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vet2400

midterm crap

QuestionAnswer
why is it important to use surgical instruments only for their designed purpose to avoid damage, protect useful life, they are expensive and should be handled with care
why is it important for ratchets to remain locked when the jaw is closed it needs to be a reliable mechanism of holing target tissue or item, if the ratchets dont remain locked complications could result
which scissor is finer and lightweight and used on delicate tissues metzenbaums
which needle holders have scissors included in the jaw olsen-hegar
allis tissue forceps is considered to be what type of forcep traumatic
the gelpi retractor is a handheld retractor that is frequently used in orthopedic surgery (true/false) false
what type of retractor is a self-retaining retractor that is frequently used during abdominal exploratorys balfour
what part of the anesthesia machine converts the liquid anesthetic into gas anesthetic vaporizer
which valve allows for room air to enter the anesthesia system if negative pressure is detected in the system negative-pressure relief valve
when might a situation of negative pressure exist in the anesthesia system when the oxygen source is depleted
which part of the anesthesia machine indicates the amount of pressure in the system pressure manometer
when the rebreathing bag is being squeezed to ventilate the patient manually the pop off valve needs to be closed then opened after giving a breath
why is it important to confirm that the pop off valve is completely open after the anesthesia machine and circui9t are checked for leaks when the patient is connected to the anesthesia machine with the pop off valve closed the patient will not be able to exhale
what anesthesia monitoring device is used primarily to measure the percentage of available hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen pulse oximeter
ideally the surgery room is a separate room used only for surgery
a 27kg patient would need what sized rebreathing bag 2 L
the suction tip best used to remove large volumes of fluid is poole
which instrument would be used to collect large amounts of bone graft material intraoperatively bone currette
the amount of force in psi that the suture can withstand before it breaks tensile strength
the ability or tendency of the suture to return to its original packaged form memory
the ease with which the suture is manipulated either by the surgeon or tissue flexibility
this type of suture is not broken down by the body and can remain in tact for at least 2 years nonabsorbable
this type of suture can be broken down in the body by phagocytosis, or hydrolysis and may happen as soon as 7 days after placement or take as long as 2 years absorbable
the ability of the suture to allow microbes to be carried to the interior of the suture strand capillarity
this type of suture has two or more braided strands that form a single strand of suture multifilament
this type of suture is a single solid strand of suture material monofilament
the ability of suture to hold the knots the surgeon has place knot security
a good rule of thumb for scheduling surgeries is schedule cleanest to dirtiest, difficult to easy, longer to shorter,
this asa class is a normal healthy patient with no underlying disease class I minimal risk
this asa class is a patient with slight to mild systemic disturbances, patient is able to compensate with no clinical signs of disease class II slight risk
this asa class is a patient with moderate systemic disease or mild clinical signs class III moderate risk
this asa class is a patient with preexisting systemic disease or severe disturbances class IV high risk
this asa class is when surgery is often performed in desperation on patients with life threatening systemic disease or disturbances not correctable by surgery; includes all moribund patients not expected to live 24 hours class V grave risk
what information is included in the patients signalment age, gender, breed
why is it important to review all medications and supplement that a patient is taking before beginning surgery to avoid drug interactions, perform additional diagnostic tests, make necessary adjustments to anesthetic protocol
what can be done to stop a cat from purring during thoracic auscultation holding a cat near a sink or faucet, with or without it running
combining different types of analgesics as premedications that exert major effects on one of the four distinct phases of pain pathways multimodal analgesia
the goals of balanced anesthesia are maximize effects of certain drugs, minimize side effects of certain drugs
these type of catheters generally suffice for short-term use, (1-3days) peripheral
these type of catheters are more appropriate for long term vascular access, (> 3 days) central lines
how can a patients identity be verified cross-check the signalment and description in the medical record along with the ID band or cage card and ask a coworker to confirm the patients identity
why should the patients identity be verified before the animal is anesthetized for surgery to avoid anesthetizing the wrong patient, to avoid performing surgery on the wrong patient
what is the primary purpose of the anesthesia form to "tell the story" of the anesthetic event from start to finish, it can help guide protocols for the future
what should be done to the patient after the hair clip and before the patient is moved into the surgery suite vaccuum the clipped hair, check to see if the bladder needs expressed, perform initial skin scrub
it is accepted practice to scrub a patient initially with a povidone iodine product (true/false) true
what contributes to hypothermia of the anesthetized patient muscle relaxation, the surgical prep, using room temp IV fluids, breathing cold gases from compressed cylinders
where should the first spray of the final prep be sprayed directly into the kick bucket
what are some safe techniques for preventing hypothermia in small animal surgical patients circulating warm water pads, snuggle safe discs
what is the next step after the patient has been induced with anesthesia and the intended surgical site has been clipped and had an initial prep the patient is moved to the surgery room and is positioned on and secured to the surgery table then the final prep is performed
what position is the patient placed in for abdominal exploratory surgery dorsal recumbency
for orthopedic surgery on the extremity only the side of the limb to be incised needs to be clipped and prepped (true/false) false
what position is the patient placed in on the surgery table for thoracic surgery with the side to be incised facing upward
after application of a scrub product what should be applied a rinsing agent to remove the detergent
the process of scrub then rinse should be performed a minimum of how many times 3
you should always begin a surgical prep at what point of the surgical field at the proposed incision site
chlorhexidine scrub or solution can be used as the final sterile surgical paint (true/false) false
what is the surgical assistant responsible for during the surgery monitoring the patient, maintaining hemostasis
what should the surgical nurse don on leaving the surgery suite laboratory coat
why should scrub suits not be worn from home to the hospital they can carry microorganisms into the hospital when worn from home to the hospital
why should scrub suits not be worn home from the hospital they can carry microorganisms home and infect the personnel own pets
the surgical nurses scrub top should be tucked into the scrub pants
it is recommended that all nonscrubbed personnel wear long-sleeve laboratory coats in the surgery room (true/false) false
jewelry and long finger nails are protected by the sterile gloves and therefore do not need to be removed or cut (true/false) false
what does managing the instrument table involve keeping the instruments organized, counting the instruments and gauze squares at the beginning and end of procedure, loading the needle holders with the suture needle
what should the scrub suit be covered with at all times when outside the surgical area clean laboratory coat
what are the two most important practices used to prevent surgical infections aseptic and sterile technique
