Busy. Please wait.
or

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 
or

Username is available taken
show password

why

Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.

By signing up, I agree to StudyStack's Terms of Service and Privacy Policy.


Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.

Remove ads
Don't know
Know
remaining cards
Save
0:01
To flip the current card, click it or press the Spacebar key.  To move the current card to one of the three colored boxes, click on the box.  You may also press the UP ARROW key to move the card to the "Know" box, the DOWN ARROW key to move the card to the "Don't know" box, or the RIGHT ARROW key to move the card to the Remaining box.  You may also click on the card displayed in any of the three boxes to bring that card back to the center.

Pass complete!

"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
Retries:
restart all cards




share
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

Unit II

Unit II Exam

QuestionAnswer
Define edema Excess fluid in the interstitial compartment
Identify the four general causes of edema 1. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure; 2. loss of plasma proteins; 3. Obstruction of lymphatic circulation; 4. increased capillary permeability
Explain how increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in ECF accumulation forces excessive amounts of fluid out and prevents return of fluid from the interstitial compartment
Explain how loss of plasma proteins results in ECF accumulation reduces plasma osmotic pressure
Explain how obstruction of lymphatic circulation results in ECF accumulation restricts the return of excess fluid and protein to the general circulation
Explain how increased capillary permeability results in ECF accumulation as in inflammation, resulting in fluid and protein movement into the interstitial compartment
State the cause of edema formation: a swollen arm following mastectomy obstruction of lymphatic circulation due to removal of lymphatic vessels; increased capillary permeability and increased capillary hydrostatic pressure immediately following surgery
State the cause of edema formation: the abdominal swelling that accompanies liver failure loss of plasma proteins due to decreased production of plasma proteins
State the cause of edema formation: the swelling that accompanies inflammation increased capillary hydrostatic pressure and increased capillary permeability
State the cause of edema formation: the generalized edema that occurs in severe kidney disease increased capillary hydrostatic pressure due to increased blood volume; possibly due to decreased capillary osmotic pressure due to protein-wasting
State the cause of edema formation: swelling of the ankles that often happens at the end of the day or after prolonged standing increased capillary hydrostatic pressure due to effects of gravity
State the cause of edema formation: swelling that occurs following multiple tooth extractions increased capillary hydrostatic pressure and increased capillary permeability due to inflammation
State the cause of edema formation: edema that may accompany cancer obstruction of lymphatic circulation or increased capillary hydrostatic pressure if blood vessels are compressed
State the cause of edema formation: edema that accompanies burns increased capillary permeability and loss of plasma proteins
State the cause of edema formation: edematous hands and ankles that sometimes accompany excessive ingestion of salt increased capillary hydrostatic pressure due to increased water retention
State the cause of edema formation: the abdominal swelling that occurs with starvation loss of plasma proteins due to decreased synthesis of plasma proteins
State the cause of edema formation: swelling of the ankles associated with heart problems increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
State the cause of edema formation: swelling associated with allergic reactions, such as hives increased capillary hydrostatic pressure and increased capillary permeability due to inflammation
Identify the type of medication that could be used to treat edema: swelling of the ankles associated with heart problems diuretic
Identify the type of medication that could be used to treat edema: after the extraction of 4 wisdom teeth glucocorticoid
Identify the type of medication that could be used to treat edema: a swollen ankle caused by an athletic injury NSAIDs
Identify the type of medication that could be used to treat edema: nasal congestion due to allergies antihistamine
Identify the type of medication that could be used to treat edema: laryngeal edema caused by an anaphylactic reaction adrenergic agonist or sympathomimetic -- epinephrine
Identify the type of medication that could be used to treat edema: swollen tonsils caused by a streptococcal infection antibiotic
Identify at least eight effects of edema 1. local swelling; 2. pale gray, or red skin; 3. weight gain with pitting edema; 4. fxnl impairment of joints; 5. slow, bounding pulse and high BP; 6. pulmonary congestion; 7. lethargy; 8. pain; 9. impairment of arterial circ.
List 8 causes of dehydration 1. vomiting; 2. diarrhea; 3. excessive sweating; 4. diabetic ketoacidosis; 5. insufficient H2O intake; 6. fever; 7. drainage or suction; 8. severe burns; 9. decreased aldosterone or ADH secretion; 10. prolonged hyperventilation
Describe the manifestations of dehydration Manifestations include sunken, soft eyes; decreased skin turgor; thirst, weight loss; rapid, weak pulse and low BP; fatigue, weakness, dizziness, and possible stupor; increased body temp
What is the most serious complication of dehydration? Hypovolemic shock
