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CMA STUDY GUIDE
| Term | Definition |
|---|---|
| systole | contraction phase of the heart |
| diastole | relaxation phase of the heart |
| SA node | located at the upper back wall of right atrium at junction of superior vena cava and right atrium |
| sinoatrial node | controls the rate of heart contraction by initiating electrical impulses every 60 to 100 times per minute |
| Sinus bradycardia | a heart rate less than 60 beats/min |
| sinus tachycardia | a rate of greater than 100 beats/min |
| After electrical stimulation | the ventricles contract forcing blood out of the chambers and deoxygenated blood into the pulmonary artery |
| SA node | stimulates both atria to depolarize at the same time |
| polarization | resting state of the myocardial wall: no electrical activity in the heart; recorded on the ECG as a flatline |
| depolarization | contraction phase; electrical system of the heart stimulates the myocardium |
| P wave | first deflection from baseline; atrial depolarization |
| QRS complex | contraction of both ventricles; greatest deflection from baseline |
| ST segment | time between the end of ventricular contraction and the beginning of ventricular recovery |
| T wave | repolarization of the ventricles |
| Sinus arrhythmias | pathway of the electrical charge is normal but the rate or rhythm of the heartbeat is altered |
| Premature atrial contraction | atria contract before they should; show up as abnormally shaped P wave or an extra P |
| Atrial flutter | extremely rapid atrial rate, up to 300 beats/min |
| premature ventricular contraction | ventricles contract before they should; QRS complex appears before P wave |
| Ventricular fibrillation | life-threatening arrhythmia; heart muscle quivering uncontrollably; unable to pump blood; there is no pulse |
| Holter monitor | a portable system for recording the cardiac activity of a patient over a 24-hour period or longer |
| microorganisms | living organisms that can be seen only with a microscope |
| pathogens | disease causing microorganisms |
| infection | invasion of body tissues by pathogens which proliferates and damages tissues |
| medical asepsis | creates a clean environment but not a sterile one |
| surgical asepsis | complete destruction of organisms on instruments or equipment that will enter the patient's body |
| sanitization | decreases the number of microorganisms |
| spores | thick walled, dormant form of bacteria that is very resistant to disinfection |
| Steam | simultaneously heats and wets objects being autoclaved |
| Muslin packs | shelf-life of 28 days |
| plastic wraps | shelf-life of 6 months |
| permeability | property in which a substance can pass or soak through |
| wrap all hinged instruments in the open position | to allow full steam penetration of the joint |
| place a gauze sponge around the tips of sharp instruments | to prevent them from piercing the wrapping material |
| With sterilizing bags, insert the jaws of the instruments first | to ensure that the grasping end of the instrument can be reached easily when the bag is opened. |
| DO NOT place packs | on cold surfaces |
| suppuration | pus formation; causes problems with wound healing |
| 1st intention healing | clean surgical incision |
| 2nd intention healing | large gaping wound heals from bottom outward |
| cycle of urine production | filtration, reabsorption, and excretion |
| urine | most common body fluid analyzed in lab |
| average person produces approximately | 750-2000 mL (2L) of urine each day |
| random sample | can be done anytime |
| first morning specimen | used for pregnancy test/ culture for bacteria quantative protein |
| 24-hour urine specimen | used for quantative analysis such as hormone levels and creatine clearance rates |
| second voided specimen | most accurate method of testing urine in patients with diabetes |
| protein | proteinuria is one of the first signs of renal disease |
| ketones | end-product of fat metabolism |
| blood | indicates infection or trauma |
| hematuria | presence of blood in urine |
| bilirubin | breakdown of hemoglobin; bilirubinuria is due to liver cell damage or obstruction of common bile duct |
| urobilinogen | normally present in small amounts; with RBC destruction and in liver disease |
| nitrite | due to bacterial break down of nitrate, a common component of urine; positive test result indicates UTI |
| leukocyte esterase test | WBCs present with UTI |
| pH will be increased in | UTI |
| casts | protein accumulates and precipitates in the kidney tubules; takes on size shape of tubules |
| crystals | clinically significant if present in larger numbers |
| clinitest | testing for glycosuria |