what areas of the scrubbed in personnel's gown are part of the sterile field front of the gown from chest to the level of the sterile field
the absence of pathogenic microorganisms that cause infection asepsis
absence of all living microorganisms including spores sterile
the commitment of the surgical personnel to adhere strictly to aseptic technique, because anything less could increase the potential risk of infection resulting in harm to the patient surgical conscience
the person who opens packs and is a runner for the surgical team circulating nurse
strike through renders surgical drapes "sterile proof" and therefore drapes affected by strike through cannot become contaminated under any circumstance (true/false) false
the edges of all sterile packages are considered nonsterile (true/false) true
it is acceptable practice for the circulating nurse to reach over the sterile field if required to assist the surgeon or surgical assistant (true/false) false
unscrubbed personnel can walk between two sterile fields (true/false) false
if unscrubbed personnel enter or touch the sterile field it is non longer considered sterile (true/false) true
the space above and surrounding an open sterile pack is considered part of the sterile field (true/false) true
what should be done immediately before beginning the surgical hand antisepsis procedure wash hands and forearms with soap and running water, cleaning under the nails and drying with a paper towel
when performing a surgical hand scrub how many times should a surface be brushed before moving on to the next area 10 times
a new veterinary technician is preparing to start her job tomorrow, which is the most appropriate nail care practice clip nails shorter than fingertips and remove nail polish
a vet tech is about to step out of the surgery room for a minute what should be put on before leaving the room a clean laboratory coat over the scrubs
a surgical mask should cover what areas of the face nose and the mouth
a good antimicrobial detergent should offer broad-spectrum activity, non-irritating to tissues, offers persistent effects with cumulative activity, fast-acting and effective, and FDA compliant
what is the most appropriate chronological order for a surgical had scrub fingers, hands, forearms, elbows
which portions of surgical apparel should no be considered sterile back of the gown and the cuff portion of the gown
liquids from an unclipped and non sterile area of an animals body seeping through the sterile drape onto a sterile portion of the patient strike through
what are four instruments included in the harrison college surgical pack carmalts, metzenbam dissecting scissors, backaus towel clamps, mayo hegar needle holders, kelly hemostatic forceps,
how frequently should physiologic parameters be recorded in the anesthesia log during surgery every 5 minutes
what contributes to hypothermia of the anesthetized patient muscle relaxation, the surgical prep using water and alcohol, administering room temp IV fluids
hypotension can be caused by cardiac insufficiency
which reflex significantly diminishes or is absent when the patient enters the surgical plane of anesthesia palpebral
which class of drugs causes muscle rigidity dissociate anesthetics
what type of surgical procedure may create a challenge for monitoring the patient owing to patient positioning perineal urethrosotomy
which monitoring device measures exhaled CO2 capnometer
a change in which wave of an electrocardiogram is likely when myocardial hypoxia is occuring T wave
to ensure the most accurate blood pressure reading the cuff should be what percentage of the width of the patients limb 40%
the surgical staff member taking a sterile pack from a circulating nurse during surgery should be most concerned with not touching the nonsterile parts of the packaging
what instrument is the most appropriate to use to place a blade into a scalpel handle needle holder
when threading an eyed needle the tech should place the needle holder how far into the needles curve two-thirds
what is the most appropriate placement of the instrument when handing a ring-handled instrument to the surgeon the ring handles should be pointing toward floor
during surgery how is it most appropriate to use a moist lap pad between a self-retaining retractors blades and the patients tissues
an assistant uses a sponge to wipe away blood from a hemorrhaging site, but the patient continues to bleed excessively, what is the most appropriate next step firmly blot the site
which suture pattern is a surgeon most likely to use to close the skin of a dog in whom a penrose drain has been placed simple interrupted
what are the acceptable lower and upper limits on heart beats per minute for an anesthetized dachshund dog 70-200
inadequate tissue perfusion during anesthesia puts what organ most at risk for damage kidneys
if the CRT is prolonged in an anesthetized patient aside from reduced arterial blood pressure what is most likely the additional cause of the prolonged CRT peripheral vasoconstriction
the veterinarian should be notified immediately if the mean arterial blood pressure of an anesthetized animal reaches 60 mm Hg
the tech determines that the blood vessels of a patient under anesthesia are expanding and blood is pooling, venous return to the cardiac system is decreased reducing the patients blood pressure, what is most likely the cause of hypotension excessive vasodilation
during anesthesia the tech notices with a stethoscope that breath sounds are increasing in intensity and wheezing is heard, what is the most likely explanation of this pulmonary airway narrowing, or presence of fluid in the lungs
during anesthesia the tech notices agonal breathing of the patient, this is most likely a sign that what has occured cardiac arrest
during surgery the tech manually ventilates the patient and immediately smell a pungent gas odor, this is most likely a sign of an incomplete cuff seal on the ET tube
testing what two reflexes is most appropriate before attempting to intubate a patient are pedal and laryngeal
testing what reflex in a euthanized patient is most appropriate to determine death corneal
a patients eyes rotating ventrally is most likely to signify the animal is in which stage of anesthesia surgical
in addition to monitoring the pulse rate, a pulse oximeter also does what measures percentage of available hemoglobin saturated with oxygen
what is the normal range of systolic blood pressure in an anesthetized dog or cat 90-160 mm Hg
what machine is most helpful to evaluate a patients respiratory rate and quality of respiration's capnometer
an anesthetized patient has an expired CO2 level of 25mm Hg, the machinery is in working order, what should be done to correct the hypocarbia administer analgesic and decrease ventilation
direct blood pressure monitoring is best performed by placing a catheter into what on the patient artery
what tasks are the responsibility of the surgical assistant passing instruments to the surgeon, maintaining the surgical table, setting up the instrument table before surgery, counting instruments before and after surgery
a anesthetized patient begins to develop pulse deficits a few minutes into the surgery, what will most likely result of this condition if it is not treated quickly shock
the respiratory rate of an anesthetized cat is 5 breaths/min, this is most likely a sign of excessive anesthetic depth
what type of sponges are best used for surgery string woven radiopaque
the first ground drape placed for four corner draping is on which side of the patient the side closest to the person draping
what position is the patient placed in for abdominal exploratory surgery dorsal recumbency
what types of procedures are considered abdominal surgical procedures ovariohysterectomy, routine closed castration
what is the primary indication for an ovariohysterectomy reproductive sterilization
why is it beneficial to spay a dog before her first heat cycle to decrease the chance of unwanted litters, and decrease the chance of development of unwanted mammary tumors
what breeds of dogs have an increased risk of dystocia pugs and bulldogs
during which procedures would the uterus be removed routine ovariohysterectomy or en bloc resection
