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MSK System

WVSOM: Musculoskeletal System

In the body, what do myotomes and dermatomes come from somites
Dorsal mass from the different limb buds become which type of muscles extensors
Which nerve is needed for a strong grip median nerve
Which nerve gets most of the flexors in the forearm median nerve
which nerve gets most of the intrinsic muscles of the hand ulnar nerve
Nerve to deltiod and teres minor axillary nerve
nerve to the lateral compartment of the leg superficial fibular nerve
nerve to anterior compartment of the leg deep fibular nerve
which nerve gets the hamstring muscles tibial nerve
Dorsiflexion of the foot and extension of the toes is done via which nerve deep fibular
Weakness is seen in UPN lesiosn or LMN lesions? BOTH
What makes up a muscle spindle sensory receptors made up of muscle fibers encased by CT and nerves
Do muscle spindles increase tone to the muscle being stretched or its antagonist muscle being stretched
What decreases tone to a muscle being stretched and activates its antagonist Golgi Tendon organs
Slow twitch muscles carry out which type of metabolism oxidative metabolism
What are the other names for slow twitch msucles type 1 or red
Which type of muscle would you use for controlled, precise movements Type 2 or white
I-bands contain which type of fibers actin
H-bands contain which type of fibers myosin
Which band in a sarcomere contains both myosin and actin A-band
On what structure does a depolarization from a nerve travel across a muscle transverse tubule
DHPR's receptors are which type voltage gated
RyR receptors are which type of receptors Calcium gated (ligand-gated)
What is the purpose of Tn-I in the troponin complex inhibitory, prevents binding of actin to myosin. Can be released by binding of Ca+ to Tn-C
What encricles the Z-disc of each sarcomere and connects them to the sarcolemma Desmin
What connects muscle fibers to the ECM and CT dystrophin
Which is the worst of the two muscular dystrophies, has an early on set and is most deadly Duchenne
What are sharpeys fibers connect periosteum to bone (type 1 collagen)
What is a Howship's Lacuna depression in bone left by osteoclast
PTH has what effect on osteoclast activity and thus Ca+ levels in the body increase osteoclast and thus increases serum Ca+
Calcitonin has what effect on osteoclast activity and thus what effect on serum Ca+ levels Lowers activity of osteoclast, thus lowering serum Ca+
Which embryoligical structure do long bones come from lateral mesoderm
A synovial joint is made of how many layers? Name them. Describe them 2, external and internalExternal - fibrous dense CTInternal - squamous cuboidal cells
What are the five steps in bone repair Hematoma, Callus, hyaline cartilage, immature bone, mature bone
What do ligaments connect BONE TO BONE
Positive ANA antibodies, malar/discoid rashm low levels of C3/C4 Systemic Lupus
Small joints, seen more in females, autoimmune rxn, goes away with activity on the morning Rhuematoid Arthritis
What is the major cytokine we're concerned about with rhuematoid arthritis TNF-alpha
What is Rhuematoid factor Antibodies to the Fc region of IgG
Th-17 produce which cytokine? What does it do IL-17, proinflammatory mediator and recruits nuetrophils
Pannus formation is seen in which disease Rhuematoid
Which arthritis spontaneously goes into remission juvenile
Age of onset less than 16, symptoms for 6 wks or longer, HLA associations, fewer/larger joints, maybe asymetric Juvenile arthritis
HLA-B27 is a DEFINITE dignostic finding in... Ankylosing Spondylitis
seronegative means what no rhuematoid factor
Chronic inflammatory disease of SI, vertebrae and entheses Ankylosing spondylitis
Describe Schobers test and what it is used to diagnose test to see if theres distance between vertebral levels in spinal flexion. Use in ankylosing spondylitis
Reiters disease is also known as... Reactive arthritis
What triggers reactive arthritis GI or urogential infections
Lambert Eaton syndrome is related to which autoimmune disease Myasthenia Gravis
True or False: HLA-B27 correlation is seen in reactive arthritis TRUE, not as strong as A.S. though
