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Immuno Test 2 WVSOM
Flash cards for Immunology Test 2
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Name the 4 ways in which an antibody can nuetralize or eliminate pathogens | Label, lyse, recruit, block |
| Which immunoglobulins do eosinophils bind to | IgG and IgE |
| What is IL-4 used for | maturation of IgE and B cell proliferation |
| TGF-beta is used for what | Immune suppression |
| TNF-alpha is used for what and what is it released by | Brings in nuetrophils and eosinophils and is released by macrophages |
| name the three cells used in ADCC | eosinophils, mmacrophages (monocytes), nuetrophils, and NK's |
| Are killing mechanisms of the macrophages oxygen dependant or independant | dependant |
| Which enzyme in the macrophage killing mechanism is most likely to be deficent | NADPH oxidase |
| Which chemical, released by macrophages, tends to cause tissue damage | hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) |
| What are properties of cytotoxic T-cells | CD8+, work with MHC class I's, and has the FAS ligand that attaches to the FAS receptor on target cell |
| Which chemicals to cytotoxic T-cells release in order to punch holes in bacteria | Perforin and TNF |
| CD3 | found on T-cells, used for proliferation |
| CRP | acute phase reactive protien, becomes elevated in reactions |
| CXCR4 | receptor for chemokines |
| CTLA-4 | used to INACTIVATE T-cells |
| Which cell types do Th2 T-cells cause proliferation of | eosinophils and mast cells |
| Th1 releases INF-gamma, what does this do | maturation of macrophages AND inhibits Th2 T-cells AND makes IgG |
| Which two molecules do NK-cells use to destroy labeled cells | NO, granzyme and perforin |
| CD4 and CD25 | found on regulatory T-cells and used for suppression |
| Which chemokine do NK cells release | INF-gamma for the maturation of macrophages |
| A lack of nuetrophils in the body will present as recurrent infections from what type of agent | fungal |
| List 4 of the functions of INF-gamma | T-cell development, NK cell development, MHC class I activation, and Macrophage development |
| List two of the functions of INF-alpha/beta | MHC class I activation and block viral replication |
| Can an allergy be caused by something that someone HASN'T been exposed to yet | NO |
| What is a hapten | small molecules hat on their own CANNOT initiate a immune response, but bind to other cells (sometimes self) to cause a reaction |
| FceR1 is associated with which hypersensitivity reaction | Type 1 |
| Which cells are FceR1 found on | basophils, macrophages, and mast cells |
| What needs to happen before a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction can occur | APC takes in antigen, presents to Th2 cell, IL4 and IL13 are relased to cause lots of IgE to be madeThere is also a proliferation of B-cells and roduction of antibodies |
| Besides binding of IgE on mast cells, what else is needed to release histamine | cross-linking |
| Wheal and Flare is associated which hypersenesitivity | Type 1 |
| Alergic Rhinitis is only foudn where | NASAL MUCOSA, anywhere else is NOT allergic rhinitis |
| Doe antibiotics have the ability to act as haptens? and what hypersensitivity reaction woudl this cause | YES and Type I |
| Which immunoglobin dominates Type II reactions | IgG (subtype 1 and 3 activate compliment) |
| When are type 2 hypersensitivities seen | blood tranfusions |
| Goodpastures is what type of hyeprsensitivity rxn | type 2 |
| Myasthenia gravis is which type of hypersensitivty | type 2 |
| Coombs and ELISA are used to diagnose which type of hypersensitivity rxn | type 2 |
| Will a single epitope and single antigen be able to form a type 3 hypersensitivity rxn | NO, requires multiples of each one |
| Arthus reaction is what | immune complexes formed OUTSIDE of blood vessels, |
| Serum Sickness is what | immune complexes formed INSIDE blood vessels |
| Hypersensitivity pneumonitis *farmers lung* is which type of hypersensitivity rxn | Type III |
| Raji test is used to diagnose which hypersensitivity | TYpe III |
| What takes place in the sensitization stage of a Type IV | antigen is taken up and presented to the T-cells at the lymph nodes |
| What takes place in the effector stage of a TYpe IV | a second exposure causes a reaction to occur |
| FcyRIII is associated with which hypersensitivity rxn | type 3 |
| What are three mechanims used in immunological tolerance | Clonal deletion, clonal anergy, and supression |
| Is natural clonla deletion 100% effective in out bodies | no |
| Which cell type is primarily responsible for suppression | T-regulators |
| Hypoparathyroidism, canditis, and addisons are all associated with which disease | polygrandular syndrome |
| What is polygrandular symndrome, which hypersensitivity rxns are occuring and when is the the first manisfestation | autoimmune reaction against multiple endocrine glands, Types I II and III and first appears in childhood |
| ANA (antinuclear bodies) are associated with... | Lupus |
| What's occuring in insulin -dependant diabetes | Autoantibodies against beta cells in the islets of langerhans |
