Save
Busy. Please wait.
Log in with Clever
or

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 
Sign up using Clever
or

Username is available taken
show password


Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
Your email address is only used to allow you to reset your password. See our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.


Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.
focusNode
Didn't know it?
click below
 
Knew it?
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

AAPC CPC chapter 7

Integumentary

QuestionAnswer
Table of neoplasms columns: Primary and _____ malignancy, Ca In Situ, _____ and uncertain behavior, unspecified behavior secondary, benign
Secondary malignancy: cancer spreads and ______ to Metastasizes
Ca In Situ: cancer is ____ and hasn't spread. Uncertain behavior neoplasms table: lesion whose behavior ____ be predicted. Currently benign but chance it could go malignant. encapsulated, cannot
Unspecified behavior neoplasms table: no _____ report indicating what the lesion is. pathology
Skin infections: bacterial or fungal. Common bacterial- ______, carbuncles, cellulitis, lymphandentitis, etc. Common fungal- athletes foot, jock itch, _____ etc. impetigo, ringworm
Furnuncles: (boils) cutaneous abcesses, typically caused by staphylococcus. Several Furnuncles together make up a _____ carbuncle
Although contagious, carbuncles _____ usually without treatment heal
Lymphangitis: infection of lymph _____, can be from acute streptococcal infection of skin superimposed on an existing staphylococcal infection. vessels
Lymphangitis: can be a sign that skin infection is getting _____. Code based on location then whether it's _____ lymphangitis or cellulitis. worse, acute
Pilonidal cyst: a cyst, fistual, or sinus under skin at bottom of ____. Can have hair, debris and other abnormal tissue. If becomes infected it's considered an _____ tailbone, abcess
Seborrheic dermatitis: scaly, itchy, red. Typically on ____. Adults- dandruff, Child- cradle ______ scalp, cap
Atopic dermatitis: _____. Contact dermatitis: caused by _____ irritant. Code depends on the irritant causing reaction. When irritant is a ____or other irritant, cause code is reported in addition to the dermatitis Eczema, external, drug
Actinic Keratosis (solar keratosis) caused by _____ exposure. Scaly, crusty lesion sometimes resembling a wart. Pre ______, first step to leading possible squamous cell carcinoma. sun, cancerous
Seborrheic Keratosis: benign growth, typically not forming into _____ cancer
Pressure ulcers: Stage 1- persistant focal edema. Stage 2- partial thickness loss, epidermis, ______ or both. dermis
Pressure Ulcers: Stage 3- ____ thickness loss, damage or necrosis of sub Q layer. Stage 4- necrossis of _____ tissue extending to muscle, tendon, bone. full, soft
Keloid scar: excess _____ of connective tissue during healing process growth
Burns: 1st degree- epidermis. 2nd degree- epidermis, dermis ____, partial thickness. 3rd degree- epidermis, dermis, sub q, _____ and at times bone. sub q, muscle
TBSA: Category T 31. Rule of ____ to calucate this. nines
Benign mammory dysplasia: abnormal _____. Most common is _____ disease or cysts. tissue, fibrocystic
FNA: Fine needle aspiration, based on imaging _____ is used and type for coding CPT. Add-on codes for each additional lesion that uses the same imaging guidance. guidance
When FNA is done on different lesion during _____ encounter that uses differnt type of imaging guidance, modifier _____ reported. same, 59
When debridement with tissue removed, etc. pay close attention to ____ area being treated and how much tissue etc. being removed. body
NSTI: necrotizing soft tissue _____. infection
Debridement is not inclued in Global package of treating fracture/dislocation since debridement and treatment of fracture are ____ procedures. separate
If multiple areas of same depth debrided, ____ the surface areas of the wound to select code. add
Debridement: Modifier 59 for multiple sites may be necessary to distinguish separately indentifiable procedures done during same _____ or same day. session
Healing ridge: upon palpatation, induration (hardening) around wound, ____ skin. Expected positive sign. beneath
Sinus tract: course of tissue destruction from surface or edge of wound, ____ space with potential for abcess formation. dead
Undermining: tissue destruction, extends under the intact ____ skin
Pairing or cutting: corns, calluses and keratosis. Code selecting is based on how many ____. lesions
When more than 1 biopsy done by ____ techniques during same procedure only 1 primary biopsy code reported then add-on codes for other techniques. different