Crepitus in weight bearing joints, loss of articular cartilage, loss of ROM, and worsens with repeated motion Osteoarthritis
Name two major predispostions to osteoarthritis diabetes and obesity
Damage to which cell types cause osteoarthitis chondrocytes
Polyarthritis and olgioarthritis are used to dezcribe which disease and refer to what Early symptoms/onset Juvenile ArthritisPoly = 5+ jointsOlgio = 4 joints or less
HLA-DR4 and DR1 Rheumaoid Arthritis
A proliferation of synovium and granulation tissue over the articular cartilage of a joint is called what? Seen in which disease Pannus, rhuematoid arthritis
Elevated sedimentation rate and hypergammaglobulinemia are seen in which disease rhuematoid arthritis
Associated with ulcerative colitis and HLA-B27 Enteropathic Arthritis
You have a joint that has a cloudy synovial fluid when aspirated and cultures gonococci producing arthritis supprative arthritis
Psuedogout is produced by the deposition of what calcium pyrophosphate crystals
True or False: Ganglion cyst have communication with the joint space False
A true neoplasm, occurs 80% in the knee, and causes pain, swelling, loss of ROM, and locking Pigmented Villonodular Synovitis
Where are the two best places in the body for anaerobes to grow. What is the millivoltage in these areas Dental Plaque (-200) and Colon (-300)
The overgrowth of anaerobes decreases the ability of the body to take care what peroxide and free radicals
What is the only communicable anaerobe closdridium (in hospitals)
foul smelling infections with necrotic tissue due to gas formation is typical of which type of infection anerobes
Which anaerobe is known "below the waist" Bacteroides fragilis
Gram negative rods, LACK ENDOTOXIN, have collagenase and hyaluronidase, with a capsule Bacteroides fragilis
Gram negative coccibacilli to short rods, with brick red floresence in a UV light Prevotella
Which anerobe is known as "above the waist" pathogen and causes brain abcesses and lung irritation Prevotella
Gram negative rods, long sleder fusiform rods that look like points. Causes trench mouth Fusobacterium nucleatum
Commonly seen in the head, neck and chest and causes necrotizing gingivitis Fusbacterium nucleatum
Gram positive branching rods that produce sulfer granules in abcesses and cultures Actinomyces israelli
What are the two drugs of choice for anerobes metronidazole (pro-drug) and clindamyacin (50s inhibitor)
Alpha Toxin is produce from which organism. What does it do Clostridium perfinges - degrades mammillian cell membranes
The lower the redox potential, the more ______ is released from clostridium toxin
Box-car like rods clostridium perfinges
Cellulitis and food poisoning clostridium perfinges
The suppresion of inhibitory nuerotranmitters is caused by which organism Clostridium tetani (tetanospasim)
Most toxic chemical known to man is made by which organism clostridium botulism
floppy baby syndrome is caused by which organism clostridium botulism
Which organism produces a toxin that prevents the release of ACh from Alpha-motor nuerons Clostridium botulism
what causes the clinical disease of pseudomembranous colitis Clostridium difficile
What organism produces toxin A? What does it do? C. difficile. Causes fluid production and tissue damage
Which clostridium species has become resistant to flouroquinolone and being linked to a lot of deaths C. Difficile
Gas gangrene is caused by clostridium perfinges
Diabetes mellitus, abdominal surgery and perineal infection are all possibel cuase of which type of necrotizing fascitis Type 1
What causes type 2 necrotizing fascitis Group A strep (flesh eating)
Rapid progression, resembling gas gangrene w/o the gas, and due to possible superantigens Type 2 NF
Which properties of Group A strep give it the ability to cause type 2 NF beta-hemolytic, lipase enzymes and superantigenic capabilites
Which drug are you using to treat type 2 NF pennicillin
Leukocytosis with a left shift is diagnostic of ... NF
Motile gram negative rods, live in fresh water and are oxidase positive Aeromonas hydrophilia myonecrosis
Non-traumatic gas-gangrene is caused by which organism clostridium septicum
What is non-traumatic gas gangrene associated with colon cancer, diverticulitis, and abdominal (GI) surgery