what would be an indication for abdominal exploratory surgery splenic tumor or ruptured bladder
what retractor is routinely used in abdominal exploratory surgeries balfour
what surgical procedure involves making an incision into the stomach gastrotomy
which intestinal surger involves removing a piece of the intestine and suturing the ends of the remaining intestine back together resection and anastomosis
sterile saline can be injected into the surgical site to check for an leakage after the anastomosis site has been closed (true/false) true
what should always be performed before closing an abdomen if peritonitis is suspected bacterial culture swab
what refers to surgically attaching the stomach to the body wall gastropexy
a gastropexy procedure prevents further bloat occurrences (true/false) false
a patient that needs to have an abdominal exploratory for internal hemorrhage resulting after being hit by a car should have their bladder express before being moved into surgery (true/false) false
what term refers to a joint articular
neonatal kittens should be placed with the dam to allow nursing as soon as possible (true/false) true
purulent discharge from the vulva is present in all cases of pyometra (true/false) false
what term refers to a fracture that is on an incline or slanting in relation to the long axis of the bone oblique
what term refers to a fracture that curves around a center point or axis spiral
what devices are used in internal fixation of fractured bones intramedullary (IM) pins and bone plates
what devices are used in external fixation of fractured bones ring fixation
what are possible complications associated with internal fixation of fracture repair non-union, malunion, delayed union, aseptic loosening
splints are appropriate only for fractures that are distal to the elbow and stifle (true/false) true
which diagnostic tests may aid in diagnosing a torn cranial cruciate ligament cranial drawer test, tibial compression test
what diagnostic test used to evaluate masses does not usually require sedation or anesthesia, is easy to perform, has minimal morbidity associate with it, but has a low diagnostic yield fine needle aspiration
for what condition is a lateral ear canal resection indicated chronic otitis externa, neoplasia of the ear canal
baby shampoo diluted 1:3 with water is both effective and safe in cleansing the periocular area before surgery (true/false) true
which breeds are predisposed to protrusion of the gland of the third eyelid, also known as "cherry eye" cocker spaniel, boston terrier, great dane
what types of procedures are considered minimally invasive laser surgery, laparoscopy, endoscopy
what are some workplace hazards associated with laser surgery eye and skin damage, smoke plume hazard, fire hazard
what advantage does laparoscopy have over traditional laparotomy smaller surgical incisions, lower postoperative morbidity
what can be diagnosed by gastroscopy helicobacter infection, foreign bodies in the stomach, gastric ulceration
how long should a patient be fasted before a gastroscopy 6-8 hour food fast, 4 hour water fast
lymphoma is the most common intestinal neoplasia (true/false) true
duodenoscopy aids in the diagnosis and treatment of small intestine disease (true/false) true
colonoscopy refers to the endoscopic technique of examining the rectum, large intestine, and cecum
in addition to rendering a male cat unable to reproduce what also would indicate the need for castration prevent aggressive behavior, prevent urine spraying, prevent roaming
when does the postoperative recovery period being for the surgical patient on discontinuation of anesthesia
brachycephalic breeds should have the endotracheal tube removed at the first sign of return of the ability to swallow (true/false) false
once the patient is extubated, the anesthetists can relax bc all risks associated with anesthesia immediately cease on extubation (true/false) false
all animals that undergo an anesthetic/surgical procedure are at risk for hypothermia (true/false) true
what phase is used to describe the excitement and exaggerated and uncontrollable movements some patients exhibit during the recovery phase of anesthesia emergence delirium
what conditions can contribute to a prolonged recovery from anesthesia hypoglycemia, liver disease, kidney disease
what methods can hasten a patients recovery from anesthesia physical stimulation, oxygen supplementation with or without manual ventilation, warming measures, reversal agents
what postoperative complication involves premature suture loss and surgical site opening dehiscence
the process of removing dead tissue and debris from a wound debridement
topical antimicrobial medications are usually discontinued once granulation tissue appears in the wound
bandages, splints, and casts are used to immobilize bones and joints, which decreases pain associated with fractures and facilitates healing by securing bone fragments close together (true/false) true
with a bandaged limb, leaving the toes exposed does what allows for monitoring the amount of swelling that may occur under the bandage, and allows for comparing of the toes with those on the other limbs
drains are usually removed in 3-5 days after application, and applying petrolatum-based ointments applied to the skin around the drains exit site help prevent exudates from accumulating and clogging the drains exit site (true/false) true
physical therapy should be performed shortly after analgesics have been administered to the surgical patient (true/false) true
cold generally is applied to recent wounds and heat to wounds at least 3 to 5 days old (true/false) true
what are the benefits of massage to the surgery patient muscle relaxation, improved blood and lymph flow, pain relief
the terms effleurage and petrissage refer to which physical therapy modality massage
what is the minimum amount that an animal should consume orally before assisted feeding is needed 85%
how long should an animal be allowed to not eat before intervention is sought 3 days
how can a vet tech determine whether a patients pain was successfully managed through surgery and into the postoperative period recovery is smooth, patient remains calm and quiet post op, signs of overt pain are absent
patients undergoing soft tissue elective surgery should receive opiods for 24 hours and NSAIDs for 3 to 4 days post op (true/false) true
NSAIDs are the only class of analgesics that may safely be sent home with the owner for at home pain management following surgery (true/false) false
in what room should anal sac surgeries and abscessed wound be lanced and flushed in the prep room
what items should be located in the scrub area/room scrub sink, autoclave, table/counter to hold open gown packs
all procedures should be performed in the surgery room, whether they are considered "clean" or "dirty" (true/false) false
the surgery room needs to have easy access, so doors should not be placed between surgery rooms and scrub or prep areas (true/false) false
the air pressure in the surgery room should be greater than that in the rest of the hospital to reduce the influx of bacteria into the surgery room (true/false) true
moveable equipment in the surgery room should not leave the surgery room (true/false) true
what should be done to moveable equipment when it is removed from the surgery suite it should be thoroughly cleaned and disinfected before being returned to the surgery room
in absence of cleaning instructions from the manufacturer, stethoscopes, blood pressure cuffs, and other noncritical items can be cleaned in what manner to be used in the surgery suite cleaned and then disinfected with alcohol
how often should the surgery room floor be cleaned daily
surgery rooms should be cleaned daily whether they are used or not (true/false) true
why are refillable soap dispensers not recommended for use in the surgery prep or scrub area they can harbor bacterial growth
what is the difference between antiseptics and disinfectants antiseptics are intended for use on living tissues, and disinfectants are intended for inanimate objects
regarding disinfectants, what does "contact time" refer to the time required for the disinfectant to be in contact with the microorganisms to achieve its intended effect (ie significantly reduce the number of microorganisms)
