a few days after surgery fibroblast and granular tissue invade a wound site, what wound-healing stage is the patient most likely to be in | repair phase |
| five dogs underwent the same surgical procedure, which one is most likely to heal quickest: 3 yr old w/ diabetes mellitus, 7 yr old w/ proteinuria, 2 yr old w/ deafness, 13 yr old w/ coagulation disorder, 6 yr old w/ hyperadrenocorticism | 2 yr old with deafness |
| a farm hand reports that a pig has lacerated its limb on a broken fence at the farm. What is the most appropriate step to take | culture and cover the wound |
| a patient is undergoing surgical debridement of a wound what must occur before the vet tech knows the procedure is complete | fresh bleeding edges are exposed |
| the DVM wants fluid and gas to leave a surgical patients wound during the next several days, what is the DVM most likely to ask the tech to bring to the procedure | a drain |
| a cow that had been lost for a day has an infected wound on the neck most likely caused by a coyote bite; the wound is contaminated with field dirt; granulation tissue has not yet begun forming; what type of wound closure is most appropriate for this cow | delayed primary closure |
| what is the most appropriate treatment for a cat that is apparently experiencing breakthrough pain after surgery | analgesics |
| debridement of an infected wound on a dog should most appropriately be performed in what area of the clinic | preparation area |
| what room in the veterinary hospitals is most appropriate for placement of an autoclave | scrub room |
| in addition to delivering inhalation to a surgical patient, what is the other purpose of an anesthesia machine | remove respiratory waste products |
| what valve is most likely to allow room air to enter an anesthesia machine | negative-pressure relief valve |
| during surgery the veterinarian needs to cut a ligament, what type of surgical scissors are most appropriate to hand him | metzenbaum dissecting |
| the surgeon needs to clamp a small vessel in a small dog what type of forcep is most appropriate to use | halstead mosquito hemostatic |
| what type of scalpel blade is most likely to fit onto a no. 3 scalpel handle | 17 |
| what surgical instrument is most appropriate to hand the surgeon when they want to grasp and retract a patients tissue on a short term basis | thumb tissue forceps |
| during surgery on a cat the surgeon wants to use a penetrating light weight towel clamp, which type of towel clamp would be most appropriate for this | jones |
| what instrument is most appropriate to use to gather a sample from a large tissue mass in the thoracic region of a giant schnauzer | punch biopsy instrument |
| what type of needles are most likely used in bovine surgical closures | doublecurved |
| which of the following is the largest suture size: 9-0, No. 4, No. 3, 11-0, 4-0 | No. 4 |
| during sx the C-nurse is asked to open a pack & check sterility; w/no holes/tears on the pack she opens it pack and gives it to the DVM who bitches that she could have possibly contaminated the sterile field. What should have actually been done first | checked the sterile indicators on the package |
| a vet tech witnessing unscrubbed personnel inadvertently handle a sterile surgical gown when giving it to a scrubbed personnel and alerting the DVM of possible contamination is demonstrating what | surgical conscience |
| when handing a ring-handled instrument to a surgeon, what is the most appropriate way to place the instrument | ring handles pointing toward the floor |
| what types of fluids are most appropriate to use as lavage fluid during surgery | LRS or normal saline |
| what type of suture pattern is most likely to be used to close the skin of a dog in whom a penrose drain has been placed | simple interrupted |
| nonabsorbable sutures should most appropriately be removed how many days after surgery | 10-14 |
| a k9 has been administered anesthesia; respirations are jerky, eye position is central, pupils are widely dilated & NR to light, HR is 55 bpm, MM are pale, muscle tone is flaccid, & no reflex activity is demonstrated; what stage of anesthesia is this | stage III plane 4 |
| during surgery the VT determines inadequate tissue perfusion is occurring; what organ is most at risk of damage from this condition | kidneys |
| during surgery the VT notices that the patients MM have become a bluish color; what is the most appropriate next step to take | check for obstruction of the ET tube |
| the CRT of an anesthetized cat is 4 seconds, besides reduced arterial BP what is most likely an additional cause of the prolonged CRT | peripheral vasoconstriction |
