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Anatomy & Physiology
Blood Part 1
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The _____, _____, and _____ _______ comprise the curculatory system that links the body's internal and external enviorment. | Blood, Heart, and Blood vessels |
| Heat, clotting proteins, transport proteins, urea, hormones, ions, biomarkers, cells, and cell fragments are all carried within _____. | Blood |
| ________ _______ within the blood help regulate pH of bodily fluids. | Chemical Buffers |
| Blood vessels in the skin _______ when temperature rises. Allowing heat to escape from blood to external environment | Dialate |
| Dissolved ____ and ______ determine osmotic pressure and the direction water moves among fluid compartments | Ions and Proteins |
| ______ _____ ____ fight foreign intruders | White blood cells |
| _______ in the blood assist in fighting foreign intruders | Antibodies |
| Blood ________ secrete chemicals that prevent blood loss, aid in tissue repair, and play a role in inflammation and immunity | Platelets |
| Hema- | Blood |
| Leuko- | White |
| Blood is the only connective tissue with a fluid extracellular matrix, called ______. | Plasma |
| The percentage of red blood cells in whole body is called the _____ | Hematocrit |
| Blood is a type of ________ tissue composed of an extracellular matrix called plasma surrounding a variety of cells. | Connective |
| As blood circulates, it transports inhaled __ from the lungs to body cells and __ from body cells to the lungs to be exhaled. | Oxygen Carbon dioxide |
| Hematopoietic stem cells, also called ______ , are responsible for the production of all formed elements of the blood | Hemocytoblasts |
| Hematopoiesis | Formation of blood cells |
| Hematopoietic Growth Factors | Stem cells that respond to different secreted growth factors that turn on some genes and turn off others |
| Erythrocytes | Red blood cells |
| The shape of blood cells places the cell membrane closer to oxygen-carrying _______ molecules in the cell, reducing distance for diffusion | Hemoglobin |
| Normal hemoglobin in Male and Female | Male: 13-18 G/100mL Female: 12-16 G/100mL |
| When hemoglobin combines with oxygen, the resulting ____________ is bright red. | Oxyhemoglobin |
| When oxygen is released from blood, the resulting __________ is darker red. | Deoxyhemoglobin |
| True or False: Because mature red blood cells lack nuclei, they cannot synthesize proteins or divide | True |
| RBC or RBCC | Red blood cell count |
| Typical range of RBC in Males and Females | Males: 4,700,000-6,100,000 Females: 4,200,000-5,400,000 |
| Changes in red blood cell count may affect health by altering the blood's _____-______ _________ | Oxygen carrying capacity |
| Erythropoiesis | Red blood cell formation |
| The average life span of a red blood cell is _____ _____. | 120 Days |
| Name the two cell types that directly result from the division of hematopoietic stem cells. | lymphoid stem cells myeloid stem cells |
| True or False: Red blood cells have abundant mitochondria | False |
| What is the main function of red blood cells? | Transport gases |
| Hematopoietic stem cells, or hemocytoblasts, are responsible for the production of all formed elements. Where are these cells located? | Red bone marrow |
| Which characteristic of red blood cells allows oxygen to more easily reach hemoglobin molecules within the cytoplasm? | the biconcave shape |
| Hemocytoblasts divide, giving rise to cells called _____ stem cells and ______ stem cells. | myeloid; lymphoid |
| Red blood cells, which transport oxygen throughout the body, are also known as _________. | Erythrocytes |
| List three characteristics of erythrocytes (red blood cells). | They lack mitochondria. They are biconcave discs. They are specialized for carrying oxygen. |
| Red blood cells are biconcave in shape. List three advantages that this shape confers upon the RBCs. | -cell membrane is close to hemoglobin molecules -cells can readily squeeze through narrow capillaries -increased surface area for diffusion of gases |
| The number of red blood cells generally ______ for several days following strenous exercise or an increase in altitude. | increases |
| Which type of cell cannot divide because it lacks a nucleus? | Mature Red Blood Cells |
| Name the process of red blood cell formation that occurs in bone marrow. | erythropoiesis |
| In an unborn baby, the process of _______ occurs in the yolk sac, liver, and spleen. After birth, this process occurs in the red bone marrow. (Use physiological terminology.) | erythropoiesis or hematopoiesis |
| The number of red blood cells can increase following ______. | increase in altitude strenuous exercise |
