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Immuno Test 2 WVSOM

Flash cards for Immunology Test 2

Name the 4 ways in which an antibody can nuetralize or eliminate pathogens Label, lyse, recruit, block
Which immunoglobulins do eosinophils bind to IgG and IgE
What is IL-4 used for maturation of IgE and B cell proliferation
TGF-beta is used for what Immune suppression
TNF-alpha is used for what and what is it released by Brings in nuetrophils and eosinophils and is released by macrophages
name the three cells used in ADCC eosinophils, mmacrophages (monocytes), nuetrophils, and NK's
Are killing mechanisms of the macrophages oxygen dependant or independant dependant
Which enzyme in the macrophage killing mechanism is most likely to be deficent NADPH oxidase
Which chemical, released by macrophages, tends to cause tissue damage hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
What are properties of cytotoxic T-cells CD8+, work with MHC class I's, and has the FAS ligand that attaches to the FAS receptor on target cell
Which chemicals to cytotoxic T-cells release in order to punch holes in bacteria Perforin and TNF
CD3 found on T-cells, used for proliferation
CRP acute phase reactive protien, becomes elevated in reactions
CXCR4 receptor for chemokines
CTLA-4 used to INACTIVATE T-cells
Which cell types do Th2 T-cells cause proliferation of eosinophils and mast cells
Th1 releases INF-gamma, what does this do maturation of macrophages AND inhibits Th2 T-cells AND makes IgG
Which two molecules do NK-cells use to destroy labeled cells NO, granzyme and perforin
CD4 and CD25 found on regulatory T-cells and used for suppression
Which chemokine do NK cells release INF-gamma for the maturation of macrophages
A lack of nuetrophils in the body will present as recurrent infections from what type of agent fungal
List 4 of the functions of INF-gamma T-cell development, NK cell development, MHC class I activation, and Macrophage development
List two of the functions of INF-alpha/beta MHC class I activation and block viral replication
Can an allergy be caused by something that someone HASN'T been exposed to yet NO
What is a hapten small molecules hat on their own CANNOT initiate a immune response, but bind to other cells (sometimes self) to cause a reaction
FceR1 is associated with which hypersensitivity reaction Type 1
Which cells are FceR1 found on basophils, macrophages, and mast cells
What needs to happen before a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction can occur APC takes in antigen, presents to Th2 cell, IL4 and IL13 are relased to cause lots of IgE to be madeThere is also a proliferation of B-cells and roduction of antibodies
Besides binding of IgE on mast cells, what else is needed to release histamine cross-linking
Wheal and Flare is associated which hypersenesitivity Type 1
Alergic Rhinitis is only foudn where NASAL MUCOSA, anywhere else is NOT allergic rhinitis
Doe antibiotics have the ability to act as haptens? and what hypersensitivity reaction woudl this cause YES and Type I
Which immunoglobin dominates Type II reactions IgG (subtype 1 and 3 activate compliment)
When are type 2 hypersensitivities seen blood tranfusions
Goodpastures is what type of hyeprsensitivity rxn type 2
Myasthenia gravis is which type of hypersensitivty type 2
Coombs and ELISA are used to diagnose which type of hypersensitivity rxn type 2
Will a single epitope and single antigen be able to form a type 3 hypersensitivity rxn NO, requires multiples of each one
Arthus reaction is what immune complexes formed OUTSIDE of blood vessels,
Serum Sickness is what immune complexes formed INSIDE blood vessels
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis *farmers lung* is which type of hypersensitivity rxn Type III
Raji test is used to diagnose which hypersensitivity TYpe III
What takes place in the sensitization stage of a Type IV antigen is taken up and presented to the T-cells at the lymph nodes
What takes place in the effector stage of a TYpe IV a second exposure causes a reaction to occur
FcyRIII is associated with which hypersensitivity rxn type 3
What are three mechanims used in immunological tolerance Clonal deletion, clonal anergy, and supression
Is natural clonla deletion 100% effective in out bodies no
Which cell type is primarily responsible for suppression T-regulators
Hypoparathyroidism, canditis, and addisons are all associated with which disease polygrandular syndrome
What is polygrandular symndrome, which hypersensitivity rxns are occuring and when is the the first manisfestation autoimmune reaction against multiple endocrine glands, Types I II and III and first appears in childhood
ANA (antinuclear bodies) are associated with... Lupus