| Autoantibodies against ACh receptors cause which disease | myasthenia gravis |
| Rhuematoid Factor | antibody that forms against the Fc region of IgG |
| DMARD's, NSAIDS, steroids, and OMT are all used to treat what | Rhuematoid arthritis |
| Warm antibodies are found at what temps and associated with which immunoglobulin | above 37 and IgG(make up about 70% of hemolytic anemia) |
| Cold antibodies are foudn at what temps and associated with which immunoglobulin | below 37 and IgM |
| Which two autoimmune diseases will result in a hypothyroid state | hashimotos and addisons |
| Which autoimmune state will result in a HYPERthyroid state and why | Graves, due to up regulation of TSH receptors |
| Does Ulcerative colitis progress in a 'patchy' progression | No, moves distal to proximal w/o leaving any areas uncovered |
| Which disease has intermittent patchs of inflammation throughout the GI tract | Crohns |
| Giant cell arteritis, Wegners Granulomatosis and HenochS -Schonlein purpura are all examples of which disease type | Vasculitis |
| Blistering disease of skin and mucos, with autoantibody against keratinocytes | Pemphighus Vulgaris |
| Pulmonary Hemorrage, Glomerulonephritis and rxns against basment membranes | Goodpastures |
| Difference between primary and seocndary immunodeficency | primary = genetic/inheritedsecondary = caused by external factors |
| What is the main presentation of X-linked agammaglobulinemia | lack of mature B-cells |
| Most common immune deficency | IgA |
| Low platelets and eczema are indicatie of? | Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome |
| ADA and PNP deficnecies can lead to what common disorder | SCID |
| A mutated cytokine receptor gamma chain gene coudl cause which immune deficnecy | SCID |
| Triad of congenital heart disease, hypocalcemia, and low T-cells | Degeorge syndrome |
| Difference between extrinsic and intrinsic defects in intracellualr killing by phagocytic cells | Extrinsic = outside of the cell (receptors, compliment etc...)Intrinsic = intercellular mechanisms liek NADPH oxidase |
| Hereditary angioedema is what | defect in compliment, where too much compiment means too much bradykinin, and too much kinin/plasmin |
| Chronic Granulomatus Disease is.... | Lack of NADPH oxidase, onset around 2, recurrent/persistent infections, usually X-linked |
| B2-integrin defect will cause what disease and by what mechanism | Luekocyte adhesion deficency by not allowing nuetrophils to leave the blood stream |
| 'sis' | growth factor, has a GOF mutation |
| erb B, erb B-2, HER2/neu | Growth factor receptors, have GOF mutations |
| ras and Abl | signal transducers, have GOF mutations |
| myc | transcription factor, have GOF mutations |
| bcl-2 | programmed cell death regulator, GOF mutation |
| Rb1 | controls cell division, LOF mutation |
| BRCA1 and BRCA2 | DNA repair genes, have LOF mutation |
| p53 | cell cuicide gene, have LOF mutation |
| PLACenta-specific 1 (PLAC-1) | Tumor specific antigen (means there is for sure cancer) |
| Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) | - tumor assicated, colon cancer |
| Alpha-fetoprotien | - tumor associated, liver cancer |
| CALLA (CD10) | - tumor associated, leukemia |
| Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) | - timor associated, prostate cancer |
| Tyrosinase | - tumor associated, melanoma |
| Ca-125, HE4 | - tumor associated, ovarian |
| Lack of RBC's, WBC's, and high IgG | Plasma cell myeloma, tumor in bone marrow |
| M-band is associated with | Plasma cell myeloma |
| What is Chronic Lymphocytic leukemia | accumulation of clonal B-cells arrested in differentiation. Most common luekemia in western countries |
| Azathioprine | blocks prolifertion of lymphocyte precursors |
| Mycophenolate mofetil | blocks proliferation by inhibting GUANINE neucleotide sythesis |
| Rapamycin | blocks proliferation of lymphocytes by inhibiting IL-2 signaling |
| Corticosteroids | reduce inflammation by inhibiting macrohage cytokine secretion |
| Anti-CD3 monoclonal antibodies | depletes T-cells |
| Anti IL-2 receptor antibody | INhibits T-cell proliferation |
| CTLA-4 Ig | inhibits T-cell activation by blocking B7 costimulator binding to CD28 |
| What are the primary targets in Graft vs Host disease, | GUT, SKIN, LIVER and LUNGS |
| How do cyclosporin and tacrolimus work | block T--cell proliferation by reduction of cytokines |
| What is expressed at low levels on trophoblastic cells | MHC class I's |
| People with Hep C would be given which cytokines in order to stop the infection from spreading | INF - aplha and Beta |
| Difference between active and passive immunization | Active - given part of the virus or other immunological material in order to intiate a responsePassive = preformed antibodies |
| Examples of diseases for which active inmmunization is used | Small pox, HPV, and Polio |
| example of a disease in which preformed antibodes are used | rabies or tetanus |
| What is an Adjuvant | a substance that non-specifically enhances the immune response to an antigen |