Identify the compensatory mechanisms that would be recruited during dehydration Increasing thirst, increasing heart rate, constricting cutaneous blood vessels, and decreasing urinary output.
Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: renal failure hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, hypermagnesemia, hyperphosphatemia
Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: prolonged vomiting hyponatremia, hypochloremia
Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: insufficient secretion of antidiuretic hormone hypernatremia, hyperchloremia
Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: prolonged use of corticosteroids hypernatremia, hypokalemia, hyperchloremia
Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: hyperparathyroidism hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia, hypomagnesemia
Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: excessive sweating hyponatremia, hypochloremia
Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: prolonged immobility hypercalcemia
Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: diuretic therapy hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia (with potassium-sparing diuretics: hyperkalemia)
Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: aldosterone insufficiency hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypochloremia
Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: inadequate dietary intake of Vitamin D hypocalcemia
Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: cancers involving bone hypercalcemia
Identify the electrolyte imbalance or imbalances that could develop: prolonged diarrhea hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia
Define tetany and identify the electroly imbalances in which tetany occurs skeletal muscle spasm due to hypocalcemia
Identify the electrolyte imbalances that affect normal cardiac function hypokalemia and hyperkalemia; hypocalcemia and hypercalcemia
What electrolyte imbalance may result in the formation of kidney stones? hypercalcemia
Explain the difference between an inherited disorder and a developmental disorder Inherited disorders are genetic in origin, whereas developmental disorders result from harmful influences occurring during embryonic or fetal development, and may also include premature birth, difficult labor and delivery, and exposure to toxic agents dur
Define teratogenesis ads
Identify at lease 6 teratogenic agents 1. damage to fetus by noxious agents such as alcohol, smoke; 2. radiation; 3. narcotics; 4. mercury; 5. some OTC and prescription drugs; 6. various pathogens (toxoplasmosis, hep B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis, cytomegalovirus, and herpe
Explain how poor maternal nutrition during pregnancy might cause a developmental disorder. The most critical time for development is the 1st 2 months of gestation, when most of the organogenesis occurs. Poor maternal nutrition means insufficient nutrients for the developing embryo and fetus.
Identify examples of developmental defects resulting from poor maternal nutrition folic acid deficiency (spina bifida), low iron(anemia), and poor nutrition in general (low birth weight)
Explain how labor and delivery of a child could be responsible for a congential disorder Difficulties encountered during or after birth that may temporarily deprive the newborn of oxygen can cause brain damage; e.g., cerebral palsy
Differentiate between an inherited disorder and a chromosomal disorder Inherited disorders are any disorders resulting from abnormalities or damage to the genetic makeup, whereas chromosomal defects usually result from errors during meiosis when the chromosomes are segegrating, when the DNA fragments are displaced or lost an
Outline the etiology of chromosomal disorders Errors in chromosomal duplication or reassembly during meiosis, resulting in abnormal placement of part of a chromosome (translocation), altered structure (deletion), or abnormal number of chromosomes
Define monosomy and describe how it could occur when one member of a chromosome pair is lost during meiosis
Define trisomy and describe how it could occur when there is extra duplication of one member of a chromosome pair, yielding 3 chromosomes instead of 2
What appears to be a significant risk factor for chromosomal disorders? Maternal age over 35
Explain what is meant by a "multifactorial disorder" Occur when a combination of factors is responsible for the congenital disorder; i.e., polygenic, caused by multiple genes or inherited tendency that is expressed following exposure to environmental factors
Give examples of a multifactorial disorder anencephaly, cleft lip and palate, clubfoot
Explain the difference between the carrier of an infectious disease such as hep B and the carrier of a genetic disorder A carrier of an infectious disease is contagious and can pass the infection to others. A carrier of a genetic disorder is heterozygous for that particular disorder and usually does not have any manifestations of the disorder; he may pass the faulty gene o
In what type or types of inherited disorders is there a carrier state? autosomal recessive and sex-linked recessive disorders
What is the genotype of a carrier, heterozygous or homozygous? Does a carrier of a genetic disorder usually become symptomatic? Heterozygous; does not usually become symptomatic
A newborn is diagnosed with phenylketonuria (PKU), an autosomal recessive disorder. Neither of his parents have the disease. What is the baby's genotype? homozygous
A newborn is diagnosed with phenylketonuria (PKU), an autosomal recessive disorder. Neither of his parents have the disease. Which parent is a carrier of PKU? both
