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Arizpe
7 LVL CDC
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Medical units are organized as wings, groups, or squadrons base on? | The scope of the medical mission and size of the organization |
| What is the maximum number of squadrons that a medical group with at least 600 authorizations have? | 5 |
| The most important factor to consider in organizing a medical unit is? | The organization's mission |
| Which component of the medical command work center is optional? | Group Superintendent. |
| How many assigned personnel are required for a medical unit to earn a Deputy Commander position? | More than 300. |
| Who acts as the primary liaison between the organization and HQ USAF/SG, Enlisted Function Managers? | Group Superintendent |
| Which of the positions below is responsible for practicing general supervision and maintaining standards regarding quality force indicators of enlisted personnel? | First Sergeant. |
| What/Who is the final approval authority for the organizations structure of a particular medical unit? | Executive Committee |
| Which member of the executive committee is primarily responsible for accreditation and certification standards of the medical unit? | Administrator |
| What individual(s) assist(s) the squadron commander with enlisted aspects of coordinating, directing, and managing the execution of the squadron's mission? | Squadron Superintendent |
| What individual(s) advise(s) the squadron commander on all unit enlisted personnel issues that involve training, staff rotation, and manpower? | Executive Committee |
| Which approved medical flight is responsible for providing medical services in accordance with the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act? | Medically related services flight |
| Which statement is NOT a requirement of 5-level upgrade training? | Recommendation by a unit training manager and commander |
| What determines the type of additional duties a journeyman might perform? | Size of the clinic or medical treatment facility (MTF) |
| Which of the following is not a requirement for successful upgrade to the physical medicine craftsman level? | Completion of NCO Academy. |
| What is the only requirement needed to become a physical medicine superintendent? | Sew on SMSgt |
| What is required in order to become an orthotic journeyman? | Complete the Pedorthics in-residence course |
| What is the difference in the job description of an orthotic craftsman and an orthotic journeyman? | Emphasis on administrative duties |
| What is needed to satisfy the requirements of becoming a chief enlisted manager? | Completion of Senior NCO Academy in-residence course |
| Accrued expenditures paid | Portion of your obligations that have been paid |
| Allocation | An official document issued by HQ USAF to a major command. It is a funding document and represents cash |
| Appropriation | A general term used specifically to identify the types of funds made available to the Air Force by Congress |
| Bogey | The amount of O&M dollars, which a command/base can reasonably expect to receive and carry out its mission for the forthcoming year |
| Call for estimates | Instructions issued to prepare and submit a budget estimate or estimated fund requirements for the budget year |
| Commitment | An amount of funds you must receive to cover a specific requirement. It represents an intent or plan to buy an item or service that will eventually become a legal obligations |
| Funds issuing budget officer | A funding point; The Funds Issuing Budget Officer redistributes annual budget authorizations and quarterly expense authority to subordinate units |
| Program element code | An element of the DOD Future Years Defense Program representing a combination of personnel equipment, and facilities, which together constitute an identifiable military capability or support activity |
| The Law of Exercise | Things repeated most are remembered best. The more you practice you provide your staff, the more information they will retain |
| The Law of Effect | Your staff will accept and repeat responses associated with a pleasant experience. If an airman working for you has bad experiences every time the airman performs a ROM measurement, the airman will tend not to 'learn' how to do ROM measurements |
| The Law of Primacy | First learned, best learned! Make sure you teach correct information first. Trying to 'unteach' information given that was wrong is extremely difficult |
| The Law of Disuse & The Law of Intensity | If you do not practice your skills or use your knowledge, you frequently forget these skills. You can teach your staff to do almost any task, but if they don't ever perform that task they will forget. |
| What is a funding document, which represents cash and authorizes commands to commit and allocate funds? | An allocation |
| The purpose of a budget for your clinic is best defined as? | Ensuring resources are sufficient to meet our needs. |
| What are the two stages of budgeting? | Planning and controlling |
| One of the goals of budgeting is to ensure a central coordination point is available for all expenditures in a medical facility. Why is this important? | This allows funds to distributed equitably throughout the facility |
| The resource management system is based upon? | DOD planning programming and budgeting system |
| Who is in the best position to see how funds are being expended in their responsibility center? | Resource advisor |
| Who is responsible for training the cost center managers? | Resource Advisor |
| During the initial distribution phase of the budget process, who is responsible for disbursing funds to the medical treatment facilities (MTFs)? | MAJCOM |
| What identifies the specific amount of funds for normal base operations and maintenance costs? | Operating Budget Authority Document (OBAD) |
| To locate and clear discrepancies between the resource advisors's record and the official accounting record is the primary goal of the triennial review of the .... | open document listing |