| What is the site of respiration in bacteria | cell membrane |
| What is an inclusion body | storage granules and gas vacuoles |
| Lysosomes reside where in the bacteria | cell wall |
| PCN, cephalsporin, and vancomycin all target what in a bacteria | cell wall |
| Do gram positive bacteria have endotoxins? Can they cause shock | no and yes |
| Porins are seen on gram positive or negative | Only on gram negatives |
| What color does the gram positive bacteria stain | purple |
| Give an example of Wall-less bacteria | mycoplasma |
| Give an exmaple of Acid Fast bacteria | mycobacteria |
| Sprial bacteria are gram negative or gram positive | gram negative |
| how quickly can a new generation of baceria be made | every 20min |
| Chemiosmosis is seen as what in bacteria | protons that are ejected out of the cell druing respiration, which then create a enerygy gradient which drives protons back into the cell and generates ATP |
| When the cell needs reducing power, which molecule becomes hydrolyzed | ATP |
| What are facultative anerobes | grow anerobically w/o oxygen and aerobically w/ oxygen |
| Aerotolerant refers to | bacteria that will tolerate oxygen but grow fermentatively |
| Neisseria and pseudomonas | strict aerobes |
| clostirdium | oligate anaerobes |
| E. Coli | facultative anaerobes that require some ammonium salt to grow |
| Strepptococcus | aertolerant and require a complex medium to grow on |
| Which molecule is reponsible for activating NAM and NAG | UDP (uridine diphosphate) |
| Autolysins | break glycosidic bonds of the ppg and peptide cross links |
| Transglycosidases | insert and link monomers into the new ppg |
| Tranpeptidases | reform peptide links |
| Bacteria secrete siderophores for what reason | iron chelating compounds to bring in iron |
| B-lactams (penecillin, cephlasporin, and carbepenems) | stop the transpeptidases from working and thus last binding step cannot occur |
| Vancomycin | bind to peptdes of ppg monomers and block transglycosiases |
| Bacitracin | blocks dephosphorylation of bactoprenol phophates |
| Cycloserine | blocks addtion of dipeptide to UDP-NAM |
| Fosfomycin | prevents NAM from forming |
| Tetracycline and Aminoglycosides | 30s inhibitors |
| Macroludes and chloramphenicol | 502 inhibitors |
| Polymixins | Interact with phopholipids and destory cytoplamsmic membrane |
| Trimethoprim and Sulfonamides | Both are folate antagonsit |
| Rifampin | targets RNA synthesis by binding to RNA polymerase |
| Fluoroquinolones and Metronidazole | target DNA synthesisMetronidazle is for annerbic conditions |
| Which gene transfer method picks up free genes from the environment | transformation |
| which gene transfer method uses a formed pilae to tranfer genetic material | conjugation |
| which gene tranfer method uses viral plasmids to transfer genetic information | transduction |
| B-lactamase and aminoglycoside both under go what process by antibiotic resistant bacteria | degredation |
| Tetracycline undergoes what process caused by resistant bacteria | ejection via an efflux pump |
| Cephlasporin is rejected by resistant bacteria by what mechanism | reduced uptake |
| An overproduction of target receptors by bacteria effects the usefulness of which drug | sulfonamides |
| Macrophages release which two IL's and what do they do | IL-12 and IL-18m which activate NK cells |
| What percentage of the population in industrialized countries is afflicted with allergies | 25-30% |
| Which allergy form is the most common and biggest money maker in pharmacueticals | Type 1 |
| In a type one reaction, which IL's are released by the mast cell and what d they cause | IL4 - more IgE IL5 - B-cell gorwthIL6 - inflammatory mediator IL8 and IL9 - LATE stage inflammtory mediators |
| Which has a longer life, mucosal or connective tissue mast cells | connective tissue, also have more histamine |
| What is the major cell type in LATE PHASE type 1 reactions | eosinophils |
| Type 2 anti-Desmoglein 3 reactions are responsible for what disease | Pemphigus |
| Elisa and Coombs test are used to diagnose which hypersensitivity | TYpe 2 |
| While a Type 1 (histamine response) will be blanchable, which hypersensitivity rxn will be NON-blanchable | Type 3 |
| The immune complexs formed in a Type 3 will cause the aggragation of platelets and release of lysosomal enzymes which have what effect on endothelial cells | Causes them to shrink and/or contractOverall increases vascular permiability |
| endocarditis, malaria, leprosy and SLE can all lead to which hypersensitivity rxn | Type 3 |
| granular anti- immunoglobulin immunofluorescence staining is used to diagnose which hypersensitivity | Type 3 |
| Mantoux PPD testing is done for which hypersensitivity rxn | type 4 |
| May be rapidly fatalIg and complement deposits commonPlasma exchange and corticosteroids - plasma exchange can help ‘dilute’ out the reactive antibodies | Goodpastures |
| Primarily effects facial muscles, mastication, expression muscles, and swallowing | Myashthenia Gravis |
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lowryc
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