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Test 2

Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in each of the black spaces below before clicking on it to display the answer.
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Question
Answer
Endocrine system does what?   releases chemicals into blood and other bodily fluids.  
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Nervous system does what?   regulates the body's response to change; combines electrical and local chemical signals.  
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What are neurons?   main functional cells of nervous system; receives and responds to sensory information.  
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Spinal cord:   extension of nervous system tissue that extends from base of brain through center of spine.  
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Nerves:   bundles of axons that extend from neurons in the brain or spinal cord to every area in the body.  
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Afferent neurons accept what? and toward what?   stimuli - toward the CNS.  
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Efferent neurons effect what? and away from what?   change - away from CNS.  
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Sensation is what?   the detection and signaling of change bye sensors.  
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Integration is what?   combining and coordinating sensory signals.  
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Percepts are what?   brain's record of event.  
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Interneurons are what?   relay signals within CNS.  
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What are the three functions of the nervous system?   sensation, integration, and reaction.  
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Reaction is what?   generation of outgoing signals in response to an incoming signal.  
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Motor (efferent) neurons do what?   carry signals to the heart, blood vessels, and skeletal muscles.  
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Effectors are what?   tissues and organs that respond to motor neuron signals (not part of nervous system).  
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Is the heart muscle part of the nervous system?   No.  
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Are cranial nerves part of the peripheral or the central nervous system?   the peripheral nervous system.  
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The nervous system is divided into what structurally?   central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.  
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The central nervous system consists of what?   brain and spinal cord.  
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The spinal cord responds to what?   to some sensory signals, passes others between brain and body.  
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Spinal cord ends where?   in the cauda equina (fan of nerves).  
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The brain has how many neurons and neuroglia?   100 billion neurons and 30 trillion neuroglia.  
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The brain stem does what?   central cleaning house for nerve signals; also regulates core physiological processes.  
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Cerebellum does what?   regulates body movement.  
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Diencephalon does what?   contains the hypothalamus and thymus.  
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Cerebrum is what?   home of the consciousness.  
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Peripheral nervous system contains what?   of nerves and sensory receptors.  
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The peripheral nervous system includes what?   the autonomic and somatic divisions.  
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The autonomic division of the PNS receives information from where?   visceral receptors.  
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The autonomic division regulates what?   the activity of smooth and cardiac muscle and glands.  
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The somatic division receives information from where?   all other types of sensory receptors.  
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The somatic division regulates what?   the activity of the skeletal muscle.  
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Which neurons send signals to the brain?   sensory neurons.  
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Sensory receptors do what?   detect change.  
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Nerves are what?   bundles of axons that transmit information.  
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Cranial nerves originate from where?   the brain.  
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Spinal nerves originate from where?   the spinal cord.  
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Somatic nervous system is also called what?   voluntary.  
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Autonomic nervous system is also called what?   involuntary.  
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Collections in the PNS are called what?   ganglia.  
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Collection of neuron cell bodies in the CNS are called what?   nuclei.  
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Which type of cell forms the myelin sheath of brain neurons?   oligodendrocytes.  
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Gray matter is found where?   in the CNS.  
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Neurons are found where?   in the cortex, spinal cord, and nuclei.  
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White matter is what?   bundles of myelinated axons.  
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Tracts are what?   bundles of axons that travel from one region to another.  
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Gllal cells form what?   support tissue that glues neurons together and maintains homeostasis of extracellular fluid.  
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Astrocytes are what?   neuronal stem cells.  
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Microglla is what?   a scavenger cell.  
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Ependymal cells are what?   liner cells.  
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Ependymal cells produce what?   cerebrospinal fluid.  
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Nerves contain three connective tissue layers what are they?   endoneurium, perineurium, and epineurium.  
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The endoneurium surrounds what?   individual axons.  
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The perineurium surrounds what?   bundles of axons.  
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The epineurium surrounds what?   bundles of fascicles (the nerve).  
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Which connective tissue layer touches the myelin?   endoneurium.  
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Which membrane is attached to the cranium?   the outer layer of the dura matter.  
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The innermost of the dura matter folds to form the what?   falx cerbri and tentorium cerbelli.  
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Deep to the dura matter are two more meninges and what?   the arachnoid matter and the pia matter.  