| acetest | reagent tablets provide an alternative to strip testing when the urine must be tested for the presence of ketones |
| urine pregnancy testing | detects the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) |
| CHAMRA | surviving spouses/ children of vets died as result of service have disability |
| Medicare part A | Hospital |
| Medicare part B | Medical Insurance |
| Medicare part C | Medicare Advantage expanded benefits |
| Medicare part D | prescription |
| Medicare | Federal health insurance program that provides healthcare coverage for individuals aged 65 years and older |
| Workers' Compensation | protects wage earners against the loss of wages and the cost of medical care resulting from occupational accident or disease |
| Medicare Supplement | A supplemental health insurance policy to help defray medical costs not covered, or only partially covered by Medicare |
| Special Risk Insurance | protects a person in the event of a certain type of accident or for certain diseases |
| Liability Insurance | Includes benefits for medical expenses payable to individuals who are injured in the person's home or car, without regard to the insured person's actual legal liability for the accident |
| life insurance | provides payment of a specified amount on an insured's death |
| Long-Term Care Insurance | Covers a continuum of broad-ranged maintenance and health services to chronically ill, disabled, or mentally retarded persons |
| Idemnity Schedules | fee for service plans |
| Service benefit plans | plan the insuring company agrees to pay for certain surgical or medical services without additional cost to the person insured |
| Resource-Based Relative Value Scale | Resources required to perform a service is determined through the use of relative value units (RVUs) assigned to the CPT codes; system was implanted to standardize payment |
| Determination of the Usual, Customary, and Reasonable (UCR) Fees | Charges for a specific service are compared with a database of charges for the same service to other patients by the same type of physician, and to patients by other physicians performing the same or similar services in the same geographic area |
| HMO | A plan that contracts with a medical center or group of physicians to provide preventive as well as acute care for the insured; state-licensed health plans that are regulated by HMO laws |
| capitation(how HMO providers receive payment) | payment in advance to provider for contracted number of patients, regardless of how often patient sees the physician (if even) |
| PPO | fee for service; an insurer representing its clients contracts with a group of providers who agree on a predetermined list of charges for all services including those for both normal and complex procedures |
| ingestion | orally taking substances into the body |
| digestion | conversion of into substances that can be absorbed into the GI tract |
| peristalsis | movement of food particles through the digestive tract |
| absorption | process in which the digested food molecules pass through the lining of the small intestine into the blood or lymph capillaries |
| elimination | removal of undigested food particles |
| alimentation | process of providing nourishment, or nutrition, for the body |
| metabolism | the sum of all the physical and chemical processes that take place in living organisms |
| lipids | fats that serve as energy reserves |
| esophagus | muscular tube connecting the throat with the stomach |
| bolus | mass of chewed food |
| chyme | liquid mass expelled by the stomach into the duodenum |
| cardiac sphincter | guards the opening of the esophagus into the stomach and prevents backflow of material into the esophagus |
| pyloric sphincter | lets food pass from the stomach to the duodenum |
| duodenum | the first part of the small intestine |
| rugae | temporary folds of mucosa that line the stomach |
| villi | fingerlike projections in the small intestine that absorb nutrients |
| jejunum | part of the small intestine below the duodenum |
| ileum | distal portion of the portion of the small intestine |
| cecum | forms the first portion of the large intestine |
| vermiform appendix | a wormlike structure that opens into the cecum |
| ascending colon | part of the colon located between the cecum and the transverse colon |
| transverse colon | longest and most movable part of the colon |
| descending colon | function is to store the remains of digested that will be emptied into the rectum |
| sigmoid colon | last part of the colon |
| feces | body waste that is discharged from the bowels by way of the anus |
| proctologist | specializes in treating disorders of the colon, rectum, and anus |
