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Pharm Test

Pharmacology Test

Antacids work by.... neutralizing the acid in the stomach
Main elements in antacids include.... magnesium hydroxide, calcium carbonate, and aluminum hydroxide
magnesium hydroxide... causes diarrhea relieving constipation
calcium carbonate... can cause constipation and helps strengthen bones
aluminum hydroxide.... can cause constipation
This antacid is referred to as a laxative: milk of magnesia
This brand antacid is potent, fast acting, and helps strengthen bones: Tums
Aluminum hydroxide is commonly mixed with.... magnesium hydroxide
Describe H2 blockers: reduce stomach acid by blocking histamines commonly used for severe heartburn and duodenal ulcers
Proton Pump Inhibitor definition: limit stomach acid by shutting down the acid pumps by blocking an enzyme in the cells themselves
GERD stands for: Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease
A common brand name PPI used to treat GI bleeds intravenously: Protonix
A common generic name H2 blocker used in the hospital setting as well as an over-the-counter: ranitidine
calcium carbonate Tums
ranitidine Zantac
omepraozole Prilosec
pantoprazole Protonix
sucralfate Carafate
Antiemetics are: medications that reduce the urge to vomit
A common brand name antiemetic used in the hospital setting for chemo induced nausea/vomiting: Zofran
Describe Reglan: classified as an antiemetic , works on the brain to relieve N & V generic name is metoclopramide comes in PO and IV
Seton drugs treat: chemo induced nausea/vomiting
Taking insulin is.... NOT a common treatment for Type 2 diabetes
rosglitazone Avandia
metformin Glucophage
glyburide Micronase
glyburide/metformin Glucovance
How is insulin most frequently administered? Injected
Truths about insulin: lowers blood glucose levels is used to treat Type 1 and 2 diabetes usually administered subcutaneously
A common short-acting insulin: Novolin R
A common long-acting insulin: Lantus
HYPOthyroidism is treated with: synthetic forms of thyroid hormones
What is the brand name for levothyroxine? Synthroid
This IUD contains copper and is non-hormonal: ParaGard
This form of birth control is administered as an IM injection: Depo-Provera
Birth control can be used for: preventing pregnancy endometriosis menopause symptoms
This generic drug can ripen the cervix and treat ulcers: misoprostol
A common brand name drug used to increase egg production: Clomid
Cardiovascular drugs are used to improve: the function of the heart and blood vessels treating angina and hypertension treating CHF and arrhythmias
True or False: Antihypertensives lower blood pressure by interrupting nerve impulses to the brain or causing blood vessels to tighten and narrow False
lisinopril is classified as: an ACE inhibitor
valsartan is classified as: an ARB
ACE inhibitor stands for: Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitor
Which class of antihypertensives are prescribed when patients cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors? ARBs
Which diuretic is commonly used in combination with andiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)? hydrochlorothiazide
Which diuretic inhibits active exchange of sodium, chloride, and potassium in the cortical diluting segment of the ascending loop of Henle? thiazide diuretics
Which diuretics can cause hypokalemia? Loop and Thiazide Diuretics
Potassium-sparing diuretics are referred to as: "weak diuretics"
A common brand name loop diuretic used in hospital settings: Lasix
A common brand name beta blocker: Coreg
Grapefruit and grapefruit juice is a listed drug-food interaction with which drug class? Calcium channel blockers
lisinopril Zestril
diltiazem Cardizem
spironolactone Aldactone
amlodipine Norvasc
valsartan Diovan
digoxin Lanoxin
metoprolol Lopressor
A common antiarrhythmic available IV and Oral: amiodarone
metoprolol is also used to treat: arrhythmia
What are the most common prescribed cholesterol-lowering drugs? statins
A lowering triglyceride agent: niacin
A common brand name statin: Lipitor
Rhabdomyolysis "joint pain" is a common side effect to.... the statin class
A common generic IV vasodilator used in the hospital settings: hydralazine
The first vasodilator used to treat "heart pain": nitroglycerin
Which antihypertensive class is used to treat Raynaud's Disease? calcium channel blockers
Anti-infective drugs include: antibiotics, antivirals, antiparasitics and antifungals
Antibiotics: drugs that kill or injure bacteria
Antivirals: treat viral infections
Antifungals: treat fungal infections
Cytotoxic drugs: kill or damage normal healthy cells
Corticosteroids: a hormone naturally produced in the adrenal glands
Broad-spectrum antibiotics is defined as: effective against many different kinds of bacteria
Penicillins: a distinct class of anitbiotics commonly prescribed to treat a variety of infections and sometimes combined with other drugs to improve effectivenss