| what types of drugs commonly given during surgery are most likely to cause prolonged CRT | alpha2-adrenergic agonists |
| the VT determines that the blood vessels of a patient under anesthesia are expanding and blood is pooling, venous return to the cardiac system is decreased reducing the BP, what is most likely the cause of the hypotension | excessive vasodilation |
| during surgery the VT using a stethoscope notices breath sounds increasing in intensity & wheezing; what most likely expands these findings | pulmonary airway narrowing or presence of fluid in the lungs |
| as anesthetic depth increases what happens to the respiratory rate | it decreases |
| what are the surgical duties of the VT | anticipating the DVMs needs; being a scrubbed in, gloved surgical assistant; giving nonsterile circulating assistance; monitoring anesthetized patients |
| what is the most appropriate position to place a cat in that is about to undergo abdominal exploratory surgery | dorsal recumbency |
| what anatomical structure on the patient is suture in a way that ensures strength of the closure when an abdominal exploratory surgery has been done | linea alba |
| an owner suspects a cat has ate string while left in the sewing room; the DVM is concerned about plication and checks under the patients tongue; what is the most likely type of obstruction in this cat | linear |
| what instruments are needed for an emergency surgery to remove a rubber ball from the stomach of a k9 | sterile laparotomy sponges; suction; heated lavage fluid; sterile towel for instruments; stay sutures; metzenbaum scissors |
| what instrument should the VT prepare for an enterotomy due to intestinal foreign obstruction in a cat | doyen clamps |
| a k9 presents with a 1 day duration of vomiting; PE shows tachycardia, fever, and shock; abd palpation elicits pain; rads show abd effusion; abd fluid shows bacteria; what is the most likely diagnosis | peritonitis |
| after gastric surgery on a k9 & b4 closure of the abdomen what is most appropriate for the scrub team to do | change gloves, count sponges, count instruments, and change instrument packs |
| a patient recovering from an anastomosis is vomiting, depressed, febrile, & elicits pain upon abdominal palpation post-op. what is the most likely cause of these findings | suture dehiscence |
| it is most appropriate to check a k9 for what condition for 2-3 days following gastropexy to treat volvulus | cardiac arrhythmia |
| which of the following complications should the VT be most aware of after an animal has been spayed and is in the recovery cage | intraabdominal hemorrhage |
| the VT determines that the blood vessels of a patient under anesthesia are expanding and blood is pooling, venous return to the cardiac system is decreased reducing the BP, what is most likely the cause of the hypotension | excessive vasodilation |
| during surgery the VT using a stethoscope notices breath sounds increasing in intensity & wheezing; what most likely expands these findings | pulmonary airway narrowing or presence of fluid in the lungs |
| as anesthetic depth increases what happens to the respiratory rate | it decreases |
| what are the surgical duties of the VT | anticipating the DVMs needs; being a scrubbed in, gloved surgical assistant; giving nonsterile circulating assistance; monitoring anesthetized patients |
| what is the most appropriate position to place a cat in that is about to undergo abdominal exploratory surgery | dorsal recumbency |
| what anatomical structure on the patient is suture in a way that ensures strength of the closure when an abdominal exploratory surgery has been done | linea alba |
| an owner suspects a cat has ate string while left in the sewing room; the DVM is concerned about plication and checks under the patients tongue; what is the most likely type of obstruction in this cat | linear |
| what instruments are needed for an emergency surgery to remove a rubber ball from the stomach of a k9 | sterile laparotomy sponges; suction; heated lavage fluid; sterile towel for instruments; stay sutures; metzenbaum scissors |
| what instrument should the VT prepare for an enterotomy due to intestinal foreign obstruction in a cat | doyen clamps |
| a k9 presents with a 1 day duration of vomiting; PE shows tachycardia, fever, and shock; abd palpation elicits pain; rads show abd effusion; abd fluid shows bacteria; what is the most likely diagnosis | peritonitis |
| after gastric surgery on a k9 & b4 closure of the abdomen what is most appropriate for the scrub team to do | change gloves, count sponges, count instruments, and change instrument packs |
