WVSOM: Musculoskeletal System
Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in
each of the black spaces below before clicking
on it to display the answer.
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| In the body, what do myotomes and dermatomes come from | somites
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| Dorsal mass from the different limb buds become which type of muscles | extensors
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| Which nerve is needed for a strong grip | median nerve
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| Which nerve gets most of the flexors in the forearm | median nerve
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| which nerve gets most of the intrinsic muscles of the hand | ulnar nerve
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| Nerve to deltiod and teres minor | axillary nerve
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| nerve to the lateral compartment of the leg | superficial fibular nerve
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| nerve to anterior compartment of the leg | deep fibular nerve
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| which nerve gets the hamstring muscles | tibial nerve
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| Dorsiflexion of the foot and extension of the toes is done via which nerve | deep fibular
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| Weakness is seen in UPN lesiosn or LMN lesions? | BOTH
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| What makes up a muscle spindle | sensory receptors made up of muscle fibers encased by CT and nerves
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| Do muscle spindles increase tone to the muscle being stretched or its antagonist | muscle being stretched
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| What decreases tone to a muscle being stretched and activates its antagonist | Golgi Tendon organs
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| Slow twitch muscles carry out which type of metabolism | oxidative metabolism
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| What are the other names for slow twitch msucles | type 1 or red
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| Which type of muscle would you use for controlled, precise movements | Type 2 or white
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| I-bands contain which type of fibers | actin
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| H-bands contain which type of fibers | myosin
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| Which band in a sarcomere contains both myosin and actin | A-band
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| On what structure does a depolarization from a nerve travel across a muscle | transverse tubule
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| DHPR's receptors are which type | voltage gated
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| RyR receptors are which type of receptors | Calcium gated (ligand-gated)
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| What is the purpose of Tn-I in the troponin complex | inhibitory, prevents binding of actin to myosin. Can be released by binding of Ca+ to Tn-C
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| What encricles the Z-disc of each sarcomere and connects them to the sarcolemma | Desmin
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| What connects muscle fibers to the ECM and CT | dystrophin
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| Which is the worst of the two muscular dystrophies, has an early on set and is most deadly | Duchenne
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| What are sharpeys fibers | connect periosteum to bone (type 1 collagen)
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| What is a Howship's Lacuna | depression in bone left by osteoclast
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| PTH has what effect on osteoclast activity and thus Ca+ levels in the body | increase osteoclast and thus increases serum Ca+
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| Calcitonin has what effect on osteoclast activity and thus what effect on serum Ca+ levels | Lowers activity of osteoclast, thus lowering serum Ca+
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| Which embryoligical structure do long bones come from | lateral mesoderm
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| A synovial joint is made of how many layers? Name them. Describe them | 2, external and internalExternal - fibrous dense CTInternal - squamous cuboidal cells
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| What are the five steps in bone repair | Hematoma, Callus, hyaline cartilage, immature bone, mature bone
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| What do ligaments connect | BONE TO BONE
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| Positive ANA antibodies, malar/discoid rashm low levels of C3/C4 | Systemic Lupus
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| Small joints, seen more in females, autoimmune rxn, goes away with activity on the morning | Rhuematoid Arthritis
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| What is the major cytokine we're concerned about with rhuematoid arthritis | TNF-alpha
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| What is Rhuematoid factor | Antibodies to the Fc region of IgG
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| Th-17 produce which cytokine? What does it do | IL-17, proinflammatory mediator and recruits nuetrophils
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| Pannus formation is seen in which disease | Rhuematoid
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| Which arthritis spontaneously goes into remission | juvenile