Cephalosporins: broad-spectrum, similar to penicillin but used on strains of bacteria that have become resistant to penicillin
Lincosamides: works similar to macrolides
Tetracyclines: broad-spectrum with increase bacterial resistance
Quinolones: broad-spectrum antibiotics that work on bacteria by disrupting bacterial DNA, and therefore replication
Antibiotics sometimes cause what in women? yeast infections
A common generic penicillin prescribed to children with ear infections: amoxicillin
A common brand name IV cephalosporin given to patients prior to certain scheduled procedures: Ancef
How many generations of cephalosporins? Five
A common brand name antibiotic to treat pulmonary infections and safe to use in penicillin allergic patients: Augmentin
A common generic antibiotic used in the hospital setting to treat pneumonia intravenously: cefepime
Which drug can be utilized to treat hospital acquired pneumonia intravenously in a true penicillin allergic patient despite recent FDA safety warnings? levofloxacin (Levoquin)
Which drug can be referred to as a "drug of last resort" vancomycin
Antiretrovirals are the entire class of: antivirals to treat HIV
A common brand name antiviral used to treat or prophylaxis against influenza? Tamiflu
Which drug is used for HIV exposure? zidovudine
A common brand name antifungal agent that can be administered intravenously or in a pill formulation: Diflucan
Truths about nystatin: available in powder, cream, ointment and oral suspension treats "thrush" classified as a antifungal agent
Pencillin allergic patients have what percentage chance of having an allergic reaction when taking a cephalosporin? 10%
Cytotoxics are often used in: chemotherapy
What cytotoxic agent has other non-chemo indications such as rheumatoid arthritis, ectopic pregnancy: methotrexate
The most commonly prescribed oral corticosteroid is: prednisone
cephalexin Keflex
azithromycin Zithromax
ciprofloxacin Cipro
vancomycin Vancocin
oseltamivir Tamiflu
clindamycin Cleocin
clotrimazole Lotrimin
dexamethasone Decadron
What antibiotic is used if a patient becomes resistant to vancomycin? linezoid (Zyvox)
Drug classification can be done: a variety of ways, such as by chemical components, disease or disorder treated, side effects, drug action, or some combination of factors
Drugs can fit into: multiple categories in a classification system
ASHP stands for: American Society of Health-System Pharmacist
Health system facilities are required to maintain a formulary and retain a certain number of medications available for patients. True or False? True
Which organization maintains the drug schedules for controlled substance in the US? Drug Enforcement Administration
Ibuprofen is a: non-narcotic analgesic drug
acetaminophen definition: good in treating mild-moderate pain and a fever reducer
aspirin Bayer
acetaminophen Tylenol
ibuprofen Motrin
naproxen Aleve
indomethacin Indocin
NSAID is an acronym for: nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
NSAID classified as a COX-2 Inhibitor: celecoxib (Celebrex)
COX-2 Inhibitors decrease pain with a.... much lower risk of adverse GI events
narcotics definition: derived from the opium poppy, and work on the brain to relieve pain tend to cause drowiness and a feeling a euphoria highly addictive
Most narcotic medications are not purely opioid; they're mixtures of opioids and other ingredients, designed to alleviate pain. True or False? True
oxycodone and acetaminophen Percocet
oxycodone OxyContin
hydrocodone and acetaminophen Vicodin
meperidine Demerol
tramadol Ultram
Describe general anesthesia: is an analgesic, paralytic and anmesic
nitrous oxide (laughing gas) is NOT a intravenous anesthesia drug
midazolam (Versed) is NOT considered a straight anesthetic
A common injectable anticoagulant: heparin
Brand name of a common anticoagulant: Coumadin
Brand name of a common injectable anticoagulant: Lovenox
Both heparin and enoxaparin can be prescribed to prevent and/or treat DVTs and PEs. True or False? True
What anticoagulant requires monthly (sometimes weekly) lab draws? warfarin (Coumadin)
Drugs classified as a NOAC: dabigatran apixaban Xarelto
NOAC stands for: Noval Oral Anticoagulants
Prophylaxis is defined as: preventative treatment of disease
TPA is a thrombolytic that can be uesd in a stroke code if patient has no exclusion criteria. True or False? True
Generic name for a common oral antiplatelet drug: clopidogrel
Brand name for a common anticonvulsant that can be administered intravenously: Dilantin
Fosamax isan antiosteroporosis hormone like drug (SERMS) that increases bone formation. True or False? False
Diagnoses definition: the act or process of identifying or determining the nature and cause of a disease or injury through evaluation of a patient history, examination, and review of laboratory data.
