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Pharm/Micro

Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in each of the black spaces below before clicking on it to display the answer.
        Help!  

Question
Answer
acyclovir   antiviral  
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alendronate   bone growth regulator  
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amlodipine   calcium channel blocker  
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amoxicillin   antibiotic  
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atorvastatin calcium   antihyperlipidemic  
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atenolol   beta blocker  
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azithromycin   antibiotic, macrolide  
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bupropion   antidepressant  
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captopril   ace inhibitor  
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carbamazepine   anticonvulsant  
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carbidopa-levodopa   antiparkinson's  
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cefaclor   cephalosporin  
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ciprofloxacin   antibiotic  
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clarithromycin   antibiotic,macrolide  
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clonidine   antihypertensive  
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clopidogrel   antiplatelet  
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dexamethasone   glucocorticoid  
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diazepam   antianxiety  
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digoxin   cardiac glycoside  
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diltiazem   calcium channel blocker  
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divalproex Na (valproic acid)   anticonvulsant  
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enalapril   ace inhibitor, antihypertensive  
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enoxaparin   anticoagulant  
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escitalopram oxalate   antidepressant  
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fluconazole   antifungal  
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fluoxetine   antidepressant, SSRI  
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furosemide   loop diuretic  
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glyburide   antidiabetic  
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hydrochlorothiazide   diuretic, thiazide  
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ibandronate sodium   bone growth regulator  
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ipratropium   cholinergic blocking  
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lansoprazole   proton pump inhibitor  
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levothyroxine   thyroid product  
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lisinopril   ace inhibitor, antihypertensive  
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lovastatin   antihyperlipidemic  
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metformin   antidiabetic  
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metoprolol tartrate   beta blocker  
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metronidazole   trichomonacide, amebicide  
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montelukast   antiasthmatic  
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nitrofurantoin   urinary anti-infective  
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nystatin   antifungal  
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ondansetron   antiemetic  
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potassium chloride   electrolyte  
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propranolol   beta blocker  
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ranitidine   h2 receptor blocker  
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sertraline   antidepressant, SSRI  
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sildenafil   erectile dysfunctional  
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simvastatin   antihyperlipidemic  
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verapamil   calcium channel blocker  
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warfarin   anticoagulant  
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Pharmacology   study of drugs  
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not a major source of drugs   textiles  
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source of drug digitalis   wildflower  
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source of heparin   animal  
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source of epsom salts   mineral  
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example of drug used to prevent disease   Hepatitis B vaccine  
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example of drug to treat disease   antihistamines  
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example of diagnostic drugs   Iodine  
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example of drug to promote health maintenance   Vitamins  
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Rules that ensure uniform quality, strength, and purity of drugs   Standards  
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example of drugs to cure disease   antibiotics  
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U.S. food/Drug Admin responsible for enforcing   Drug Standards  
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Rationale for having drug standards   drugs differ in strength, quality, & purity  
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drug names describes molecular structure of what drug   Chemical  
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Official nonproprietary drug name assigned by manufacturer   Generic  
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Name under which drug is sold by specific manufacturer   Brand  
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Nirto-Bid, Nitrong, Nitrostat are examples of   Brand Names  
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examples of chemical name   Acetylsalicyclic acid  
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Provides information regarding drug products of major pharmaceutical company   Physcians Desk Ref. (PDR)  
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Term which regers to unintended/undesirable effects of drugs?   side effects/adverse reactions  
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Term refers to conditions for which a drug is used?   Indications  
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Term refers to undesirable effects produced when drugs are taken with certain foods or other drugs   Interactions  
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term refers to specific warnings to consider when administering drugs to pt's with specific condition or disease?   Precautions  