what can affect a disinfectants effectiveness amount of protein present in the area, type of microorganism present, concentration of the disinfectant
what is the correct order of events used to achieve the level of disinfection required for surgical suppliers and instruments clean> sanitize> sterilize
basic cleaning of surgical instruments involves which order of steps presoaking> decontaminating> ultrasonic cleaning
what is the purpose of presoaking surgical instruments to prevent blood and other surgical debris from drying on the instruments, to soften blood and other surgical debris already dried on the instruments
what process involves manually cleaning surgical instruments in detergent decontaminating
after ultrasonic cleaning, instruments should be rinsed with distilled water
steam indication tape is recommended for securing the wrapping material of an instrument pack (true/false) true
both the inner and the outer wraps of a surgical pack should be closed with steam indicator tape (true/false) false
what are two methods used to identify how long a previously sterilized item is considered sterile expiration dating and event-related expiration of sterility
what are acceptable ways to sterilize items for use in surgery gravity air-displacement autoclave, high-vacuum autoclave, ethylene oxide unit
what is an example of a chemical sterilization indicator steam indicator tape
power drills used in orthopedic surgery should not be submerged in liquids (high level disinfectants) or clean in ultrasonic units (true/false) true
endoscopes are routinely submerged in high-level disinfectants rather than steam sterilized (true/false) true
what is most appropriate to do to the surgery room floor at the end of the day wet vacuum
if instructed to engage in terminal cleaning one should expect to what stay to the end of the surgery day and clean the surgery and prep rooms and all equipment
what is not an ideal characteristic of a disinfectant product single spectrum
a disinfectant is most likely to be rendered ineffective by what off label dilution
what is considered a high level disinfectant but not a sterilizing agent and is most appropriate for cleaning endoscopes glutaraldehyde
to prevent blood and other surgical debris from drying on the instruments it is most appropriate to do what presoaking
avoiding buildup of which of the following best explains why it is important to pay special attention to the surgical instruments box locks, joints, and serrations during decontamination biological debris
what is not an ideal characteristic of wrapping material used for surgical packs impermeable
after a surgical pack is complete what is the most appropriate next step sterilize it
an autoclave uses what to do its job pressurized steam
concerning drapes and gowns used in surgery how should they be folded accordion style
the "flash" sterilization setting on the autoclave is commonly used for emergency (very rapid) sterilization of instruments
after ethylene oxide sterilization materials should be quarantined in a well ventilated area for at least 24 hours
how is an antiseptic different from a disinfectant the former kills or inhibits infectious agents on living tissues and the latter on inanimate objects
since sterility cant be guaranteed, most cold-sterilized instruments should only be used for minor procedures (true/false) true
these systems use a gas to sterilize items ethylene oxide
soap that has free negatively charged ions that precipitate when combined with calcium and magnesium in hard water anionic detergent
chemical that inhibits or prevents the growth of microbes on living tissue antiseptic
agent that destroys (kills) bacteria bactericide
agent that inhibits the growth of bacteria bacteriostat
contains positively charged ions that remain suspended in solutions (eg quaternary ammonium) cationic detergent
agent that kills living organisms biocide
chemical that contains free ions and leaves a film on surfaces detergent
chemical used to inhibit or prevent the growth of microbes on inanimate objects disinfectant
agent that kills fungi fungicide
to reduce the number of microbes to a safe level sanitize
agent that kills spores sporicide
to eliminate all microbes by killing or inactivation sterilize
agent that kills viruses virucide
wounds closed immediately after injury. used for clean, new wound with little to no contamination primary closure
wounds closed within 1-5 days after the injury occurs, used for moderately contaminated or traumatized wounds, the wound should be free of infection and granulation tissue has not formed delayed primary closure
wounds closed after 5 days, granulation tissue has formed, used for severely contaminated or traumatized wounds that require extended wound management secondary closure
wound is not closed, it is allowed to heal by contraction and epitheliaziation secondary intention
a wound created under sterile conditions that does not enter into the GI tract, respiratory tract, urogenital tract, or oropharyngeal areas such as a surgical wound clean
a wound with minimal contamination, the level of contamination can be removed or reduced such as a surcial incision into the GI tract, respiratory tract, urogenital tract or oropharyngeal areas clean-contaminated
heavy contamination is present such as leakage of intestinal contents into the peritoneum during an enterotomy contaminated
old traumatic wound, active infection with purulent exudate such as a laceration that was left unattended and became infective dirty
these analgesics cause sedation, low blood pressure, respiratory depression opioids
these analgesics do not generally cause any side effects unless give by CRI, with CRI nausea, vomiting, neurologic signs, or seizures can be seen local anesthetics
these analgesics can cause GI disturbances, GI bleeding, and renal disturbances NSAIDs
these analgesics can cause bradycardia, cardiac arrhythmia, hypertension, peripheral vasoconstriction a2-agonists
what is the oxygen flow rate that should be used during induction when using a rebreathing system 3L
what is the maintenance oxygen flow rate that should be used during surgery when using a rebreathing system 25-50ml/kg/min but not less that 500ml/min
what is the oxygen flow rate during the recovery period when using an rebreathing system 3L
what is the oxygen flow rate that should be used during induction when using a non rebreathing system 200ml/kg/min
what is the oxygen flow rate that should be used during maintenance anesthesia when using a non rebreathing system 200ml/kg/min
what is the oxygen flow rate that should be used during recover when using a non rebreathing system 200ml/kg/min`
how do you calculate tidal volume of a patient 10ml/kg of body weight
how do you calculate bag size in mL for a patient 5 x tidal volume= bad size in mL
proper scrub attire is meant to reduce the chance that microbes will be released into the surgery area, these microbes are most likely present where on the human body sebaceous and sweat glands around hair follicles
during a surgical procedure a vet tech feels that she is about to sneeze, what is most appropriate to do dont turn head, step back from the sterile field
how long is the minimum amount of time that presurgical mechanical scrubbing should take to be done correctly 5 minutes
what antimicrobial skin cleansing agent does not have residual activity alcohol
what is the most appropriate chronological order for a surgical hand scrub fingers, hands, forearms, elbows
immediately after completing the hand scrub, what is the most appropriate next step for the vet tech to take dry the hands with a sterile towel
toward the end of a surgery the tech's right glove is inadvertently contaminated. The tech steps away from the sterile field and the surgical nurse properly takes off the glove. What method of re-gloving is most appropriate assisted
what is not appropriate to include in a patients signalment medications
a vet tech is performing thoracic auscultation on a dog, where is the most appropriate anatomical location to place the stethoscope caudal to where the dogs left elbow meets the chest