What's occuring in insulin -dependant diabetes Autoantibodies against beta cells in the islets of langerhans
Autoantibodies against ACh receptors cause which disease myasthenia gravis
Rhuematoid Factor antibody that forms against the Fc region of IgG
DMARD's, NSAIDS, steroids, and OMT are all used to treat what Rhuematoid arthritis
Warm antibodies are found at what temps and associated with which immunoglobulin above 37 and IgG(make up about 70% of hemolytic anemia)
Cold antibodies are foudn at what temps and associated with which immunoglobulin below 37 and IgM
Which two autoimmune diseases will result in a hypothyroid state hashimotos and addisons
Which autoimmune state will result in a HYPERthyroid state and why Graves, due to up regulation of TSH receptors
Does Ulcerative colitis progress in a 'patchy' progression No, moves distal to proximal w/o leaving any areas uncovered
Which disease has intermittent patchs of inflammation throughout the GI tract Crohns
Giant cell arteritis, Wegners Granulomatosis and HenochS -Schonlein purpura are all examples of which disease type Vasculitis
Blistering disease of skin and mucos, with autoantibody against keratinocytes Pemphighus Vulgaris
Pulmonary Hemorrage, Glomerulonephritis and rxns against basment membranes Goodpastures
Difference between primary and seocndary immunodeficency primary = genetic/inheritedsecondary = caused by external factors
What is the main presentation of X-linked agammaglobulinemia lack of mature B-cells
Most common immune deficency IgA
Low platelets and eczema are indicatie of? Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
ADA and PNP deficnecies can lead to what common disorder SCID
A mutated cytokine receptor gamma chain gene coudl cause which immune deficnecy SCID
Triad of congenital heart disease, hypocalcemia, and low T-cells Degeorge syndrome
Difference between extrinsic and intrinsic defects in intracellualr killing by phagocytic cells Extrinsic = outside of the cell (receptors, compliment etc...)Intrinsic = intercellular mechanisms liek NADPH oxidase
Hereditary angioedema is what defect in compliment, where too much compiment means too much bradykinin, and too much kinin/plasmin
Chronic Granulomatus Disease is.... Lack of NADPH oxidase, onset around 2, recurrent/persistent infections, usually X-linked
B2-integrin defect will cause what disease and by what mechanism Luekocyte adhesion deficency by not allowing nuetrophils to leave the blood stream
'sis' growth factor, has a GOF mutation
erb B, erb B-2, HER2/neu Growth factor receptors, have GOF mutations
ras and Abl signal transducers, have GOF mutations
myc transcription factor, have GOF mutations
bcl-2 programmed cell death regulator, GOF mutation
Rb1 controls cell division, LOF mutation
BRCA1 and BRCA2 DNA repair genes, have LOF mutation
p53 cell cuicide gene, have LOF mutation
PLACenta-specific 1 (PLAC-1) Tumor specific antigen (means there is for sure cancer)
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) - tumor assicated, colon cancer
Alpha-fetoprotien - tumor associated, liver cancer
CALLA (CD10) - tumor associated, leukemia
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) - timor associated, prostate cancer
Tyrosinase - tumor associated, melanoma
Ca-125, HE4 - tumor associated, ovarian
Lack of RBC's, WBC's, and high IgG Plasma cell myeloma, tumor in bone marrow
M-band is associated with Plasma cell myeloma
What is Chronic Lymphocytic leukemia accumulation of clonal B-cells arrested in differentiation. Most common luekemia in western countries
Azathioprine blocks prolifertion of lymphocyte precursors
Mycophenolate mofetil blocks proliferation by inhibting GUANINE neucleotide sythesis
Rapamycin blocks proliferation of lymphocytes by inhibiting IL-2 signaling
Corticosteroids reduce inflammation by inhibiting macrohage cytokine secretion
Anti-CD3 monoclonal antibodies depletes T-cells
Anti IL-2 receptor antibody INhibits T-cell proliferation
CTLA-4 Ig inhibits T-cell activation by blocking B7 costimulator binding to CD28
What are the primary targets in Graft vs Host disease, GUT, SKIN, LIVER and LUNGS
How do cyclosporin and tacrolimus work block T--cell proliferation by reduction of cytokines
What is expressed at low levels on trophoblastic cells MHC class I's
People with Hep C would be given which cytokines in order to stop the infection from spreading INF - aplha and Beta
Difference between active and passive immunization Active - given part of the virus or other immunological material in order to intiate a responsePassive = preformed antibodies
Examples of diseases for which active inmmunization is used Small pox, HPV, and Polio
example of a disease in which preformed antibodes are used rabies or tetanus
What is an Adjuvant a substance that non-specifically enhances the immune response to an antigen