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| Age of onset less than 16, symptoms for 6 wks or longer, HLA associations, fewer/larger joints, maybe asymetric | Juvenile arthritis
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| HLA-B27 is a DEFINITE dignostic finding in... | Ankylosing Spondylitis
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| seronegative means what | no rhuematoid factor
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| Chronic inflammatory disease of SI, vertebrae and entheses | Ankylosing spondylitis
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| Describe Schobers test and what it is used to diagnose | test to see if theres distance between vertebral levels in spinal flexion. Use in ankylosing spondylitis
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| Reiters disease is also known as... | Reactive arthritis
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| What triggers reactive arthritis | GI or urogential infections
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| Lambert Eaton syndrome is related to which autoimmune disease | Myasthenia Gravis
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| True or False: HLA-B27 correlation is seen in reactive arthritis | TRUE, not as strong as A.S. though
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| Crepitus in weight bearing joints, loss of articular cartilage, loss of ROM, and worsens with repeated motion | Osteoarthritis
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| Name two major predispostions to osteoarthritis | diabetes and obesity
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| Damage to which cell types cause osteoarthitis | chondrocytes
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| Polyarthritis and olgioarthritis are used to dezcribe which disease and refer to what | Early symptoms/onset Juvenile ArthritisPoly = 5+ jointsOlgio = 4 joints or less
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| HLA-DR4 and DR1 | Rheumaoid Arthritis
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| A proliferation of synovium and granulation tissue over the articular cartilage of a joint is called what? Seen in which disease | Pannus, rhuematoid arthritis
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| Elevated sedimentation rate and hypergammaglobulinemia are seen in which disease | rhuematoid arthritis
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| Associated with ulcerative colitis and HLA-B27 | Enteropathic Arthritis
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| You have a joint that has a cloudy synovial fluid when aspirated and cultures gonococci producing arthritis | supprative arthritis
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| Psuedogout is produced by the deposition of what | calcium pyrophosphate crystals
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| True or False: Ganglion cyst have communication with the joint space | False
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| A true neoplasm, occurs 80% in the knee, and causes pain, swelling, loss of ROM, and locking | Pigmented Villonodular Synovitis
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| Where are the two best places in the body for anaerobes to grow. What is the millivoltage in these areas | Dental Plaque (-200) and Colon (-300)
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| The overgrowth of anaerobes decreases the ability of the body to take care what | peroxide and free radicals
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| What is the only communicable anaerobe | closdridium (in hospitals)
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| foul smelling infections with necrotic tissue due to gas formation is typical of which type of infection | anerobes
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| Which anaerobe is known "below the waist" | Bacteroides fragilis
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| Gram negative rods, LACK ENDOTOXIN, have collagenase and hyaluronidase, with a capsule | Bacteroides fragilis
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| Gram negative coccibacilli to short rods, with brick red floresence in a UV light | Prevotella
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| Which anerobe is known as "above the waist" pathogen and causes brain abcesses and lung irritation | Prevotella
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| Gram negative rods, long sleder fusiform rods that look like points. Causes trench mouth | Fusobacterium nucleatum
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| Commonly seen in the head, neck and chest and causes necrotizing gingivitis | Fusbacterium nucleatum
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| Gram positive branching rods that produce sulfer granules in abcesses and cultures | Actinomyces israelli
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| What are the two drugs of choice for anerobes | metronidazole (pro-drug) and clindamyacin (50s inhibitor)
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| Alpha Toxin is produce from which organism. What does it do | Clostridium perfinges - degrades mammillian cell membranes
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| The lower the redox potential, the more ______ is released from clostridium | toxin
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| Box-car like rods | clostridium perfinges
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| Cellulitis and food poisoning | clostridium perfinges
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| The suppresion of inhibitory nuerotranmitters is caused by which organism | Clostridium tetani (tetanospasim)
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| Most toxic chemical known to man is made by which organism | clostridium botulism