what is considered to be part of a minimum database for young and healthy surgical candidates presurgical blood work TP, ALT, BG, PCV
what is not considered to be part of a minimum presurgical blood work database for young healthy surgical candidates fibrinogen
the veterinary surgical team can target several points along a patients pain pathway by using what process multimodal analgesia
what type of drug would not be used to deliver preemptive analgesia analeptics
how long before surgery should a NSAID be administered 1-2 hours
what type of medications are alpha2-adrenergic agonist approved for use in dogs in the US medetomidine and xylazine
what type of drug combination is most appropriate to give a healthy young animal that is in obvious distress and agitation before sugery sedative and analgesic
what type of premedication is most appropriate to use for a patient undergoing a procedure that is expected to produce significant and sustained bradycardia anticholingergic
what type of catheter is most appropriate to use when vascular access is required for medication that needs to be administered slowly once butterfly
what type of catheter is most appropriate to use when vascular access is required for long-term fluid therapy jugular catheter
when leak checking an ET tube before surgery the absence of what when placed in a pan of clean water denotes that the tube has no leak bubbles
the buffy coat contains which elements white blood cells and platelets
the TP of a 12 year old dog is decreased, what is the most likely clinical finding in this dog edema
what phase of nociception involves palpation of a wound/injury that elicits pain causing the patient to vocalize and withdrawal from the person palpating perception
the proper endotracheal tube size to use is a decision based primarily on what the patients weight
what anatomical structure is located lateral to the edges of the glottis vocal folds
what techniques are most appropriate to use to confirm proper placement of an endotracheal tube blowing of gauze or hair, air movement, patient cough, fogging in the tube
the AORN recommends cleaning the perimeter of visibly solid areas in the surgical field by a minimum of how many feet 3-4 feet
what does AORN stand for association of perioperative room nurses
during surgery, the tech manually ventilates the patient and immediately smells a pungent gas odor which is most likely a sign of what an incomplete cuff seal on the ET tube
after intubation of a patient testing what reflex is most appropriate to determine if the animal is in the surgical plane of anesthesia palpebral
the plateau display wave of a capnography tracing is most likely to indicate what of the anesthetized patient end-tidal CO2 levels
a new vet tech is instructed by their supervisor to engage in terminal cleaning, what should they be prepared to do stay to the end of the surgery day to clean the surgery and preparation rooms and all equipment
a new vet tech is instructed by their supervisor to properly clean the moveable equipment in the surgery room what type of cleaning solution is most appropriate to use disinfectant
what type of surgical scrub pattern is most appropriate to place a purse string suture in the anus before preparation is begun perineal
a cat is to undergo neutering, what position is the most appropriate to place the animal on the surgical table dorsal recumbency with the hind-limbs pulled toward the head
which bodily fluid or product will most likely deactivate the effects of a chlorine-based disinfectant fecal matter
a disinfectant is most likely to be rendered ineffective by what off-label dilution
what is considered to be a high-level disinfectant but not a sterilizing agent and is most appropriate to use when cleaning endoscopes glutaraldehyde
what process will most likely rid an object of all living microbes sterilization
what does an autoclave use to do its job pressurized steam
what sterilization method is most appropriate to use when an instrument has been dropped during surgery and the surgeon needs them cleaned flash
a new tech is taking packs out of the autoclave, how do they know the conditions for sterilization have been met the chemical indicator tape has changed color
after surgery the technician takes the animal to the recovery cage, what is most appropriate to do next monitor the patients vitals and administer pain medications
which of the following patients is not at increased risk for post-op hypothermia: 16 week old kitten, 4 yr old italian greyhound, 3 yr old cat, 14 yr old great dane, 4 month old minature bull terrier 14 yr old great dane
avoiding buildup of what best explains why it is important to pay special attention to surgical instruments' box locks, joints, and serrations during the decontamination process biological debris
after decontamination of surgical instruments, what is the most appropriate next step ultrasonic cleaning
after surgery the patient is thrashing about, crying out, and paddling all four limbs. What is the most likely explanation of this behavior emergence delirium
Which of the following animals should be given reduced concentration of anesthetic agents during surgery: neonates, sight hounds, kidney disease patients, liver disease patients all of them!
in the recovery cage after surgery the patient is bleeding from its surgery site what is the most appropriate action to take apply direct pressure to the surgery site
the patient is bleeding from the surgical site post-op and the surgeon is concerned about internal bleeding. The patient has pale MM, swelling at the surgical site, & rapid respirations. What is another sign that the patient has internal hemorrhage abdominal bloating, hypotension, slowed CRT
the patient is bleeding from its surgical site, if the vet team can't correct this hemorrhaging event what is the most likely outcome for the patient hypovolemic shock
a patient has a lump at its surgical site 24 hours after surgery, aspirate of the lump is straw colored. What is the most likely cause of the lump overactive post-op causing a seroma
a few hours after surgery a patient has an influx of white blood cells into its wound, what wound-healing stage is the patient most likely to be in debridement phase
a few days after surgery fibroblast and granular tissue invade a wound site, what wound-healing stage is the patient most likely to be in repair phase
five dogs underwent the same surgical procedure, which one is most likely to heal quickest: 3 yr old w/ diabetes mellitus, 7 yr old w/ proteinuria, 2 yr old w/ deafness, 13 yr old w/ coagulation disorder, 6 yr old w/ hyperadrenocorticism 2 yr old with deafness
a farm hand reports that a pig has lacerated its limb on a broken fence at the farm. What is the most appropriate step to take culture and cover the wound
a patient is undergoing surgical debridement of a wound what must occur before the vet tech knows the procedure is complete fresh bleeding edges are exposed
the DVM wants fluid and gas to leave a surgical patients wound during the next several days, what is the DVM most likely to ask the tech to bring to the procedure a drain
a cow that had been lost for a day has an infected wound on the neck most likely caused by a coyote bite; the wound is contaminated with field dirt; granulation tissue has not yet begun forming; what type of wound closure is most appropriate for this cow delayed primary closure
what is the most appropriate treatment for a cat that is apparently experiencing breakthrough pain after surgery analgesics
debridement of an infected wound on a dog should most appropriately be performed in what area of the clinic preparation area
what room in the veterinary hospitals is most appropriate for placement of an autoclave scrub room
in addition to delivering inhalation to a surgical patient, what is the other purpose of an anesthesia machine remove respiratory waste products
what valve is most likely to allow room air to enter an anesthesia machine negative-pressure relief valve
during surgery the veterinarian needs to cut a ligament, what type of surgical scissors are most appropriate to hand him metzenbaum dissecting
the surgeon needs to clamp a small vessel in a small dog what type of forcep is most appropriate to use halstead mosquito hemostatic