| What is the primary location for erythropoiesis in adults? | red bone marrow |
| What is the function of erythropoietin? | stimulate production of red blood cells |
| Prolonged low blood oxygen in adults causes the ______ and ______ to release erythropoietin (EPO), which in turn stimulates the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow. | kidneys; liver |
| In which three locations does erythropoiesis occur in the fetus? | yolk sac liver spleen |
| The hormone ______ controls the rate of red blood cell formation through a negative feedback mechanism. | Erythropoietin |
| Which three of the following are dietary factors required for erythropoiesis? | iron folic acid vitamin B12 |
| Why does the availability of B complex vitamins, such as folic acid and B12, influence erythropoiesis? | They are needed for DNA synthesis during cell division. |
| The availability of B-complex vitamins, vitamin ___ and ____ _____ are required for the DNA sequence | B12 and folic acid |
| _____ is required for hemoglobin synthesis | Iron |
| True or False: Hematopoietic stem cells frequently divide, they are vulnerable to to defiency with B12 and folic acid. | True |
| Lack of vitamn b12 is usually due to a disorder in the: | Stomach Lining |
| Parietal cells in the stomach secrete a substance called ________ _______ that is required to absorb B12. | Intrinsic Factor |
| A deficiency of red blood cells or reduction of them in hemoglobin is called: | Anemia |
| Damaged or worn red blood cells rupture as they pass through the ______ or ______. | Liver or spleen |
| In low oxygen conditions, the kidneys secrete the hormone ______, which functions to increase red blood cell production. | iron |
| Under what conditions does the rate of erythropoiesis increase? | oxygen levels in blood decrease |
| The hormone erythropoietin (EPO) controls the rate of red blood cell formation through __________ feedback mechanisms. | Negative |
| Sometimes vegetarians don't take in enough dietary iron. This could cause a condition called iron-deficiency ______. | anemia |
| What might be an effect of a dietary deficiency in iron or folic acid? | decreased rate of erythropoiesis |
| Iron is critical for the synthesis of ______ the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells. | hemoglobin |
| Prolonged low blood oxygen in adults causes the ______ and ______ to release erythropoietin (EPO), which in turn stimulates the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow. | Kidneys, Liver |
| List two underlying possible causes of anemia. | low blood levels of hemoglobin red blood cell deficiency |
| Anemia may be due to a deficiency in hemoglobin. The reduced hemoglobin production, in turn, can be caused by a dietary lack of ______. | iron |
| With the condition called ______, the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced. | Anemia |
| Which three of the following are dietary factors required for erythropoiesis? | Iron Vitamin B12 Folic Acid |
| Hemolytic anemia is characterized by ______. | a destruction of red blood cells |
| Why does the availability of B complex vitamins, such as folic acid and B12, influence erythropoiesis? | They are needed for DNA synthesis during cell division. |
| The condition resulting from bone marrow destruction due to radiation, medications, or cancer is called _________ anemia. | |
| Which type of anemia arises from destruction of bone marrow cells? | aplastic anemia |
| Because it is incorporated into the heme group, which nutrient is required for the synthesis of hemoglobin? | iron |
| Bacterial infections or blood transfusions incompatibilities destroy RBC's | Hemolytic Anemia |
| Deficiency of intrinsic factor from stomach causes inadequate vitamin B12 absorption | Pernicious anemia |
| Destruction of bone marrow by radiation, certain medications, cancer, viruses, and certain poisons | Aplastic Anemia |
| Dietary malnourishment, heavy menstruation, persistent bleeding ulcer | Iron-deficiency anemia |
| Variant in a gene resulting in abnormal hemoglobin structure Variant in a gene resulting in deficient hemoglobin; red blood cells short lived | Sickle cell anemia Thalassemia |
| Anemia is a class of conditions that have one thing in common: the blood can't carry enough | Oxygen |
| Iron is critical for the synthesis of _________, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells. | Hemoglobin |
| The spleen and the liver contain ______ that remove _____ from the blood. | macrophages; old erythrocytes |
| Explain why only old RBCs are destroyed in the spleen. | Old RBCs rupture in the narrow channels of the spleen because they are no longer flexible or resilient. |