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Term which defines how a drug works   Action  
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Law identifies the drugs that are dangerous or subject to abuse   Controlled Substances 1990  
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Schedules of controlled substances contains drugs w/ highest potential of abuse   Schedule I  
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Agency responsible for enforcing Controlled Substances Act of 1990   Drug Enforcement Admin  
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Advantage of synthetically created drugs   less expensive  
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drugs desired/predicted psych response   Therapeautic  
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analgesics used for pain management in case of terminal illness   Palliative drugs  
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Parameter that is NOT regulated by drug standards?   Drug price  
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Passage of drug from site of admin in bloodstream   Absorption  
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transportation of drug from bloodstream to body tissues and intended site of action?   Distribution  
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Series of chemical reactions that inactivate a drug by converting it into water-sluble compound?   Metabolism  
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Action insulin has on body   Replace natural substances that body lacks  
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Route of admin, time of day, drug admin, diet, environ, condition (factors of what)   Affect drug action  
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effect of drug mainly limited to area where it is applied or enters body   local effect  
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Systemic effect   travel through bloodstream  
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interaction of two drugs to inhibit or cancel each other effect   Antagonsim  
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2 drugs in combination to great the effect   synergism  
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Psych drug dependence is?   drive or craving to take a drug to relieve discomfort  
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example of drugs commonly abused   all answers correct  
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health care worker's responsibilities with respect to admin drugs?   all answers correct  
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drug admin. through sublingual route?   Nitroglycerin  
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Organs does most of metabolism and detox of drugs take place?   Liver  
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Increased risk of toxicity from exposures to high doses of drug is not assoc. with which following pt types?   Pregnant  
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Used to calculate proper adult dose?   age and body weight  
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Inactive substance has no pharm effect but can make pt feel better?   Placebo  
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Will cause drugs that are taken orally to be absorbed more quickly?   gastrointestinal tract free of food  
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Side effect of aspirin therapy?   stomach irritation  
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Method used to calculate pediatric dose of meds?   body weight  
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Child who is 20 kg would weight in lbs   44  
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Healthcare worker in DR. office encourage pt to obtain accurate measuring utensils from pharmacy?   Household utensils vary in size  
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Process of giving drugs by injection using needle and syring?   Parenteral Med. Admin.  
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Parental rougte involves breaking through skin's protective covering, increases risk of?   infection  
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Most common use of needle with length of 1 1/2 inches?   Intramuscular injection  
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Gauge needle would admin thick and sicky med?   18G  
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Single dose glass container with bulb which can be broken off at neck?   Ampule  
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Small bottle with rubber stopper through which needle can be inserted?   Vial  
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NOT considered when choosing site to admin. an injection   Pt's gender  
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inner, lower arm, upper chest, back are sites of what injection   Interdermal  
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Interdermal Inj uses what syringe   tuberculin  
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Gauge & length used to perform ID injection   25-26G, 3/8 inch needle  
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ID injection   5-15 degree angle  
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reading diagnostic skin test, health care worker observe site for?   induration & erythema  
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outer, upper arm, front of thigh, abdomen, upper back, lower shoulder blades   subcutaneous  
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amt of med. to admin. using subcutaneous route?   0.5-1.0mL  
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preferred site for IM inj. in infants & children?   Vastus Lateralis muscle  
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maximum amt of me. that may be injected via IM route?   3.0mL  
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reflects speed of absorption of medication slowest to fastest?   ID, Sub, IM  
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angle of IM   90 degree  
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Correct way to dispose of used syringe and needle   all answers  
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info must be charted after admin meds?   all answers  
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inj. procedures that prevents meds from backing up into other tissue layers?   z-track  
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route of med. admin. requires all supp. sterile?   Parenteral  
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abbrev. means 2x/day   bid  
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when admin meds, labeled checked   3x  
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abbreviated describes admin. meds cause sleepiness   hs  
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on drug label will make easier for manufacturer to trace a problem to particular batch allowing for drug recall?   Lot #  
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abbrev. to use when documenting admin of med. by mouth?   PO  