Treatment definition: the active manner of treating a patient medically or surgically (DO NOT CONFUSE WITH "ACTIVE TREATMENT")
Empiric Treatment definition: medical treatment that is given on the basis of the provider's observations and experience
Prophylactic Treatment definition: a measure taken to maintain health and prevent the spread of disease
Active Treatment definition: treatment directed immediately to the cure of the disease or injury
HEENT stands for: head, eyes, ears, nose, throat
SOAP is an acronym for: subjective data, objective data, assessment and plan
MAR stands for: Medication Administration Record
Christiana Care utilizes the what when recording doses of medications? EMAR, in powerchart
Active Inpatient Medication(s) include: medications patients are prescribed during a hospital stay, which may include some home medications
Vital signs and lab results are examples of subjective data. True or False? False
Benzodiazepines definition: are a common antianxiety class, can lead to dependency and abuse treat general anxiety and panic disorders, phobias treat insomnia, muscle spasms, alcohol withdrawl, seizures
Benzodiazepines commonly given IV or PO for alcohol withdrawl in the hospital setting: lorazepam and diazepam
An example of a non-benzodiazepine: buspirone (BuSpar)
The brand name for alprazolam: Xanax
Brand name muscle relaxant for cyclobenzaprine: Flexeril
Antianxiety drugs are used for: treatment of anxiety
Benzodiazepines are used for: trteatment of anxiety that can lead to dependency and abuse
Non-benzodiazepines are used for: treatment of anxiety, not prone to dependency/abuse
Antispasmodics are used to: relax spastic or rigid muscles
Antidepressants are used for: treatment of depression
Depression effects.... more than 20 million people in the US
Antidepressants are usually not prescribed for: short term blues
Tricyclic Antidepressants definition: inhibiting certain neurotransmitters (norepinephrine, dopamine, serotonin) from being reabsorbed in order to increase levels in the brain
SSRIs definition: inhibit one specific neurotransmitter (serotonin) in order to increase levels in the brain
MAOIs definition: prevents the breakdown of the specific neurotransmitter monoamine, increasing its store
SSRI stands for: Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
MAOIs have what type of side effects? potentially lethal
Pamelor is what drug classification.... tricyclic antidepressant
citalopram is what drug classification .... SSRI
sertraline is what drug classification .... SSRI
bupropion is what drug classification.... tetracyclic compound and other
Cymbalta is what drug classification.... SSRI
Prozac is what drug classification.... SSRI
selegiline patch is what drug classification.... MAOI
Brand name antidepressant that is commonly used to treat nerve pain: Cymbalta
Truths about trazadone: typically used as a sleeping agent brand name is Desyrel can cause priapism in males
Antipsychotic medications treat symptoms such as hallucinations, hyperactivity, and severe antisocial behavior. True or False? True
First major antipsychotic drug: chlorpromazine
A very potent antipsychotic drug: haloperidol
Which antipsychotics require blood level monitoring? lithium and clozapine
sedative/hypnotics definition: depress the CNS and cause drowsiness or sleep
stimulants definition: increase activity
tranquilizers definition: calming effect
What generic drug name can be referred to as and "Anti-Alzheimer" drug? donepezil
Sedatives/hypnotics are typically not abused and used for long periods of time. True or False? False
Brand name sleeping agent commonly prescribed in the hospital as needed for insomnia: Ambien
diphenhydramine Benadryl
certirizine Zyrtec
loratadine Claritin
brompheniramine Robitussin
fexofenadine Allegra
Bronchodilators can be categorized as: Beta-agonist, anticholinergics and theophylline
Bronchodilators are always administered to patients via inhalers and nebs. True or False? False
albuterol is what drug classification: shot-acting beta-agonists
Advair is what drug classification: long-acting beta-agonist
ipratropium is what drug classification: anticholinergic
Combivent is what drug classification: anticholinergic + beta-agonists
Theophylline is a long-acting bronchodilator that can be administered via IV or taken in a pill form. True or False? True
Which government agency determines the medications which can be sold over the counter in the US? FDA
Which organization sets standards for the quality, purity, identity, and strength of medicines, food ingredients, and dietary supplements manufactured? United States Pharmacopeial Convention (USP)
Which website has the US government's approved list prescription drugs?