What is the site of respiration in bacteria cell membrane
What is an inclusion body storage granules and gas vacuoles
Lysosomes reside where in the bacteria cell wall
PCN, cephalsporin, and vancomycin all target what in a bacteria cell wall
Do gram positive bacteria have endotoxins? Can they cause shock no and yes
Porins are seen on gram positive or negative Only on gram negatives
What color does the gram positive bacteria stain purple
Give an example of Wall-less bacteria mycoplasma
Give an exmaple of Acid Fast bacteria mycobacteria
Sprial bacteria are gram negative or gram positive gram negative
how quickly can a new generation of baceria be made every 20min
Chemiosmosis is seen as what in bacteria protons that are ejected out of the cell druing respiration, which then create a enerygy gradient which drives protons back into the cell and generates ATP
When the cell needs reducing power, which molecule becomes hydrolyzed ATP
What are facultative anerobes grow anerobically w/o oxygen and aerobically w/ oxygen
Aerotolerant refers to bacteria that will tolerate oxygen but grow fermentatively
Neisseria and pseudomonas strict aerobes
clostirdium oligate anaerobes
E. Coli facultative anaerobes that require some ammonium salt to grow
Strepptococcus aertolerant and require a complex medium to grow on
Which molecule is reponsible for activating NAM and NAG UDP (uridine diphosphate)
Autolysins break glycosidic bonds of the ppg and peptide cross links
Transglycosidases insert and link monomers into the new ppg
Tranpeptidases reform peptide links
Bacteria secrete siderophores for what reason iron chelating compounds to bring in iron
B-lactams (penecillin, cephlasporin, and carbepenems) stop the transpeptidases from working and thus last binding step cannot occur
Vancomycin bind to peptdes of ppg monomers and block transglycosiases
Bacitracin blocks dephosphorylation of bactoprenol phophates
Cycloserine blocks addtion of dipeptide to UDP-NAM
Fosfomycin prevents NAM from forming
Tetracycline and Aminoglycosides 30s inhibitors
Macroludes and chloramphenicol 502 inhibitors
Polymixins Interact with phopholipids and destory cytoplamsmic membrane
Trimethoprim and Sulfonamides Both are folate antagonsit
Rifampin targets RNA synthesis by binding to RNA polymerase
Fluoroquinolones and Metronidazole target DNA synthesisMetronidazle is for annerbic conditions
Which gene transfer method picks up free genes from the environment transformation
which gene transfer method uses a formed pilae to tranfer genetic material conjugation
which gene tranfer method uses viral plasmids to transfer genetic information transduction
B-lactamase and aminoglycoside both under go what process by antibiotic resistant bacteria degredation
Tetracycline undergoes what process caused by resistant bacteria ejection via an efflux pump
Cephlasporin is rejected by resistant bacteria by what mechanism reduced uptake
An overproduction of target receptors by bacteria effects the usefulness of which drug sulfonamides
Macrophages release which two IL's and what do they do IL-12 and IL-18m which activate NK cells
What percentage of the population in industrialized countries is afflicted with allergies 25-30%
Which allergy form is the most common and biggest money maker in pharmacueticals Type 1
In a type one reaction, which IL's are released by the mast cell and what d they cause IL4 - more IgE IL5 - B-cell gorwthIL6 - inflammatory mediator IL8 and IL9 - LATE stage inflammtory mediators
Which has a longer life, mucosal or connective tissue mast cells connective tissue, also have more histamine
What is the major cell type in LATE PHASE type 1 reactions eosinophils
Type 2 anti-Desmoglein 3 reactions are responsible for what disease Pemphigus
Elisa and Coombs test are used to diagnose which hypersensitivity TYpe 2
While a Type 1 (histamine response) will be blanchable, which hypersensitivity rxn will be NON-blanchable Type 3
The immune complexs formed in a Type 3 will cause the aggragation of platelets and release of lysosomal enzymes which have what effect on endothelial cells Causes them to shrink and/or contractOverall increases vascular permiability
endocarditis, malaria, leprosy and SLE can all lead to which hypersensitivity rxn Type 3
granular anti- immunoglobulin immunofluorescence staining is used to diagnose which hypersensitivity Type 3
Mantoux PPD testing is done for which hypersensitivity rxn type 4
May be rapidly fatalIg and complement deposits commonPlasma exchange and corticosteroids - plasma exchange can help ‘dilute’ out the reactive antibodies Goodpastures
Primarily effects facial muscles, mastication, expression muscles, and swallowing Myashthenia Gravis
Created by: lowryc