| Hemolytic anemia is characterized by ______. | a destruction of red blood cells |
| In total, hemoglobin molecules are composed of ____ polypeptide chain(s) and heme group(s). (Give numbers.) | 4 |
| Which type of anemia arises from destruction of bone marrow cells? | aplastic anemia |
| After the heme decomposes into iron and biliverdin, iron then combines with a protein called ______ and is carried in the blood to the bone marrow | transferrin |
| Name the compounds secreted as bile pigments by the liver. | bilirubin and biliverdin |
| After hemoglobin is broken down into heme and globin, heme decomposes into iron (which is later recycled in the bone marrow) and a greenish pigment called ______ which will later be converted into ______. | biliverdin; bilirubin |
| Destruction of red blood cells leads to the breakdown of hemoglobin molecules. Breaking down hemoglobin releases ______. | four globin chains and four heme groups |
| Iron combines with a protein called ______ and is carried in the blood to the bone marrow. | transferrin |
| Mostly recycled to the bone marrow | Iron |
| Orange pigment that is secreted into bile or excreted by kidneys | Bilirubin |
| A greenish pigment that is eventually converted into an orange pigment or secreted into the bile | Biliverdin |
| Broken down into amino acids and recycled | Globin |
| The technical term for a white blood cell is | Leukocyte |
| Bilirubin and biliverdin are ______. | Bile Pigments |
| When red blood cells are destroyed, hemoglobin is decomposed into heme and globin. Heme is then decomposed into its two components, ________ and __________. | Iron, Biliverdin |
| The blood protein that is made up of four globin chains and four heme groups is | Hemoglobin |
| Which two products of red blood cell destruction are recycled for use in a new red blood cell? | Amino Acids Iron |
| Indicate which two statements describe the development of white blood cells. | They develop from hematopoietic stem cells. They develop in the red bone marrow. |
| The term _________ describes the movement of white blood cells (leukocytes) out of a blood vessel by squeezing between the cells of the blood vessel wall. | Diapedesis |
| ______ protect the body against disease. | White blood cells |
| Biochemicals released by leukocytes cause an increase in permeability of small blood vessels at sites where microorganisms have invaded human tissues. This ends in swelling, an accumulation of fluid in the interstitial spaces, and is called __ response. | Inflammatory or inflammation |
| When does positive chemotaxis occur? | when damaged cells release chemicals that attract leukocytes |
| As bacteria, leukocytes, and damaged cells accumulate in inflamed tissue, a thick fluid called may form and remain while the invading microorganisms are active. | Pus |
| Which components would be found in the thick fluid called pus that accumulates at an area of injury? | bacteria leukocytes damaged host cells |
| Diapedesis is the movement of leukocytes out of ______. | Blood vessels |
| When microorganisms invade tissues, leukocytes release chemicals that ______, producing swelling that delays the spread of pathogens to other areas of the body. | |
| Leukocytes circulating in blood are divided into two categories: three cell types are classified as _____ (with markedly granular cytoplasm) and two cell types are classified as ______ (with less obvious cytoplasmic granules). | granulocytes; agranulocytes |
| The process called ______ results in leukocytes being attracted to a site of tissue damage. They are attracted by chemicals released by damaged cells. | Positive chemotaxis |
| Biochemicals released by leukocytes cause an increase in permeability of small blood vessels at sites where microorganisms have invaded human tissues. This results in swelling, an accumulation of fluid in the interstitial spaces, and is called : | Inflammation |
| Leukocytes with granular cytoplasm are called _____, while those without distinctly-staining granules are called _______. | granulocytes agranulocytes |
| When does positive chemotaxis occur? | When damaged cells release chemicals that attract leukocytes |
| What distinguishes granulocytes from other types of white blood cells? | Visible granules are present in the cytoplasm. |
| Which components would be found in the thick fluid called pus that accumulates at an area of injury? | leukocytes damaged host cells bacteria |
| The leukocytes called ______ have nuclei that are lobed and have fine cytoplasmic granules that appear light purple in a neutral stain | Neutrophils |
| When microorganisms invade tissues, leukocytes release chemicals that ______, producing swelling that delays the spread of pathogens to other areas of the body. | make small blood vessels more permeable |