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Cerebrospinal fluid does what?   cushions and mediates exchanges of substances with blood meninges  
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The dura matter is what?   the tough membrane.  
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The arachnoid matter is what?   thick membrane.  
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The arachnoid matter does what?   stabilizes the brain and spinal cord.  
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Pia matter is what?   thin membrane.  
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Pia matter fits what?   tightly to surface irregularities.  
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Each ventricle contains what?   choroid plexus.  
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The choroid plexus does what?   synthesizes cerebrospinal fluid.  
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Name the connecting vessel between the third and fourth ventricles.   Cerebral aqueduct.  
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The ventricular system does what?   circulates cerebrospinal fluid.  
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The blood-brain barrier acts like what?   a firewall between blood and brain.  
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The blood-brain barrier is what?   low permeability of brain capillaries.  
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Cerebral lobes are created by what?   fissures and sulci; joined by corpus callosum.  
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Fissures and sulci divide the cerebrum into how many lobes?   four.  
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Which lobe is more anterior - the temporal lobe or occipital lobe?   temporal lobe.  
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Which area receives input directly from the primary visual cortex?   the visual association area.  
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For each sense there is what?   a primary sensory area and unimodal association area.  
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The primary sensory area receives what?   raw data.  
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Unimodal association area does what?   integrates raw data.  
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The limbic system includes what?   structures involved in emotion and memory.  
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The limbic system is also called what?   the "emotional brain".  
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The hippocampus creates what?   new memories.  
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Amygdala controls what?   emotion.  
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Amygdala integrates what?   sensory input with memory.  
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Cingulate gyrus integrates what? and adds what?   sensory input and adds emotional content, especially reaction to pain.  
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Mamillary body integrates what? and adds what?   sensory input, especially odor, and adds emotional content.  
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Which structure curves over the corpus callosum?   cingulate gyrus.  
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Which basal nuclei are located very close to the lateral ventricles?   caudate nuclei.  
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Do signals leaving the visual association area go the posterior association area or directly to Broca's area?   the posterior association area.  
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Name three primary components of the diencephalon.   Thalamus, hypothalamus, pineal gland.  
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Diencephalon controls what?   core vegetative functions (thirst, hunger, sexual drive)  
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Thalamus is for what?   relay station for sensory and motor signals; secondary role in higher brain functions.  
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Hypothalamus regulates what? and secretes what?   core vegetative functions, autonomic system and diumal rhythms and secretes hormones.  
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Pineal gland secretes what?   melatonin.  
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The brain stem is what?   the lowest, most primitive part of the brain.  
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As you sniff stinky cheese and make a face, which sensory nerve is active?   Olfactory nerve.  
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Cerebellum does what?   monitors and adjusts musculoskeletal activies while they are underway by comparing sensory signals with information from cortex about desired position of body parts.  
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The brain is part of what?   CNS.  
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The cranial nerves are part of what?   PNS.  
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How many layers of the dura mater surround the spinal cord?   one.  
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Epidural space is what?   gap between dura and bone that keeps drugs from migrating.  
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Dural sheath is what?   extension where spinal fluids can be safely drawn.  
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Which branch carries signals for the autonomic nervous system?   communicating branch.  
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Roots:   ventral and dorsal.  
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Branches:   ventral, dorsal, and communicating.  
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Which thoracic nerve participates in a plexus?   T1.  
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Branches of nerves from several spinal cord levels intertwine to produce what? from what?   a plexus, from which fibers recombine to form peripheral nerves.  
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Which neuron is always cholinergic- preganglionic or postganglionic?   preganglionic.  
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To reach target tissue from the CNS, the somatic nervous system needs what?   a single neuron.  
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The autonomic system requires two what?   neurons.  
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The parasympathetic division activates what?   the rest-reproduce-digest response.  
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The sympathetic division activates what?   the flight-or-fight response.  
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Which division increases the heart rate?   sympathetic.  
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What is the effect of parasympathetic activation on the trachea and bronchi?   it causes them to constrict.  
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About 80 percent of total parasympathetic motor signal outflow is carried by what?   vagus nerve.  
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Both preganglionic and postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system use what?   acetylcholine.  
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Which organs are innervated by the cervical ganglia?   eye, salivary glands, heart, and lungs.  