what type of scalpel blade is most likely to fit onto a no. 3 scalpel handle 17
what surgical instrument is most appropriate to hand the surgeon when they want to grasp and retract a patients tissue on a short term basis thumb tissue forceps
during surgery on a cat the surgeon wants to use a penetrating light weight towel clamp, which type of towel clamp would be most appropriate for this jones
what instrument is most appropriate to use to gather a sample from a large tissue mass in the thoracic region of a giant schnauzer punch biopsy instrument
what type of needles are most likely used in bovine surgical closures doublecurved
which of the following is the largest suture size: 9-0, No. 4, No. 3, 11-0, 4-0 No. 4
during sx the C-nurse is asked to open a pack & check sterility; w/no holes/tears on the pack she opens it pack and gives it to the DVM who bitches that she could have possibly contaminated the sterile field. What should have actually been done first checked the sterile indicators on the package
a vet tech witnessing unscrubbed personnel inadvertently handle a sterile surgical gown when giving it to a scrubbed personnel and alerting the DVM of possible contamination is demonstrating what surgical conscience
when handing a ring-handled instrument to a surgeon, what is the most appropriate way to place the instrument ring handles pointing toward the floor
what types of fluids are most appropriate to use as lavage fluid during surgery LRS or normal saline
what type of suture pattern is most likely to be used to close the skin of a dog in whom a penrose drain has been placed simple interrupted
nonabsorbable sutures should most appropriately be removed how many days after surgery 10-14
a k9 has been administered anesthesia; respirations are jerky, eye position is central, pupils are widely dilated & NR to light, HR is 55 bpm, MM are pale, muscle tone is flaccid, & no reflex activity is demonstrated; what stage of anesthesia is this stage III plane 4
during surgery the VT determines inadequate tissue perfusion is occurring; what organ is most at risk of damage from this condition kidneys
during surgery the VT notices that the patients MM have become a bluish color; what is the most appropriate next step to take check for obstruction of the ET tube
the CRT of an anesthetized cat is 4 seconds, besides reduced arterial BP what is most likely an additional cause of the prolonged CRT peripheral vasoconstriction
what types of drugs commonly given during surgery are most likely to cause prolonged CRT alpha2-adrenergic agonists
the VT determines that the blood vessels of a patient under anesthesia are expanding and blood is pooling, venous return to the cardiac system is decreased reducing the BP, what is most likely the cause of the hypotension excessive vasodilation
during surgery the VT using a stethoscope notices breath sounds increasing in intensity & wheezing; what most likely expands these findings pulmonary airway narrowing or presence of fluid in the lungs
as anesthetic depth increases what happens to the respiratory rate it decreases
what are the surgical duties of the VT anticipating the DVMs needs; being a scrubbed in, gloved surgical assistant; giving nonsterile circulating assistance; monitoring anesthetized patients
what is the most appropriate position to place a cat in that is about to undergo abdominal exploratory surgery dorsal recumbency
what anatomical structure on the patient is suture in a way that ensures strength of the closure when an abdominal exploratory surgery has been done linea alba
an owner suspects a cat has ate string while left in the sewing room; the DVM is concerned about plication and checks under the patients tongue; what is the most likely type of obstruction in this cat linear
what instruments are needed for an emergency surgery to remove a rubber ball from the stomach of a k9 sterile laparotomy sponges; suction; heated lavage fluid; sterile towel for instruments; stay sutures; metzenbaum scissors
what instrument should the VT prepare for an enterotomy due to intestinal foreign obstruction in a cat doyen clamps
a k9 presents with a 1 day duration of vomiting; PE shows tachycardia, fever, and shock; abd palpation elicits pain; rads show abd effusion; abd fluid shows bacteria; what is the most likely diagnosis peritonitis
after gastric surgery on a k9 & b4 closure of the abdomen what is most appropriate for the scrub team to do change gloves, count sponges, count instruments, and change instrument packs
a patient recovering from an anastomosis is vomiting, depressed, febrile, & elicits pain upon abdominal palpation post-op. what is the most likely cause of these findings suture dehiscence
it is most appropriate to check a k9 for what condition for 2-3 days following gastropexy to treat volvulus cardiac arrhythmia
which of the following complications should the VT be most aware of after an animal has been spayed and is in the recovery cage intraabdominal hemorrhage
the VT determines that the blood vessels of a patient under anesthesia are expanding and blood is pooling, venous return to the cardiac system is decreased reducing the BP, what is most likely the cause of the hypotension excessive vasodilation
during surgery the VT using a stethoscope notices breath sounds increasing in intensity & wheezing; what most likely expands these findings pulmonary airway narrowing or presence of fluid in the lungs
as anesthetic depth increases what happens to the respiratory rate it decreases
what are the surgical duties of the VT anticipating the DVMs needs; being a scrubbed in, gloved surgical assistant; giving nonsterile circulating assistance; monitoring anesthetized patients
what is the most appropriate position to place a cat in that is about to undergo abdominal exploratory surgery dorsal recumbency
what anatomical structure on the patient is suture in a way that ensures strength of the closure when an abdominal exploratory surgery has been done linea alba
an owner suspects a cat has ate string while left in the sewing room; the DVM is concerned about plication and checks under the patients tongue; what is the most likely type of obstruction in this cat linear
what instruments are needed for an emergency surgery to remove a rubber ball from the stomach of a k9 sterile laparotomy sponges; suction; heated lavage fluid; sterile towel for instruments; stay sutures; metzenbaum scissors
what instrument should the VT prepare for an enterotomy due to intestinal foreign obstruction in a cat doyen clamps
a k9 presents with a 1 day duration of vomiting; PE shows tachycardia, fever, and shock; abd palpation elicits pain; rads show abd effusion; abd fluid shows bacteria; what is the most likely diagnosis peritonitis
after gastric surgery on a k9 & b4 closure of the abdomen what is most appropriate for the scrub team to do change gloves, count sponges, count instruments, and change instrument packs
a patient recovering from an anastomosis is vomiting, depressed, febrile, & elicits pain upon abdominal palpation post-op. what is the most likely cause of these findings suture dehiscence
it is most appropriate to check a k9 for what condition for 2-3 days following gastropexy to treat volvulus cardiac arrhythmia
which of the following complications should the VT be most aware of after an animal has been spayed and is in the recovery cage intraabdominal hemorrhage
what instruments should be prepared before cesarean delivery of neonates clean towels; hair dryer or radient lamp; warm-water heating pad; opioid antagonist drug; respiratory stimulant drug; suture material; scissors
a neonate delivered via csection had a heartbeat for a few seconds after birth but now has none; chest compressions are attempted but do not work; what is the appropriate next step to take administration of epinephrine under the tongue
a k9 presents to the ER clinic for a closed pyometra; what is the most appropriate treatment for this condition ovariohysterectomy
what anatomic structure should be examined and palpated before an anesthetic agent is administered to a patient about to undergo orchiectomy testicles
scrotal bleeding is noted postop on a feline that has recently undergone castration; what is the most appropriate treatment for this condition cold compress
