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Patho Final

QuestionAnswer
Which of the following is the best brief definition of disease? functional disequilibrium
The scientific study of disease is known as pathology
The study of the causes of disease is known as etiology
Symptoms and signs disappear at least temporarily during remission
The human body's ability to maintain stability amidst changing conditions is known as homeostasis
What kind of disease develops and runs its course quickly? acute
HIV infection is incurable and a person may live with it for decades, not developing AIDS for many years or decades. HIV/AIDS is best described as a(n) chronic disease
The signs and symptoms of multiple sclerosis may suddenly become more severe. The phenomenon is knows as exacerbation
Joe explained to his doctor that his throat was sore. The sore throat was a symptom
The determination of the cause of a disease is a diagnosis
A patient's pulse, respiration and skin color are all signs
A disease caused by a virus is best classified as infectious
Which describes a disease that occurs in large numbers over a widespread area? epidemic
The events leading to the development of a disease are known as its pathophysiology
IgE is involved in allergy
Resistance of the skin to invading organisms is known as innate immunity
HIV is not transmitted via casual contact
Stress causes an increased production of which hormone? cortisol
What is phagocytosis? leukocytes take in and destroy foreign material
The attraction of white blood cells to the site of inflammation is called chemotaxis
Which is the cause of immune system damage in AIDS? human immunodeficiency virus
What offers localized protection at mucosal surfaces? IgA
What type of hypersensitivity is produced by bee venom, foods or pollen? type I
What is the body's first line of defense? skin
Incompatible blood transfusion causes which type of hypersensitivity? type II
A strain of cholera that appeared in unusually large numbers in south Asia, South America and North America would be described as a(n) pandemic
Viruses are different from bacteria in that viruses cannot grow on their own
The source of an infectious agent is known as a(n) reservoir
The Gram stain is used to differentiate types of bacteria
Structures formed by bacteria and packaged in a tough outer coat to resist destruction by harsh environments are called endospores
What occurs when a disease spreads over a large number of people in a specific area? epidemic
Any disease caused by a microorganism is considered infectious
Diseases that are transmitted directly from human to human are considered communicable
What does helminth mean? worm
Those who harbor an infectious agent but do not have signs or symptoms are called carriers
Separating persons suspected of having a disease from healthy people is knows as quarantining
What are microscopic, single-celled organisms without a nucleus or membranous organelles? bacteria
DNA or RNA wrapped in a protein coat are called viruses
Single-celled or multicelled organisms with cell walls that contain chitin are called fungi
The study of the transmission, occurrence, distribution and control of disease is epidemiology
Antibiotics should be used only for bacterial infections
The rubeola virus causes measles
What is the leading cause of cancer mortality worldwide? lung cancer
Deaths from cancer are projected to rise to ______ million in 2015? 9 million
A cancer of fibrous connective tissue is called a(n) fibrosarcoma
Protein regulators of the cell cycle are called cyclins
The conversion of an oncogene from a proto-oncogene is induced by a(n) retrovirus
The ________ encodes for proteins that regulate cell growth and differentiation. oncogene
Exposure to asbestos increases the risk for cancer of the membranes of many internal organs and is commonly known as mesothelioma
A definitive diagnosis of cancer is made pending the results of a(n) biopsy
Life expectancy for men who are surgical candidates for prostate cancer is 10 years
The risk for testicular cancer is greatest in men _____ years of age. 30-40
Cancer of sperm-producing cells is called a(n) seminoma
Treatment response to radiation, chemotherapy and surgery for testicular tumors is associated with a _____% response rate. 80
The most common symptom of bladder cancer is hematuria
The most important risk for bladder cancer in approximately 65% of males and 30% of females is cigarette smoking
Infections with _______ is associated with up to a fivefold risk for bladder cancer. Schistosoma haematobium
Hodgkin's disease and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma are cancers of _____ tissue. lymph
Massive proliferation of immature forms of white blood cells occurs in leukemia
Malignant proliferation of pigment-producing cells occurs in malignant melanoma
The majority of adult central nervous system tumors are derived from _____ cells. glial
The most common childhood cancer is leukemia
Cancer of the sympathetic nervous system that consists of immature embryonic like cells is knows as a neuroblastoma
The leading risk factor for prostate cancer is age
The majority of melanoma appear on the _____ in men and on the _____ in women. back, legs
Proliferation of abnormal white blood cells occurs in leukemia
A CNS tumor that appears as undifferentiated primitive cells on the brain stem or spinal cord is a medulloblastoma
A renal tumor that is composed of cells that resemble embryonic glomeruli is known as Wilms' tumor
A soft tissue childhood sarcoma of red muscle is called a(n) rhabdomyosarcoma
Cancer that occurs on the surface of bone is known as a(n) osteosarcoma
More than _____% of all cancers in the United States occur in adults over the age of 65. 60%
The American Cancer Society recommends annual mammography in women over the age of 40
A cancer related checkup is recommended every ____ years by the American Cancer Society for individuals age 20-39 years 3