| Granulocytes and agranulocytes are two categories of ______. | leukocytes |
| Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils have granules in their cytoplasms, and are therefore classified as a type of leukocyte called ______. | granulocytes |
| Which type of leukocyte has also been called a polymorphonuclear leukocyte (PMN) because of the variation in the shape of the multilobed nucleus from cell to cell? | Neutrophil |
| The type of leukocyte that has a lobed nucleus (two to five segments) and fine cytoplasmic granules that appear light purple is called a(n) _________. | Neutrophil |
| Neutrophils and monocytes function as ______. | Phagocytes |
| Which organelle is abundant in neutrophils, allowing these cells to break down captured bacteria? | lysosomes |
| Indicate two characteristics of neutrophils | They are the most abundant leukocytes in a typical blood sample. They phagocytize bacteria. |
| List three characteristics of eosinophils. | They are granulocytes. They have a bilobed nucleus. They help moderate allergic reactions and inflammation. |
| The most mobile and active phagocytic white blood cells are the neutrophils and the ______. | monocytes |
| The type of leukocyte with a bilobed nucleus and deep red cytoplasmic granules is a(n) | Eosinophil |
| Neutrophils contain numerous copies of the organelle containing digestive enzymes, called the | Lysosome |
| Which type of leukocyte has also been called a polymorphonuclear leukocyte (PMN) because of the variation in the shape of the multilobed nucleus from cell to cell? | neutrophil |
| Basophils migrate to damaged tissues where they release ______ (which promotes inflammation) and ______ (which inhibits blood clotting). | histamine; heparin |
| Which is true of basophils? -They are the least abundant of the WBC types. -They are the most abundant WBC type. -They are not the rarest, nor the most abundant. | They are the least abundant of the WBC types. |
| The leukocytes called _______ function to moderate allergic reactions and inflammation, and also fight certain parasitic worm infestations. | eosinophils |
| The class of blood cells called ______ include lymphocytes, monocytes, neutrophils, ______, and ______. | leukocytes; eosinophils; basophils |
| Describe characteristics of an eosinophil. | large bilobed nucleus with deep red granules |
| The chemical called _____, released by white blood cells called _____, causes vasodilation to speed blood flow to the injured area. | histamine; basophils |
| Indicate two characteristics of basophils. | They release heparin. They release histamine. |
| Monocytes and lymphocytes are classified as ______. | agranulocytes |
| The type of leukocyte called _____ are the rarest of the leukocytes. | Basophils |
| List three characteristics of eosinophils. | -They have a bilobed nucleus. -They help moderate allergic reactions and inflammation. -They are granulocytes. |
| The type of leukocyte with a bilobed nucleus and deep red cytoplasmic granules is a(n) | Eosinophil |
| Monocytes are the ______ of the different types of leukocytes | Largest |
| A compound released by basophils that causes dilation of blood vessels is | histamine |
| Which two types of leukocytes are agranulocytes? | lymphocytes monocytes |
| The leukocytes called _____ function to moderate allergic reactions and inflammation, and also fight certain parasitic worm infestations. | Eosinophils |
| Usually the largest type of leukocyte (based on size) found circulating in the blood is the | Monocyte |
| The chemical called _____, released by white blood cells called _____, causes vasodilation to speed blood flow to the injured area. | histamine; basophils |
| Monocytes and lymphocytes are classified as ______. | agranulocytes |
| Monocytes make up about _____ of the leukocytes in a blood sample. | 3-9% |
| Monocytes are the ______ of the different types of leukocytes | largest |
| Describe a macrophage. | Originally a monocyte that has migrated into the tissues |
| The smallest white blood cells are the _____, which have a large round nucleus and a cytoplasm that lacks granules. | Lymphocytes |
| Indicate three characteristics of monocytes. | They transform into macrophages that can engulf large particles. They are the largest white blood cells. The shape of their nucleus is variable. |
| The major types of ______ are T-cells and B-cells, both important in immunity. | lymphocyte |
| White blood cells called _________ migrate into tissues and become macrophages which phagocytize bacteria, dead cells, and other debris. | Monocytes |
| What type of leukocyte accounts for about 25-33% of the circulating leukocytes? | lymphocytes |