a 2 day history of hematuria, pollakiuria, stranguria, and dysuria on an 8 yr old k9 should have which type of diagnostic study started 1st radiography
allowing air to enter the peritoneum; air being present in the peritoneum pneumoperitoneum
surgical incision into the abdominal cavity to allow for full exploratory of all organs in the cavity celiotomy
broad spectrum antibiotic used primarily to treat gram negative infections; can be nephrotoxic; only given parenterally amikacin
broad spectrum antibiotic used to treat gram positive and gram negative bacterial infections enrofloxacin
abnormal passage of an internal organ between two internal organs or the body surface fistula
a closed suction drain that allows for fluid removal via a "bulb" attached to the drains jackson pratt drain
constant rate infusion of a desired medication or comdination of medications CRI
what are the landmarks and prepping of the patient for an abdominal exploratory surgery clip & prep starts just above the xiphoid process, down to the pubis, and out to each flank
it is most appropriate to do what to the surgery floor at the end of the day wet vacuum
what is not an ideal characteristic of a disinfectant product single spectrum
to prevent blood and other surgical debris from drying on the instruments, it is most appropriate to do what presoaking
what is not an ideal characteristic of wrapping material for a surgical pack impermeable
after a surgical pack is complete what is the most appropriate next step to take mark with an expiration date
concerning drapes and gowns used in surgery what is the most appropriate way to fold them accordion style
the "flash" sterilization setting on the autoclave is used for emergency sterilization of instruments
after ethylene oxide sterilization material should be quarantined in a well ventilated area for at least 24 hours
these types of systems use a gas to sterilize items ethylene oxide
one of the most popular agents used in veterinary medicine as a surgical scrub; it kills bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa, and yeast; can be irritating to tissues povidone-iodine
this antiseptic and disinfectant is effective against bacteria, viruses, fungi, and yeast; has rapid onset and 2 day residual activity unaffected by organic matter and is nonirritating to tissues chlorhexidine
this disinfectant is effective against bacteria, but not spores or some viruses; very bland and non toxic quaternary ammonium
this antiseptic and disinfectant is bactericidal but does not kill spores or fungi, has no residual effects, painful and cytotoxic when used in open wounds alcohol
after surgery once the anesthetic vaporizer is turned off what is the most appropriate next step to take leave the patient on oxygen for 5 minutes
it is most appropriate to delay extubation after surgery on what type of animal until the animal can lift the head on their own brachycephalic
when should corrective action be taken if the patients body temperature registers at what degree 92 or below
what is the first step to take when corrective action is needed for a hypothermic postop patient wrap the animal in a circulating warm water blanket
patient excessively licking the surgical incision; infection of the surgical site; blunt trauma to the surgical site; patient being over active post op can all lead to what post op dehiscence
what bandage layer acts as an absorbent layer for blood, serum, and purulent fluid from a wound secondary
what is the primary indication for ovariohysterectomy reproductive sterilization
why is it beneficial to spay a dog before the first heat cycle decrease the chance of unwanted litters; decrease chance of the development of mammary gland tumors
what breeds of dogs have an increased risk of dystocia pugs, bull dogs
during what procedure(s) is the uterus removed routine ovariohysterectomy, en bloc resection
what procedure are an indication for abdominal exploratory surgery routine ovariohysterectomy, ruptured bladder
what retractor is routinely used in abdominal exploratory surgeries balfour
what procedure involves making an incision into the stomach gastrotomy
what intestinal surgery involves removing a piece of the intestine and suturing the ends of the remaining intestines back together resection and anastomosis
sterile saline can be injected into the surgical site to check for any leakage after the anastomosis site has been closed (true/false) true
what should be performed before closing the abdomen if peritonitis is suspected bacterial culture swab
what surgical procedure refers to surgically attaching the stomach to the body wall gastropexy
gastropexy procedure prevents further bloat occurences (true/false) false
a patient that needs abdominal exploratory for internal hemorrhage bc of being HBC should have their bladder expressed b4 transfer to the surgery suite (true/false) false
what term refers to a joint articular
neonatal kittens should be placed with the dam to allow nursing as soon as possible (true/false) true
purulent discharge from the vulva is present in all cases of pyometra (true/false) false
what term refers to a fracture that is on an incline or slanting in relation to the long axis of the bone oblique
what term refers to a fracture that curves around a center point or axis spiral
what devices are used in internal fixation of fractured bones intramedullary pins (IM pins) and bone plates
what devices are used in external fixation of fractured bones ring fixation
what are possible complications associated with internal fixation of fracture repair non-union healing, malunion, delayed union
splints are appropriate only for fractures that are distal to the elbow or stifle (true/false) true
what diagnostic test may aid in diagnosis a torn cranial cruciate ligament cranial drawer test, tibial compression test
what diagnostic test that is used to evaluate masses does not usually require sedation or anesthesia, is easy to perform, has minimal morbidity, but has low diagnostic yield fine needle aspirate
for what condition(s) is a lateral ear canal resection indicated chronic otitis externa, neoplasia of the ear canal
baby shampoo diluted 1:3 with water is both effective and safe in cleansing the periocular area before ophthalmic surgery (true/false) true
what breeds are predisposed to protrusion of the gland of the third eyelid which is also known as "cherry eye" cocker spaniel, boston terrier, great dane
what types of procedures are considered minimally invasive laser surgery, laparoscopy, endoscopy
what are some work place hazards associated with laser surgery eye and skin damage, smoke plume hazard, fire hazard
what advantage does laparoscopy have over traditional laparotomy smaller surgical incision but essentially none bc the procedures are basically the same
a flexible endoscope with a diameter of 8-11 mm & a working length of 100 cm is usually adequate for most feline and k9 upper GI exams and colonoscopies (true/false) true
when the endoscope is not being used it should be set on the exam table (true/false) false
what can be diagnosed by gastroscopy helicobacter infections, foreign bodies in the stomach, gastric ulcerations
how long should a patient be fasted b4 gastroscopy 6-8 hours no food, 4 hours no water
lymphoma is the most common intestinal neoplasia (true/false) true
colonoscopy refers to the endoscopic technique of examining what the rectum, large intestine, and cecum
what applies to a patient about to undergo colonscopy fast for 24-36 hours, should recieve an enema
in addition to rendering a male cat unable to reproduce what is an indication for castration a male cat prevent aggressive behavior, prevent urine spraying, prevent roaming
what can hasten a patients recovery from anesthesia physical stimulation, o2 supplementation with or without manual ventilation, warming measure, reversal agents
what postop complication involves premature suture loss and surgical site opening dehiscence
the process of removing dead tissue and debris from a wound debridement
these are usually discontinued once granulation tissue appears in the wound topical antimicrobial medications
what is the minimum amount that an animal should consume orally before assisted feeding is needed 85%