Neoplasia means new growth
Apoptosis refers to cell death
The development of cancer is termed carcinogenesis
Overexpression of _____ leads to the conversion of a normal cell to a malignant cell. oncogene
Population based studies of cancer rates are used to characterize the _____ of cancer. epidemiology
Mesothelioma is caused by exposure to asbestos
Hepatitis B and C are common causes of _____ cancer. liver
Helicobacter pylori infection is associated with ______ cancer. stomach
Headaches are common in brain tumors when the cancer infiltrates the meninges
Surgical treatments for breast cancer include mastectomy and lumpectomy
If the cause of a disease is unknown, it is idiopathic
Remission and exacerbation occurs in which disease type? chronic
What describes the number of deaths a disease causes in a susceptible population? mortality
Which term means the predicted outcome of a disease? prognosis
Which antibody is associated with allergy? IgE
Which term is used for diseases that are under constant surveillance? reportable
Long, whip-like appendages used for swimming are called flagella
Which is an organism that does not independently grow, metabolize, or reproduce? virus
What kind of trait tends to appear in each generation? dominant
The alternative form of a gene is a(n) allele
A chart showing a family genetic background is called a pedigree
A matching set of genes for a given trait is called homozygous
Chi-du-chat is the result of partially deleted #5 chromosome
What disorder leaves the person vulnerable to bleeding episodes? hemophilia
Polydactyly suggests extra fingers or toes
Those born with both testes and ovaries are known as hermaphroditic
What common procedure helps determine the gender of a fetus? amniocentesis
A congenital narrowing of the aorta is known as coarctation of the aorta
A procedure in which a strong saline solution is injected into varicose veins compression sclerotherapy
A clot within a blood vessel formed by turbulent blood flow in the region of the plaque and ulceration of the plaque thrombosis
Narrowing of the valve leading into the aorta occurring more often in men than in women aortic stenosis
A sustained rapid heart rate of greater than 100 beats per minute tachycardia
A life-threatening condition in which blood pressure drops too low to sustain life shock
A serious congenital heart defect that consists of four abnormalities Tetrology of Fallot
Fetal connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta ductus arteriosus
An automated external defibrillator (AED) delivers ______ shocks used to re-establish normal heart rhythm. electrical
The venous system carries blood to the heart
Results from infections, myocarditis, toxic agents, metabolic disorders, genetic disorders and immune disorders dilated cardiomyopathy
The main function of the circulatory system is to transport blood, oxygen and nutrients
The circulatory system is divided into systemic and _____ circulation pulmonary
The internal lining of the heart is known as the endocardium
The double layer membrane that encloses the heart is knows as the pericardium
The mitral valve is located between the left atrium, left ventricle
The tricuspid valve is located between the right atrium, right ventricle
Cardiac filling is known as diastole
The pacemaker of the heart is known as the sinoatrial node
Systemic circulation distributes oxygenated blood from the left ventricle
Pulmonary circulation carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle
Blood return to the right atrium is delivered via the venae cavae
What lipoprotein transports cholesterol to the tissues of the body? low density lipoprotein
The most common cause of an abdominal aneurysm is atherosclerosis
What procedure is used to open a partially occluded artery? angioplasty
An inflammatory condition of the heart muscle most commonly caused by viruses is known as myocarditis
What condition occurs when the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the oxygen needs of other body organs? congestive heart failure
An autosomal dominant disorder that results in a defective or deficient LDL receptor is known as familial hypercholesterolemia
Hypertension affects approximately ____% of the adult population worldwide. 20%
What test measures electrical activity of the heart? electrocardiogram
What valve allows blood to flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery? pulmonary semilunar valve
What valve controls blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta? aortic semilunar valve
Blockage of what artery impairs the flow of blood to the brain? carotid
The iron rich, oxygen carrying protein in erythrocytes is known as: hemoglobin
The average life span of a red blood cell is: 120 days
The symptoms of anemia are due to _____ to the tissues. hypoxia
The leading cause of anemia worldwide is: iron deficiency
Vitamin b12 deficiency is also known as: pernicious anemia
Approximately _____ of African Americans have the sickle cell trait or are heterozygous for sickle cell anemia. 10%
Blood elements that are essential for blood clotting and mobilization of clotting factors are known as: platelets
Which X-linked recessive bleeding disorder primarily affects males and results in a deficiency of clotting factor VIII? hemophilia A
The function of _____ is to defend tissues against bacterial and fungal infections. neutrophils
Diagnosis of blood disorders is based on assessment of: complete blood counts
The fluid portion of the blood is known as: plasma
Red blood cells are removed from the liver and the: spleen
Excessive destruction of red blood cells results in accumulation of _____ and causes a jaundiced appearance in the tissues, urine and feces. bilirubin
What autoimmune disorder results in destruction of platelets? idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
About half of the body stores of folic acid are in the: liver