| gastroenterology | the study of the stomach and intestines and associated diseases |
| bile | aids in the digestion of fats |
| liver | functions: production of bile, breakdown of toxic compounds, involvement in the regulation of blood glucose, lipid metabolism, synthesis of plasma proteins, storage of iron and certain vitamins, filtering of blood |
| gallbladder | where bile is stored and released when fats are ingested |
| pancreas | secretes many substances, including digestive enzymes and insulin |
| hematochezia | presence of blood in the stool |
| occult blood | chemical test that can detect blood that cannot be seen |
| anorexia | lack or loss of appetite |
| emaciation | excessive leanness caused by disease or lack of nutrition |
| emesis | vomiting |
| bulimia | eating disorder characterized by episodes of binge eating that often end in purging and depression |
| GERD | dysfunction that involves a backflow of the contents of the stomach into the esophagus |
| hiatal hernia | protrusion of a portion of the stomach upward through a defect in the diaphragm |
| fistula | abnormal passage between internal organs or abnormal communications leading from internal organs to the body surface |
| hemorrhoids | masses of dilated veins of the anal canal that lie just inside or outside the rectum |
| impaction | an accumulation of hardened feces in the rectum or sigmoid colon that the individual cannot expel |
| jaundice | a yellow discoloration of the skin, the mucous membranes, and the whites of the eyes, caused by greater than normal amounts of bilirubin in the blood |
| cirrhosis | chronic, progressive liver disease that is characterized by degeneration of liver cells with eventual increased resistance to flow of blood through the liver |
| nasogastric tube | tube that is inserted through the nose into the stomach |
| lavage | irrigation or washing out of an organ, such as the stomach or bowel |
| amyl/o | starch |
| bil/I, chol/e | bile or gall |
| gylc/o | sugar |
| lact/o | milk |
| lip/o | fats |
| prote/o | protein |
| -dipsia | thirst |
| -orexia | appetite |
| -pepsia | digestion |
| -stalsis | contraction |
| or/o, stomat/o | mouth |
| esophag/o | esophagus |
| pharyng/o | pharynx |
| gastr/o | stomach |
| cholecyst/o | gallbadder |
| choledoch/o | common bile duct |
| hepat/o | liver |
| pancreat/o | pancreas |
| sialaden/o | salivary glands |
| intestin/o | intestine, in general |
| enter/o | small intestine |
| duoden/o | duodenum |
| jejun/o | jejunum |
| ile/o | ileum |
| col/o, colon/o | large intestine |
| rect/o | rectum |
| an/o | anus |
| bucc/o | cheek |
| cheil/o | lip |
| dent/I, dent/o, odont/o | teeth |
| gingiv/o | gums |
| gloss/o, lingu/o | tongue |
| mandibul/o | mandible |
| maxill/o | maxilla |
| palat/o | palate |
| sial/o | saliva, salivary glands |
| pylor/o | pylorus |
| vag/o | vagus nerve |
| append/o | appendix |
| cec/o | cecum |
| proct/o | anus, rectum |
| sigmoid/o | sigmoid colon |
| diverticul/o | diverticula |
| integumentary | system which is the skin and its glands, hair, nails, and other structures that are derived from it |
| epidermis | top layer of the skin |
| keratin | waterproofing protein that hardens over several days |
| dermis | thicker layer of the skin |
| subcutaneous | serves as a cushion against shock and insulates the body |
| adipose | pertaining to fat |
| dermatology | study of the skin |
| arrector pili muscles | contract under stresses of cold or fright, straighten the hair follicles, and raise the hairs, producing goose bumps or gooseflesh |
| sebum | oily material secreted by the sebaceous gland, keeps hair and skin soft and pliable and also inhibits growth of bacteria on the skin |
| sudoriferous gland | sweat gland |
| lunula | nail matrix is responsible for growth of the nail and appears asa a whitish, crescent-shaped area |
| biopsy | removal of a small piece of living tissue |
| curettage | procedure that uses a curet to scrape material from a lesion for testing |
| albinism | a partial or total absence of pigment in the skin, hair and eyes |
| cyanosis | a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes |
| erythema | redness or inflammation of the skin or mucous membranes that is the result of the superficial capillaries |
| ichthyosis | any of several skin conditions in which the skin is dry and scaly, resembling fish skin |
| pediculosis | infestation by human lice. There head lice, body lice, and pubic lice. |
| scleroderma | general term for hardening and thickening of the skin, a finding in various diseases |
| dermatitis | an inflammatory condition of the skin |
| herpes simplex virus | most common infection of adult skin |