the terms effleurage and petrissage refer to which physical therapy modality massage
massage provides what benefits to the surgery patient muscle relaxation, improved blood and lymph flow, pain relief
how many days should an animal be allowed to not eat before intervention is sought 3 days
NSAIDs are the only class of analgesics that may safely be sent home with the owner for at home pain management (true/false) false
in what room should anal sac surgeries and abscessed wound be lanced an flushed preparation room
what should be located in the scrub area/room scrub sink, autoclave, table/counter to hold open gown packs
all procedures should be performed in the surgery room, whether they are considered "clean" or "dirty" (true/false) false
the surgery room needs to have easy access, so doors should not be placed between surgery rooms and scrub or prep areas (true/false) false
the air pressure in the surgery room should be greater than that in the rest of the hospital to reduce the influx of bacteria into the surgery room (true/false) true
movable equipment in the surgery room should not leave the surgery room (true/false) true
when movable equipment is removed from the surgery room what should be done before it is returned to the surgery room it should be thoroughly cleaned and disinfected
in the absence of cleaning instructions from the manufacturer, stethoscopes, BP cuffs, and other noncritical items can be cleaned with what for use in the surgery room alcohol
how often should the surgery room floor be cleaned daily
surgery rooms should be cleaned daily whether they are used or not (true/false) true
why are refillable soap dispensers not recommended for use in the surgery prep or scrub area they can harbor bacterial growth
these are intended for use on living tissue antiseptics
these are intended for use on inanimate objects disinfectants
the time required for the disinfectant to be in contact with the microorganism to achieve its intended effect contact time
what can affect a disinfectants effectiveness amount of protein present in the area, type of microorganism present, concentration of the disinfectant
what is the correct order of events used to achieve the level of disinfection required for surgical supplies and instruments clean > sanitize > sterilize
basic cleaning of surgical instruments involves which order of steps presoaking > decontaminating > rinsing > lubricating
what process involves manually cleaning surgical instruments in a detergent decontaminating
after ultrasonic cleaning instrument should be rinsed with what distilled water
what are the two methods used to identify how long a previously sterilized item is considered sterile expiration dating and event related expiration of sterility
what are acceptable ways to sterilize items for use in surgery gravity air displacement autoclave, high vacuum autoclave, ethylene oxide unit
what is an example of a chemical sterilization indicator steam indicator tape
a client needs to be given aftercare instructions for their pet post op, what vet team personel should give these instructions technician
when and in which place of the clinic is most appropriate to discuss discharge instructions with a client any quiet area will do
what information is most appropriate to exclude from the aftercare instructions given to a client upon discharge of the clients pet estimated cost
an animal is being sent home with an ecollar what is important to inform the client about this keep it clean, leave it in place at all times, make sure the pet can still eat an drink
a feeding tube has been placed in a k9, during a routine daily inspection of the dog the owner should do what measure the tubes length
a k9 has been discharged following an orthopedic procedure, what should be includeded in the first part of discharge instructions exercise restriction for the next several weeks
what is not traditionally a role of the technician in managing patient pain determine which analgesic to prescribe a patient
what would most likely be a sign to the technician that the intubated anesthetized cat is in pain sudden increase in heart rate
it is most appropriate for the technician to prepare an intraoperative CRI that combines an opioid and what type of analgesic lidocaine
what would be an inappropriate component of a veterinary clinics comprehensive pain scoring system clients ability to pay for pain management
pain that follows some bodily injury, disappears with healing acute
normal respone to tissue damage adaptive
pain caused by a stimulus that does not normally cause pain allodynia
the loss of sensitivity to pain analgesia
total or partial loss of sensation anesthesia
a transient flare up of pain in the chronic pain setting which can occur even when chronic pain is under control breakthrough
an increase in the excitability and responsiveness of nerves in the spinal cord central sensitization
pain that lasts several weeks to months and persists beyond the expected healing time chronic pain
an increased response to a stimulation that is normally painful either at the site of injury or surrounding undamaged tissue hyperalgesia
increased sensitivty to pain hyperesthesia
decreased sensitivity to pain hypoalgesia
decreased sensitivity to stimulation hypoesthesia
hypersensitivity to pain resulting from abnormal processing of normal input maladaptive pain
the use of multiple drugs with different actions to produce optimal analgesia multimodal analgesia
the idea that the nervous system can be changed by the effect of the environemnt, external stimuli, and the effects of physiologic stimuli nueroplasticity
the transaction, conduction, and cns process of nerve signals generated by the stimulation of certain receptors nociception
the minimal amount of pain that a patient can recognize pain threshold
the greatest level of pain that a patient can tolerate pain tolerance level
pain taht has an exaggerated response beyond its protective usefullness, often associated with tissue injury incurred at the time of surgery or trauma pathologic pain
pain that acts as a protective mechanism that incites individuals to move away from the cause of potential tissue damage or to avoid movement or contact with external stimuli during a reparative phase physiologic pain
the administration of an analgesic drug before painful stimulation to prevent sensitization of nerurons or wind up thus improving postoperative analgesia preemptive analgesia
the loss of sensation in part of the body caused by interruption of the sensory nerves that conduct impulses from that region of the body regional anesthesia
pain that originates from damage to bone, joints, muscle, or skin and is describe by humans as localized, constant, sharp, aching, and throbbing somatic pain
pain that arises from stretching, distention, or inflammation of the viscera and described by humans as deep, cramping, aching, or gnawing without good localization visceral pain
temporal summation of painful stimuli in the spinal cord, mediated by the C fibers and responsible for second pain wind-up
which may be clinical signs of prolong recovery from anesthesia lethargy, ataxia, depression
how often should the surgical site be observed once the patient is discharged twice daily as a minimum
when checking the surgical site what should be noted number of sutures, any swelling, redness, or discharge
serous discharge tends to accumulate where a surgical drain exits the skin, what can be done to prevent this accumulation from occluding the drainage site and preserve intended function of a drain application of warm soaks around the exit site, application of a thin film of petroleum jelly
if a feeding tube becomes clogged, what usually resolves most occlusions instilling carbonated water into the tube
if a large enough feeding tube is placed chunks of kibble can be administered (true/false) false
what may occur after an intestinal resection and anastomosis peritonitis, narrowing of the intestinal lumen at the anastomiss site, slow leak from the anastomosis site leading to abdominal abscess
how long should hematuria be expected following a cystotomy up to 36 hours
what is another name for a declaw procedure onychectomy
Created by: chop