phlebotomy essentials review
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| Certification | Evidence that an individual has mastered fundamental competencies in a particular technical area.
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| ClIA'88 | Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988
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| AHCCS | Arizona Health Care Containment System
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| APC | Ambulatory Patient Classification
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| Communication Barriers | Biases or personalized filters that are major obstructions to verbal communication
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| Continuum of care | Holistic, coordinated system for health care services
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| CPT | Current procedural terminology codes
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| DRGs | Diagnosis-related groups
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| Exsanguinate | Remove all blood
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| Gatekeeper | Primary Physician who serves as the patients' advocate and advises the patient on healthcare needs
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| HIPAA | Health insurance portability and accountability act
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| HMOs | health maintenance organization
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| ICD-9-CM | International Classification of Diseases, Ninth Revision, Clinical Modification
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| IDS | Integrated healthcare delivery system
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| Kinesic slip | verbal and nonverbal messages do not match
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| Which of the following is the responsibility of the phlebotomist: Analyze specimens Obtain vital signs Collect urine drug screen specimens Transport Patients | Analyze Specimens
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| A healthcare facility that provides ambulatory services is a | Surgical center
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| The histology department in the lab performs | Processing of tissues
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| the abbreviation for the routine chemistry test that detects colorectal cancer is called | CEA
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| PBT | Certified by the American Society of Clinical Pathologist
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| Assault | Act or threat causing another to be in fear of immediate battery
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| Battery | Intentional harmful or offensive touching of or use of force on a person without consent or legal justification
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| Breach of confidentiality | failure to keep privileged medical information private
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| CLSI | Clinical and laboratory standards institute, formerly NCCLS
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| Informed consent | implies voluntary and competent permission for a medical procedure, test or medication
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| Establishes standards for the operation of hospitals and other healthcare facilities and services | Joint Commission (JCAHO)
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| Agency that manages the federal healthcare programs of medicare and medicaid | Center for medicare and medicaid services (CMS)
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| These measurable, objective guides are established to monitor all aspects of patient care | indicators
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| All consequences of a medical procedure have been given to the patient | Informed Consent
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| A national organization that develops guidelines and sets standards for laboratory procedures | Clinical and laboratory standards institute, formerly NCCLS (CLSI)
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| A phlebotomist hired by a hospital as a temporary employee commits a negligent act for which the hospital is liable. This is an example of | Vicarious Liability
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| A comparison of current test results with previous results for the same test on the same patient is called a | Delta Check
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| A type of negligence committed by a professional is called | Malpractice
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| Form that states the concern and describes the corrective action when a problem occurs | internal report
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| implies voluntary and competent permission | informed consent
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| required before surgery or high-risk procedures | Expressed consent
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| consent is implied by actions | implied consent
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| HIV consent | state laws specify what type of information must be given
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| Minor Consent | parental/guardian consent required for medical treatment
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| Refusal of consent | a constitutional right to refuse a medical procedure
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| Chain of infection | A series of components or events that lead to an infection
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| engineering controls | devices with safety features that isolate or remove a BBP (blood born pathogen) hazard from the workplace
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| HBV | Hepatitis B Virus
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| HCV | Hepatitis C Virus
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| HIV | Virus that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
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| Procedures that separate patients with certain transmissible infections from others | Isolation procedures
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| Document containing general, precautionary, and emergency information for a hazardous product | Material Safety Data Sheet
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| an example of a blood born pathogen is | cytomegalovirus
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| Class C fires occur with | Electrical Equipment
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| Normally the most effective means of controlling external hemorrhage is | direct pressure and elevation
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| Droplet Transmission | Can occur from a coughing patient
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| Airborne Transmission | Can occur by entering a TB patients room without an N95 respirator
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| Vehicle Transmission | Can occur from filling a TB test syringe with antigen without first cleaning the top of the antigen vial
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| Vector Transmission | Can occur from handling a dead rodent
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| Direct Contact Transmission | Can occur from kissing someone with mononucleosis
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| Indirect contact Transmission | Can occur from rubbing your eye after touching a contaminated blood tube
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| Five things to break the chain of infection: | effective hand hygiene
insect and rodent control
isolation procedures
use of gloves and other PPE
Use of needle safety engineers
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| Airbone Pathogens | Rubeola virus, TB microbe, Varicella virus
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| Bloodborne Pathogens | CMV,HBV, HCV, HIV, HAV, Malaria microbe, Syphilis microbe
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| Medical term for fainting | syncope (sin'ko-pea)
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| Alveoli | Air sacs in the lungs where exchange of gases takes place
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| Anabolism | Conversion of simple compounds into complex substances
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| Anatomic position | Standing erect with arms at the side and eyes and palms facing forward
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| Anatomy | Study of the structural composition of living things