| a patient recovering from an anastomosis is vomiting, depressed, febrile, & elicits pain upon abdominal palpation post-op. what is the most likely cause of these findings | suture dehiscence |
| it is most appropriate to check a k9 for what condition for 2-3 days following gastropexy to treat volvulus | cardiac arrhythmia |
| which of the following complications should the VT be most aware of after an animal has been spayed and is in the recovery cage | intraabdominal hemorrhage |
| what instruments should be prepared before cesarean delivery of neonates | clean towels; hair dryer or radient lamp; warm-water heating pad; opioid antagonist drug; respiratory stimulant drug; suture material; scissors |
| a neonate delivered via csection had a heartbeat for a few seconds after birth but now has none; chest compressions are attempted but do not work; what is the appropriate next step to take | administration of epinephrine under the tongue |
| a k9 presents to the ER clinic for a closed pyometra; what is the most appropriate treatment for this condition | ovariohysterectomy |
| what anatomic structure should be examined and palpated before an anesthetic agent is administered to a patient about to undergo orchiectomy | testicles |
| scrotal bleeding is noted postop on a feline that has recently undergone castration; what is the most appropriate treatment for this condition | cold compress |
| a 2 day history of hematuria, pollakiuria, stranguria, and dysuria on an 8 yr old k9 should have which type of diagnostic study started 1st | radiography |
| allowing air to enter the peritoneum; air being present in the peritoneum | pneumoperitoneum |
| surgical incision into the abdominal cavity to allow for full exploratory of all organs in the cavity | celiotomy |
| broad spectrum antibiotic used primarily to treat gram negative infections; can be nephrotoxic; only given parenterally | amikacin |
| broad spectrum antibiotic used to treat gram positive and gram negative bacterial infections | enrofloxacin |
| abnormal passage of an internal organ between two internal organs or the body surface | fistula |
| a closed suction drain that allows for fluid removal via a "bulb" attached to the drains | jackson pratt drain |
| constant rate infusion of a desired medication or comdination of medications | CRI |
| what are the landmarks and prepping of the patient for an abdominal exploratory surgery | clip & prep starts just above the xiphoid process, down to the pubis, and out to each flank |
| it is most appropriate to do what to the surgery floor at the end of the day | wet vacuum |
| what is not an ideal characteristic of a disinfectant product | single spectrum |
| to prevent blood and other surgical debris from drying on the instruments, it is most appropriate to do what | presoaking |
| what is not an ideal characteristic of wrapping material for a surgical pack | impermeable |
| after a surgical pack is complete what is the most appropriate next step to take | mark with an expiration date |
| concerning drapes and gowns used in surgery what is the most appropriate way to fold them | accordion style |
| the "flash" sterilization setting on the autoclave is used for | emergency sterilization of instruments |
| after ethylene oxide sterilization material should be | quarantined in a well ventilated area for at least 24 hours |
| these types of systems use a gas to sterilize items | ethylene oxide |
| one of the most popular agents used in veterinary medicine as a surgical scrub; it kills bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa, and yeast; can be irritating to tissues | povidone-iodine |
| this antiseptic and disinfectant is effective against bacteria, viruses, fungi, and yeast; has rapid onset and 2 day residual activity unaffected by organic matter and is nonirritating to tissues | chlorhexidine |
| this disinfectant is effective against bacteria, but not spores or some viruses; very bland and non toxic | quaternary ammonium |
| this antiseptic and disinfectant is bactericidal but does not kill spores or fungi, has no residual effects, painful and cytotoxic when used in open wounds | alcohol |
| after surgery once the anesthetic vaporizer is turned off what is the most appropriate next step to take | leave the patient on oxygen for 5 minutes |
| it is most appropriate to delay extubation after surgery on what type of animal until the animal can lift the head on their own | brachycephalic |
| when should corrective action be taken if the patients body temperature registers at what degree | 92 or below |
| what is the first step to take when corrective action is needed for a hypothermic postop patient | wrap the animal in a circulating warm water blanket |