| furuncle | a boil, is a localized suppurative infection that begins with infection of a hair follicle or sebaceous gland |
| purulence | production of pus |
| eczema | superficial dermatitis of unknown cause and confined to the surface of the skin |
| scabies | contagious dermatitis caused by the itch mite and transmitted by close contact |
| lesion | any visible, local abnormality of the tissues of the skin, such as a sore, a rash, or a tumor |
| abscess | any pus-containing cavity that is surrounded by inflamed tissue |
| cyst | raised area of the overlying skin that is filled with fluid or a semisolid material |
| nodule | raised area of the overlying skin that is solid and more than 1 cm wide and deep |
| urticaria | allergic skin eruptions that cause wheals |
| bulla | blister greater than 1 cm and filled with clear fluid |
| scales | dried fragments of sloughed epidermis; frequently seen in psoriasis |
| scar | a mark remaining after the healing of a wound |
| ulcers | deep, irregular erosions that extend into the dermis |
| atrophy | thinning of the skin with loss of skin markings |
| excoriation | a scratch; an injury to the surface of the body caused by trauma |
| petechiae | tiny purple or red spots appearing on the skin as a result of tiny hemorrhages within the dermal or submucosal layers |
| ecchymosis | a hemorrhagic spot, larger that petechia |
| nevus | another term for a mole |
| malignant melanoma | pigmented neoplasm that originates in the skin and is composed of melanocytes |
| decubitus ulcer | bedsore |
| keloid | overgrowth of scar tissue |
| laceration | torn, jagged wound |
| puncture | wound made by piercing |
| abrasion | skin scraped or rubbed away by friction |
| contusion | a bruise; caused by a blow to the body that causes subcutaneous bleeding and does not disrupt the integrity of the skin |
| superficial burn | 1st degree burn, burns only the epidermis |
| deep partial-thickness burn | 2nd degree burn, extends into the dermis |
| full thickness burn | 3rd degree burn; throughout the dermis and epidermis, sometimes into the subcutaneous layer |
| rule of nines | a formula for estimating the percentage of adult body surface covered by burns |
| necrosis | localized tissue death that occurs in response to disease or injury |
| alopecia | baldness |
| diaphoresis | excessive sweating |
| hypothermia | condition in which the body temperature is below normal |
| hyperthermia | state in which an individual's body temperature is elevated above his or her normal range |
| dehiscence | rupture of a wound closure or the separation of a surgical incision |
| debridement | the removal of foreign material and dead or damaged tissue, especially from a wound |
| incision and drainage | opening of an infected wound and withdrawal of its fluids and discharges |
| adip/o | fat |
| cutane/o, derm/a | skin |
| derm/o, dermat/o | skin |
| kerat/o | horny or cornea |
| -derm | skin or germ layer |
| hidr/o | sweat |
| onych/o, ungu/o | nail |
| pil/o, trich/o | hair |
| seb/o | sebum |
| cry/o | cold |
| erythermat/o | erythema or redness |
| follicul/o | folliculi |
| heli/o | sun |
| ichthy/o | fish |
| necr/o | dead or death |
| rhytid/o | wrinkle |
| seps/o, sept/o | infection |
| xer/o | dry |
| -phoresis | transmission |
| order of draw | yellow, light blue, red, tiger topped, light green, lavender, and gray |
| yellow tube additive | sodium polyanetholsulfonate |
| light blue tube additive | sodium citrate |
| red tube additive | none- clot tube |
| tiger topped tube additive | Silicone Serum Separator (clot activator and thixotropic gel) |
| light green tube additive | heparin |
| lavender tube additive | EDTA |
| gray tube additive | potassium oxalate or sodium fluoride |
| yellow tube tests | blood cultures |
| light blue tube tests | Coagulation Studies- PT/INR, PTT, Bleeding Time, Fibrinogen, D-Dimer |
| red tube tests | blood chemistries, immunology, AIDS antibody, viral studies, serologic tests, blood grouping and typing |
| tiger topped tube tests | test requiring blood serum (electrolytes, enzymes, glucose, hormones, lipids, proteins) |
| light green tube tests | electrolyte studies, arterial blood gases |
| lavender tube tests | hematology studies (CBC, H/H, WBC, RBC, ESR, CK, Sickle cells) |
| gray tube tests | blood glucose, lactic acid |
| red bone marrow | functions in the formation of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets |
| yellow bone marrow | stores fat |
| diaphysis | the long shaft of the long bone |
| epiphysis | spongy bone that is covered by a thin layer of compact bone |
| periosteum | tough membrane that covers the bone |
| auditory ossicles | three tiny bones in each middle ear cavity |