The damage that occurs in myalgias is caused by what immunological response
What are some tell-tale signs of infectous arthritis ONE JOINT, usually the knee (maybe hip), swollen hot and painful, occurs in joint with previous damage or trauma/surgery
What are the two most common organisms in infectous arthritis staph aureus and neisseria gonorrhoeae(Staph epi in children and prostetics/replacements)
In which population does osteomyelitits commonly occur children who are growing
A history of chills, fever, and inflammation over the area of trauma may cue you in to which disease osteomyelitis
Osteomyelitis is overall caused by trauma which causes a disruption in which strucutures blood vessels, which lead to hematoma
Long course of antibiotics naficillin or oxacillin given over the course of weeks, parentally, is a course of treatment for which bone disease osteomyelitis
Most common organism in osteomyelitis staph aureus
What is the most common form of spinal muscle atrophy Werdnig-Hoffman disease - usually results in death by age 3 (autosommal on chromosome 5)
Most common muscular dystrophy Duchenne's
Where does duchennes start and progress to pelvic girdle to the shoulder girdle
Which gene and protien are effected in Duchennes Gene: Xp21 Protien: 427kD
Which muscular dystrophies occur in the proximal muscular of the limbs and trunk Limb girdle muscular dystrophy
Which disease presents with abnormalties in gait progressing to facial muscle problems and ptosis Myotonic muscle dystrophy
Cataracts, frontal balding, gonadal atrophy, cardiomyopathy, and smooth muscle invovlement may all be seen in which disease myotonic muscle dystrophy
sustained involuntary contraction of a group of muscles is the cardinal symptom for which disease myotonic muscle dysrophy
What is the only dystrophy that actually shows pathologic changes in muscles myotonic muscular dystrophy
autosomal dominant syndrome of dramatic hypermetabolic state (tachycardia, tachypnea, muscle spasms, hyperpyrexia) Malignant hyperpyrexia
Which muscle disorder can be caused by induction by anethesia Malignant Hyperpyrexia
Hypotonia and myotonia during excercise or exposure to cold paramyotonia congenita
myotonia caused by fatigue or stress Myotonia congenita
Toxic myopathies are most dependant on what the patients sensitivity
What is the example of paraneoplastic syndrome associated with NMJ disorder (myashtenia gravis) Lambert Eaton Syndrome (squamous cell carcinoma of the lung)
What are the three subgroups of inflammatory muscle disease Infectous, non-infectous inflammatory muscles (children; look for rash), systemic inflammatory (muscle WITH other organs)
Four types of skeletal muscle tumors embryonal, botryoid, alveolar, and pleomorphic
boytroid tumors are morphological variant of which other type of muscle tumor embryonal
Which muscle tumor type occurs in older generations (45+) pleomorphic
which skeletal muscle tumor type has the worst prognosis pleomorphic
Where do Leiomyoma's and leiomyosarcomas most occur female genital tract
Herringbone pattenrn and dystrophic calcification are seen in which muscle tumors Leimyomas or sarcomas
Class I mitchondrial myopathies involve what genes for mitochondiral protiens
Class II mitchondrial Myopathis invovle what point mutations in mtDNA
Class III mitochondrial myopathis invovle what deletions of mtDNA
How does Colchinine work binds to intercellular portien tubulin preventing polymerization (prevents migration of inflammatory cells)
Which gout drug has a really low TI and severe GI problems Colchicine
Which gout drug is used a preventative measure colchicine
When are NSAIDS used for gout in an acute attack
Reduction is LTB4 is accomplished by which drug colchicine
What are the two commonly used NSAIDS INdomethacin and phenylbutazone
Major s/e's from indomethacin CNS and GI
major s/e's from phenylbutazone hematological
How does allopurinol work inhibits xanthine oxidase
Which drug can inhibit immunosupressants and produce an intial gout attack when first administered allopurinol
How does probenecid work decreases uric acid reabsorbtion in the kidney
Which drug works to protect the kidneys and prevent stones allopurinol
Name the order in which you use sulfinyrazone, probenecid, and allopurinol allopurinol > probenecid > sulfinyrazone