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Communicating branches connect what?   the ventral branch of thoracic and lumbar spine nerves to the sympathetic chain ganglia.  
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Does the hypogastric plexus serve the sympathetic division, parasympathetic division, or both?   both.  
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Which pathway is formed by neurons that cross over in the medulla oblongata- the anterior corticospinal tract or the lateral corticospinal tract?   lateral corticopsinal tract.  
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What are the components of a reflex?   sensory receptor, sensory neuron, integrating center, motor neuron, effector.  
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What are the two broad categories of neurological disorders?   life threatening and chronic.  
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Life threatening neurological disorders are?   encephalitis, meningitis, and stroke.  
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Chronic neurological disorders are?   multiple sclerosis, migraines, reflex sympathetic dystrophy, and epilepsy.  
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A stroke is also called what?   cerebrovascular accident (CVA).  
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What happens with a stroke?   lack of oxygen to the brain leading to damage.  
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A stroke is caused by what?   a clot or aneurysm.  
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FAST stands for what?   F-face weakness, A-arms weakness, S-speech difficulties, T-time to call 911.  
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Gullain Barre syndrome is what?   an autoimmune disorder.  
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Gullain Barre syndrome is characterized by what?   sudden onset of bilateral muscle weakness and deep tendon reflexes, progresses to ascending paralysis starting in the legs.  
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Encephalitis is generally what?   a viral infection.  
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Meningitis (aseptic) is a common form of what?   infection involving the brain and CSF.  
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Meningitis (aseptic) can spread through direct contact with what?   respiratory secretions.  
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Meningitis (bacterial) is also called what?   meningococcal meningitis.  
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Meningitis (bacterial) you need a what?   lumbar puncture.  
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Alzheimer's is a type of what?   dementia.  
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Alzheimer's causes problems with what?   memory, thinking, and behavior.  
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Alzheimer's the most common form of what?   dementia.  
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Alzheimer's disease accounts for how many percent of dementia cases?   50 to 80 percent.  
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Alzheimer's is what?   the sixth leading cause of death in the United States.  
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Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy is severe involvement in what?   of areas that control judgement, inhibition, impulse control, mood, and memory.  
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CTE is what?   a dementia-like brain disease afflicting athletes exposed to repeated trauma.  
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CTE is showing a problem is what athletes?   NFL players.  
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Suicide and premature death is associated with what disease?   CTE (chronic traumatic encephalopathy).  
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A brain with CTE is what?   riddled with dense clumps of a protein called tau.  
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Multiple sclerosis is what?   a neurodegenerative disease.  
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MS is demyelination of what?   the brain's neurons.  
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Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis is also called what?   Lou Gehrig's disease.  
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In ALS the   neurons die, increasing muscle atrophy.  
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Generalized seizures involve what?   both hemispheres of the brain (clonic-tonic).  
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Partial seizures (focal) involve what?   a portion of brain.  
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Partial seizure you have a loss of what?   attention and awareness.  
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Epilepsy is when a person experiences what?   two or more seizures during a individual's lifetime.  
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Epilepsy is what?   abnormal electrical activity in the brain causes convulsions.  
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Status epilepticus is what?   continuous clonic-tonic seizures lasting more than 30 minutes and the individual does not regain consciousness between attacks.  
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Is status epilepticus a medical emergency?   yes.  
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Spina bifida is what?   a congenital disorder.  
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Spina bifida is caused by what?   incomplete development of the spinal column during the first month of pregnancy.  
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Bell's Palsy is a disease that affects what?   the facial cranial nerve (CNVII)  
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Bell's palsy is characterized by what?   facial distortion- altered facial expressions.  
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What are the traumatic brain conditions?   epidural hematoma, subdural hematoma, subarachnoid hemorrhage.  
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Epidural hematoma is what?   blood from torn meningeal artery collects between the external layer or the dura and the undersurface of the skull.  
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Subdural hematoma follows what?   a blow that jerks the brain.  
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Subdural hematoma is what?   cerebral vein tear creating space for itself at the dural-arahnoid junction.  
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Subarachnoid hemorrhage is what?   ruptured internal carotid aneurysm.  
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What are the main categories for mental health medications?   meds that treat schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, anxiety disorder, ADHD.  
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