| patient excessively licking the surgical incision; infection of the surgical site; blunt trauma to the surgical site; patient being over active post op can all lead to what | post op dehiscence |
| what bandage layer acts as an absorbent layer for blood, serum, and purulent fluid from a wound | secondary |
| what is the primary indication for ovariohysterectomy | reproductive sterilization |
| why is it beneficial to spay a dog before the first heat cycle | decrease the chance of unwanted litters; decrease chance of the development of mammary gland tumors |
| what breeds of dogs have an increased risk of dystocia | pugs, bull dogs |
| during what procedure(s) is the uterus removed | routine ovariohysterectomy, en bloc resection |
| what procedure are an indication for abdominal exploratory surgery | routine ovariohysterectomy, ruptured bladder |
| what retractor is routinely used in abdominal exploratory surgeries | balfour |
| what procedure involves making an incision into the stomach | gastrotomy |
| what intestinal surgery involves removing a piece of the intestine and suturing the ends of the remaining intestines back together | resection and anastomosis |
| sterile saline can be injected into the surgical site to check for any leakage after the anastomosis site has been closed (true/false) | true |
| what should be performed before closing the abdomen if peritonitis is suspected | bacterial culture swab |
| what surgical procedure refers to surgically attaching the stomach to the body wall | gastropexy |
| gastropexy procedure prevents further bloat occurences (true/false) | false |
| a patient that needs abdominal exploratory for internal hemorrhage bc of being HBC should have their bladder expressed b4 transfer to the surgery suite (true/false) | false |
| what term refers to a joint | articular |
| neonatal kittens should be placed with the dam to allow nursing as soon as possible (true/false) | true |
| purulent discharge from the vulva is present in all cases of pyometra (true/false) | false |
| what term refers to a fracture that is on an incline or slanting in relation to the long axis of the bone | oblique |
| what term refers to a fracture that curves around a center point or axis | spiral |
| what devices are used in internal fixation of fractured bones | intramedullary pins (IM pins) and bone plates |
| what devices are used in external fixation of fractured bones | ring fixation |
| what are possible complications associated with internal fixation of fracture repair | non-union healing, malunion, delayed union |
| splints are appropriate only for fractures that are distal to the elbow or stifle (true/false) | true |
| what diagnostic test may aid in diagnosis a torn cranial cruciate ligament | cranial drawer test, tibial compression test |
| what diagnostic test that is used to evaluate masses does not usually require sedation or anesthesia, is easy to perform, has minimal morbidity, but has low diagnostic yield | fine needle aspirate |
| for what condition(s) is a lateral ear canal resection indicated | chronic otitis externa, neoplasia of the ear canal |
| baby shampoo diluted 1:3 with water is both effective and safe in cleansing the periocular area before ophthalmic surgery (true/false) | true |
| what breeds are predisposed to protrusion of the gland of the third eyelid which is also known as "cherry eye" | cocker spaniel, boston terrier, great dane |
| what types of procedures are considered minimally invasive | laser surgery, laparoscopy, endoscopy |
| what are some work place hazards associated with laser surgery | eye and skin damage, smoke plume hazard, fire hazard |
| what advantage does laparoscopy have over traditional laparotomy | smaller surgical incision but essentially none bc the procedures are basically the same |
| a flexible endoscope with a diameter of 8-11 mm & a working length of 100 cm is usually adequate for most feline and k9 upper GI exams and colonoscopies (true/false) | true |
| when the endoscope is not being used it should be set on the exam table (true/false) | false |
| what can be diagnosed by gastroscopy | helicobacter infections, foreign bodies in the stomach, gastric ulcerations |
| how long should a patient be fasted b4 gastroscopy | 6-8 hours no food, 4 hours no water |
| lymphoma is the most common intestinal neoplasia (true/false) | true |
| colonoscopy refers to the endoscopic technique of examining what | the rectum, large intestine, and cecum |
| what applies to a patient about to undergo colonscopy | fast for 24-36 hours, should recieve an enema |