Which drugs should you give before starting a course of allopurinol colchicine and NSAIDS
Which medication stops probenecid from working aspirin
6-metacaptopurine and azathioprine must be stopped before the start of which drug allopurinol (blocks their metabolism, causes toxic build up)
which drug to you need to access kidney function before giving probenecid
Defects in the FGFR3 receptor cause what disorder achondroplasia
a thin sclera with a blue hue is indicative of what osteogenesis imperfecta
which bone disorder can lead to deafness osteogenesis imperfecta
osteogenesis imperfecta is a disorder of what? collagen type 1
which is the worst form of osteogenesis imprefecta to have Type 2
A disorder where there is a gradual compression of the marrow cavity osteopetrosis
A decrease in osteoclast function, also known as marble bone disease or alber-schonberg disease osteopetrosis
Erlenmeyer shaped flask appearance of bones is seen in which disorder osteopetrosis
Which is worse the recessive or dominant form of osteopetrosis recessive (linked to malignancies, where dominant is linked to benign)
Which bone disorder is associated with paramyxovirus Pagets
Increase of bone reabsorbtion resulting in thickned but weak bones pagets
What are the three stages of Pagets Osteolytic, mixed osteolytic, and osteosclerotic
mosaic pattern of lamellar bone Pagets
Lionlike facies with anemia and high alkaline phosphatase Pagets
do to the constant remodeling of bone in pagets, you can develop what disease osteosarcoma
When does Rickets occur before the closure of the epiphysis
Which bone disorder is a major concern after fracture osteomyelitis
What is the most common organism in osteomyelitis staph aureus
Clinical feature os luekemia and fever with erythema and swelling are indicative of which bone disorder osteolyelitis
Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin is linked to which bone disease osteomyelitis
Parathyroid adenoma and parathyroid hyperplaisa are linked to which bone disease Osteitis fibrosa cystica
Clubbing and periosteal new bone formation are seen in which bone disorder hypertrophic osteoarthropathy
Bronchogeneic carcinoma is a paraneoplasmtic syndrome seen in which bone disorder hypertrophic osteoarthopathy
Which bone tumor is seen with Gardner syndrome osteoma
osteoid osteoma is defined as growth in which part of a bone diaphysis
A central radiolucency surrounded by a sclerotic rim is seen in which bone tumors osteoid osteoma
Osteoblastoma is seen in which bones vertebrae
Where does osteochondroma orginiate from epiphyseal growth plates
Multiple enchondromas in the hands and feet are seen in which disease olliers disease
Increased risk of malignant tranformation, ovarian carcinoma, and brain gliomas is seen in which syndrome Maffucci
What is the most common primary malignant tumor of the bone osteosarcoma
Codmans triangle is associated with which disorder osteosarcoma
Sunburst patterns are seen in which disorder osteosarcoma
Large firm white-tan masses with necrosis and hemorraghe osteosarcomma
Which disorder has a "soap bubble appearance" to it Giant-cell tumor of bone
Look for giant cell tumors in which part of the bone epiphysis
Mostly found in the diaphysis, this disorder has Homer-wright psuedorosettes on a micro scale Ewing Sarcoma
Malignant neoplasm of undifferentiated cells arising within the marrow cavity EWing sarcoma
Reduction of PG's, LT's, COX2, IL1 and TNF is done by which class of drugs Anti-inflammatory steoirds
Which drug has extremely high antiinflammatory properties but no effect on salt retention Dexamthasone
True or False: The anti-inflammatory properties of glucocorticoids can be sperated from the other systemic effects False
MOst common side effect of anti-inflammatory steroids osteoporosis
Alternate day dosing is done with which class of drugs anti-inflammatory steroids
Anti-inflammatory steroids increase or decrease a immune system decrease
Redistribution of fat is seen in which class of drugs anti-inflammatory steroids
Which type of NSAIDS produce more side effects, selective or non-selective non-selective
Is Aspirin a non-selective or selective COX inhibtor? Reversible or non-reversible Non-selective, non-reversible