| This document is often referred to as the financial blueprint for an organization for a specific period of time and it reflects an organization's funded and unfunded requirements.... | Financial Plan |
| Who develops the spend plan? | Resource advisor |
| What must be determined in order to develop the spend plan? | Cost to perform the assigned mission for the entire fiscal year |
| In what time frae is the fiscal-year-end closeout completed? | July through September |
| What is a funding document, which represents cash and authorizes commands to commit and allocate funds? | An allocation |
| The purpose of a budget for your clinic is best defined as? | Ensuring resources are sufficient to meet our needs. |
| What are the two stages of budgeting? | Planning and controlling |
| One of the goals of budgeting is to ensure a central coordination point is available for all expenditures in a medical facility. Why is this important? | This allows funds to distributed equitably throughout the facility |
| The resource management system is based upon? | DOD planning programming and budgeting system |
| Who is in the best position to see how funds are being expended in their responsibility center? | Resource advisor |
| Who is responsible for training the cost center managers? | Resource Advisor |
| During the initial distribution phase of the budget process, who is responsible for disbursing funds to the medical treatment facilities (MTFs)? | MAJCOM |
| What identifies the specific amount of funds for normal base operations and maintenance costs? | Operating Budget Authority Document (OBAD) |
| To locate and clear discrepancies between the resource advisors's record and the official accounting record is the primary goal of the triennial review of the | open document listing |
| This document is often referred to as the financial blueprint for an organization for a specific period of time and it reflects an organization's funded and unfunded requirements.... | Financial Plan |
| Who develops the spend plan? | Resource advisor |
| What must be determined in order to develop the spend plan? | Cost to perform the assigned mission for the entire fiscal year |
| In what time frame is the fiscal-year-end closeout completed? | July through September |
| What's the importance of a financial analysis tool? | Assits in evaluating approaches to scarce resources and developing solutions to business problems |
| In what phase is establishing an objective for the analysis achieved? | Problem definition |
| The two main phases of a business case analysis (BCA) are the preliminary.... | Investigation and examination of the elements of a potential partnership and performance of the BCA |
| When requested to do so, medical treatment facilities (MTF) make the health records of patients available for inspection and review by... | the patient's insurance carrier |
| Who has the overall responsibility for the Third-Party Collections Program (TPCP)? | Director, Resource Management |
| Why is DD form 2569, Third Party Collection Program-Insurance Information, place in a patient's medical record? | To substantiate that the patient has private health insurance |
| Which patients would fall into the Third-Party Collections Program (TPCP)? | Active duty family member patient with private health insurance |
| Third-Party Collection Program rates are determined for outpatient care by... | an all-inclusive per visit charge |
| If the MTF does NOT receive payment from an insurance company for services rendered to a patient within 180 days, what action occurs? | Patient is billed for hospital's services |
| What statement best describes the disposition of medical records relating to the Third-Party Collection Program? | Insurance companies may receive a copy of the medical records upon request without charge |
| For any time management tool to be effective, you have to... | Have a way of determining your tasks. |
| After you make a list of assist in your time management activities, the next step in making that list as productive as possible is to... | assign priorities |
| What is the key to using task priorities effectively? | Working on tasks until it's time to move on to a new one. |
| When dealing with constant interruptions, one of the worst offenders identified is... | Yourself |
| What's the critical goal in staff planning? | Project for patient care needs. |
| To address the short and long term needs of your patients, you need to look... | To the future and project future patient care needs. |
| Once you identifies your patient care needs, it is important to evaluate the level of care you are providing because care evaluation... | Assists in identifying training needs and determining your clinic's capability. |
| Is knowing the availability of patient care staff more or less critical in physical medicine and orthotic clinics than the availability of patient care staff in the Family Practice clinic? | More critical because physical medicine and orthotic clinics have a smaller pool of trained technicians. |
| Adult learners will tune out or ignore information if they cannot... | See the connection between their job and the information presented. |
| The law of disuse is important to the supervisor because.... | it stresses practicing tasks until the student is competent. |
| Which law of learning suggests that student involvement increases a lesson's effectiveness? | Exercise |
| Explain the difference between inservice training and on-the-job training (OJT).. | Inservice training generally provides information not tied to the skill level training. |
| It is important for the supervisor to understand the training codes so he/she will know how to.... | Help you determine where to start your OJT. |
| Training levels for airman are coded in three different areas. What are these areas? | Subject knowledge, Task Performance, and Task Knowledge. |
| Lower case letters in the proficiency code key refer to... | Task knowledge. |
| An effective method of conducting OJT is demonstrated by using the... | "tell,show,do" method |
| What is an EFFECTIVE evaluation technique when you teach task performance? | Verbally question the student during actual task performance. |