References in Healthcare rely on evidence-based practice and information. True or False? True
Guide to patient drug information can be found: Medline Plus Lexicomp FDA consumer page
enteral means: intestinal
drugs that are generally adminstered orally: enteral route
has a local desired effect: topical route
drugs that are generally administered via injection: parenteral route
has a systemic effect and is often swallowed: enteral route
has a systemic effect and is NOT swallowed: parenteral route
Otic means eye and also called ocular. True or False? False
carbamide peroxide definition: softens ear wax
antibiotic definition: prevent, inhibit, or attack the infection
The mucus membrane that lines the inner surface of the eyelids and is continued over the forepart of the eyeball: conjunctival
Describes occurring within, or introduced in to the vitreous body of the eye: intravitreal
Which drug class reduces swelling and irritation (inflammation)? corticosteroid
Visine reduces eye redness because it contains a.... vasoconstrictor
Describe nitrous oxide: laughing gas mild anesthetic drug can cause forgetfulness and relaxation
A tube inserted into the trachea to provide or maintain an airway and allow inhalational anesthesia is called a... endotracheal tube
ophthalmic inside the eye
otic pertaining to the ear
vaginal inserted into the vagina
inhalation breathed in
Most drugs administered via the rectum have what type of effect? systemic
Enteral medications are assimilated into the body through the.... gastrointestinal system
Suppositories that treat constipation: glycerin bisacody Dulcolax
Abbreviation XL stands for: extended release
Buccal administration can be defined as: drug is placed under the lip, just above the teeth
A brand name drug used to treat opioid dependence that is administered sublingually is: Subutex
PICC definition: peripherally inserted central catheter
TPN definition: total parenteral nutrition
bolus definition: single, large dose
A bolus is administered slowly over time. True or False? False
Portals for the administration of intravenous drugs: PICC peripheral IV line central venous line
Central IV line has the advantage of.... injecting the drug directly into the heart
A PICC is inserted into a peripheral bein and then threaded to hte superior vena cava or right atrium. True or False? True
Describe an intramuscular route of administration: needle injection directly into a muscle
Describe an intravenous route of administration: needle injection directly into a vein
half life time the total amount of drug diminishes by one half
potency drug's strength
efficacy degree to which a drug can produce a certain effect
metabolism how well the body breaks down the drug
elimination how the drug is eliminated from the body
absorption active ingredients of a drug preparation are dissolved and released into the blood stream
distribution transportation of a drug to other body tissue
Pharmacology is the study of.... source, nature, chemistry, preparation, uses, action and properties of drugs and their effects on living organisms
Pharmaceuticals (medical drugs) do.... prevent diseases diagnose diseases treat diseases relieve pain
Medicines are derived from plants only. True or False? False
FDA stands for: Food and Drug Administration
The US FDA regulates: prescription medications and over the counter medications
The term that specifies the chemical, molecular, or elemental make-up of the drug: chemical name
What drug name is rarely used? chemical name
Tolerance is defined as: drug effect diminish over time
Resistance is defined as: lack of beneficial response
Contraindication is defined as: use of a drug is dangerous and ill advised
Pharmacokinetics describes what the drug does to the body. True or False? False
The term which means a drug interaction where one drug enhances the effect of a second drug substantially is: potentiation
The term which means combination of two similar drugs is equal to the sum of the effects of each is (1+1=2): additive action
Drug Toxicity definition: poisonous and potentially dangerous effects of drugs
Adverse Reactions definition: harmful, unexpected reactions to a drug
Side Effect definition: reactions to or the consequence of taking a particular drug
Anaphylactic Shock definition: can cause death
Allergy definition: hypersensitivity
Created by: wallace263
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