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| floppy baby syndrome is caused by which organism | clostridium botulism
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| Which organism produces a toxin that prevents the release of ACh from Alpha-motor nuerons | Clostridium botulism
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| what causes the clinical disease of pseudomembranous colitis | Clostridium difficile
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| What organism produces toxin A? What does it do? | C. difficile. Causes fluid production and tissue damage
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| Which clostridium species has become resistant to flouroquinolone and being linked to a lot of deaths | C. Difficile
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| Gas gangrene is caused by | clostridium perfinges
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| Diabetes mellitus, abdominal surgery and perineal infection are all possibel cuase of which type of necrotizing fascitis | Type 1
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| What causes type 2 necrotizing fascitis | Group A strep (flesh eating)
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| Rapid progression, resembling gas gangrene w/o the gas, and due to possible superantigens | Type 2 NF
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| Which properties of Group A strep give it the ability to cause type 2 NF | beta-hemolytic, lipase enzymes and superantigenic capabilites
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| Which drug are you using to treat type 2 NF | pennicillin
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| Leukocytosis with a left shift is diagnostic of ... | NF
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| Motile gram negative rods, live in fresh water and are oxidase positive | Aeromonas hydrophilia myonecrosis
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| Non-traumatic gas-gangrene is caused by which organism | clostridium septicum
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| What is non-traumatic gas gangrene associated with | colon cancer, diverticulitis, and abdominal (GI) surgery
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| The damage that occurs in myalgias is caused by what | immunological response
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| What are some tell-tale signs of infectous arthritis | ONE JOINT, usually the knee (maybe hip), swollen hot and painful, occurs in joint with previous damage or trauma/surgery
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| What are the two most common organisms in infectous arthritis | staph aureus and neisseria gonorrhoeae(Staph epi in children and prostetics/replacements)
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| In which population does osteomyelitits commonly occur | children who are growing
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| A history of chills, fever, and inflammation over the area of trauma may cue you in to which disease | osteomyelitis
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| Osteomyelitis is overall caused by trauma which causes a disruption in which strucutures | blood vessels, which lead to hematoma
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| Long course of antibiotics naficillin or oxacillin given over the course of weeks, parentally, is a course of treatment for which bone disease | osteomyelitis
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| Most common organism in osteomyelitis | staph aureus
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| What is the most common form of spinal muscle atrophy | Werdnig-Hoffman disease - usually results in death by age 3 (autosommal on chromosome 5)
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| Most common muscular dystrophy | Duchenne's
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| Where does duchennes start and progress to | pelvic girdle to the shoulder girdle
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| Which gene and protien are effected in Duchennes | Gene: Xp21 Protien: 427kD
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| Which muscular dystrophies occur in the proximal muscular of the limbs and trunk | Limb girdle muscular dystrophy
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| Which disease presents with abnormalties in gait progressing to facial muscle problems and ptosis | Myotonic muscle dystrophy
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| Cataracts, frontal balding, gonadal atrophy, cardiomyopathy, and smooth muscle invovlement may all be seen in which disease | myotonic muscle dystrophy
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| sustained involuntary contraction of a group of muscles is the cardinal symptom for which disease | myotonic muscle dysrophy
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| What is the only dystrophy that actually shows pathologic changes in muscles | myotonic muscular dystrophy
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| autosomal dominant syndrome of dramatic hypermetabolic state (tachycardia, tachypnea, muscle spasms, hyperpyrexia) | Malignant hyperpyrexia
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| Which muscle disorder can be caused by induction by anethesia | Malignant Hyperpyrexia
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| Hypotonia and myotonia during excercise or exposure to cold | paramyotonia congenita
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| myotonia caused by fatigue or stress | Myotonia congenita
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| Toxic myopathies are most dependant on what | the patients sensitivity