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| Anterior | Referring to the front
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| Avascular | Without blood or lymph vessels
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| Hollow body spaces that house body organs | body cavaties
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| Body plane | flat surface of a real or imaginary cut through the body
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| Cartilage | type of hard, non vascular connective tissue
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| breakdown of complex substances into simple ones | catabolism
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| diaphragm | muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities
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| distal | farthest from the point of attachment
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| means to the back of the body or body part | dorsal
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| glands that secrete substances directly into the bloodstream | endocrine glands
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| glands that secrete substances through ducts | exocrine glands
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| frontal plane | real or imaginary cut that divides the body vertically into front and back portions
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| a person who is supine is | lying face up
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| the creation of a hormone is an example of | anabolism
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| an appendage of the integumenary system | sebacceous gland
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| Muscle cell types | Smooth, cardiac and skeletal
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| large vein on the inner side of the arm in the antecubital fossa | Basilic vein
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| Vein located in the lateral aspect of the arm in the antecubital fossa | Cephalic vein
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| Epicardium | the thin membrane lining the heart that is continuous with the lining of the blood vessels
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| What is the function of the right ventricle | deliver blood to the pulmonary artery
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| a fast heart rate is called | tachycardia
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| the pressure in the arteries during ventricular relaxation | diastolic pressure
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| pulmonary artery carries oxygenated or deoxygenated blood | deoxygenated blood
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| a vein is defined as | a blood vessel that carries blood away from the heart
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| while selecting a vein for venipuncture you feel a distinct pulse. what you are feeling is an | artery
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| A major difference between veins and arteries is | arteries have a thicker external layer
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| which veins are most commonly used for venipuncture | median cubital and cephalic
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| a blood clot circulating in the blood stream is called a | embolism
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| additive that prevents the breakdown of glucose by the cells | ACD
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| Substance added to a blood collection tube | Additive
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| what tube would typically be used to collect plasma for a STAT chemistry specimen | Green
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| EDTA is a | Anticoagulant
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| A light blue top is most often associated with tests in this department | coagulation
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| For which tube is the blood-to-additive ratio most critical | Light Blue
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| a PST contains | Heparin and gel
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| which tube contains anticoagulant that works by binding calcium | Light blue
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| what is the purpose of a royal blue top tube | prevent the specimen from clotting
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| Gray tube additive | Sodium fluoride and potassium oxalate, sodium fluoride and EDTA, sodium fluoride
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| Green tube additive | Sodium heparin
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| lavender (pink) tube additive | EDTA
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| Light Blue tube additive | sodium citrate
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| SST (gold) tube additive | Clot activator and gel seperator
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| Red glass tube additive | NONE
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| Royal Blue tube (red label) additive | NONE
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| Light Green tube additive | Lithium heperin and gel for plasma seperation
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| Yellow tube (Bloodbank) additive | ACD
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| Yellow tube (Microbiology) additive | SPS
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| Orange tube additive | Thrombin
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| Royal blue tube (lavender label)additive | EDTA
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| Royal blue tube (green label) additive | sodium heparin
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| Tan glass tube additive | sodium heparin
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| Tan plastic tube addtive | EDTA
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| Red plastic tube additive | Clot activator
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| Green tube additive | Lithium heparin, Sodium heparin
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| Record in the order received | accession
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| secure firmly as in holding a vein in place by pulling the skin taut with the thumb | anchor
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| two other names for an identification band/bracelet | arm/wrist band
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| A vein that has patency has | bounce or resilience to it
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| what is the most critical error a phlebotomist can make | misidentifying a patient specimen
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| Test to detect inflammation; identify collagen vascular diseases | ESR *Note* lavender hematology
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| Test to determine hemoglobin levels, detect infection, and identify blood disorders | CBC
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| Basal State | Resting metabolic state of the body early in the morning after a 12-hour fast
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| Hematoma | swelling or mass of blood caused by blood leaking from a blood vessel
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| Hemoconcentration | decrease in blood fluid content with an increase in non filterable components such as like RBCs
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| Hemolysis | destruction of RBCs and release of hemoglobin into the fluid portion of a specimen
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| Hemolyzed | term used to describe a specimen affected by hemolysis
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| It is best if drugs that interfere with blood tests are stopped (how many hours prior to testing) | 4 to 24 hours
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| the results of this test will be affected the most if collected from a crying infant | white blood count
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| Creatine Clearance test results are correlated with the patient's... | age
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| lipid or fat in the serum would lead you to believe the patient did not do what | Fast
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| a patients arm is in anatomic position. there appears to be a loop under the skin between the wrist and the elbow. you feel a buzzing sensation when you touch it. what you are feeling is a | fistula
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| if a patient starts to faint during venipuncture what should you do first | release the tourniquet and remove the needle