| in addition to rendering a male cat unable to reproduce what is an indication for castration a male cat | prevent aggressive behavior, prevent urine spraying, prevent roaming |
| what can hasten a patients recovery from anesthesia | physical stimulation, o2 supplementation with or without manual ventilation, warming measure, reversal agents |
| what postop complication involves premature suture loss and surgical site opening | dehiscence |
| the process of removing dead tissue and debris from a wound | debridement |
| these are usually discontinued once granulation tissue appears in the wound | topical antimicrobial medications |
| what is the minimum amount that an animal should consume orally before assisted feeding is needed | 85% |
| the terms effleurage and petrissage refer to which physical therapy modality | massage |
| massage provides what benefits to the surgery patient | muscle relaxation, improved blood and lymph flow, pain relief |
| how many days should an animal be allowed to not eat before intervention is sought | 3 days |
| NSAIDs are the only class of analgesics that may safely be sent home with the owner for at home pain management (true/false) | false |
| in what room should anal sac surgeries and abscessed wound be lanced an flushed | preparation room |
| what should be located in the scrub area/room | scrub sink, autoclave, table/counter to hold open gown packs |
| all procedures should be performed in the surgery room, whether they are considered "clean" or "dirty" (true/false) | false |
| the surgery room needs to have easy access, so doors should not be placed between surgery rooms and scrub or prep areas (true/false) | false |
| the air pressure in the surgery room should be greater than that in the rest of the hospital to reduce the influx of bacteria into the surgery room (true/false) | true |
| movable equipment in the surgery room should not leave the surgery room (true/false) | true |
| when movable equipment is removed from the surgery room what should be done before it is returned to the surgery room | it should be thoroughly cleaned and disinfected |
| in the absence of cleaning instructions from the manufacturer, stethoscopes, BP cuffs, and other noncritical items can be cleaned with what for use in the surgery room | alcohol |
| how often should the surgery room floor be cleaned | daily |
| surgery rooms should be cleaned daily whether they are used or not (true/false) | true |
| why are refillable soap dispensers not recommended for use in the surgery prep or scrub area | they can harbor bacterial growth |
| these are intended for use on living tissue | antiseptics |
| these are intended for use on inanimate objects | disinfectants |
| the time required for the disinfectant to be in contact with the microorganism to achieve its intended effect | contact time |
| what can affect a disinfectants effectiveness | amount of protein present in the area, type of microorganism present, concentration of the disinfectant |
| what is the correct order of events used to achieve the level of disinfection required for surgical supplies and instruments | clean > sanitize > sterilize |
| basic cleaning of surgical instruments involves which order of steps | presoaking > decontaminating > rinsing > lubricating |
| what process involves manually cleaning surgical instruments in a detergent | decontaminating |
| after ultrasonic cleaning instrument should be rinsed with what | distilled water |
| what are the two methods used to identify how long a previously sterilized item is considered sterile | expiration dating and event related expiration of sterility |
| what are acceptable ways to sterilize items for use in surgery | gravity air displacement autoclave, high vacuum autoclave, ethylene oxide unit |
| what is an example of a chemical sterilization indicator | steam indicator tape |
| a client needs to be given aftercare instructions for their pet post op, what vet team personel should give these instructions | technician |
| when and in which place of the clinic is most appropriate to discuss discharge instructions with a client | any quiet area will do |
| what information is most appropriate to exclude from the aftercare instructions given to a client upon discharge of the clients pet | estimated cost |
| an animal is being sent home with an ecollar what is important to inform the client about this | keep it clean, leave it in place at all times, make sure the pet can still eat an drink |
| a feeding tube has been placed in a k9, during a routine daily inspection of the dog the owner should do what | measure the tubes length |
| a k9 has been discharged following an orthopedic procedure, what should be includeded in the first part of discharge instructions | exercise restriction for the next several weeks |