Death from aspirin overdose occurs due to what respiratory failure
Giving bicarb to increase excretion is done for poisoning from which drug aspirin
Which drug is bad to take in conjunction with warfin or heparin Aspirin (blood thinner)
What is the aspirin equal that lacks antipyretic effects but has fewer side effects Difunisal
When woudl you administer N-acetylcysteine during a aspirin overdose to prevent liver damage
WHich drug is NOT an NSAID and inhibtis COX enzymes mostly in the CNS Acetominophin
How is acetominphin eliminated phase 2 reactions
Celebrex and Mobic are the only two ________ left on the market COX 2 inhibitors
Indomethacin can cause a closure of what childhood disorder PDA
Methotrexate is the gold standard drug for which disease Rhuematoid Arthritis
What is methotrexate commonly used in conjuction with COX2 inhibitor
Which drug do you need to preform constant eye exams when administering hydrochloroquine
Misoprostol is given along with which drugs for what purposes NSAIDS for GI protection. It is a PGE analog to protect the lining
How does Leflunomide work inhibits pyrimidine synthesis
How does etanercept work artificially synthesized TNF receptors bind up free TNF
How does Infliximad work artificial antibody to TNF
When do you never want to give TNF inhibitors when the patient has hear problems
What is an oblique view used to look for in the spine pars interarticularis
At what level does disk disease mostly occur L4-L5
Pedicles are a common place of ..... metastisis
a non-communiated fracture has how many segments 2
Salter Harris stage 1 just through the growth plate, nothing else
Salter Harris stage 2 Growth plate and metaphysis
Salter HArris Stage 3 and 4 through epiphysis, depends on fragments
Soft tissue tumors tend to be caused by... trauma
Most common soft tissue tumor of adulthood lipoma
A rapidly growing benign condiiton that can resemble a sarcoma, probably from trauma, with vascular channels an anundant mitoses Nodular fasciitis
Bone that matures peripherally, especially after trauma, is a key feature of Myositis Ossification
What is the zonation effect development of bone peripherally in myositis ossification
Common in mothers giving birth, have irregular borders and commonly reoccur when excised Deep seated fibromas (desmoids)
What is the most common of the RARE tumors in adults fibrosarcoma
Herringbione pattern fibrosarcoma
Most common soft tissue sarcoma Malignant Fibrous Histicytoma
A round bluish to purple over growth appears and pursist for a couple years. Feels hard and nudular, what is it? Can it be cancerous Dermatofibroma, never turn to cancer
Congential fusion of two or more cervical vertebrae in infants Klippel Feil Syndrome
Klippel Fell Syndrome has a high association with problems in which area of the body G-U tract
Clinical Triad of short stature, low hairline, and restriction of neck movement Klippel-Fell Syndrome
In children less then four, with back pain, you shoudl always order what an MRI
What are the three types of scoliosis congenital, idiopathic, and nueromuscular
Whhat are the two types of kyphosis structural and flexible
Which type of kyphosis is voluntarily correctible flexible
Which type of kyphosis is normally progressive structural
A defect in the pars interarticularis spondyloysis
A forward slip of one vertebrae over another is known as what spondylolisthesis
Mutations in COL2A1 cause chondrodysplasia
MOst common type of LETHAL chondrodysplasia Thanatophoric Dysplasia
Elastic tissue disease effecting fibrilllin 1 Marfan syndrome
Arm span greater than height, long thin limbs, hyperextendible joints, and pectus excavatum or carinatum are clinical signs of... Marfans syndrome
Marfans patients are most likely to die from complications involving which system respiratory and cardic
Two common fracures of childhood, NOT indicative of abuse Toddler(tibia) and clavicle
Which torion is caused by children sitting in the W position Internal femoral torsion
At what age is there normal adult alignment and gait patterns 7
Which childhood disorder is most seen in the first born Metatarsus Adductus
This disease has abnormal claf muscles which may atrophy over time. 75% of cases are congeneital Equinovarus