Additional biopsies reported with add-on codes for each _____ biopsy lesion. additional
When pathology says "uncertain morphology" choose procedure code for which lesion _____ was performed. removal
Shaving of skin: code based on body _____ and size area
Removal of lesions by excision: codes selected based whether lesion is ____ or malignant. benign
Hidradentis: inflammation of ____ glands sweat
Removal of malignant skin lesions: use code for _____ of removal method
Electrofulguration: removal/destroying of tissue with high frequency ____ current. electric
Elliptical excision: doctor marks the _____ externally before. skin
Excisions: lesion widest ______ for reporting. diameter
For certain repairs _____ is measured. length
Skin grafts size of recipient site in _____ centimeters. square
Melanoma: measured in thickness known as Breslow's ____- Clark's Level ( 5 levels) Depth
Pilonidal cyst: code selected based on whether excision is ____, extensive or complicated. simple
Tattooing for breast reconstruction measure in ____ centimeters. square
Reparied wound must be measured in _____. If adhesive strips used, use E/M in addition. centimeters
Repair codes: 1st group wounds by ____ of repair (simple, intermediate, complex) then by anatomical site. type
When multiple wounds need some type of repair, listed in ____ anatomical region, add lengths of each wound and report as _____ item. same, single
More than 1 classification of wound repaired: list more _____ wound 1st followed by less complicated and add modifier 59 to each procedure after the 1st. complicated
For excision of benign and malignant lesions requiring more than simple ____, report 11400-11446 or 11600-11646 in addition to appropriate closure code. closure
If repairs involve nerves, blood vessels or tendons: code selected from correct _____ (nervous, cardiovascular or musculoskelatal). Exploration of nerves, blood vessels or exposed tendon considered ____ of repair. system, part
Using adjacent tissue transfer or rearrangement for wound repairs: adjacent tissue tranfer involves primary and secondary ____, both are reparied in the procedure. defect
Secondary defect is created from tissue movement ____ to close primary defect. Include both primary and secondary defects as part of ______ for this repair. needed, measurements
Tissue transfer codes: choose code accoding to size of ____ or wound needed to be covered. defect
When 2 different lesions removed from 2 different locations and adjacent tissue repair closes on wound and ______ close other wounds: both services may be reported since 2 different lesions excised. sutures
2 different lesions removed from 2 different locations, one closed with sutures: when reporting, CPT modifier _____ used to indicate different procedure and not inclued in tissue transfer. Square centimeters. 59
Composite graft: more than 1 type of _____ tissue
Derma-Fascia-Fat-Graft: smooth out _____ created secondary to surgically created defects or atrophy. blemishes
Heterograft: graft between 2 _____ species
Rotation flap: flap ____ over the defect. Slip thickness graft: epidermis and ____ part of dermis pivoted, small
Skin replacement surgery and skin substitutes: multiple wounds- add surface _____ of all wounds from anatomical site that are grouped together into same code descriptor. Skin substitute graft: append modifier _____ area, 58
Determining how much body surface involved: based on _____ square cm for adults and 1 percentage of body area for kids under 10 yrs old. 100
Each free flap code includes: elevation of flap, inset of flap into _____ site. Microvascular anastomosis of one _____. Transfer of flap to recipient site, microvascular anastomosiss of one or 2 _____ recipient, artery, veins
When fat's removed using direct excision or liposuction: reported based on ____of where the graft placed, not where fat ______. location, harvested
Blepharoplasty: HCPCS modifier for eyelid surgery performed on: example ____-upper left eyelid. If bilateral modifier 50 can be used. E1
Removal of staples/sutures: code based on whether _____ used. These are in addition to E/M code. anesthesia
Pressure ulcer In preparation for muscle or myocutaneous flap or skin graft closure code use addition code for ____ in addition to pressure sore procedure procedure
When reporting skin graft following debridment: code for debridement then skin ____. graft
Burn repair by autologus cultured human Epithelium: unburned epidermal _____ cultured into sheets, attached to petruleum gauze squares. cells
Destruction: ablasion of tissues by any method with or without curettage, including _____ anesthesia and usually not requiring closure. local
Destruction: if lesions destroyed from multiple body sites, more than 1 _____ required. code