| Indicate two characteristics of lymphocytes. | They are the second-most common leukocytes. They are agranulocytes. |
| What is the function of T lymphocytes? | Directly attack microorganisms and tumor cells |
| The major types of lymphocytes are _____ cells and ____ cells, which are important in immunity. | T ; B |
| Which type of lymphocyte produces antibodies that attack foreign molecules? | B Lymphocytes |
| Describe a macrophage. | originally a monocyte that has migrated into the tissues |
| What is the term for the condition in which there are too many white blood cells? | Leukocytosis |
| The smallest white blood cells are the _______, which have a large round nucleus and a cytoplasm that lacks granules | lymphocytes |
| The type of lymphocyte that produces antibodies is a(n) ___ cell. | B |
| What is suggested by an increased white blood cell count (WBCC)? | presence of infection |
| The condition called ______ is a WBC count below 3,500 cells per microliter. | leukopenia |
| The term for a white blood cell count above 10,500 cells per microliter is ______. | Leukocytosis |
| Which two statements describe a differential white blood cell count? | -useful for diagnosing whether an illness is due to a bacterial infection or allergic reaction -list of the percentages of the types of leukocytes in a blood sample |
| Which of the following would suggest the presence of an acute infection? | leukocytosis |
| Indicate two causes of leukopenia. | infections poisoning (lead, arsenic or mercury poisoning) |
| Condition and WBC: Bacterial Infection | Increase in Neutrophils |
| Condition and WBC: Parasitic Infection or Allergic Reaction | Increase in Eosinophils |
| Condition and WBC: HIV or AIDS | Decrease in lymphocytes |
| What is a differential white blood cell count? | The percentages of each type of leukocyte within a blood sample. |
| Which type of cell develops extensions that tear and produce cell fragments called platelets? | megakaryocyte |
| The alternative name for platelets is ______. | Thrombocytes |
| The number of ______ may increase during bacterial infections. The number of ______ may increase during parasitic infections or allergic reactions. The number of ______ may decrease in HIV infection and AIDS. | neutrophils; eosinophils; lymphocytes |
| Name the type of formed element that is important in the repair of damaged blood vessels. | Platelets |
| Platelets are fragments of very large cells called | Megakaryocytes |
| Which percentage of plasma is made up of water? | 92% |
| Which is an important function of platelets? | Help in repair of damaged blood vessels |
| Name the liquid part of the blood in which the cells and platelets are suspended. | Plasma |
| List four functions of plasma. | -transport nutrients and vitamins -transport gases -promote pH homeostasis -regulate fluid and electrolyte balance |
| The most abundant solutes in plasma are ______. | proteins |
| Albumin, fibrinogen, and globulins are the three main categories of _______. | Plasma proteins |
| Within the circulation, formed elements are suspended in liquid called | Plasma |
| Which is the most abundant type of plasma protein? | Albumin |
| The functions of ______ include transport of nutrients and gases, and regulation of pH. | Plasma |
| The _____ globulins function to transport fats, while the ______ globulins function as antibodies during an immune response. | alpha and beta; gamma |
| Which statement describes plasma proteins? -They determine blood type. -They are the most abundant solutes in plasma. -One function is to provide energy to blood cells. | They are the most abundant solutes in plasma. |
| Albumins, globulins, and fibrinogen are examples of plasma ______. | Proteins |
| The most important blood gases are _____ and carbon dioxide. | Oxygen |
| Which type of plasma protein functions as antibodies during immune responses? | gamma globulins |
| The most abundant solutes in plasma are ______. | Proteins |
| Define the term hemostasis. | stoppage of bleeding |
| List the three hemostatic mechanisms. | -blood clotting -vascular spasm -platelet plug formation |
| Name the two blood gases that are most important to homeostasis. | Carbon Dioxide Oxygen |
| Place the three main events of hemostasis in order, with the earliest event at the top | 1. Blood Vessel spasm 2. Platelet plug formation 3. Coagulation |
| Formation of a blood clot by the process of ___________ (use the physiological term) is the most effective hemostatic mechanism | Coagulation |
| What is the result of the process of coagulation? | formation of a blood clot |
| The term _____ is the general term that means the cessation (or stoppage) of bleeding | Hemostasis |