Bone which is pulled away from non-mature bone by a strong tendon is refered to as which disease in children Sever disease
What is caused by loss of blood flow to the hip socket or femoral head Transient Synovitis
Microfractures in the insertion of the pattelar tendon are diagnostic of which disease Osgood Schlatter
This disorder usually presents late in childhood and has a positive McMurray test Discoid LAteral meniscus
Avascular necrosis of bone under articular cartilage Osteochondrosis dessicans
Idipathic avascular necrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis LCPD (Leg-clave-perthes disease)
What is the most common his disorder in adolescents Slipped Capital Femroal Epiphysis
Which classification system is used for open fractures Gustilo
Colle's fracture fracture of distal radius with dorsal angulation
Fracture of the base of 5th metatarsal Jones Fracture
Fx of 5th metacarpal with vulgar angulation boxer fracture
"Come Rub My Tree Of Love" Capitulum (2), Radial Head (4), Medial (6)Epicondlye(8), Trochlea(10), Olecranon(12)
True or False: A "Babygram" is an appropraite way to look for fractures in a child suspected of being abused FALSE
Most common fracutre location in a bone diaphysis
Child abuse acccounts for what percentage of femoral fracutres 60-80%
Epiphysiseal and Metaphysiseal fractures are indicative of what in a child abuse
Second most common fracture after long bones skull
Do skull fractures occur more in cases of abuse or accident abuse
How is osteoporosis defined by the WHO bone density less than 2.5 std dev from normal
methylmethacrylate has been advocated to help in which situation helping internal fixation in bone repair
How many views and which ones are used in a hip fracture A-P view and cross table lateral (internal rotation to help with fx pattern)
What is the problem with Technetium bone scanning takes 2-3 days to become positive
Operative delay of 24-48 hours causes an increase in what for hip fractures one year mortality rates
How should displaced fractures be treated operativley
When do displaced hip fractures not need surgery in the dimented or non-ambulatory
In what situation do you have a subtrocanteric fx Typically higher energy injuries seen in younger patients
What levels do compression fx's usually occur T8-L2
What type of fx's are treated non-operativly and symptomatically spinal compression fractures
Most common cause of compartment syndrome fracture (proportional to degree)
2nd most common cause of compartment syndrome blunt trauma
What is the absolute pressure diagnostic of compartment syndrome 30mmHg
At what time do you reach irreversible damage in compartment syndrome 8hrs
What is the most important clinical sign of possible compartment syndrome pain (out of proportion to the injury)
When compartment syndrom is suspected, which compartments need to be measured ALL OF THEM
What are the compartments of the lower leg Anterior, LAteral, posterior, deep posterior
At what level should a limb with compartment syndrome be elevated level of the heart
What is the minimum distance that should be between two cuts in lower leg compartment syndrome 8cm
What nerve do you need to be concious of when you make an incision over the lateral compartment of the leg superficial fibular
What structures do you need to be careful of when making an incision in the poseterior compartment saphneous nerve and vein
What is the most common cause of litigation compartment syndrome
What are the four muscles of the rotator cuff teres minor, supraspinatus, subscapularis, and infraspinatus
Innervation of teres minor axillary nerve
Innervation of supscapularis upper subscapular nerve
innervation of infraspinatous and supraspiantous suprascapular nerve
Higher recurrance rates of shoulder dislocation in patients under what age 20
A squared off appearance is diagnostic of what type of injury dislocation
Which x-rays are needed in order to diagnose dislocation AP, lateral and axillary
What fracture may be associated with a shoulder dislocation greater tuberosity
What type of injury is associated with electrical shock or siezure posterior shoudler dislocation
