Unit II Exam
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| Define edema | Excess fluid in the interstitial compartment
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| Identify the four general causes of edema | 1. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure; 2. loss of plasma proteins; 3. Obstruction of lymphatic circulation; 4. increased capillary permeability
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| Explain how increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in ECF accumulation | forces excessive amounts of fluid out and prevents return of fluid from the interstitial compartment
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| Explain how loss of plasma proteins results in ECF accumulation | reduces plasma osmotic pressure
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| Explain how obstruction of lymphatic circulation results in ECF accumulation | restricts the return of excess fluid and protein to the general circulation
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| Explain how increased capillary permeability results in ECF accumulation | as in inflammation, resulting in fluid and protein movement into the interstitial compartment
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| State the cause of edema formation: a swollen arm following mastectomy | obstruction of lymphatic circulation due to removal of lymphatic vessels; increased capillary permeability and increased capillary hydrostatic pressure immediately following surgery
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| State the cause of edema formation: the abdominal swelling that accompanies liver failure | loss of plasma proteins due to decreased production of plasma proteins
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| State the cause of edema formation: the swelling that accompanies inflammation | increased capillary hydrostatic pressure and increased capillary permeability
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| State the cause of edema formation: the generalized edema that occurs in severe kidney disease | increased capillary hydrostatic pressure due to increased blood volume; possibly due to decreased capillary osmotic pressure due to protein-wasting
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| State the cause of edema formation: swelling of the ankles that often happens at the end of the day or after prolonged standing | increased capillary hydrostatic pressure due to effects of gravity
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| State the cause of edema formation: swelling that occurs following multiple tooth extractions | increased capillary hydrostatic pressure and increased capillary permeability due to inflammation
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| State the cause of edema formation: edema that may accompany cancer | obstruction of lymphatic circulation or increased capillary hydrostatic pressure if blood vessels are compressed
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| State the cause of edema formation: edema that accompanies burns | increased capillary permeability and loss of plasma proteins
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| State the cause of edema formation: edematous hands and ankles that sometimes accompany excessive ingestion of salt | increased capillary hydrostatic pressure due to increased water retention
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| State the cause of edema formation: the abdominal swelling that occurs with starvation | loss of plasma proteins due to decreased synthesis of plasma proteins
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| State the cause of edema formation: swelling of the ankles associated with heart problems | increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
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| State the cause of edema formation: swelling associated with allergic reactions, such as hives | increased capillary hydrostatic pressure and increased capillary permeability due to inflammation
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| Identify the type of medication that could be used to treat edema: swelling of the ankles associated with heart problems | diuretic
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| Identify the type of medication that could be used to treat edema: after the extraction of 4 wisdom teeth | glucocorticoid
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| Identify the type of medication that could be used to treat edema: a swollen ankle caused by an athletic injury | NSAIDs
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| Identify the type of medication that could be used to treat edema: nasal congestion due to allergies | antihistamine
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| Identify the type of medication that could be used to treat edema: laryngeal edema caused by an anaphylactic reaction | adrenergic agonist or sympathomimetic -- epinephrine
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| Identify the type of medication that could be used to treat edema: swollen tonsils caused by a streptococcal infection | antibiotic
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| Identify at least eight effects of edema | 1. local swelling; 2. pale gray, or red skin; 3. weight gain with pitting edema; 4. fxnl impairment of joints; 5. slow, bounding pulse and high BP; 6. pulmonary congestion; 7. lethargy; 8. pain; 9. impairment of arterial circ.
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| List 8 causes of dehydration | 1. vomiting; 2. diarrhea; 3. excessive sweating; 4. diabetic ketoacidosis; 5. insufficient H2O intake; 6. fever; 7. drainage or suction; 8. severe burns; 9. decreased aldosterone or ADH secretion; 10. prolonged hyperventilation
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| Describe the manifestations of dehydration | Manifestations include sunken, soft eyes; decreased skin turgor; thirst, weight loss; rapid, weak pulse and low BP; fatigue, weakness, dizziness, and possible stupor; increased body temp
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| What is the most serious complication of dehydration? | Hypovolemic shock
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| Identify the compensatory mechanisms that would be recruited during dehydration | Increasing thirst, increasing heart rate, constricting cutaneous blood vessels, and decreasing urinary output.