| Which of the following is the most effective in stopping the loss of blood? | blood clot formation |
| Vitamin _____ is vital to the function of certain clotting factors. | K |
| During blood clot formation, the soluble plasma protein called ______ is converted into the insoluble protein called ______. | fibrinogen; fibrin |
| Explain what leads to fibrin formation. | Fibrin is formed through catalytic activity of thrombin on fibrinogen. |
| The process of coagulation uses many biochemicals called ______ factors. | Clotting |
| Describe the function of fibrin. | Fibrin creates the framework of a blood clot. |
| Which of the following is necessary for some clotting factors to function? | vitamin K |
| Blood clot formation is an example of a _____ feedback mechanism. | Positive |
| Fibrinogen is the precursor to the insoluble protein _______ that is a major component of blood clots. | Fibrin |
| The term ________ is is the general term that means the cessation (or stoppage) of bleeding. | Hemostasis |
| The enzyme thrombin converts ______ to ______. | fibrinogen; fibrin |
| A blood clot is based on a mesh framework of the protein ______. | |
| How does normal blood circulation prevent coagulation from occurring in uninjured vessels? | The flow of blood prevents the build up of thrombin. |
| During blood clot formation, the soluble plasma protein called ______ is converted into the insoluble protein called ______. | fibrinogen; fibrin |
| What is serum? | plasma from which fibrinogen has been removed |
| Explain what leads to fibrin formation. | Fibrin is formed through catalytic activity of thrombin on fibrinogen. |
| In certain circumstances, a stationary blood clot called a(n) ____ can form in blood vessels. | thrombus |
| Describe the function of fibrin. | Fibrin creates the framework of a blood clot. |
| Which molecule is the precursor to fibrin? | fibrinogen |
| A blood clot (or a fragment of a blood clot) that breaks free and travels in the bloodstream is called a(n) | embolus or emboli |
| What is one result of fibrinogen being converted to fibrin? Thrombin is converted to postthrombin. Serum within the clot becomes plasma. Thrombin within the clot becomes serum. Plasma within the clot becomes serum. | Plasma within the clot becomes serum. |
| Indicate three characteristics of heparin. | blocks formation of prothrombin activator secreted by mast cells secreted by basophils |
| A blood clot that has formed within a blood vessel in the absence of any tissue damage is called a(n) ______. | thrombus |
| A blood clot is based on a mesh framework of the protein ______. | fibrin |
| What is an embolus? | a blood clot that breaks free and travels in the blood stream |
| The substance secreted by basophils and mast cells that blocks the action of thrombin is called | Heparin |
| In certain circumstances, a stationary blood clot called a(n) ____ can form in blood vessels. | thrombus |
| What is an antigen? | Any molecule that triggers an immune response |
| Molecules produced against antigens during immune responses are called | Antibody |
| Blood type is determined by the presence or absence of a(n) ________ on the surface of red blood cells | Antigen |
| Indicate three characteristics of heparin. | -secreted by mast cells -secreted by basophils -blocks formation of prothrombin activator |
| When the immune system encounters a(n) __ not found on the body's own cells, it will respond by synthesizing __ against it. | antigen; antibodies |
| The ABO blood group is based on the presence or absence of ______ on red blood cell membranes. | Antigen A and Antigen B |
| Which antigen combination does not occur in the ABO blood typing system? -A and B antigens only -A antigens only -neither antigen A nor antigen B -B antigens only -A, B, and O antigens only | A, B, and O antigens only |
| Persons with ______ blood have anti-B antibodies in their plasma. Those with ______ blood have anti-A antibodies. | type A; type B |
| What is an antibody? | Molecule produced during immune response that binds to an antigen |
| The most common type of blood typing test is based on the presence or absence of which erythrocyte-bound antigens? | A antigens and B antigens |
| Individuals with which ABO blood type(s) would have anti-A antibodies present in their blood plasma? | type B and type O |
| Select the four possible combinations of antigens that determine ABO blood type. | neither Antigen A nor Antigen B antigen A only both Antigen A and Antigen B antigen B only |
| Patients with type B blood should receive transfusions of blood type ___ or type __ in order to avoid the agglutination that occurs with a transfusion reaction. | B,O |