| foramen magnum | opening at the base of the skull that which encloses and protects the brain |
| thoracic | pertaining to the thorax |
| xiphoid process | the smallest and lowermost part of the sternum, which is often used as a point of reference when examining the chest |
| intercostal | means between the ribs |
| plantar | relating to the sole of the sole of the foot |
| connective tissue | characterized by an abundance of intercellular material with relatively few cells; support and bind other body tissue and parts |
| articular | pertaining to a joint |
| synovial joints | freely movable joints |
| bursae | fluid -filled sacs that help reduce friction |
| tendons | bands of strong, fibrous tissue that attach muscles to the bones |
| ligaments | connect bones or cartilage and serve to support and strengthen joints |
| cartilage | translucent elastic tissue that, for the most part, is transformed into bone as the embryo matures |
| skeletal muscle | primary function of movement of the body and its parts and is voluntarily controlled by the nervous system |
| visceral muscle | located in the walls of organs and blood vessels; is involuntary and controlled by the autonomic nervous system |
| cardiac muscle | only located in the heart, and is involuntary |
| myocardium | another name for cardiac muscle |
| fascia | covers, supports, and separates muscles |
| extension | to straighten |
| flexion | to bend |
| abduction | drawing away from the midline of the body |
| adduction | drawing toward the midline of the body |
| rotation | movement of a bone around its own axis |
| supination | rotation that allows the palm of the hand to turn up |
| pronation | rotation that turns the palm of the hand backward |
| circumduction | circular movement of a limb at the far end |
| eversion | movement of the sole of the foot outward |
| reflex hammer | used to tap tendons, nerves, or muscles to test reflex reactions |
| bone scan | useful in demonstrating malignant bone tumors |
| lumbar puncture | performed for various therapeutic and diagnostic procedures |
| arthrography | Examination of the interior of a joint using x-rays following the injection of a radiopaque substance |
| arthroscope | fiberoptic instrument used for direct visualization of the interior of a joint |
| arthrocentesis | surgical puncture of a joint with a needle |
| myalgia | muscular pain |
| strain | damage, usually muscular, results from excessive physical force |
| sprain | traumatic injury to the tendons, muscles, or ligaments around a joint, characterized by pain, swelling, and discoloration of the skin over the joint |
| dislocation | displacement of a bone from a joint |
| fracture | a break in a bone |
| simple (closed) fracture | a bone is fractured but does not protrude through the skin |
| compound (open) fracture | the bone protrudes through the skin |
| greenstick fracture | incomplete fracture in which the bone is bent and fractured on one side only |
| impacted fracture | one bone fragment is firmly driven into the fractured end of another fragment |
| comminuted fracture | bone is broken into many small fragments |
| spiral fracture | bone is twisted apart |
| transverse fracture | the break in the bone is at right angles to the axis of the bone |
| atrophy | a decrease in the size of an organ or tissue |
| carpal tunnel syndrome | condition in which the median nerve in the wrist becomes compressed, causing pain and discomfort |
| herniated disk | rupture of an intervertebral disk |
| cellulitis | an acute, spreading swollen pus-forming inflammation of the deep subcutaneous tissues |
| osteomalacia | characterized by decalcification, a loss of calcium, and softening of the bone |
| osteoporosis | reduction in the amount of bone mass and increased porosity |
| spina bifida | congenital abnormality characterized by defective closure of the bones of the spine |
| muscular dystrophy | characterized by weakness and atrophy of muscle without involvement of the nervous system |
| anomaly | deviation from what is regarded as normal |
| kyphosis | abnormal convexity in the curvature of the thoracic spine as viewed from the side |
| lordosis | abnormal concavity of the lumbar spine as viewed from the side |
| scoliosis | lateral curvature of the spine |
| gout | systemic disease associated with an inborn error of uric acid metabolism |
| lyme disease | infection caused by the bite of an infected deer tick |
| blast/o, -blast | embryonic form |
| myel/o | bone marrow or spinal cord |
| oste/o | bone |
| cost/o | costae (ribs) |
| crani/o | crainum (skull) |
| rach/l, rachi/o, spin/o | vertebral or spinal column (spine, backbone) |
| spondyl/o, vertebr/o | vertebrae(spinal bones) |
| stern/o | sternum (breastbone) |