If this couple has a second child, what is the probability that he or she will also have PKU? 25%
What is the probability that any of the baby's siblings will be carriers of phenylketonuria? 50%
A boy is diagnosed with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy, a sex-linked disorder. Neither of his parents have this disease. What is the child's genotype? XdY
A boy is diagnosed with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy, a sex-linked disorder. Neither of his parents have this disease. Which parent is the carrier? mother
A boy is diagnosed with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy, a sex-linked disorder. Neither of his parents have this disease. If this couple has a 2nd child, what is the chance that they'll also have cystic fibrosis Daughter 0%; Son 50%
A boy is diagnosed with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy, a sex-linked disorder. Neither of his parents have this disease. If the child does have a sibling with MD, will it be a brother or sister? Brother - it's a sex-linked disorder; in order for a female to be affected, the father would have the disorder
A boy is diagnosed with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy, a sex-linked disorder. Neither of his parents have this disease. What is the probability that any of the child's siblings will be carriers of cystic fibrosis? Male or female? 50% of sisters will be carriers; 0% of brothers
Identify the classification of the following: colon cancer multifactorial
Identify the classification of the following: cystic fibrosis autosomal recessive
Identify the classification of the following: cerebral palsy congenital
Identify the classification of the following: familial hypercholesterolemia autosomal dominant
Identify the classification of the following: Duchenne's muscular dystrophy sex-linked
Identify the classification of the following: sickle cell anemia autosomal recessive
Identify the classification of the following: hemophilia A X-linked
Identify the classification of the following: Klinefelter's syndrome chromosomal
Identify the classification of the following: phenylketonuria (PKU) autosomal recessive
Identify the classification of the following: Huntington's disease autosomal dominant
Identify the classification of the following: Tay-Sachs disease autosomal recessive
Identify the classification of the following: schizophrenia multifactorial
Identify the classification of the following: cleft palate multifactorial
Identify the classification of the following: Turner's syndrome chromosomal
What type of disorder is Down syndrome? How can it be diagnosed prenatally? What is the karyotype of an individual with Down syndrome? Down syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that is diagnosed prenatally through amniocentesis and karyotyping. The karyotype of an individual with Down's is trisomy 21.
Outline the abnormalities or problems associated with Down's Down syndrome is trisomy 21, which results in numerous defects in physical and mental development, including hypotonic muscles, loose joints, cervical instability, delayed developmental states, cognitive impairment, and delayed sexual development. Miscell
Describe the characteristic appearance of an individual with Down's Small head and flat facial profiles, slanted eyes, Brushfield's spots in the irises, mouth that tend to hand open, large protruding tongues and high arched palates, and small hands with single palmar creases
Define gestation pregnancy
Define gravidity number of pregnancies
Define parity number of viable pregnancies
Define eclampsia severe hypertension which occurs as a complication of pregnancy
Define abruption placentae premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall
Define lactation milk production
Define endometritis inflammation of uterine lining
Describe the potential complications of: ectopic pregnancy tubal pregnancy, when the fertilized ovum implants outside the uterus
Describe the potential complications of: preeclampsia and eclampsia pregnancy-induced hypertension
Describe the potential complications of: gestational diabetes mellitus increased glucose intolerance and blood glucose levels
Describe the potential complications of: placental problems 1. placenta previa - when the placenta is implanted in the lower uterus or over the os; 2. abruption placentae - premature separation of the placenta
Describe the potential complications of: blood clotting problems 1. thrombophlebitis and thromboembolism - clot formation in the veins of the legs or pelvis and potential for embolization if clot breaks free; 2. disseminated intravascular coagulation
Describe the potential complications of: Rh incompatibility immune response of Rh negative mother to Rh positive fetal antigens, resulting in anti-Rh antibodies in the maternal bloodstream; i.e., maternal anti-Rh sensitization with potential for haemolytic disease during subsequent pregnancies
Explain why Rh incompatibility occurs. Describe the manifestations and complications of Rh incompatibility Rh-negative mother exposed to Rh-positive blood via transfusion or pregnancy with Rh-positive fetus; immune response, anti-Rh sensitization resulting in potential for haemolytic disease in subsequent Rh-positive pregnancies
What is RhoGAM? Explain how its administration prevents an Rh incompatibility. Rh immunoglobulin, containing anti-Rh antibodies; when given to an Rh-negative woman who has not been previously sensitized, confers temporary passive immunity and thus prevents maternal sensitization to Rh antigen
Created by: changa