| Individuals with which ABO blood type(s) would have anti-B antibodies present in their blood plasma? | type A and type O |
| An individual whose red blood cells have antigen A on their surface should ideally receive blood from a person whose blood contains anti-A antibody. True or False | False |
| Individuals with ______ blood are sometimes called universal donors because their red blood cells have _____ antigens on their surface. | type O; neither A nor B |
| List three characteristics of type O blood. | Plasma contains antibodies against antigens A and B. RBCs have neither A nor B antigens. Can be donated to any other ABO blood type. |
| Because they have neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies, individuals with type AB blood can receive any blood type in a transfusion. | AB |
| Type O blood can be given to which recipients? | recipients with types A, B, AB, and O |
| Persons with ______ blood have neither antigen A nor antigen B on their red blood cells but have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their plasma. | O |
| The _____ blood group includes the D antigen | Rh |
| The _____ blood group includes the D antigen | AB; universal recipient |
| Individuals with ______ blood are sometimes called universal donors because their red blood cells have _____ antigens on their surface. | type O; neither A nor B |
| True or false: Rh-negative female is pregnant with an Rh+ fetus, it may be uneventful. If a successive pregnancy involves an Rh+ fetus, maternal anti-Rh antibodies can destroy fetal red blood cells and cause erythroblastosis fetalis. | True |
| If a woman who has developed anti-Rh antibodies becomes pregnant with a second Rh+ fetus, the antibodies in her blood may pass through the placenta and react with the red blood cells of the fetus. The fetus then develops a condition called _________, | erythroblastosis fetalis |
| In blood typing, "Rh" refers to one of several ______ located on red blood cell membranes. | Antigen |
| In order to prevent erythroblastosis fetalis, an Rh- woman pregnant with an Rh+ fetus is given anti-Rh ______, usually within 72 hours of possible contact with Rh+ fetal cells. | Antibodies |
| When red blood cells lack the Rh antigen, the blood type is designated as "Rh ______." | Negative |
| Erythroblastosis fetalis (hemolytic diseases of the newborn) occurs when anti-Rh antibodies cross the placenta and attack _______. | fetal red blood cells |
| Why are Rh- women given anti-Rh antibodies before and within hours after delivering an Rh+ baby? | The antibodies bind to any fetal red blood cells present in the mother, preventing sensitization of her immune system. |
| A red blood cell has on its surface the A antigen, the B antigen, but no Rh antigen. What is the blood type? | AB- |
| The lymphatic system is important for which three functions? | absorption of fats maintaining extracellular fluid balance protection against disease |
| Which root word means "self"? | auto- |
| The function of a lacteal is to absorb ______. | fat |
| Which component of the lymphatic pathway has walls that are comprised of only simple squamous epithelium? | lymphatic capillaries |
| Which type of lymphatic vessel is found in networks that parallel the blood capillaries? | lymphatic capillaries |
| Which body system maintains fluid balance, absorbs lipids, and protects the body against pathogens? | lymphatic system |
| The fluid contained in lymphatic vessels, which originates as tissue fluid, is called | lymph |
| Describe the composition of the wall of lymphatic capillaries. | single layer of squamous epithelial cells |
| Lymphatic ______ are microscopic, closed-ended tubes found within interstitial spaces. | capillaries |
| What is the role of the semilunar valves in the lymphatic vessels? | prevent the backflow of lymph |
| Lymph is the fluid found ______. | within lymphatic capillaries |
| The function of a lacteal is to absorb ______. | Fat |
| The specific lymphatic trunk that receives lymph drainage from the lower limbs, lower abdominal wall, and the pelvic organs is known as the ________ trunk. | Lumbar |
| Which component of the lymphatic pathway has walls that are comprised of only simple squamous epithelium? | lymphatic capillaries |
| Which type of lymphatic vessel is found in networks that parallel the blood capillaries? | lymphatic capillaries |
| Which lymphatic trunk drains the abdominal viscera | intestinal trunk |
| The thorax is drained by the ______ trunk and the ______ trunk. | -intercostal -bronchomediastinal |
| The fluid inside lymphatic capillaries is called ______. | lymph |
| Lymph from the upper limb is drained by the ______ trunk. | subclavian |