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| Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: renal failure | hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, hypermagnesemia, hyperphosphatemia
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| Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: prolonged vomiting | hyponatremia, hypochloremia
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| Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: insufficient secretion of antidiuretic hormone | hypernatremia, hyperchloremia
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| Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: prolonged use of corticosteroids | hypernatremia, hypokalemia, hyperchloremia
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| Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: hyperparathyroidism | hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia, hypomagnesemia
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| Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: excessive sweating | hyponatremia, hypochloremia
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| Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: prolonged immobility | hypercalcemia
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| Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: diuretic therapy | hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia (with potassium-sparing diuretics: hyperkalemia)
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| Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: aldosterone insufficiency | hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypochloremia
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| Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: inadequate dietary intake of Vitamin D | hypocalcemia
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| Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: cancers involving bone | hypercalcemia
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| Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: prolonged diarrhea | hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia
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| Define tetany and identify the electroly imbalances in which tetany occurs | skeletal muscle spasm due to hypocalcemia
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| Identify the electrolyte imbalances that affect normal cardiac function | hypokalemia and hyperkalemia; hypocalcemia and hypercalcemia
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| What electrolyte imbalance may result in the formation of kidney stones? | hypercalcemia
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| Explain the difference between an inherited disorder and a developmental disorder | Inherited disorders are genetic in origin, whereas developmental disorders result from harmful influences occurring during embryonic or fetal development, and may also include premature birth, difficult labor and delivery, and exposure to toxic agents dur
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| Define teratogenesis | ads
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| Identify at lease 6 teratogenic agents | 1. damage to fetus by noxious agents such as alcohol, smoke; 2. radiation; 3. narcotics; 4. mercury; 5. some OTC and prescription drugs; 6. various pathogens (toxoplasmosis, hep B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis, cytomegalovirus, and herpe
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| Explain how poor maternal nutrition during pregnancy might cause a developmental disorder. | The most critical time for development is the 1st 2 months of gestation, when most of the organogenesis occurs. Poor maternal nutrition means insufficient nutrients for the developing embryo and fetus.
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| Identify examples of developmental defects resulting from poor maternal nutrition | folic acid deficiency (spina bifida), low iron(anemia), and poor nutrition in general (low birth weight)
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| Explain how labor and delivery of a child could be responsible for a congential disorder | Difficulties encountered during or after birth that may temporarily deprive the newborn of oxygen can cause brain damage; e.g., cerebral palsy
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| Differentiate between an inherited disorder and a chromosomal disorder | Inherited disorders are any disorders resulting from abnormalities or damage to the genetic makeup, whereas chromosomal defects usually result from errors during meiosis when the chromosomes are segegrating, when the DNA fragments are displaced or lost an
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| Outline the etiology of chromosomal disorders | Errors in chromosomal duplication or reassembly during meiosis, resulting in abnormal placement of part of a chromosome (translocation), altered structure (deletion), or abnormal number of chromosomes
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| Define monosomy and describe how it could occur | when one member of a chromosome pair is lost during meiosis
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| Define trisomy and describe how it could occur | when there is extra duplication of one member of a chromosome pair, yielding 3 chromosomes instead of 2
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| What appears to be a significant risk factor for chromosomal disorders? | Maternal age over 35
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| Explain what is meant by a "multifactorial disorder" | Occur when a combination of factors is responsible for the congenital disorder; i.e., polygenic, caused by multiple genes or inherited tendency that is expressed following exposure to environmental factors
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| Give examples of a multifactorial disorder | anencephaly, cleft lip and palate, clubfoot
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| Explain the difference between the carrier of an infectious disease such as hep B and the carrier of a genetic disorder | A carrier of an infectious disease is contagious and can pass the infection to others. A carrier of a genetic disorder is heterozygous for that particular disorder and usually does not have any manifestations of the disorder; he may pass the faulty gene o
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| In what type or types of inherited disorders is there a carrier state? | autosomal recessive and sex-linked recessive disorders
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| What is the genotype of a carrier, heterozygous or homozygous? Does a carrier of a genetic disorder usually become symptomatic? | Heterozygous; does not usually become symptomatic
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| A newborn is diagnosed with phenylketonuria (PKU), an autosomal recessive disorder. Neither of his parents have the disease. What is the baby's genotype? | homozygous
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| A newborn is diagnosed with phenylketonuria (PKU), an autosomal recessive disorder. Neither of his parents have the disease. Which parent is a carrier of PKU? | both
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| If this couple has a second child, what is the probability that he or she will also have PKU? | 25%
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| What is the probability that any of the baby's siblings will be carriers of phenylketonuria? | 50%