| Which condition was identified as being MOST important to patients in assuring humanized health care? | Health care providers must exhibit empathy toward patients. |
| Why is the Patient's Bill of Rights document so important? | This document assures patients that they haven't lost their rights as a person |
| The desire to do what really is right for a patient once you know their needs is defined as... | Compassion |
| Which guideline for taking care of undesirable patients is especially important? | Make sure you let patients know that you care. |
| Which customer service skill means patiently listening to concerns and respectfully answering questions? | Friendliness |
| Understanding the customer's needs, frustrations, and disappointments is an example of... | Empathizing |
| Giving a judgmental, sarcastic, or flippant response as to what a customer considers a serious issue is an example of... | Discounting |
| What type of body language presents an apathetic, couldn't care less attitude or personality? | Hands in pocket. |
| What type of body language presents an angry, defensive attitude or personality? | Intensive body movements |
| Why is the counter-transferential relationship difficult to deal with? | These relationships occur unconsciously and are difficult to recognize |
| What type of dependence is NOT therapeutically healthy? | Detrimental. |
| Which type of dependence could be detrimental to the rehabilitative progress of a patient when a health care provider is not present? | Self. |
| Under which conditions does the patient not have the right to refuse treatment? | A patient is declare legally incompetent after voluntary admission to hospital. |
| For a full survey, how long MUST your organization have a process in place to receive a score of 2 for a particular element of performance? | 12 months |
| A Measure of Success (MOS) is... | A quantifiable measure used to determine if action taken related to a standard is effective and has been sustained. |
| If your surveyors find requirements for improvement in your facility, you have... | 90 days to submit an Evidence of Standards Compliance (ESC) |
| What does the Joint Commission Periodic Performance Review (PPR) accomplish? | It's a process to support organization's continuous standards compliance while providing education. |
| When can your organization access the Periodic Performance Tool (PPT)? | 15 to 18 months into your organization's accreditation cycle. |
| If your organization fails to complete and submit its Periodic Performance Review (PPR) within 30 days of its due date then... | Its accreditation status will be changed to provisional accreditation |
| What is the Comprehensive Accreditation Manual designed to provide? | Information about the accreditation process |
| What chapter in the Comprehensive Accreditation Manual for Hospitals (CAMH) includes the organization's standards? | Accreditation Policy and Procedures (AAP) |
| Successful implementation of improvements in assessment and care services rely on... | The full support of leadership. |
| What critical element of care services includes the steps that care providers take to uncover relevant information about a patient to determine his or her needs, plan a course of actions, and plan for their discharge? | Assessment |
| Which statement is NOT a part of the credentialed and privileged practitioners Priority Focus Area (PFA)? | Proficiency testing |
| The physical environment of care includes.... | Buildings, equipment and people. |
| The ultimate goal of any quality improvement initiative is... | Improved patient care and better outcomes when possible |
| The Priority Focus Area (PFA) guides the surveyor(s) throughout the... | Tracer portion of the survey |
| What must your organization provide its staff if the survey notification can't be posted in all areas? | Provide each staff member with a written announcement of the survey |
| How many days prior to the survey is the advanced notice required to be posted? | 30 days |
| The Priority Focus Process (PFP)... | Can be considered as a process for standardizing the priority areas for review during the survey |
| How are each standard's Elements of Performance (EP) judged by the survey team? | Insufficient compliance, partial compliance, satisfactory compliance, or not applicable. |
| What accreditation category implies that your organization fails to successfully address all requirements for improvement in an ESC report within 90 days (45 days starting in 2005) following the survey? | Provisional |
| What accreditation decision category implies that your organization is not in substantial compliance with a number of standards, which is between 2 and 3 standards deviations above the average number of noncompliant standards for similar organizations? | Conditional |
| What must your organization submit for each Element of Performance (EP) found to partially or insufficiently compliant? | An Evidence of Standards Compliance (ESC) report along with a Measure of Success (MOS) |
| Under what circumstances will the Joint Commission perform a conditional accreditation follow-up survey? | If your organization fails to clear not compliant standards after 2 failed Evidence of Standards Compliance (ESC) and Measure of Success (MOS) submissions and it received a conditional acreditation |
| A one-month survey will be conducted... | If your facility has failed to notify the Joint Commission of a request for a public information interview that was submitted prior to a full accreditation survey. |
| When are organizations in provisional accreditation status changed to accredited? | When the Measure of Success (MOS) submission has been determined to be acceptable. |
| An organization must re-enter the accreditation process if... | It opens or closes a unit or service, adds or deletes components, or has leadership changes. |
| What is the length of an accreditation period? | 3 years. |
| How many months prior to the accreditation due date will the Joint Commission notify your organization to reapply for accreditation? | 6 months. |
Created by:
atxchick_7
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