What is a reduction in circulating red blood cells increasing the risk for severe bacterial and fungal infections? neutropenia
Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (pernicious anemia) is caused by inadequate absorption or intake of vitamin B12 or a deficiency in a protein called: intrinsic factor
Persistent increases in eosinophils are associated with neurological and cardiac symptoms in patients with: hypereosinophilic syndrome
In the lungs heme binds to _____ in exchange for carbon dioxide. oxygen
Deficient synthesis or one or more of the alpha or beta chains required for the formation of hemoglobin is characteristic of what disease? thalassemia
What surgical treatment is used to decrease the risk of hemolytic crisis in inherited causes of hemolytic anemia? splenectomy
What are formed in sickle cell anemia as oxygen is released from erythrocytes? crystals
The megaloblastic anemias are disorders caused by impaired _____ synthesis. DNA
The most frequent cause of iron deficiency in men and postmenopausal women is: gastrointestinal bleeding
What is needed for the synthesis of prothrombin and thrombin? vitamin K
The production of red blood cells is regulated by a hormone known as: erythropoietin
Erythrocytes (red blood cells) make up about _____ of the blood's volume. 1/5
Which disease results in defects in platelet adhesion? von Willebrand's disease
Neutropenia in autoimmunity is best treated with: corticosteroids
A life-threatening condition that involves excessive destruction of platelets and consumption of clotting factors is called: disseminated intravascular coagulation
A pathological increase in red blood cell mass accompanied by an increase in white blood cells and platelets is a disease known as: polycythemia vera
Mature red blood cells emerge from the bone marrow as: reticulocytes
The minimum daily requirement for folic acid is approximately: 50 micrograms
The minimum daily requirement for vitamin B12 is about: 2.5 micrograms
Megaloblastic red blood cells contain an increased ratio of _____ to _____. RNA to DNA
Thalassemia affects nearly _____ million people worldwide. 200
The absorption of vitamin B12 is dependent on: intrinsic factors
Immune suppression from cancer chemotherapy and suppression of cellular proliferation in the bone marrow, resulting in an increased susceptibility for infection, is a common etiology of what blood disease? neutropenia
Digestion begins in the: mouth
The most common cause for esophageal varices is: cirrhosis of the liver
Where does the greatest amount of digestion occur? small intestine
Digestion of foods requires the presence of secretions called: enzymes
Digestion of proteins begins in the: stomach
Digestion of what type of food begins in the stomach? protein
Absorption of digested foods is a major function of the: villi of the small intestine
Burning chest pains resembling the pain of heart disease are characteristic of: esophagitis
Acid relux is the most common cause of: esophagitis
Gastric juice contains hydrochoric acid used for? digestion of protein
Pancreatic juice contains _____ for digesting all types of food. enzymes
Protrusion of part of the stomach through the wall of the diaphragm at the esophageal junction is a: hiatal hernia
Vomiting of blood is the principle sign of: gastritis
Helicobacter pylori is a common cause of: gastric ulcers
Abdominal pain relieved by eating and by antacids is characteristic of: peptic ulcers
Inflammation of the stomach and intestines producing anorexia, nausea, vomiting and diarrhea is: gastroenteritis
Salmonella is one of the most common causes of: food poisoning
A disease in which the stomach fails to secrete its normal gastric juices and eventually atrophies is: chronic atrophic gastritis
Diagnosis of gastritis requires what type of testing? gastroscopy
Lack of intrinsic factor for vitamin B12 absorption results from what GI tract disorder? chronic atrophic gastritis
The inability of the stomach to secrete intrinsic factors and hydrochloric acid is: atrophic gastritis
What is comprised of the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum? small intestine
Accumulation of fat in the fecal matter, resulting in unformed, pale, floating stools with a very strong odor, indicates which disease? malabsorption syndrome
Defective mucosal cells, resulting in the inability to absorb, is a disease called: malabsorption syndrome
A change in bowel habits, including either diarrhea or constipation, is a sign of: obstruction
A syndrome involving infection and inflammation of the colon with intense pain and bloody stools is called: dysentery
Pain in the lower right quadrant, accompanied by nausea, vomiting, fever, and leukocytosis, is most likely: appendicitis
Hemorrhoids are diagnosed via use of the: proctoscope
X-ray examination reveals a straight, rigid, "pipestem" colon, indicating: chronic ulcerative colitis
The microbes causing peritonitis often invade through _____. diverticulae
A volvulus is a _____. twisted intestine
If melena is found in the stool, a disease of the digestive system is most likely located in the: stomach
Organic obstruction of the intestine includes: volvulus
Antibiotics may be effective in the treatment of _____. dysentery
Antibiotics can be effective in the treatment of _____. gastric ulcer
A change in diet is helpful in the treatment of _____. gastritis
Pain resembling that of appendicitis may indicate _____. regional enteritis
An acute inflammation of the colon that is caused by bacteria, parasitic worms, or other microorganisms is known as _____. dysentery
An organic obstruction of the intestine in which it is twisted on itself and may be unwound surgically is known as _____. volvulus
Formation of little pouches or sacs on the intestine, in which the mucosa pushes through the muscle layer, produces what disorder? diverticulitis
Decrease in peristalsis is characteristic of what type of intestinal obstructions? paralytic
Created by: 1149639269