"Bankart” lesion refers to ... avulsion of anterior-inferior labrum off glenoid rim. May be associated with glenoid rim fracture (“bony bankart”)
Humeral Head impression fracture is caused how posterior impaction fracure of back of humerus
What motion can an anterior dislocated shoudler NOT carry out external rotation
Most common nerve injury in a anterior dislocation axillary dislocation
What are two criteria for shoulder surgery young patients with high demand or recurrent instability
Which teo test are used in diagnosing impingement syndrome Hawkins and Neers
Subacromial bursectomy, Acromioplasty and Coracoacromial ligament release are all surgical treatments for which disorder impingement syndrome
Which muscle are you testing with the "empty-can test" supraspinatous
Placing you hand (palm side down) just off of your back is testing which muscle subscapularis
Which muscle in the rotator cuff is used for internal rotation subscapularis
Idiopathic global limitation of humeroscapular motion resulting from contracture and loss of compliance of the glenohumeral joint capsule Frozen shoudler syndrome
What are the most common implicated predispostions to frozen shoudler syndrome diabetes and thyroid disorder (hypothyroidism)
What should always be included in a examination of frozen shoulder syndrome shoulder and cervical spine
What are the 4 stages of frozen shoulder syndrome Stage 1 (no name), freezing, frozen, thawing
Manipulation under anethesia is an effective treatment for which syndrome frozen shoudler
Patients with diabetes have a lowered response to which treatment for forzen shoudler manipulation under anesthesia
True or False: Surgery can be used to accelerate the nartural course of frozen shoudler syndrome True
McMurray Test is used to test what? How is it done Medial Meniscus. Felx Knee to 80-90 degrees and rotate internal-external. Positive is a click or pop
What is the Gold standard in menisci surgical tx arthoscopy
What are the two speacil test for collateral ligaments Valgus (push in) and Varus (push out)
Injuries to which ligaments are treated with a hinged brace and non-impact excercise collateral ligaments
Forced hyperextension of the knee can cause damage to which ligament ACL
Lateral Pivot shift test is used in injury to which ligament ACL
For ACL and PCL injuries, at which grade do you have to do surgery Grade 2 that doesn't heal well or a grade 3
Most common cause of constant knee pain Patellofemoral Pain Syndrome
In what knee syndrome do you have to MAKE SURE you treat the underlying cause Patellofemoral Pain Syndrome
What is the third line of tx for osteoarthritis Arthroplasty - patient will let you know when they want it
First injured in lateral sprain with dorsiflexed ankle calcaneofibular ligament
First injured in lateral sprain with plantarflexed ankle ATF
Talar tilt is used to ascess which ligament CFL
True or False: In a AP view of the ankle you want to see overlap of the Tibia and Fibia TRUE!
Shenton’s Line of the ankle and The dime test, are used to assess what fibular length
Forced eversion of the ankle causes damage to which ligament deltoid
Which three x-rays are needed to assess the ankle mortise AP, lateral and Oblique
Unstable medial ankle sprains are defined by what talar subluxation
Definition of a Weber A fracture fibular fracture BELOW (distal to the mortise)BEST ONE
Definition of a Weber B fracture fibular fracture at the level of mortise
Definition of a Weber C fracture fibular fracture ABOVE (proximal) to mortiseWORST ONE
When do you not operate on a fibular fracture when it is NOT displaced, stable, and the syndesmosis is not disrupted
Where does rupture mostly take place on an achilles tendon Avascular zone: 2-6cm proximal to insertion
What it Thompsons test used to diagnose Achilles rupture
When is surgical repair indicated for Achilles ruptures when the patient is young and active
When is surgery NOT inicated for an achilles Weaker tendonHigher risk re-rupture Slower return to sportNo surgical morbidityLower cost
Describe Short Leg cast strategey for achilles reuptures SLC is applied w/ ankle in plantarflexionCast is brought out of equinus over 8-10 weeksWalking is allowed (in the cast) at 4-6 weeks
What nerve is important to avoid in an achilles repair sural nerve
Created by: lowryc