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| What is the example of paraneoplastic syndrome associated with NMJ disorder (myashtenia gravis) | Lambert Eaton Syndrome (squamous cell carcinoma of the lung)
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| What are the three subgroups of inflammatory muscle disease | Infectous, non-infectous inflammatory muscles (children; look for rash), systemic inflammatory (muscle WITH other organs)
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| Four types of skeletal muscle tumors | embryonal, botryoid, alveolar, and pleomorphic
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| boytroid tumors are morphological variant of which other type of muscle tumor | embryonal
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| Which muscle tumor type occurs in older generations (45+) | pleomorphic
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| which skeletal muscle tumor type has the worst prognosis | pleomorphic
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| Where do Leiomyoma's and leiomyosarcomas most occur | female genital tract
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| Herringbone pattenrn and dystrophic calcification are seen in which muscle tumors | Leimyomas or sarcomas
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| Class I mitchondrial myopathies involve what | genes for mitochondiral protiens
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| Class II mitchondrial Myopathis invovle what | point mutations in mtDNA
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| Class III mitochondrial myopathis invovle what | deletions of mtDNA
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| How does Colchinine work | binds to intercellular portien tubulin preventing polymerization (prevents migration of inflammatory cells)
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| Which gout drug has a really low TI and severe GI problems | Colchicine
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| Which gout drug is used a preventative measure | colchicine
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| When are NSAIDS used for gout | in an acute attack
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| Reduction is LTB4 is accomplished by which drug | colchicine
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| What are the two commonly used NSAIDS | INdomethacin and phenylbutazone
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| Major s/e's from indomethacin | CNS and GI
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| major s/e's from phenylbutazone | hematological
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| How does allopurinol work | inhibits xanthine oxidase
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| Which drug can inhibit immunosupressants and produce an intial gout attack when first administered | allopurinol
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| How does probenecid work | decreases uric acid reabsorbtion in the kidney
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| Which drug works to protect the kidneys and prevent stones | allopurinol
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| Name the order in which you use sulfinyrazone, probenecid, and allopurinol | allopurinol > probenecid > sulfinyrazone
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| Which drugs should you give before starting a course of allopurinol | colchicine and NSAIDS
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| Which medication stops probenecid from working | aspirin
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| 6-metacaptopurine and azathioprine must be stopped before the start of which drug | allopurinol (blocks their metabolism, causes toxic build up)
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| which drug to you need to access kidney function before giving | probenecid
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| Defects in the FGFR3 receptor cause what disorder | achondroplasia
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| a thin sclera with a blue hue is indicative of what | osteogenesis imperfecta
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| which bone disorder can lead to deafness | osteogenesis imperfecta
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| osteogenesis imperfecta is a disorder of what? | collagen type 1
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| which is the worst form of osteogenesis imprefecta to have | Type 2
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| A disorder where there is a gradual compression of the marrow cavity | osteopetrosis
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| A decrease in osteoclast function, also known as marble bone disease or alber-schonberg disease | osteopetrosis
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| Erlenmeyer shaped flask appearance of bones is seen in which disorder | osteopetrosis
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| Which is worse the recessive or dominant form of osteopetrosis | recessive (linked to malignancies, where dominant is linked to benign)
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| Which bone disorder is associated with paramyxovirus | Pagets
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| Increase of bone reabsorbtion resulting in thickned but weak bones | pagets
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| What are the three stages of Pagets | Osteolytic, mixed osteolytic, and osteosclerotic
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| mosaic pattern of lamellar bone | Pagets
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| Lionlike facies with anemia and high alkaline phosphatase | Pagets
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| do to the constant remodeling of bone in pagets, you can develop what disease | osteosarcoma