| cervic/o | cervical vertebrae (also cervical) |
| thorac/o | thoracic vertebrae |
| lumb/o | lumbar vertebrae |
| sacr/o | sacral vertebrae |
| coccyg/o | coccygeal vertebrae |
| clavicul/o | clavicle |
| scapul/o | scapula |
| calcane/o | calcaneus |
| femor/o | femur |
| metars/o | metatarsals |
| patell/o | patella |
| phalang/o | phalanx (pl. phalanges) |
| tars/o | tarsus |
| tibi/o | tibia |
| ili/o | ilium |
| ischi/o | ischium |
| pub/o | pubis |
| carp/o | carpus |
| humer/o | humerus |
| metacarp/o | metacarpals |
| radi/o | radius |
| uln/o | unla |
| arthr/o | joint |
| burs/o | bursa |
| chondr/o | cartilage |
| synov/o | synovial membrane |
| ten/o, tend/o | tendon |
| fasci/o | fascia |
| muscul/o | muscle |
| ankyl/o | stiff |
| scler/o | hard |
| troph/o | nutrition |
| -asthnia | weakness |
| -sarcoma | malignant tumor from connective tissue |
| -clasia | break |
| -desis | binding, fusion |
| central nervous system | consists of the brain and spinal cord |
| peripheral nervous system | consists of various nerves and nerve masses that connect the brain and spinal cord with receptors, muscles, and glands |
| neurons | conduct impulses either to or from the central nervous system |
| axon | carries impulses away from the cell body |
| dendrites | transmit impulses to the cell body |
| myelin sheath | a white lipid covering that is surrounded by many axons |
| synaptic bulb | releases a chemical neurotransmitter that either inhibits or enhances a nervous impulse |
| sensory neurons | transmit nerve impulses toward the spinal cord and the brain |
| motor neurons | transmit nerve impulses from the brain and the spinal cord |
| meninges | three membranes that protect the brain and spinal cord |
| cerebrospinal fluid | also protects the brain and the spinal cord |
| dura matter | the tough outer layer of the meninges |
| arachnoid mater | the middle layer of the meninges |
| pia mater | the innermost layer of the meninges |
| cerebrum | largest and uppermost portion of the brain |
| sciatic nerve | the largest nerve in the body |
| somatic tissues | skin and muscles that are involved in conscious activities |
| autonomic tissues | the visceral organs, such as the stomach and heart, which function without conscious effort |
| sympathetic nervous system | causes a series of physiologic responses called the fight-or-flight response |
| parasympathetic nervous system | counteracts the fight-or-flight response |
| conjunctiva | a mucous membrane that cover the inside of the eyelids and the anterior portion of the sclera |
| lacrimal gland | produces fluid (tears) that keeps the eye moist |
| sclera | tough outer layer of the eyeball; the white, opaque membrane covering most of the eyeball |
| cornea | the convex, transparent structure at the front of the eyeball that helps focus light rays entering the eye |
| iris | pigmented portion that accounts for blue, brown, gray, green, and combinations of these colors in eyes |
| retina | the innermost layer of the eye, contains photoreceptors that receive images of external objects |
| tympanic membrane | function of collecting sound waves and directing them into the ear |
| cochlea | contains receptors that enable us to hear |
| semicircular canals | enable us to maintain a sense of balance |
| audiometer | electronic device for measuring hearing |
| sleep apnea | sleep disorder characterized by short periods in which respiration is absent |
| electroencephalography | the process of recording the electric activity of the brain using an electroencephalograph |
| ophthalmoscopy | visual examination of the eyes using an ophthalmoscope |
| otoscopy | examination of the ear using an otoscope |
| sciatica | inflammation of the sciatic nerve |
| Glasgow coma scale | system for assessing the degree of conscious impairment in the critically ill and for predicting the duration and ultimate outcome of coma |
| stupor | patient is vaguely aware of the environment |
| coma | patient does not appear to be aware of the environment |
| cerebrovascular accident | another word for stroke |
| transient ischemic attack | symptoms include disturbance of normal vision, dizziness, and numbness; warning sign of a ischemic stroke |
| cerebral embolus | a plug of matter (usually a blood clot) brought by the blood to the cerebral artery |
| paralysis | the loss of muscle function, loss of sensation, or both and is a sign of an underlying problem |
| paraplegia | paralysis of the lower portion of the body and both legs |
| hemiplegia | paralysis of one side of the body |
| quadriplegia | paralysis of all four extremities |
| Bell palsy | facial paralysis |
| cerebral palsy |
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