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| the serum or plasma of a hemolyzed specimen would most likely look | pink to red
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| a specimen that is abnormal yellow brown in color is | Icteric
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| a specimen that is fatty/cloudy white is | lipemic
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| a specimen that is slightly pink is | mild hemolysis
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| a specimen that is pink to red is | moderate hemolysis
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| a specimen that is red is | gross hemolysis
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| a specimen that is yellow to clear is | normal
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| An inherited metabolic disorder detected through newborn screening | PKU or phenylketonuria
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| equipment needed for a malaria test | glass slide
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| a plasma specimen for this type of test cannot be collected by capillary puncture | coagulation
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| capillary blood composition more closely resembles | arterial blood
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| the concentration for this analyte is normally lower in capillary specimens than in venous specimens | calcium
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| capillary collection is the preferred method of blood collection in infants because | infant can be injured by restraining,venipuncture can lead to anemia,venipuncture of infants is difficult and may damage veins and surrounding tissues
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| If using capillary puncture to collect the following bullets from a patient, which one would be collected first? Gray, green, lavender or SST | SST
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| what is the recommended site for finger puncture in adults | proximal segment of the ring finger
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| the medial plantar surface of the heel is located | in the middle of the bottom of the heel
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| it is necessary to control the depth of lancet insertion during heel puncture to avoid | bone injury
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| the primary purpose of warming a capillary puncture site is to | increase blood flow
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| do not use povidone-iodine to clean skin puncture sites because it interferes with | uric acid, phosphorus and potassium results
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| amber bullets do what for the specimen | protect it from light
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| Aerobic | with air
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| without air | anaerobic
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| GTT - glucose tolerance test | test used to diagnose carbohydrate metabolism problems
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| HCG | human chorionic gonadotropin
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| the fasting specimen for a GTT is drawn | before the test has begun
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| which tube additive is preferred for the collection of a blood culture specimen | sodium polyanethol sulfate
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| Trough means | lowest
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| when performing a glucose tolerance test the fasting specimen is drawn at 6:15am and the patient finishes the glucose beverage at 6:30am when should the two hour specimen be collected? | 8:30am
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| a stool sample is needed for what test | Guaiac
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| Autologous donation is performed to | avoid transfusion reaction
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| GTT is performed to evaluate the production of _____ in the pancreas | Insulin
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| before performing a bleeding time, the phlebotomist should ask the patient about | recent ingestion of aspirin
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| Peak and trough specimens are collected for | therapeutic drug monitoring
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| Peak means | highest
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| one of the most common errors when collecting blood culture specimens | improper cleansing of the arm
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| postprandial refers to | after eating
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| Specimen is collected a specific length of time after a meal has been eaten | 2-hour PP
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| Skin antisepsis is critical to accurate test results | blood culture
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| often requires serial collections of blood specimens at specific times | GTT glucose tolerance test
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| patient ID procedures are extra strict | blood type and screen
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| requires a nine to one ratio of blood to anticoagulant ration in the collection tube | PT prothrombin time
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| test performed to assess collateral circulation to the hand | Allen Test
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| Ulnar Artery location | artery located in the little finger side of the wrist
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| radial artery location | artery located in the thumb side of the wrist
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| the number one choice site for arterial puncture is | radial artery
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| when performing radial artery puncture the needle should enter the skin | distal to where the pulse is felt
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| an ABG specimen may be rejected if it | is QNS
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| arterial blood is what color | bright cherry red
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| cerebrospinal fluid abbreviation | CSF
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| clean catch means | method of obtaining an uncontaminated urine sample
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| C&S is | culture and sensitivity
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| type of bacteria that can cause chronic gastritis and lead to peptic ulcer disease | H. pylori
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| term applied to specimen obtained during the middle of the urination | midstream
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| sputum specimens are used to detect | tuberculosis
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| synovial fluid is aspirated from the | joints
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| pilocarpine is used in this test procedure | sweat chloride
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| urine cytology studies can be performed to detect | cytomegalovirus
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| this specimen requires STAT handling and is typically collected by a physician in three sterile tubes | CSF (spinal fluid)
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| this test requires a 24 hour urine specimen | Creatinine clearance
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| a urine sensitivity test determines | antibiotic susceptibility
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| bone marrow samples are typically evaluated in | hematology and histology
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| Results of a bilirubin test specimen exposed to light for an hour can be decreased up to | 50%
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| Normal body temperature is | 37'C
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| the specimen for this test should not be chilled. | potassium
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| CBC specimens should not be | centrifuged
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| How many mls are typically required for one set of adult blood cultures | 10-20mls
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| for a set of blood cultures how long do you clean the venipuncture site? | 30-60 seconds
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