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| When does Rickets occur | before the closure of the epiphysis
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| Which bone disorder is a major concern after fracture | osteomyelitis
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| What is the most common organism in osteomyelitis | staph aureus
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| Clinical feature os luekemia and fever with erythema and swelling are indicative of which bone disorder | osteolyelitis
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| Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin is linked to which bone disease | osteomyelitis
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| Parathyroid adenoma and parathyroid hyperplaisa are linked to which bone disease | Osteitis fibrosa cystica
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| Clubbing and periosteal new bone formation are seen in which bone disorder | hypertrophic osteoarthropathy
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| Bronchogeneic carcinoma is a paraneoplasmtic syndrome seen in which bone disorder | hypertrophic osteoarthopathy
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| Which bone tumor is seen with Gardner syndrome | osteoma
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| osteoid osteoma is defined as growth in which part of a bone | diaphysis
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| A central radiolucency surrounded by a sclerotic rim is seen in which bone tumors | osteoid osteoma
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| Osteoblastoma is seen in which bones | vertebrae
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| Where does osteochondroma orginiate from | epiphyseal growth plates
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| Multiple enchondromas in the hands and feet are seen in which disease | olliers disease
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| Increased risk of malignant tranformation, ovarian carcinoma, and brain gliomas is seen in which syndrome | Maffucci
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| What is the most common primary malignant tumor of the bone | osteosarcoma
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| Codmans triangle is associated with which disorder | osteosarcoma
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| Sunburst patterns are seen in which disorder | osteosarcoma
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| Large firm white-tan masses with necrosis and hemorraghe | osteosarcomma
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| Which disorder has a "soap bubble appearance" to it | Giant-cell tumor of bone
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| Look for giant cell tumors in which part of the bone | epiphysis
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| Mostly found in the diaphysis, this disorder has Homer-wright psuedorosettes on a micro scale | Ewing Sarcoma
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| Malignant neoplasm of undifferentiated cells arising within the marrow cavity | EWing sarcoma
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| Reduction of PG's, LT's, COX2, IL1 and TNF is done by which class of drugs | Anti-inflammatory steoirds
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| Which drug has extremely high antiinflammatory properties but no effect on salt retention | Dexamthasone
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| True or False: The anti-inflammatory properties of glucocorticoids can be sperated from the other systemic effects | False
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| MOst common side effect of anti-inflammatory steroids | osteoporosis
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| Alternate day dosing is done with which class of drugs | anti-inflammatory steroids
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| Anti-inflammatory steroids increase or decrease a immune system | decrease
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| Redistribution of fat is seen in which class of drugs | anti-inflammatory steroids
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| Which type of NSAIDS produce more side effects, selective or non-selective | non-selective
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| Is Aspirin a non-selective or selective COX inhibtor? Reversible or non-reversible | Non-selective, non-reversible
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| Death from aspirin overdose occurs due to what | respiratory failure
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| Giving bicarb to increase excretion is done for poisoning from which drug | aspirin
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| Which drug is bad to take in conjunction with warfin or heparin | Aspirin (blood thinner)
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| What is the aspirin equal that lacks antipyretic effects but has fewer side effects | Difunisal
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| When woudl you administer N-acetylcysteine | during a aspirin overdose to prevent liver damage
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| WHich drug is NOT an NSAID and inhibtis COX enzymes mostly in the CNS | Acetominophin
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| How is acetominphin eliminated | phase 2 reactions
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| Celebrex and Mobic are the only two ________ left on the market | COX 2 inhibitors
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| Indomethacin can cause a closure of what childhood disorder | PDA