| Which of the following structures is NOT drained by the segment of the lymphatic pathway called the lumbar trunks? lower abdominal wall lower limbs pelvic organs thoracic cavity | thoracic cavity |
| The jugular trunk drains the ______ and ______. abdomen head lower limbs right upper limb neck | head neck |
| Lymph from lymphatic trunks empties into the one of the two ______. | collecting ducts |
| The region drained by the intercostal and bronchomediastinal lymphatic trunks is the ______ , region. | Thoracic |
| As part of the lymphatic pathway, the subclavian trunks drain what region of the body? | upper limbs |
| Indicate which of the lymphatic trunks empty into the thoracic duct. | -lumbar trunks -intestinal trunk -intercostal trunks -left subclavian trunk |
| In the progression from smaller to larger components of the lymphatic pathway, the lymphatic _______ join one of two collecting ______. | Trunks Ducts |
| The thoracic duct empties into the left ______ vein. | Subclavian |
| The intestinal, intercostal, and lumbar lymphatic trunks drain into the ______ duct. | thoracic |
| Lymph from lymphatic trunks empties into the one of the two ______. | collecting ducts |
| Into which blood vessel does the thoracic duct empty? | left subclavian vein |
| List three areas drained by the thoracic duct. right side of thorax, head, and neck left side of thorax, head, and neck abdomen lower limbs right upper limb | -left side of thorax, head, and neck -abdomen -lower limbs |
| The ______ is formed by the convergence of the right jugular trunk, right subclavian trunk, and right bronchomediastinal trunk. | |
| Lymphatic trunks converge to form the largest of the segments of the lymphatic pathway, called ______. | collecting ducts |
| Into what blood vessel does the right lymphatic duct drain? | right subclavian vein |
| -left lower limb -left upper limb -Abdomen -Left side of head/neck -right lower limb | Drains into thoracic duct |
| -Right upper limb -Right Head/Neck -Right side of thorax | Drains into right lymphatic duct |
| The right lymphatic duct receives lymph from which lymphatic trunks? -right subclavian trunk -right lumbar trunk -intestinal trunk -right jugular trunk -left subclavian trunk -left lumbar trunk -left jugular trunk | right subclavian trunk right jugular trunk |
| The collecting ducts empty into ______, returning the fluid from the interstitium back to the blood circulation. | veins |
| Lymph from lymphatic trunks empties into the one of the two ______. | collecting ducts |
| Excess tissue fluid resulting from the failure of proper lymphatic drainage is called ________ | Edema |
| The right lymphatic duct empties into the right ______. | Subclavian vein |
| The ______ is formed by the convergence of the right jugular trunk, right subclavian trunk, and right bronchomediastinal trunk. | right lymphatic duct |
| True or False: Filtration of fluid from plasma normally exceeds reabsorption, leading to the formation of tissue fluid. | True |
| After lymph leaves the two collecting ducts, it enters the ______ system and becomes part of the plasma | Venous |
| Edema is the ______. | accumulation of excess tissue fluid |
| Which of the following is NOT a mechanism that facilitates the movement of lymph fluid within lymphatic vessels? -pressure changes during breathing -cardiac pumping -skeletal muscle contraction -smooth muscle contraction in lymphatic trunks | cardiac pumping |
| Into what blood vessel does the right lymphatic duct drain? left subclavian vein right subclavian vein left subclavian artery right subclavian artery | right subclavian vein |
| Which factor regulates the movement of tissue fluid into lymphatic capillaries? | increased tissue fluid hydrostatic pressure |
| List three functions of lymph. | transport dietary fats to the bloodstream return to the bloodstream most of the small proteins filtered by the blood capillaries transport foreign particles to lymph nodes |
| A compound released by basophils that causes dilation of blood vessels is | |
| There are __ polypeptide "Globin" chains, each surrounding a _____ group | 4; heme |
| About 80% of the iron is stored in the liver cells in the form of iron-protein complex called ______ | Ferritin |
| Damaged Cells release chemicals that attract _________. | Leukocytes |
| Which WBC is the most abundant and accounts for 50% to 70% of WBC | Neutrophils |
| What WBC is the first to show up at an infection site? | Neutrophils |
| Neutrophils aggressively kill bacteria by creating a _____ ____, a toxic chemical cloud of oxidizing agents such as hydrogen peroxide and bleach around the bacteria | Respiratory Burst |
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