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solid medication concern if child is fussy or crying?   choking  
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resultin gfrom interaction between sedatives and alcohol?   increased sedation  
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results from comb. of warfarin & aspirin or nonsteroidal anti-flammatory drugs (NSAID)?   increased action of warfarin  
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may occur in older adult, because drugs stay in effect longer and can build up in body   cumulative effect  
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guideline should be followed when admin meds to older adults?   give lower, less frequent doses  
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obtaining history from pt   all answers  
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Parental drugs and 4 routes   ID, SC, IM, IV  
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Steven Rights   patient, drug, dose, route, time, technique, document  
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Normally, urine is slightly acidic with a pH of   6.0  
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Test based on the detection of Human chorionic gonadotropin   Pregnancy  
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All of the following are cells that may be found in the urine EXCEPT   opinionated cells  
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Individuals testing positive for ketones may have a fruity odor. This could be indicative of   diabetes  
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Clinitests are chemical tablets that determine the presence of certain   sugars  
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what type of urine specimen is collected after a meal?   2-hour postprandial  
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Tube carrying urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder   Ureter  
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An organ for temporary storage   bladder  
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Each nephron is composed of   glomerulus and medulla  
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In health, the glomerular filtrate can contain   urea  
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Which of the following hormones are produced by the kidneys   all of the above  
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Which of the following is usually NOT measured in a 24 hour urine   bacteria  
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All of the following are true of yeasts EXEPT   they will lyse in KOH  
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The type of cast found in pyelonephritis is   WBC  
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his means decreased amount of urine production   Oliguria  
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This means excessive amounts of urine   Polyuria  
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This means absence of urine   Anuria  
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This means bacteria in the urine   Bacturia  
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This is the presence of protein in the urine   proteinuria  
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urine specimen most commonly collected   Random  
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If urine cannot be tested within 1 hour, it should be   refrigerated  
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Specimen most concentrated   First-Morning  
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Which specimen may have caustic Preservatives added to it?   24 hour  
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What specimen does a quantitative urine test require?   24 hour  
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This means abnormal sugar in the urine   Glycosuria  
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This means "Hidden"   Occult  
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Solid material remaining at the bottom of a test tube after centrifugation?   Sediment  
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Urine that is cloudy or opaque   Turbid  
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Term that means without shape   amorphous  
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What is the normal value for urobilinogen   0.1-0.2  
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Testing urine for the presence of infection or disease   urinalysis  
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Urinalysis begins with what three characteristics?   Odor, Color, Appearance  
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What causes the breakdown of bilirubin?   light  
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The presence of bilirubin, may be one of the first signs of?   Liver disease  
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Kidney disease involving inflammation and lesions of the glomeruli   glomerulonephritis  
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The concentration at which a substance, excreted by the kidneys begins to appear in the urine   Renal Threshold  
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The weight of a substance in relation to the same amount of distilled water   specific gravity  
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functional unit of the kidney   Nephron  
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Capable of causing "birth defects"   Teratogenic  
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This solute is the highest concentration in the urine of a healthy adult   Urea  
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Inflammation of the renal pelvis   pyelitis  
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Bowman's capsule is the portion of the nephron that receives the glomerular _______   filtrate  
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A substance that is toxic or destructive to kidney cells   nephrotoxic  
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The organ in which urine is formed   kidney  
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variety of waste products are eliminated from the body through the formation and excretion of   urine  
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the functional unit of the kidneys   nephron  
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two major treatments for kidney failure are kidney transplant and ____   dialysis  
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The type of dialysis that gives the patient more freedom and independence is   peritoneal dialysis  
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antidiuretic hormone is aka   vaso perssion  
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a type of glomerulonephritis that can occur after an untreated or incompletely treated Strep A infection is   post-streptococcal GN  
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A midstream urine sample collected after the urethral opening and surrounding tissues have been cleansed   clean catch  