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| Methotrexate is the gold standard drug for which disease | Rhuematoid Arthritis
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| What is methotrexate commonly used in conjuction with | COX2 inhibitor
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| Which drug do you need to preform constant eye exams when administering | hydrochloroquine
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| Misoprostol is given along with which drugs for what purposes | NSAIDS for GI protection. It is a PGE analog to protect the lining
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| How does Leflunomide work | inhibits pyrimidine synthesis
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| How does etanercept work | artificially synthesized TNF receptors bind up free TNF
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| How does Infliximad work | artificial antibody to TNF
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| When do you never want to give TNF inhibitors | when the patient has hear problems
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| What is an oblique view used to look for in the spine | pars interarticularis
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| At what level does disk disease mostly occur | L4-L5
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| Pedicles are a common place of ..... | metastisis
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| a non-communiated fracture has how many segments | 2
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| Salter Harris stage 1 | just through the growth plate, nothing else
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| Salter Harris stage 2 | Growth plate and metaphysis
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| Salter HArris Stage 3 and 4 | through epiphysis, depends on fragments
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| Soft tissue tumors tend to be caused by... | trauma
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| Most common soft tissue tumor of adulthood | lipoma
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| A rapidly growing benign condiiton that can resemble a sarcoma, probably from trauma, with vascular channels an anundant mitoses | Nodular fasciitis
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| Bone that matures peripherally, especially after trauma, is a key feature of | Myositis Ossification
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| What is the zonation effect | development of bone peripherally in myositis ossification
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| Common in mothers giving birth, have irregular borders and commonly reoccur when excised | Deep seated fibromas (desmoids)
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| What is the most common of the RARE tumors in adults | fibrosarcoma
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| Herringbione pattern | fibrosarcoma
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| Most common soft tissue sarcoma | Malignant Fibrous Histicytoma
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| A round bluish to purple over growth appears and pursist for a couple years. Feels hard and nudular, what is it? Can it be cancerous | Dermatofibroma, never turn to cancer
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| Congential fusion of two or more cervical vertebrae in infants | Klippel Feil Syndrome
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| Klippel Fell Syndrome has a high association with problems in which area of the body | G-U tract
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| Clinical Triad of short stature, low hairline, and restriction of neck movement | Klippel-Fell Syndrome
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| In children less then four, with back pain, you shoudl always order what | an MRI
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| What are the three types of scoliosis | congenital, idiopathic, and nueromuscular
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| Whhat are the two types of kyphosis | structural and flexible
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| Which type of kyphosis is voluntarily correctible | flexible
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| Which type of kyphosis is normally progressive | structural
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| A defect in the pars interarticularis | spondyloysis
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| A forward slip of one vertebrae over another is known as what | spondylolisthesis
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| Mutations in COL2A1 cause | chondrodysplasia
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| MOst common type of LETHAL chondrodysplasia | Thanatophoric Dysplasia
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| Elastic tissue disease effecting fibrilllin 1 | Marfan syndrome
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| Arm span greater than height, long thin limbs, hyperextendible joints, and pectus excavatum or carinatum are clinical signs of... | Marfans syndrome
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| Marfans patients are most likely to die from complications involving which system | respiratory and cardic
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| Two common fracures of childhood, NOT indicative of abuse | Toddler(tibia) and clavicle
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| Which torion is caused by children sitting in the W position | Internal femoral torsion
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| At what age is there normal adult alignment and gait patterns | 7
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| Which childhood disorder is most seen in the first born | Metatarsus Adductus