| what is not traditionally a role of the technician in managing patient pain | determine which analgesic to prescribe a patient |
| what would most likely be a sign to the technician that the intubated anesthetized cat is in pain | sudden increase in heart rate |
| it is most appropriate for the technician to prepare an intraoperative CRI that combines an opioid and what type of analgesic | lidocaine |
| what would be an inappropriate component of a veterinary clinics comprehensive pain scoring system | clients ability to pay for pain management |
| pain that follows some bodily injury, disappears with healing | acute |
| normal respone to tissue damage | adaptive |
| pain caused by a stimulus that does not normally cause pain | allodynia |
| the loss of sensitivity to pain | analgesia |
| total or partial loss of sensation | anesthesia |
| a transient flare up of pain in the chronic pain setting which can occur even when chronic pain is under control | breakthrough |
| an increase in the excitability and responsiveness of nerves in the spinal cord | central sensitization |
| pain that lasts several weeks to months and persists beyond the expected healing time | chronic pain |
| an increased response to a stimulation that is normally painful either at the site of injury or surrounding undamaged tissue | hyperalgesia |
| increased sensitivty to pain | hyperesthesia |
| decreased sensitivity to pain | hypoalgesia |
| decreased sensitivity to stimulation | hypoesthesia |
| hypersensitivity to pain resulting from abnormal processing of normal input | maladaptive pain |
| the use of multiple drugs with different actions to produce optimal analgesia | multimodal analgesia |
| the idea that the nervous system can be changed by the effect of the environemnt, external stimuli, and the effects of physiologic stimuli | nueroplasticity |
| the transaction, conduction, and cns process of nerve signals generated by the stimulation of certain receptors | nociception |
| the minimal amount of pain that a patient can recognize | pain threshold |
| the greatest level of pain that a patient can tolerate | pain tolerance level |
| pain taht has an exaggerated response beyond its protective usefullness, often associated with tissue injury incurred at the time of surgery or trauma | pathologic pain |
| pain that acts as a protective mechanism that incites individuals to move away from the cause of potential tissue damage or to avoid movement or contact with external stimuli during a reparative phase | physiologic pain |
| the administration of an analgesic drug before painful stimulation to prevent sensitization of nerurons or wind up thus improving postoperative analgesia | preemptive analgesia |
| the loss of sensation in part of the body caused by interruption of the sensory nerves that conduct impulses from that region of the body | regional anesthesia |
| pain that originates from damage to bone, joints, muscle, or skin and is describe by humans as localized, constant, sharp, aching, and throbbing | somatic pain |
| pain that arises from stretching, distention, or inflammation of the viscera and described by humans as deep, cramping, aching, or gnawing without good localization | visceral pain |
| temporal summation of painful stimuli in the spinal cord, mediated by the C fibers and responsible for second pain | wind-up |
| which may be clinical signs of prolong recovery from anesthesia | lethargy, ataxia, depression |
| how often should the surgical site be observed once the patient is discharged | twice daily as a minimum |
| when checking the surgical site what should be noted | number of sutures, any swelling, redness, or discharge |
| serous discharge tends to accumulate where a surgical drain exits the skin, what can be done to prevent this accumulation from occluding the drainage site and preserve intended function of a drain | application of warm soaks around the exit site, application of a thin film of petroleum jelly |
| if a feeding tube becomes clogged, what usually resolves most occlusions | instilling carbonated water into the tube |
| if a large enough feeding tube is placed chunks of kibble can be administered (true/false) | false |
| what may occur after an intestinal resection and anastomosis | peritonitis, narrowing of the intestinal lumen at the anastomiss site, slow leak from the anastomosis site leading to abdominal abscess |
| how long should hematuria be expected following a cystotomy | up to 36 hours |
| what is another name for a declaw procedure | onychectomy |
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