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| A boy is diagnosed with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy, a sex-linked disorder. Neither of his parents have this disease. What is the child's genotype? | XdY
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| A boy is diagnosed with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy, a sex-linked disorder. Neither of his parents have this disease. Which parent is the carrier? | mother
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| A boy is diagnosed with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy, a sex-linked disorder. Neither of his parents have this disease. If this couple has a 2nd child, what is the chance that they'll also have cystic fibrosis | Daughter 0%; Son 50%
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| A boy is diagnosed with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy, a sex-linked disorder. Neither of his parents have this disease. If the child does have a sibling with MD, will it be a brother or sister? | Brother - it's a sex-linked disorder; in order for a female to be affected, the father would have the disorder
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| A boy is diagnosed with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy, a sex-linked disorder. Neither of his parents have this disease. What is the probability that any of the child's siblings will be carriers of cystic fibrosis? Male or female? | 50% of sisters will be carriers; 0% of brothers
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| Identify the classification of the following: colon cancer | multifactorial
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| Identify the classification of the following: cystic fibrosis | autosomal recessive
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| Identify the classification of the following: cerebral palsy | congenital
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| Identify the classification of the following: familial hypercholesterolemia | autosomal dominant
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| Identify the classification of the following: Duchenne's muscular dystrophy | sex-linked
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| Identify the classification of the following: sickle cell anemia | autosomal recessive
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| Identify the classification of the following: hemophilia A | X-linked
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| Identify the classification of the following: Klinefelter's syndrome | chromosomal
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| Identify the classification of the following: phenylketonuria (PKU) | autosomal recessive
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| Identify the classification of the following: Huntington's disease | autosomal dominant
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| Identify the classification of the following: Tay-Sachs disease | autosomal recessive
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| Identify the classification of the following: schizophrenia | multifactorial
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| Identify the classification of the following: cleft palate | multifactorial
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| Identify the classification of the following: Turner's syndrome | chromosomal
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| What type of disorder is Down syndrome? How can it be diagnosed prenatally? What is the karyotype of an individual with Down syndrome? | Down syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that is diagnosed prenatally through amniocentesis and karyotyping. The karyotype of an individual with Down's is trisomy 21.
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| Outline the abnormalities or problems associated with Down's | Down syndrome is trisomy 21, which results in numerous defects in physical and mental development, including hypotonic muscles, loose joints, cervical instability, delayed developmental states, cognitive impairment, and delayed sexual development. Miscell
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| Describe the characteristic appearance of an individual with Down's | Small head and flat facial profiles, slanted eyes, Brushfield's spots in the irises, mouth that tend to hand open, large protruding tongues and high arched palates, and small hands with single palmar creases
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| Define gestation | pregnancy
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| Define gravidity | number of pregnancies
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| Define parity | number of viable pregnancies
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| Define eclampsia | severe hypertension which occurs as a complication of pregnancy
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| Define abruption placentae | premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall
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| Define lactation | milk production
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| Define endometritis | inflammation of uterine lining
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| Describe the potential complications of: ectopic pregnancy | tubal pregnancy, when the fertilized ovum implants outside the uterus
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| Describe the potential complications of: preeclampsia and eclampsia | pregnancy-induced hypertension
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| Describe the potential complications of: gestational diabetes mellitus | increased glucose intolerance and blood glucose levels
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| Describe the potential complications of: placental problems | 1. placenta previa - when the placenta is implanted in the lower uterus or over the os; 2. abruption placentae - premature separation of the placenta
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| Describe the potential complications of: blood clotting problems | 1. thrombophlebitis and thromboembolism - clot formation in the veins of the legs or pelvis and potential for embolization if clot breaks free; 2. disseminated intravascular coagulation
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| Describe the potential complications of: Rh incompatibility | immune response of Rh negative mother to Rh positive fetal antigens, resulting in anti-Rh antibodies in the maternal bloodstream; i.e., maternal anti-Rh sensitization with potential for haemolytic disease during subsequent pregnancies
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| Explain why Rh incompatibility occurs. Describe the manifestations and complications of Rh incompatibility | Rh-negative mother exposed to Rh-positive blood via transfusion or pregnancy with Rh-positive fetus; immune response, anti-Rh sensitization resulting in potential for haemolytic disease in subsequent Rh-positive pregnancies
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| What is RhoGAM? Explain how its administration prevents an Rh incompatibility. | Rh immunoglobulin, containing anti-Rh antibodies; when given to an Rh-negative woman who has not been previously sensitized, confers temporary passive immunity and thus prevents maternal sensitization to Rh antigen
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