Mohs Micrographic Surgery: surgeon acting in 2 distinct roles- 1st surgeon and 2nd as _______ pathologist
Mohs Micrographic Surgery: removes tumor tissue, maps and _____ it into peices. Pieces examined under microscope, if + margins are present the surgeon returns for another _____ and begins again. divides, portion
Mohs Micrographic Surgery: each time surgeon removes a portion of the _____ it is refered to as a stage. Each stage is divided into tissue _____. tumor, blocks
Breast biopsy: percutaneous (needle) with or without _____ guidance. imaging
Radical (mastectomy): breast tissue of skin, nipple, areola, _____, lymph nodes, pectoralis major and minor muscles removed. axillary
Urban (mastectomy): similiar to radical but includes internal _____ lymph nodes. mammory
Breast biopsy and mastectomy on same day and same operative session: if malignancy diagnosed perviously by biopsy and surgeon takes breast tissue ____ mastectomy to examine for malignancy: biopsy not coded _____ when mastectomy also perfomed. after, separately
Breast biopsy and mastectomy on same day and same operative session: the biopsy is "subsumed" as part of the ____ operation and not coded separately. larger
Breast biopsy and mastectomy on same day and same operative session: use of an operating _____ is inclusive to codes 19364 and 19368 and are not reported separately. microscope
CPT code 19302 includes sentinel _____ removal. node
Placement of breast localization devices- clip, metallic pellet, wire, etc. are differentiated by type of _____ being used. guidance
Mastopexy: surgery to ____ breast lift
Photodynamic therapy: ablasion of tumorous tissue by _____ of photoactive drugs. activation
______: exposing skin to ultraviolet light. Actenotherapy
PUVA (Psoralens ultraviolet A treatment)- photochemotherapy. Patient under direct ______ supervision for 4-8 hrs. doctor
HCPCS level II modifier 25: significant, separately identifiable E/M service by ____ physician or healthcare professional on the same day of procedure or other service. same
HCPCS level II modifier 50: _____ procedure bilateral
HCPCS level II modifier ____: staged or related procedure or service by the same physician or healthcare professional during post op period. 58
When repeat debridement is done or fracture care performed on the date other than the date fo the debridement add modifier ____ to treatment codes to indicate it was related procedure. 58
Modifier 59: distinct procedural service. When evacuation of subungal hematoma is reported on more than 1 ____ during same session. nail
In the treatment of burns, if physician performs dressings/debridement at different sessions or patient encounters the same procedure on same date modifier ____ may be used. 59
Always place a (-) dash _____ CPT and modifier and between multiple modifiers between
Use modifiers on CPT (procedure) codes _____ on ICD codes not
Never put modifier on _____ level I and II code ICD
Report modifiers that affect ____ 1st payment
Report informational modifiers such as right and left ____. Ex: 71100-26-LT last
Code procedure with ____ complexity 1st unless specified in guidelines. Check RVU's on the order. highest
List ICD codes based on guidelines order, if no guideline use the order they _____ in assessment/impression. appear
1st the diagnosis must give medical _____ to procedure code. necessity
Exteranal cause codes are _____ coded in 1st position. never
Bilateral procedure use modifier _____ 50
Modifier ____ appended to additional procedures performed during the same session. 51
Created by: mlovest
Popular Medical sets

 

 



Voices

Use these flashcards to help memorize information. Look at the large card and try to recall what is on the other side. Then click the card to flip it. If you knew the answer, click the green Know box. Otherwise, click the red Don't know box.

When you've placed seven or more cards in the Don't know box, click "retry" to try those cards again.

If you've accidentally put the card in the wrong box, just click on the card to take it out of the box.

You can also use your keyboard to move the cards as follows:

If you are logged in to your account, this website will remember which cards you know and don't know so that they are in the same box the next time you log in.

When you need a break, try one of the other activities listed below the flashcards like Matching, Snowman, or Hungry Bug. Although it may feel like you're playing a game, your brain is still making more connections with the information to help you out.

To see how well you know the information, try the Quiz or Test activity.

Pass complete!
"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
Retries:
restart all cards