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| This disease has abnormal claf muscles which may atrophy over time. 75% of cases are congeneital | Equinovarus
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| Bone which is pulled away from non-mature bone by a strong tendon is refered to as which disease in children | Sever disease
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| What is caused by loss of blood flow to the hip socket or femoral head | Transient Synovitis
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| Microfractures in the insertion of the pattelar tendon are diagnostic of which disease | Osgood Schlatter
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|
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| This disorder usually presents late in childhood and has a positive McMurray test | Discoid LAteral meniscus
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|
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| Avascular necrosis of bone under articular cartilage | Osteochondrosis dessicans
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| Idipathic avascular necrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis | LCPD (Leg-clave-perthes disease)
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|
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| What is the most common his disorder in adolescents | Slipped Capital Femroal Epiphysis
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|
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| Which classification system is used for open fractures | Gustilo
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| Colle's fracture | fracture of distal radius with dorsal angulation
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| Fracture of the base of 5th metatarsal | Jones Fracture
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| Fx of 5th metacarpal with vulgar angulation | boxer fracture
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| "Come Rub My Tree Of Love" | Capitulum (2), Radial Head (4), Medial (6)Epicondlye(8), Trochlea(10), Olecranon(12)
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| True or False: A "Babygram" is an appropraite way to look for fractures in a child suspected of being abused | FALSE
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|
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| Most common fracutre location in a bone | diaphysis
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|
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| Child abuse acccounts for what percentage of femoral fracutres | 60-80%
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|
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| Epiphysiseal and Metaphysiseal fractures are indicative of what in a child | abuse
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|
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| Second most common fracture after long bones | skull
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|
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| Do skull fractures occur more in cases of abuse or accident | abuse
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|
||||
| How is osteoporosis defined by the WHO | bone density less than 2.5 std dev from normal
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|
||||
| methylmethacrylate has been advocated to help in which situation | helping internal fixation in bone repair
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|
||||
| How many views and which ones are used in a hip fracture | A-P view and cross table lateral (internal rotation to help with fx pattern)
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|
||||
| What is the problem with Technetium bone scanning | takes 2-3 days to become positive
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|
||||
| Operative delay of 24-48 hours causes an increase in what for hip fractures | one year mortality rates
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|
||||
| How should displaced fractures be treated | operativley
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|
||||
| When do displaced hip fractures not need surgery | in the dimented or non-ambulatory
🗑
|
||||
| In what situation do you have a subtrocanteric fx | Typically higher energy injuries seen in younger patients
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|
||||
| What levels do compression fx's usually occur | T8-L2
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|
||||
| What type of fx's are treated non-operativly and symptomatically | spinal compression fractures
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|
||||
| Most common cause of compartment syndrome | fracture (proportional to degree)
🗑
|
||||
| 2nd most common cause of compartment syndrome | blunt trauma
🗑
|
||||
| What is the absolute pressure diagnostic of compartment syndrome | 30mmHg
🗑
|
||||
| At what time do you reach irreversible damage in compartment syndrome | 8hrs
🗑
|
||||
| What is the most important clinical sign of possible compartment syndrome | pain (out of proportion to the injury)
🗑
|
||||
| When compartment syndrom is suspected, which compartments need to be measured | ALL OF THEM
🗑
|
||||
| What are the compartments of the lower leg | Anterior, LAteral, posterior, deep posterior
🗑
|
||||
| At what level should a limb with compartment syndrome be elevated | level of the heart
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|
||||
| What is the minimum distance that should be between two cuts in lower leg compartment syndrome | 8cm
🗑
|
||||
| What nerve do you need to be concious of when you make an incision over the lateral compartment of the leg | superficial fibular
🗑
|
||||
| What structures do you need to be careful of when making an incision in the poseterior compartment | saphneous nerve and vein