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urine sample collected at any time, without regard to diet or time of day   random  
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quantitative urine tests requires a ____ specimen.   24 hour  
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When urine specimens cannot be regrigerated or must be transported, deterioration can be avoided by the addition of _____   preservatives  
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absence of urine production   anuria  
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excessive production of urine   polyuria  
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urine specimen that is normally more concentrated and has an acid pH is   1st void of day  
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An unpleasant ammonia-like odor in urine is usually caused by urea being broken down by ____   bacteria  
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Urines collected to test for protein, barbiturates, or drugs of abuse can be preserved by ______   refrigeration  
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Sinks used for discarding urine specimens should be flushed with water and ______   disinfectant  
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Upon standing, a urine containing melanin will turn ____   brown-black  
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Beets in the diet can cause the urine to be _____   red  
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Turbidity or cloudiness in a freshly voided urine can be an indication of _____   disease  
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Urine that has a milky, opalexcent appearance could contain _____   fat & lipids  
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If a urine cannot be examined within 1 hour of collection, it can be refrigerated at 4 degrees C for up to ____   4 hours  
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Ketones are the product of ____ metabolism   fat/lipids  
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In an unrefrigerated urine containing bacteria, urea will be broken down to form ____   ammonia  
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Before being analyzed, refrigerated urines should be allowed to reach _____ temperature   room  
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Ketonuria occurs when the body burns ___ for energy.   fat  
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The endpoint of the confirmatory test for urine protein is   precipitate  
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A degradation product of bilirubin that can be detected using the urine reagent strip is   urobilinogen  
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If white blood cells are present in urine, the ____ reagent strip pad should be positive.   leukocyte esterace  
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The Acetest is a confirmatory test for   keytones  
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In urinalysis, a protein matrix formed in the kidney tubules and washed out into the urine is   cast  
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The solids that settle to the bottom of a liquid are known as   sediment  
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When urine sediment is viewed under the microscope, _____ appear as small, pale, light-reflective disks.   RBC  
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The presence of large numbers of RBC's in the urine   hematuria  
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When urine sediment is viewed under the microscope, WBCs appear slightly larger than RBCs, have a granular appearance, and have a visible ____   nucleus  
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The objective used to identify and classify epithelial cells in urine sediment   40x  
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Possible chronic or acute renal disease can be indicated by large numbers of   renal tubulas cells  
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When urine sediment is examined under the microscope, yeast cells can be mistaken for ___   RBCs  
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Trichomonas vaginalis moves through the action of slender lash-like appendages known as   Flagella  
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The most common yeast found in urine   candida albicans  
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A urine "dipstick" test for gCH is available and is CLIA-waived if read using   strip reader  
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After performing a urine hCG concentration, the preferred urine specimen is the first urine voided in   morning  
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If urine cannot be tested immediately for hCG, it can be stored for   24-48 hours  
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The results of hCG tests should be reported follwing the policy of the institution, but the usual method is to report the test as negative or positive for hCG, not for   pregnancy  
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The "hormone of pregnancy" is   hCG  
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To urinate   Micturate  
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The absence of urine   anuria  
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excessive amounts of urine production   polyuria  
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blood in the urine   hematuria  
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the male reproductive cell   spermatozoa  
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bacteria in the urine   bacturia  
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it means that the urine is opque and does not allow light to pass through   turbid  
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the term for presence of abnormal sugar in the urine   glycosuria  
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the solid material that settles a tthe bottom of a test tube after centrifugation   sediment  
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provides valuable info about many function in the body, including kidney function   urinalysis  
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formed by the precipitation of urinary salts when the pH, temperature, or cencentration changes   crystals  
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the concentration at which a substance excreted by the kidneys, such as glucose, begins to appear in urine   renal threshold  
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byproducts of fat metabolism   ketones  
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weight of a substance in relation to the weight of the same amount of distilled water   specific gravity  
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Chemical material without shape   amorphous  
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pH of a solution indicates   acidity and alkalinity  
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