🗑
|
||||
| What is the most common cause of litigation | compartment syndrome
🗑
|
||||
| What are the four muscles of the rotator cuff | teres minor, supraspinatus, subscapularis, and infraspinatus
🗑
|
||||
| Innervation of teres minor | axillary nerve
🗑
|
||||
| Innervation of supscapularis | upper subscapular nerve
🗑
|
||||
| innervation of infraspinatous and supraspiantous | suprascapular nerve
🗑
|
||||
| Higher recurrance rates of shoulder dislocation in patients under what age | 20
🗑
|
||||
| A squared off appearance is diagnostic of what type of injury | dislocation
🗑
|
||||
| Which x-rays are needed in order to diagnose dislocation | AP, lateral and axillary
🗑
|
||||
| What fracture may be associated with a shoulder dislocation | greater tuberosity
🗑
|
||||
| What type of injury is associated with electrical shock or siezure | posterior shoudler dislocation
🗑
|
||||
| "Bankart” lesion refers to ... | avulsion of anterior-inferior labrum off glenoid rim. May be associated with glenoid rim fracture (“bony bankart”)
🗑
|
||||
| Humeral Head impression fracture is caused how | posterior impaction fracure of back of humerus
🗑
|
||||
| What motion can an anterior dislocated shoudler NOT carry out | external rotation
🗑
|
||||
| Most common nerve injury in a anterior dislocation | axillary dislocation
🗑
|
||||
| What are two criteria for shoulder surgery | young patients with high demand or recurrent instability
🗑
|
||||
| Which teo test are used in diagnosing impingement syndrome | Hawkins and Neers
🗑
|
||||
| Subacromial bursectomy, Acromioplasty and Coracoacromial ligament release are all surgical treatments for which disorder | impingement syndrome
🗑
|
||||
| Which muscle are you testing with the "empty-can test" | supraspinatous
🗑
|
||||
| Placing you hand (palm side down) just off of your back is testing which muscle | subscapularis
🗑
|
||||
| Which muscle in the rotator cuff is used for internal rotation | subscapularis
🗑
|
||||
| Idiopathic global limitation of humeroscapular motion resulting from contracture and loss of compliance of the glenohumeral joint capsule | Frozen shoudler syndrome
🗑
|
||||
| What are the most common implicated predispostions to frozen shoudler syndrome | diabetes and thyroid disorder (hypothyroidism)
🗑
|
||||
| What should always be included in a examination of frozen shoulder syndrome | shoulder and cervical spine
🗑
|
||||
| What are the 4 stages of frozen shoulder syndrome | Stage 1 (no name), freezing, frozen, thawing
🗑
|
||||
| Manipulation under anethesia is an effective treatment for which syndrome | frozen shoudler
🗑
|
||||
| Patients with diabetes have a lowered response to which treatment for forzen shoudler | manipulation under anesthesia
🗑
|
||||
| True or False: Surgery can be used to accelerate the nartural course of frozen shoudler syndrome | True
🗑
|
||||
| McMurray Test is used to test what? How is it done | Medial Meniscus. Felx Knee to 80-90 degrees and rotate internal-external. Positive is a click or pop
🗑
|
||||
| What is the Gold standard in menisci surgical tx | arthoscopy
🗑
|
||||
| What are the two speacil test for collateral ligaments | Valgus (push in) and Varus (push out)
🗑
|
||||
| Injuries to which ligaments are treated with a hinged brace and non-impact excercise | collateral ligaments
🗑
|
||||
| Forced hyperextension of the knee can cause damage to which ligament | ACL
🗑
|
||||
| Lateral Pivot shift test is used in injury to which ligament | ACL
🗑
|
||||
| For ACL and PCL injuries, at which grade do you have to do surgery | Grade 2 that doesn't heal well or a grade 3
🗑
|
||||
| Most common cause of constant knee pain | Patellofemoral Pain Syndrome
🗑
|
||||
| In what knee syndrome do you have to MAKE SURE you treat the underlying cause | Patellofemoral Pain Syndrome
🗑
|
||||
| What is the third line of tx for osteoarthritis | Arthroplasty - patient will let you know when they want it
🗑
|
||||
| First injured in lateral sprain with dorsiflexed ankle | calcaneofibular ligament
🗑
|
||||
| First injured in lateral sprain with plantarflexed ankle | ATF
🗑
|
||||
| Talar tilt is used to ascess which ligament | CFL
🗑
|
||||
| True or False: In a AP view of the ankle you want to see overlap of the Tibia and Fibia | TRUE!
🗑
|
||||
| Shenton’s Line of the ankle and The dime test, are used to assess what | fibular length
🗑
|
||||
| Forced eversion of the ankle causes damage to which ligament | deltoid
🗑
|
||||
| Which three x-rays are needed to assess the ankle mortise | AP, lateral and Oblique
🗑
|
||||
| Unstable medial ankle sprains are defined by what | talar subluxation
🗑
|
||||
| Definition of a Weber A fracture | fibular fracture BELOW (distal to the mortise)BEST ONE
🗑
|
||||
| Definition of a Weber B fracture | fibular fracture at the level of mortise
🗑
|
||||
| Definition of a Weber C fracture | fibular fracture ABOVE (proximal) to mortiseWORST ONE
🗑
|
||||
| When do you not operate on a fibular fracture | when it is NOT displaced, stable, and the syndesmosis is not disrupted
🗑
|
||||
| Where does rupture mostly take place on an achilles tendon | Avascular zone: 2-6cm proximal to insertion
🗑
|
||||
| What it Thompsons test used to diagnose | Achilles rupture
🗑
|
||||
| When is surgical repair indicated for Achilles ruptures | when the patient is young and active
🗑
|
||||
| When is surgery NOT inicated for an achilles | Weaker tendonHigher risk re-rupture Slower return to sportNo surgical morbidityLower cost
🗑
|
||||
| Describe Short Leg cast strategey for achilles reuptures | SLC is applied w/ ankle in plantarflexionCast is brought out of equinus over 8-10 weeksWalking is allowed (in the cast) at 4-6 weeks
🗑
|
||||
| What nerve is important to avoid in an achilles repair | sural nerve
🗑
|
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